Mock Exam - Powerplant - 2016

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Aeronautical Engineering Review Course 2016

Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

Question and Choices 7. On a twin spool engine, where would the air go next
after the combustor?
1. Highest Thrust Setting without time limitation
a. LPC
a. Max. Take-off thrust b. HPC
b. Max. Go-around thrust c. LPT
c. Max. Continuous thrust d. HPT
d. Max. Climb thrust
8. On a twin-spool engine, which is commonly rotated
2. Which statement is true with regards to Thrust? by the last stage turbine?

a. Thrust increases when mass of air entering the a. The fan


engine increases and when the acceleration of b. LPC and the Fan
the air through the engine decreases c. HPC and accessories
b. Thrust increases when mass of air entering the d. LPC and HPC
engine increases and when the acceleration of
the air through the engine increases 9. Which thermodynamic cycle explains how a
c. Thrust increases when mass of air entering the turbojet engine operates?
engine decreases and when the acceleration of
the air through the engine increases a. Otto cycle
d. Thrust increases when mass of air entering the b. Carnot cycle
engine decreases and when the acceleration of c. Brayton cycle
the air through the engine decreases d. Diesel Cycle

3. Fo e e y fo e, the e’s an e ual and opposite 10. Which parameter/s is/are used to represent thrust
ea tion on most dual-spool gas turbine engines?

a. Ne ton’s Fi st La of Motion a. N1
b. Ne ton’s “e ond La of Motion b. N2 or EPR
c. Ne ton’s Thi d La of Motion c. N1 or EPR
d. Ideal gas law d. N1 or N2

4. In the P-V diagram of the Brayton Cycle, which 11. It is the ratio of the mass of secondary air to the
parameter is constant? mass of primary air

a. Pressure a. Bypass ratio


b. Volume b. Stoichiometric ratio
c. Temperature c. Aspect ratio
d. Entropy d. Relative wind ratio

5. Provided the engine speed is kept constant, which 12. What is the main advantage of centrifugal flow
condition would increase Thrust? compressor over axial flow compressor?

a. Increase in ambient Temperature a. The drag


b. Increase in ambient Pressure b. The over-all pressure ratio
c. Decrease in air density c. The number of stages
d. Increase in Altitude d. The increase in pressure per stage

6. Which of the following condition would produce the 13. Which compressor control system component
highest thrust? protects the LPC by venting the air during low
power operation?
a. high acceleration of a small amount of air
b. low acceleration of a large amount of air a. VSV
c. high acceleration of a large amount of air b. VBV
d. low acceleration of a small amount of air c. c. HP compressor bleed valve
d. d. LP turbine bleed valve

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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

14. What happens to the air when it passes through a a. Impingement cooling
turbine nozzle guide vane? b. Splash cooling
c. Film cooling
a. It slows down due to the convergent shape d. Convection cooling
b. It speeds up due to the convergent shape
c. It slows down due to the divergent shape 21. Which component prevents cavitation at the inlet of
d. It speeds up due to the divergent shape the high pressure fuel pump?

15. Which statement is true with regards to thrust a. Fuel boost pumps in the tank
reversers? b. Low pressure fuel pump
a. Thrust reversers are used to fly in the reverse c. LP fuel shut-off valve
direction d. Positive air pressure from ram air
b. Full Reverse thrust can be applied immediately
after touchdown 22. Which control lever is used on engines equipped
c. Thrust reversers can be applied on just one with hydromechanical fuel control unit to open the
engine for turning fuel valves and starts the ignition?
d. Thrust reversers are used to assist the brakes in
stopping the aircraft on ground a. Forward thrust lever
b. Start lever
16. Which component of the lubrication system triggers c. Reverse thrust lever
a warning when system pressure drops below a d. Master switch
specified level?
23. Which group of engine indications helps detect
a. The pressure transmitter problems at an early stage?
b. The pressure switch
c. The bypass filter a. Performance indication
d. The pressure gage b. System indication
c. Engine trend monitoring
17. Fuel with high flash point d. Oil consumption, EGT, N1 and EPR

