Pauline Lowrie - AQA AS - A Level Year 1 Biology Student Guide - Topics 1 and 2 (2015)
Pauline Lowrie - AQA AS - A Level Year 1 Biology Student Guide - Topics 1 and 2 (2015)
Pauline Lowrie - AQA AS - A Level Year 1 Biology Student Guide - Topics 1 and 2 (2015)
STUDENT GUIDE
AQA
Biology
Topics 1 and 2
Biological molecules
Cells
Pauline Lowrie
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© Pauline Lowrie 2015
ISBN 978-1-4718-4324-2
First printed 2015
Impression number 5 4 3 2 1
Year 2018 2017 2016 2015
This guide has been written specifically to support students preparing for the AQA AS and
A level Biology (Topics 1 and 2) examinations. The content has been neither approved nor
endorsed by AQA and remains the sole responsibility of the author.
All rights reserved; no part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
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Content Guidance
Biological molecules
Monomers and polymers 7
Carbohydrates 7
Lipids 9
Proteins 10
Required practical 1: Investigating factors that affect enzyme activity 17
Nucleic acids: important information-carrying molecules 18
ATP 21
Water 22
Inorganic ions 23
Cells
Cell structure 24
All cells arise from other cells 32
Required practical 2: Root tip squash 35
Transport across cell membranes 37
Required practicals 3 and 4: Investigating osmosis 42
Cell recognition and the immune system 45
Exam tips
Advice on key points in the text to
Knowledge check
help you learn and recall content, Rapid-fire questions throughout
avoid pitfalls, and polish your exam the Content Guidance section to
technique in order to boost your check your understanding .
grade .
Knowledge check answers Summaries
■ Each core topic is rounded
1 Turn to the back of the book
off by a bullet-list summary
for the Knowledge check
answers. for quick-check reference of
what you need to know .
(i) Complete Table 2 to show the figures for E. coli. Explain how you arrived
at this answer. (1 mark)
(ii) The structure of the DNA in the virus is not the same as the structure
Commentary on the
of DNA in the other organisms. Suggest what this difference in DNA
structure might be. (1 mark)
e This question is testing your knowledge and understanding. It starts with
questions simple recall but then moves to giving you information that is probably new to you,
to check whether you can apply your knowledge to an unfamiliar situation.
Student A
Tips on what you need to do (a) (i) (cross placed right next to the line after telophase) ✓
(ii) DNA replication and protein synthesis ✓
to gain full marks, indicated e 2/2 marks awarded Student A clearly understands this topic well.
by the icon e
(b) Mitosis will not be able to go past prophase ✓, because spindle fibres are
needed for the chromosomes to line up on during metaphase ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded Student A says clearly what will happen and then gives a
Commentary on sample
student answers
correct reason to explain.
Practise the questions, then happens immediately after telophase. However, student B gets a mark for two
correct processes in (a)(ii).
are gained or lost.
look at the student answers (b) Metaphase will not happen ✓ because a spindle is needed for the
chromosomes to attach to ✓.
76 AQA Biology
4 AQA Biology
■ Use past questions and other exercises to develop all the skills that examiners must
test. Once you have developed them all, keep practising to maintain them.
■ Understand where in your exams different types of questions occur. For example,
the final question on AS paper 2 will always be worth 10 marks and will test AO1
by requiring you to write extended prose. If that is the skill in which you feel most
comfortable, and many AS students do, why not attempt this question first?
■ Remember that mathematical skills account for about 10% of the marks. Do make
sure you can carry out these calculations, including percentages, ratios and rates of
reaction.
■ You need to be familiar with the techniques you have learned in the required
practicals, and be able to describe how these techniques might be used in a
different context. Also, you need to be able to evaluate practical investigations and
data presented to you in the exam. Answers to the questions set in the required
practicals are given on page 91.
6 AQA Biology
Monosaccharides
The simplest carbohydrates are monosaccharides. The monosaccharide that you need
to know most about is glucose. It has the formula C6H12O6. There are two kinds of
glucose, as shown in Figure 2. These two different forms of glucose are called isomers.