a. Provides good ignition capabilities 24. What does the thrust reverser interlock system do?
b. Is safe for handling
c. Has low freezing point a. It prevents deployment of the reverser if the
d. Has high density opposite reverser does not deploy
b. It prevents the engine from increasing power
18. What prevents fuel from vaporizing inside the tanks until the reverser is fully deployed
when the aircraft is at high altitude? c. It prevents the reverser from deploying while in
flight
a. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the d. It prevents the reverser from deploying when a
fuel from the engine fault is detected in the system
b. Positive air pressure on the top surface of the
fuel from ram air 25. Which statement is true with regards to heat
c. Negative air pressure on the top surface of the exchangers?
fuel from the pneumatic system
d. Negative pressure on the top surface of the fuel a. Air is used to cool the oil using a heat exchanger
from ram air b. Fuel heats up while the oil cools down in a heat
exchanger
19. Which accessory is not found in an APU? c. Oil heats up while the fuel cools down in a heat
exchanger
a. Fuel pump d. Fuel and oil mixes inside a heat exchanger then
b. Oil pump separates when it leaves
c. Electric generator
d. Hydraulic pump 26. Which type of jet engine incorporates movable
vanes that cause an intermittent entry of air inside
20. Which cooling method is mainly used to protect the the engine?
inner liner of the combustor from the intense heat a. Gas turbine engine
of the combustion gases? b. Rocket
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

c. Pulse jet 33. Which component experiences the highest heat-to-


d. Ram jet metal contact in a jet engine?

27. What happens to pressure of supersonic air when it a. Combustor


flows through a convergent nozzle? b. Ignition Plug
c. Fuel Nozzle
a. It increases d. Turbine blades
b. It decreases
c. It remains constant 34. During engine deceleration or shutdown, which
d. It fluctuates would contract first, the rotors or the casing?

28. When the engine is running on ground and the a. The rotors because of the reduction in
aircraft is not moving, what would be the pressure centrifugal force
at the inlet section? b. The rotors because of the thermal contraction
c. The casing because of the reduction in
a. Lower than ambient centrifugal force
b. Higher than ambient d. The casing because of the thermal contraction
c. Same as ambient
d. Inlet pressure is not affected by ambient 35. What happens when there is a leak in the fuel-oil
pressure heat exchanger?

29. How is anti-ice performed on the air intake nose? a. The fuel will contaminate the oil
b. The oil will contaminate the fuel
a. By electrical heaters c. Both fuel and oil will be contaminated
b. By pneumatic boots d. No contamination since both fluid have the
c. By spraying anti-ice fluid same pressure
d. By spraying hot gas
36. What section is designed to slow down the velocity
30. How are compressor stages counted? of air going into the combustion chamber?

a. Counting a rotor followed by a stator is one a. Inlet section


compressor stage b. Compressor section
b. Counting a stator followed by a rotor is one c. Diffuser section
compressor stage d. . Convergent section
c. One lade hethe it’s a oto o a stato is one
compressor stage 37. Which statement is true with regards to air pressure
d. A pair of rotor and stator is one compressor in the Inlet section during engine operation?
stage no matter which one is counted first
a. The air pressure in the inlet section is always
31. What are the two main elements of a centrifugal lower than ambient
flow compressor? b. The air pressure in the inlet section is always
higher than ambient
a. Rotor and stator c. The air pressure in the inlet section is lower
b. Impeller and diffuser than ambient when the aircraft is moving
c. Rotor and diffuser d. The air pressure in the inlet section is lower
d. Impeller and rotor than ambient when the aircraft is not moving

32. What type of damage may happen on turbine rotor 38. What happens to the lubrication system when the
blades due to high temperature and high centrifugal main filter gets clogged?
forces?
a. Oil will stop flowing
a. Elongation b. Oil will continue to flow
b. Cavitation c. Oil will flow thru the bypass valve
c. Erosion d. Oil will go in the reverse direction
d. Creep
39. Which statement is true with regards to oil
viscosity?
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

a. Oxidation does not affect viscosity a. Magnetic carbon seals


b. Oil pressure greatly affects viscosity b. Spring-loaded carbon seals
c. Oil viscosity decreases when oil temperature c. Labyrinth seals
increases d. O-ring
d. Oil viscosity increases when oil temperature
increases 46. What would be the effect of an oil pressure relief
valve getting stuck in the open position?
40. Which part of an axial flow compressor would static
pressure increase? a. High oil pressure will develop
b. Oil pressure will not develop sufficiently to
a. The rotors lubricate
b. The stators c. Oil will leak externally
c. The Low Pressure Compressor d. Normal operation, oil will just return to the tank
d. Both in the rotors and stators
47. Which statement is true regarding bearings used in
41. What is the advantage of double face impeller over high-powered reciprocating aircraft engines?
a single face impeller?
a. The outer race of a single-row, self-aligning ball
bearing will always have a radius equal to the
a. It has a higher volume of air radius of the balls.
b. It has higher pressure ratio b. There is less rolling friction when ball bearings
c. It is lighter in weight are used than when roller bearings are employed.
d. It has higher strength c. Crankshaft bearings are generally of the ball-
type due to their ability to withstand extreme
loads without overheating.
42. What happens to the airflow as it enters the
combustion chamber? 48. What is the principal advantage of using
propeller reduction gears?
a. A big part of it is mixed with fuel and burned
while the smaller part is used to cool the metal a. To enable the propeller RPM to be
increased without an accompanying
components
increase in engine RPM.
b. A small part of it is mixed with fuel and burned b. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with
while the bigger part is used to cool the metal an accompanying increase in power and allow the
components propeller to remain at a lower, more efficient
c. All of it is mixed with fuel and burned RPM.
d. All of it is used to cool the metal components c. To enable the engine RPM to be increased with
an accompanying increase in propeller RPM.
43. What is the shape formed between the rotor blades 49. Which of the following will decrease volumetric effi-
of an impulse type of turbine? ciency in a reciprocating engine?
1. Full throttle operation.
a. Convergent 2. Low cylinder head temperatures.
b. Divergent 3. Improper valve timing.
c. Convergent-Divergent 4. Sharp bends in the induction system.
d. Area is constant 5. High carburetor air temperatures.
a. 2, 4, and 5.
44. What danger exist if thrust reversers are operated b. 1,2, 3, and 4.
at low engine speed? c. 3, 4, and 5.

a. Problems with directional stability 50. Which of the following is a characteristic of a thrust
b. Possibility of ingesting its own exhaust bearing used in most radial engines?
a. Tapered roller.
c. Ineffective braking b. Double-row ball.
d. High EGT c. Deep-groove ball.

51. Which bearing is least likely to be a roller or ball


bearing?
a. Rocker arm bearing (overhead valve
engine).
45. What type of seal is used to seal the oil in a bearing
b. Master rod bearing (radial engine).
sump? c. Crankshaft main bearing (radial engine).
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

b. Roller
52. The operating temperature valve clearance of a radial c. Ball.
engine as compared to cold valve clearance is
a. Greater 60. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an
b. Less aircraft engine is called
c. The same
a. friction horsepower.
b. brake horsepower.
53. A nine-cylinder engine with a bore of 5.5 inches and a c. indicated horsepower.
stroke of 6 inches will have a total piston
displacement of 61. Cam-ground pistons are installed in some aircraft
a. 740 cubic inches engines to
b. 1,425 cubic inches. a. provide a better fit at operating temperatures.
c. 1,283 cubic inches. b. act as a compensating feature so that a
compensated magneto is not required.
c. equalize the wear on all pistons.
54. The five events of a four-stroke cycle engine in the
order of their occurrence are
62. Using the following information, determine how
many degrees the crankshaft will rotate with
a. intake, ignition, compression, power, exhaust. both the intake and exhaust valves seated:
b. intake, power, compression, ignition, exhaust.
c. intake, compression, ignition, power, exhaust. Intake opens 155 BTDC.
Exhaust opens 705
BBDC. Intake closes 455
55. The primary concern in establishing the firing order ABDC. Exhaust closes
for an opposed engine is to 105 ATDC.
a. provide for balance and eliminate vibration to a. 2905.
the greatest extent possible. b. 52455.
b. keep power impulses on adjacent cylinders as c. 255.
far apart as possible in order to obtain the
greatest mechanical efficiency. 63. Some aircraft engine manufacturers equip their
c. keep the power impulses on adjacent cylinders product with choked or taper-ground cylinders in
as close as possible in order to obtain the order to
greatest mechanical efficiency. a. provide a straight cylinder bore at operating
temperatures.
56. If fuel/air ratio is proper and ignition timing is correct, b. flex the rings slightly during operation and
the combustion process should be completed reduce the possibility of the rings sticking in the
a. 20 to 305 before top center at the end of the grooves.
compression stroke. c. increase the compression pressure for starting
b. when the exhaust valve opens at the end of the purposes.
power stroke.
c. just after top center at the beginning of the
power stroke. 64. An aircraft reciprocating engine using hydraulic
valve lifters is observed to have no clearance in
its valve-operating mechanism after the
57. Which statement is correct regarding engine minimum inlet oil and cylinder head
crankshafts? temperatures for takeoff have been
a. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the reached. When can this condition be expected?
torsional vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating a. During normal operation.
engine. b. When the lifters become deflated.
b. Moveable counterweights serve to reduce the c. As a result of carbon and sludge becoming
dynamic vibrations in an aircraft reciprocating trapped in the lifter and restricting its motion.
engine.
c. Moveable counterweights are designed to
resonate at the natural frequency of the 65. If an engine with a stroke of 6 inches is operated at
crankshaft. 2,000 RPM, the piston movement within the cylinder
will be
a. at maximum velocity around TDC.
b. constant during the entire 3605 of crankshaft travel.
58. On which strokes are both valves on a four-stroke c. at maximum velocity 905 after TDC.
cycle reciprocating engine open?
a. Power and exhaust.
b. Intake and compression. 66. Some cylinder barrels are hardened by
c. Exhaust and intake. a. nitriding.
b. shot peening.
c. tempering.
59. Master rod bearings are generally what type?
a. Plain.
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