6 6
CH2OH CH2OH
Knowledge check 1
H O H H O OH
5 5 Galactose and fructose
4 1 4 1 have the same
3 2 3 2 formula as glucose
HO OH HO H (C6H12O6) . Explain how
α-glucose β-glucose
they can be different
Figure 2 Alpha- and beta-glucose monosaccharides from
glucose .
Galactose and fructose are also monosaccharides. They too have the formula C6H12O6.
Disaccharides
Disaccharides are formed when two monosaccharides join together by a
condensation reaction (Figure 3). The bond formed is a glycosidic bond.
α-glucose α-glucose
O O
H H H H
HO OH HO OH
Condensation H2O
Maltose Exam tip
O O
H HH H A condensation
HO OH reaction occurs
O
when two molecules
Glycosidic
bond join together and a
molecule of water is
Figure 3 Maltose is formed when two
removed .
molecules of glucose join together
Polysaccharides
Polysaccharides are polymers made of many different monosaccharides joined
together. You need to know starch, glycogen and cellulose particularly well. These
are all polymers of glucose. Glycogen and starch are both polymers of alpha-glucose.
They are used as storage carbohydrates, but glycogen is found in animal cells while
starch is found in plant cells. Structurally they are similar, although glycogen is more
branched. They both have similar properties:
■ They are insoluble, so they do not affect osmosis.
■ They are branched, so there are lots of ‘ends’ from which to break off glucose
molecules when needed.
■ They coil up, making them compact, so a lot of glucose can be stored in a small space. Exam tip
Cellulose is a polymer of beta-glucose. This gives it a twisted glycosidic bond, which Remember that a
cannot be broken down by enzymes in mammalian guts. It is used to form plant cell polymer is a large
walls. It has some important properties that make it ideal as a structural polysaccharide: molecule made of
■ It forms long, straight chains that are difficult to stretch.
many similar, smaller
molecules (called
■ Hydrogen bonds form between molecules, forming fibrils with a great deal of
monomers) joined
tensile strength.
together .
■ It is insoluble, so it cannot ‘wash away’.
8 AQA Biology
Lipids
Lipids are made of the elements carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, the same as carbohydrates,
but they contain more hydrogen and less oxygen than carbohydrates. The main lipids that
you need to know about are triglycerides, which is the chemical name for fats and oils.
Triglycerides
Triglycerides are made up of glycerol and fatty acids. Their structure is shown in
Figures 4 and 5.
H
H C OH
H C OH
H H H H H H H H H H
O O
H C OH
C C C C C C H C C C C C C H
H O H H H H H O Exam tip
H H H
Figure 4 The
H H
The shorthand way to
structure of
show the structure of
glycerol Figure 5 The structure of a saturated and an unsaturated fatty acid
a fatty acid is R−COOH,
where R represents the
Notice that an unsaturated fatty acid has at least one double carbon=carbon bond in
fatty acid ‘tail’ .
the hydrocarbon ‘tail’. A saturated fatty acid has all single C−C bonds.
A triglyceride is formed when three fatty acids join to a glycerol molecule by a
condensation reaction (Figure 6). The bonds formed are called ester bonds.
Note that a triglyceride is not a polymer because it is made up of only four
components, rather than a large number of similar, smaller molecules.
H H
H C OH HOOC.R H C OOC.R
H C OH HOOC.R H C OOC.R
H H
Glycerol Fatty acids
Figure 6 Formation of a triglyceride
Phospholipids
Phospholipids are similar to triglycerides, except that one of the fatty acids is
replaced by a phosphate group. The structure of a phospholipid is shown in Figure 7.
Two fatty acid chains
Glycerol
Hydrophobic tails Hydrophilic head
(fatty acid chains) (phosphate group)
Phosphate group
Figure 7 The structure of a phospholipid
Proteins
General properties of proteins
Amino acids
Proteins are polymers of amino acids. There are twenty different amino acids, but
they all have the same basic structure shown in Figure 8.
Exam tip
H Hydrogen atom
H O You can remember the
Amino group N C C Carboxylic acid group elements that make
H OH up an amino acid by
The R-group is different R
in different amino acids the nonsense word
‘CHONS’ .