67. Which statement is correct regarding a four-stroke


cycle aircraft engine? 75. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow
a. The intake valve closes on the compression stroke. motion between the pin and
b. The exhaust valve opens on the exhaust stroke. a. the piston.
c. The intake valve closes on the intake stroke. b. both the piston and the large end of the connect-
ing rod.
c. both the piston and the small end of the connect-
68. When is the fuel/air mixture ignited in a conventional ing rod.
reciprocating engine?
a. When the piston has reached top dead center of 76. The primary purpose in setting proper valve timing
the intake stroke. and overlap is to
b. Shortly before the piston reaches the top of the a. permit the best possible charge of fuel/air mixture
compression stroke. into the cylinders.
c. When the piston reaches top dead center on the b. gain more thorough exhaust gas scavenging.
compression stroke. c. obtain the best volumetric efficiency and lower
cylinder operating temperatures.

69. Ignition occurs at 286 BTDC on a certain four-stroke 77. If the hot clearance is used to set the valves when
cycle engine, and the intake valve opens at 156 BTDC. the engine is cold, what will occur during operation of
How many degrees of crankshaft travel after ignition the engine?
does the intake valve open? (Consider one cylinder a. The valves will open early and close early.
only.) : b. The valves will open late and close early.
a. 7076. c. The valves will open early and close late.
b. 3736.
c. 63476. 78. The purpose of two or more valve springs in
aircraft engines is to
70. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on a. equalize side pressure on the valve stems.
some valve stems? b. eliminate valve spring surge.
a. To hold the valve guide in position. c. equalize valve face loading.
b. To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position.
c. 6To prevent valves from falling into the combustion 79. Why does the smoothness of operation of an engine
chamber. increase with a greater number of cylinders?
a. The power impulses are spaced closer together.
71. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of b. The power impulses are spaced farther apart.
crankshaft travel c. The engine has larger counterbalance weights.
a. during which both valves are off their seats.
b. between the closing of the intake valve and the
opening of the exhaust valve. 80. Compression ratio is the ratio between the
c. during which both valves are on their seats. a. piston travel on the compression stroke and on the
intake stroke.
b. combustion chamber pressure on the combustion
72. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic stroke and on the exhaust stroke.
lifters, when the lifters are completely flat, or empty, c. cylinder volume with piston at bottom dead center
should not exceed and at top dead center.
a. specified amount below zero.
b. a specified amount above zero.
c. 60.00 inch. 81. How is proper end-gap clearance on new piston rings
assured during the overhaul of an engine?
a. By accurately measuring and matching the outside
73. If the exhaust valve of a four-stroke cycle engine is
diameter of the rings with the inside diameter of the
closed and the intake valve is just closed, the piston is
cylinders.
on the
b. By using rings specified by the engine manufacturer.
a. intake stroke.
c. By placing the rings in the cylinder and measuring
b. power stroke.
the end-gap with a feeler gauge.
c. compression stroke.