Figure 8 The structure of an amino acid
Amino acids join together by a condensation reaction to form dipeptides (Figure 9).
Amino acid Amino acid
H O H O
H H
N C C N C C
H OH H OH
R R
Condensation
H2O
Dipeptide
H O H H O
H
N C C N C C
Peptide
H OH
R bond R
Figure 9 Joining amino acids
10 AQA Biology
The whole polypeptide then coils and folds into an overall three-dimensional shape. Knowledge check 2
This is held in place by weak hydrogen or ionic bonds, or stronger disulfide bridges
Name the bonds
between the R-groups of sulfur-containing amino acids. This is the protein’s tertiary
that hold a protein’s
structure.
secondary structure
Some proteins are made of more than one polypeptide. The overall shape this takes is together .
called the quaternary structure.
When a protein is exposed to high temperatures or a large change in pH, the ionic and Knowledge check 3
hydrogen bonds holding the protein in its tertiary structure break. This changes the Name the bonds formed
shape of the protein, and the protein is said to be denatured. The shape of a protein a between glycerol and a
is usually very important to its function, so once a protein is denatured, it tends to fatty acid and b between
lose its function. two amino acids .
Tests for molecules in food
The tests for molecules in food are shown in Table 2 .
Carbohydrates: Benedict’s test Check that there is no reducing sugar Orange-red precipitate is
Non-reducing present by heating part of sample with formed
sugars Benedict’s reagent (see above)
Hydrolyse rest of sample by heating with
dilute hydrochloric acid
Neutralise by adding sodium hydrogen
carbonate
Test sample with Benedict’s solution
Starch Iodine test Iodine/potassium iodide solution Turns blue-black
Lipid Emulsion test Dissolve the test sample by shaking with A white emulsion is formed
ethanol
Pour the resulting solution into water in a
test tube
Table 2 Tests for carbohydrates, proteins and lipids
Summary
■ Condensation reactions join two molecules ■ Triglycerides are formed when three fatty acids
together by removing a molecule of water . bind to a glycerol molecule .
Hydrolysis reactions break bonds by adding a ■ Polysaccharides are polymers of
molecule of water . monosaccharides .
■ Proteins are polymers of amino acids, which join
together to form peptide bonds .
Activation energy
without enzyme
Activation energy
Reactants
with enzyme
Products
Progress of reaction
Exam tip
Figure 10 Activation energy
When you answer
This means that reactions in the body can take place at low temperatures and a question about
atmospheric pressure. Enzymes can do this because they bring the reacting molecules enzymes, remember
close together. This is explained by the induced fit model (Figure 11). to use the correct
terminology such as
Enzymes are proteins so they have a complex tertiary structure. Part of their shape ‘tertiary structure’ . If
is an active site into which the substrate fits. As the substrate binds to the active you answer a question
site, the active site changes shape so that it becomes complementary to the substrate. and don’t use the word
Once the enzyme–substrate complex is formed, the enzyme catalyses the reaction and ‘active site’ in your
the products are released. The enzyme can then be used over and over again. answer, think carefully
about whether it should
be in there somewhere .
+
Knowledge check 4
A student wrote in an
exam that an enzyme’s
Enzyme Substrate active site is the same
Figure 11 The induced fit model of enzyme action shape as the substrate .
Why was this a
Factors that affect enzyme activity mistake?
Temperature
At low temperatures, enzyme activity is low because the substrate and enzyme have too Knowledge check 5
little kinetic energy, so there are not enough molecular collisions for enzyme–substrate
Explain why sucrase
complexes to form. As temperature increases, so does the rate of reaction. However,
will hydrolyse sucrose
once a certain point is reached, the enzyme vibrates so vigorously that some of the weak
but will not hydrolyse
bonds holding it in its tertiary structure break. This means that the enzyme’s active site
maltose .
is no longer the right shape for the substrate to fit in. The enzyme has been denatured.
12 AQA Biology
Each enzyme has an optimum temperature at which the rate of reaction occurs at
its fastest. For human enzymes, the optimum temperature is usually 37°C, but this is
not the case for all enzymes. You can see this in Figure 12.
Rate of reaction
Knowledge check 6
Name the bonds that
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Temperature/°C
break when an enzyme
denatures .
Figure 12 Optimum temperatures for enzymes
pH
The pH of a solution is a measure of its hydrogen ion concentration. The higher the
concentration of hydrogen ions, the lower the pH, and the more acid the solution.
Every enzyme has an optimum pH at which the rate of reaction is at its fastest.
This is the pH at which the enzyme’s active site is the perfect shape to fit with the
substrate. As the pH becomes higher or lower than this, two changes occur:
■ The charges on the amino acids in the enzyme’s active site change so that the
substrate no longer fits.
■ The hydrogen and ionic bonds that hold the enzyme in its tertiary structure are
broken, denaturing the enzyme.
This is shown in Figure 13. Remember that, while many enzymes have an optimum
pH of 7, this is not the case for all enzymes.
Rate of reaction
Knowledge check 7
A student wanted
to find the optimum
temperature of
amylase . She put
the same volume
and concentration of
amylase and starch
into each of several
3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11
pH
tubes, and changed the
temperature using a
Figure 13 The effect of pH on enzymes
water bath . She also
Enzyme concentration added a buffer solution
to each tube . Why was
If there is an unlimited amount of substrate, then adding more enzyme increases the
this necessary?
rate of reaction (Figure 14).
Rate of reaction
In the presence of
excess substrate
Knowledge check 8
Enzyme concentration What shape would
Figure 14 The effect of adding more enzyme the graph in Figure
on rate of reaction 14 be if the substrate
concentration was not
This is because adding more enzyme means there are more active sites available, so
unlimited?
the rate of reaction increases.
Substrate concentration
If the concentration of substrate is increased, the rate of reaction changes (Figure 15).
Rate of reaction
B C
Knowledge check 9
A
The graph in Figure
15 shows the rate
Substrate concentration of reaction at the
Figure 15 The effect of substrate concentration on rate of reaction enzyme’s optimum
temperature of 37°C .
At A, the rate of reaction is very low. This is because there are plenty of enzymes Copy the graph and
available, but few of them are being used, as there are not enough substrate sketch a line on it to
molecules. So many of the enzyme active sites are unfilled. As the substrate show the shape of the
concentration increases between A and B, the rate of reaction increases (i.e. more graph if the reaction
product is formed per minute). This is because more of the enzyme’s active sites are had been carried out at
being filled. However, at B, the rate of reaction stays at a constant high rate despite 25°C .
more substrate being added between B and C. This is because all the enzyme’s
14 AQA Biology
active sites are being used, over and over again, so adding more substrate makes no
difference. (It is as if the substrates are having to ‘queue up’ to get to an active site.)
Competitive inhibitors
Inhibitors are molecules that slow down the rate of an enzyme-controlled reaction.
Competitive inhibitors are molecules that are similar in shape to the substrate. This
means that the inhibitor can fit into the enzyme’s active site. However, because it isn’t
the right substrate, no reaction can happen. The inhibitor simply blocks the active site
and stops the enzyme from binding with any substrates until the inhibitor comes out
of the active site again. You can see how competitive inhibitors work in Figure 16.
Substrate
Competitive
inhibitor
Enzyme Enzyme–inhibitor
complex
Figure 16 Competitive inhibition
Without
inhibitor
Knowledge check 11
Alcohol is broken down in the body to acetaldehyde . This would cause
a person to feel nauseous if it accumulated in the body, but normally it
is broken down quickly by the enzyme aldehyde oxidase . A drug called
disulfiram is a competitive inhibitor of aldehyde oxidase . It is sometimes
used as a drug to help people overcome their drinking habit . Explain how .
Non-competitive inhibitors
Non-competitive inhibitors don’t fit into the active site of the enzyme, but bind to a
different point on the enzyme. However, they change the shape of the enzyme’s active
site so that the substrate can no longer fit in (Figure 18).