74. How many of the following are factors in establishing 82. The volume of a cylinder equals 70 cubic inches when
the maximum compression ratio limitations of an the piston is at bottom center. When the piston is at
aircraft engine? the top of the cylinder, the volume equals 10 cubic
inches. What is the compression ratio?
1. Detonation characteristics of the fuel used. a. 1:7
2. Design limitations of the engine. b. 67:10.
3. Degree of supercharging.
c. 67:1.
4. Spark plug reach.
a. Four. 83. What will be the likely result if the piston ring gaps
b. Two. happen to be aligned when performing a differential-
c. Three. pressure compression check on a cylinder?
a. Little or no effect.
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

b. The rings will not be seated. a. Reduced valve overlap period.


c. A worn or defective ring(s) indication. b. Intake and exhaust valves will open early and close
late.
84. A condition that can occur in radial engines but is c. A power increase by shortening the exhaust event.
unlikely to occur in horizontally opposed engines is
a. valve overlap. 92. Which of the following would indicate a general
b. zero valve clearance. weak-engine condition when operated with a fixed-
c. hydraulic lock. pitch propeller or test club?
a. A 7 Lower than normal static RPM, full throttle oper-
ation.
85. If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of b. B 7 Manifold pressure lower at idle RPM than at sta-
operation of a four-stroke cycle engine, it may result tic RPM.
in c. C 7 Lower than normal manifold pressure for any
a. improper scavenging of exhaust gases. given RPM.
b. engine kickback.
c. backfiring into the induction system. 93. What is required by 14 CFR Part 43 appendix D when
performing an annual/100-hour inspection on a recip-
86. On which part of the cylinder walls of a normally rocating engine aircraft?
operating engine will the greatest amount of wear a. A 7 Magneto timing check.
occur? b. B 7 Cylinder compression check.
c. C 7 Valve clearance check.
a. Near the center of the cylinder where piston
velocity is greatest. 94. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been
b. Near the top of the cylinder. serviced, in what position should they be reinstalled?
c. Wear is normally evenly distributed. a. A 7 Next in firing order to the one from which they
were removed.
b. Swapped bottom to top.
87. During overhaul, reciprocating engine exhaust valves c. Next in firing order to the one from which they were
are checked for stretch removed and swapped bottom to top.
a. with a suitable inside spring caliper.
b. with a contour or radius gauge. 95. As the pressure is applied during a reciprocating
c. by placing the valve on a surface plate and mea- engine compression check using a differential
suring its length with a vernier height gauge. pressure tester, what would a movement of the
propeller in the direction of engine rotation indicate?
88. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an engine a. The piston was on compression stroke.
are usually degreased with some form of mineral b. The piston was on exhaust stroke.
spirits solvent rather than water-mixed degreasers c. The piston was positioned past top dead center.
primarily because
a. solvent degreasers are much more effective. 96. Excessive valve clearance results in the valves
b. water-mixed degreaser residues may cause engine opening
oil contamination in the overhauled engine. a. late and closing early.
c. water-mixed degreasers cause corrosion. b. early and closing late.
c. late and closing late.
89. When cleaning aluminum and magnesium engine
parts, it is inadvisable to soak them in solutions con- 97. During routine inspection of a reciprocating engine,
taining soap because a deposit of small, bright, metallic particles which do
a. A 7 some of the soap will become impregnated in not cling to the magnetic drain plug is discovered in
the surface of the material and subsequently cause the oil sump and on the surface of the oil filter. This
engine oil contamination and foaming. condition
b. B 7 the soap can chemically alter the metals causing a. A 7 may be a result of abnormal plain type bearing
them to become more susceptible to corrosion. wear and is cause for further investigation.
c. the parts can be destroyed by dissimilar metal b. B 7 is probably a result of ring and cylinder wall
electrolytic action if they are placed together in the wear and is cause for engine removal and/or
solution for more than a few minutes. overhaul.
c. is normal in engines utilizing plain type bearings and
90. What is the purpose of a power check on a aluminum pistons and is not cause for alarm.
reciprocating engine?
a. To check magneto drop. 98. A characteristic of dyna-focal engine mounts as
b. To determine satisfactory performance. applied to aircraft reciprocating engines is that
c. To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate. the
a. A 7 shock mounts eliminate the torsional flexing of
91. Which of the following will be caused by excessive the powerplant.
valve clearance of a cylinder on a reciprocating b. engine attaches to the shock mounts at the engine's
aircraft engine? center of gravity.
c. shock mounts point toward the engine's center of
gravity.
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Mock Exam, Gas Turbine Engines

99. If metallic particles are found in the oil filter during an


inspection,
a. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
particles are nonferrous.
b. the cause should be identified and corrected: before
the aircraft is released for flight.
c. it is an indication of normal engine wear unless the
deposit exceeds a specified amount.

100. If the oil pressure gauge fluctuates over a wide


range from zero to normal operating pressure, the
most likely cause is.
a. low oil supply.
b. broken or weak pressure relief valve spring.
c. air lock in the scavenge pump intake.

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