Substrate
Substrate
unable to enter
active site
Non-competitive
inhibitor Enzyme Enzyme–inhibitor
complex
Figure 18 Non-competitive inhibition
No inhibitor
Non-competitive inhibitor
16 AQA Biology
Required practical 1
Investigating factors that affect enzyme activity
Investigating catalase activity in potato
Potato tissue contains an enzyme called catalase . This enzyme breaks down
hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen as shown in the equation:
2H2O2 catalase 2H2O + O2
A student set up the apparatus shown in Figure 20 . The inverted test tube was
completely filled with water at the start and the conical fl ask was empty .
Oxygen
Hydrogen
peroxide Water
and potato
tissue
Figure 20
The student cut five discs of potato tissue and placed them into the conical flask .
She replaced the bung . Next she measured 5 cm3 of hydrogen peroxide solution into
the syringe . She pushed the plunger on the syringe so that the hydrogen peroxide
entered the flask and started a stop clock at the same time . She measured the
volume of oxygen given off every 20 seconds . Table 3 shows her results .
Time from adding hydrogen Volume of oxygen gas/cm3
peroxide to potato tissue/s
0 0
20 4 .3
40 6 .5
60 7 .7
80 8 .4
100 8 .8
120 9 .1
140 9 .3
Table 3
1 Give a suitable control for this investigation .
2 How could the student calculate the rate of reaction (a) over the first 20
seconds and (b) in the last 20 seconds?
3 How could the student adapt this investigation to find the optimum
temperature of catalase?
4 How could the student adapt this investigation to find the effect of substrate
concentration on enzyme activity?
5 The student should have repeated the investigation several times and found
the mean values . Explain why .
Turn to page 91 for the answers .
Summary
■ Enzymes lower the activation energy needed for ■ Enzymes have an optimum pH . Above or below
reactions to occur, enabling them to take place at this point, the enzyme’s active site changes shape
modest temperatures and atmospheric pressure . and the enzyme becomes denatured .
■ Enzymes are proteins with a specific tertiary ■ Enzyme activity is also affected by enzyme
structure . They have an active site into which the concentration and substrate concentration .
substrate fits . ■ Competitive inhibitors fit into the enzyme’s active
■ When the substrate enters the active site, site, preventing the substrate from binding .
the active site changes shape to become ■ Non-competitive inhibitors fit into the enzyme
complementary to the substrate . away from the active site, but change the shape
■ Enzymes have an optimum temperature . Below this of the active site, preventing the substrate from
point, increasing temperature increases the kinetic binding .
energy of molecules and increases molecular
collisions . Above the optimum, the enzyme’s active
site changes shape and it is denatured .
18 AQA Biology
P Phosphate
Phosphodiester
bond
Sugar
P
condensation
+ + H2O
Organic
P base
Two polynucleotide strands fit together to make a molecule of DNA, one strand being
upside down compared with the other. However, they way the strands fit together Figure 23 Formation of a
is very specific. Two nucleotides with complementary bases (one from each strand) polynucleotide strand
fit together by hydrogen bonds, which join the two strands together. Base pairing
only occurs between complementary bases. Adenine always pairs with thymine, and
guanine always pairs with cytosine (Figure 24).
Exam tip
P You need to remember
Sugar
A T molecule the base pairing rules
Phosphate
— that A pairs with T
P
group and C pairs with G . An
P easy way to remember
G C this is to think of people
you know with the
P
Hydrogen initials AT or TA, and
bonds CG or GC .
P
C G
T A T A
T
Base pairs P
C G
Figure 24 Base pairing A T
A T
These two strands then twist up to form a double helix shape (Figure 25). C G
Exam tip C G
T A
Although hydrogen bonds are relatively weak, there are so many of them C G
A T
Knowledge check 13 C G
RNA
Ribonucleic acid (RNA) is another kind of nucleic acid. Like DNA it is a polymer
made up of nucleotides, but its nucleotides are slightly different. You can see the
structure of an RNA nucleotide in Figure 26.
Phosphate
group
Sugar
P
Organic
Figure 26 The structure of an RNA P base
nucleotide
RNA molecules are relatively short. RNA transfers genetic information from the DNA
Knowledge check 14
in the chromosomes to the ribosomes. Ribosomes are made of RNA and protein.
Give two similarities
DNA replication between a DNA
nucleotide and an RNA
DNA replication is described as semi-conservative (Figure 28) because one strand
nucleotide, and two
of the old molecule remains intact and a new strand is synthesised following base-
differences .
pairing rules. This happens before a cell can divide. It takes place in the nucleus of
the cell.
T A T T C G A A C G T
A
G T A A G C T T G C A
C A T A T C C A
G T A T A G T
G
C A T T C G A A C G T
T
A T A A G C T T G C A
Figure 28 Semi-conservative replication
Knowledge check 15
■ The enzyme DNA helicase causes the double helix to unwind.
How does
■ The DNA molecule ‘unzips’. This happens because the DNA helicase causes the
hydrogen bonds between the two polynucleotide strands to break. complementary base-
pairing ensure that the
■ New DNA nucleotides join on to the exposed template strand of DNA by
DNA molecule is copied
complementary base-pairing. A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G.
accurately?
■ DNA polymerase joins the new nucleotides together by a condensation reaction.
20 AQA Biology
Summary
■ In all living cells, DNA holds genetic information ■ The components of an RNA nucleotide are ribose,
and RNA transfers genetic information from DNA a phosphate group and one of the organic bases
to the ribosomes . adenine, cytosine, guanine or uracil .
■ Both DNA and RNA are polymers of nucleotides . ■ A DNA molecule is a double helix with two
Each nucleotide is formed from a pentose, polynucleotide chains held together by hydrogen
a nitrogen-containing organic base and a bonds between specific complementary base
phosphate group . pairs .
■ The components of a DNA nucleotide are ■ An RNA molecule is a relatively short
deoxyribose, a phosphate group and one of the polynucleotide chain .
organic bases adenine, cytosine, guanine or ■ Before cells divide, DNA copies itself accurately
thymine . by a semi-conservative mechanism .
ATP
Figure 29 shows a molecule of ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
Adenine
P P P
Ribose
Figure 29 ATP
The third phosphate group can be hydrolysed from the rest of the molecule, releasing
energy that can be used for energy-requiring processes in the cell. We can say that the
hydrolysis of ATP is coupled to energy-requiring processes in cells. When this third
phosphate group is split off, it leaves adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and an inorganic
phosphate (which biochemists write as Pi). This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme
ATP hydrolase.
The inorganic phosphate released can also be used to add a phosphate group to
another molecule (or to phosphorylate another molecule). Adding a phosphate group
can make a molecule more reactive. Knowledge check 16
ADP and Pi can be joined together again, by a condensation reaction, to make ATP In what ways is a
(Figure 30). This requires an input of energy. molecule of ATP
a similar to and
The energy required to synthesise ATP from ADP and Pi can come from cellular
b different from an
respiration or photosynthesis. The reaction is catalysed by the enzyme ATP
RNA nucleotide?
synthase.
ATP
Summary
■ A single molecule of adenosine triphosphate ■ Hydrolysis of ATP to adenosine diphosphate
(ATP) is a nucleotide derivative and is formed (ADP) and an inorganic phosphate group (Pi) is
from a molecule of ribose, a molecule of adenine catalysed by the enzyme ATP hydrolase .
and three phosphate groups . ■ The hydrolysis of ATP can be coupled to energy-
requiring reactions within cells .
Water
Water makes up about 70% of living organisms and is essential for life on Earth. The
main reason for this is that water has some unusual properties. These are because
of the structure of its molecules. You can see the structure of a molecule of water in
Figure 31. You can see that there is a small negative charge on the oxygen atom, and a
small positive charge on each of the hydrogen atoms.
Hydrogen bond
H
This means that hydrogen bonds form between the negatively charged oxygen of one
water molecule and one of the positively charged hydrogen atoms on another water
molecule.
22 AQA Biology
water molecule is attracted to positive charges on the solvent molecules, and the
positively charged hydrogen atoms of the water molecule are attracted to negative
charges on the solvent molecule. This means that water can transport substances
within living organisms. For example, blood plasma is mainly water, and this
transports substances such as glucose, amino acids and ions around the body of a
mammal.
■ Water has a relatively high heat capacity because of the hydrogen bonding, which
makes water act as a thermal buffer. This means it is slow to heat up and cool
down. As already stated, organisms consist mainly of water. Therefore they warm
up and cool down relatively slowly, so they are not subjected to sudden changes in
temperature. Also, organisms that live in water are not subjected to sudden changes
in temperature.
■ Water has a relatively high latent heat of evaporation. In other words, it takes
more energy for water to form a vapour than would be expected for such a small
molecule. This is because energy is needed to break the hydrogen bonds between
water molecules when it vaporises. As a result, water is very effective for cooling Knowledge check 17
organisms down. For example, in humans, a small amount of sweat (which is
Explain how phosphate
mainly water) evaporating from the skin can have a significant cooling effect.
ions are soluble in
■ There is strong cohesion between water molecules because of the hydrogen water .
bonding. This means that water molecules ‘stick’ together. For example, when
columns of water travel up the xylem in flowering plants, they are being ‘pulled’ by
evaporation from the leaves. These strong cohesive forces also mean that water has Exam tip
a high surface tension, creating a ‘skin’ on top of the surface. This allows insects The pH scale used
like pond skaters to move on the surface of ponds, or mosquito larvae to suspend to measure acidity
themselves below the water surface. and alkalinity is a
logarithmic scale . This
Inorganic ions is because a strongly
Inorganic ions are present in the cytoplasm of cells and dissolved in the body fluids of acidic solution can have
organisms. They can be present in high or low concentrations. 100 000 000 000 000
times more hydrogen
Pure water has a neutral pH, i.e. a pH of 7. pH is a measurement of the hydrogen ion ions than a strongly
(H+) concentration in a substance. In water, a small number of the molecules split basic solution, and
up. This produces a hydrogen ion (H+) and a hydroxide ion (OH−). The hydrogen ions vice versa . In order
then combine with water molecules to form hydronium ions (H3O +) but, to make to deal with these
things easier, these are simply regarded as hydrogen ions (H+). In pure water, there is large numbers more
an equal number of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions, so the pH is neutral, pH 7. easily, scientists use a
Acids are substances that donate hydrogen ions, so when an acid is dissolved in water logarithmic scale, the
there are more hydrogen ions present than hydroxide ions. This means the solution pH scale . Each one-unit
is acidic and has a pH lower than 7. On the other hand, a base is a substance that change in the pH scale
accepts hydrogen ions. When a base is dissolved in water it takes up hydrogen ions, so corresponds to a ten-
now the concentration of hydrogen ions is lower than the concentration of hydroxide fold change in hydrogen
ions. This results in an alkaline solution with a pH higher than 7. ion concentration .
The pH scale ranges
Other inorganic ions are important in biology. Examples include iron ions, which
from 0 to 14 . Using a
form part of the protein haemoglobin and enable it to carry oxygen effectively. Sodium
logarithmic scale saves
ions are involved in the co-transport of glucose and amino acids from the gut lumen
you having to write
into the epithelial cells of the small intestine. Phosphate ions are important in the
down all the zeros .
structure of DNA and RNA nucleotides, as well as in ATP.
Summary
■ Water is a metabolite in many metabolic ■ It has strong cohesion between its molecules .
reactions, including condensation and hydrolysis ■ pH measures the concentration of hydrogen ions
reactions . in a solution .
■ It is an important solvent in which metabolic ■ Iron ions are a component of haemoglobin .
reactions occur . ■ Sodium ions are involved in the co-transport of
■ It has a relatively high heat capacity, buffering glucose and amino acids .
changes in temperature . ■ Phosphate ions are components of DNA and ATP .
■ It has a relatively large latent heat of
vaporisation, providing a cooling effect with little
loss of water through evaporation .
■ Cells
Cell structure
Structure of eukaryotic cells
The structure of an animal cell is shown in Figure 32, and the structure of a plant cell
is shown in Figure 33.
Cell-surface
membrane Nucleolus Rough endoplasmic
Nucleus reticulum (rER)
Nuclear envelope
Lysosomes
Golgi
apparatus
10 µm
You can see that these cells contain many smaller components, called organelles.
The function of these organelles are outlined in Table 4. Plant and animal cells are
eukaryotic cells. This is because they contain a membrane-bound nucleus and
membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria.
24 AQA Biology
Cell wall
Cell-surface
membrane
Nucleus
Plasmodesmata
5 µm
Figure 33 Structure of a plant cell
Figure 34 shows the relationship between the rough endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi
apparatus and vesicles in producing proteins (such as enzymes) or glycoproteins (such
as mucus) that are secreted outside the cell.
Cell surface
1 Proteins are made membrane
by ribosomes on the
rough endoplasmic
reticulum Cytoplasm Knowledge check 18
Explain why:
a cells in the
pancreas that
Figure 34 The organelles involved in making proteins that are secreted outside the cell produce enzymes
contain a lot of
Tissues, organs and systems rough endoplasmic
Many organisms are multicellular. They contain many different kinds of cell, each reticulum
specialised to perform a specific function. b bird wing muscle
■ A tissue is a group of similar cells that carries out a specific function, for example,
cells contain more
blood tissue in mammals or xylem tissue in flowering plants. mitochondria than
most of their other
■ An organ is made of several different tissues, which work together to carry
cell types, for
out a specific function. For example, a leaf contains xylem, phloem, palisade
example, blood cells
mesophyll and spongy mesophyll cells. The stomach contains many different
tissues such as smooth muscle tissue, blood tissue, glandular tissue and
connective tissue. Knowledge check 19
■ Organs work together to form a system. For example, the heart, veins, arteries
Explain why blood is
and capillaries all work together in the circulatory system to transport substances
classed as a tissue .
around the body.
26 AQA Biology
Summary
■ Eukaryotic cells, such as plant and animal cells, ■ In complex multicellular organisms, eukaryotic
are surrounded by a cell-surface membrane that cells become specialised for specific
controls what enters and leaves the cell . They functions . Specialised cells are organised into
also contain a number of specific organelles with tissues, tissues into organs and organs into
specialist functions . systems .
Flagellum
Cell wall made of murein
Cell-surface membrane
Cytoplasm
Circular DNA
Ribosomes
Plasmid
0.1 µm
Figure 35 Structure of a prokaryotic cell
Prokaryotic cells:
■ do not contain a nucleus or a nuclear envelope
■ have a single circular piece of DNA that is not complexed with proteins; this
carries the cell’s genetic information
■ do not contain any membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria,
chloroplasts, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes or Golgi apparatus
■ have a cell wall surrounding the cell-surface membrane, but it is made of a
glycoprotein called murein
■ have ribosomes that synthesise proteins, but these are smaller than the ribosomes
in eukaryotic cells
In addition, some prokaryotic cells:
■ contain plasmids, which are small, circular pieces of DNA that carry genes
additional to those in the main piece of circular DNA
■ have one or more flagella, that enable the cell to move
■ have a slimy capsule surrounding the cell, which stops the cell drying out, helps to
protect the cell from being engulfed by white blood cells, and stores toxins
Viruses
Viruses are much smaller than prokaryotic cells. They are acellular, which means
they are not made of cells, and they are non-living. The structure of a virus is shown
in Figure 36.
Genetic material
either DNA or RNA
You will see that viruses contain genetic material. This can be DNA or RNA but
never both. Surrounding the genetic material is a protein coat, called a capsid, made
of many protein units. Some viruses have a membrane around the outside.
Viruses do not show any signs of life. They do not metabolise, grow or respire, or
any of the other characteristics that are associated with living things. They can
only reproduce when they are inside a living cell. On the outside of the virus is an
attachment protein, which fits into a protein in the membrane of a living host cell. Knowledge check 20
This enables the virus to enter the cell. Once inside the cell, their genetic material
Which enzymes in the
‘hijacks’ the cell’s organelles. The organelles start to make new viral proteins and the
host cell will be used to
cell starts making many new viruses. These viruses are then released from the host
copy the viral DNA?
cell, destroying the host cell in the process.
Summary
■ Prokaryotic cells are much smaller than • DNA that is circular and not complexed with
eukaryotic cells . They also differ from eukaryotic protein
cells in having: ■ Viruses are acellular and non-living . Virus
• no membrane-bound organelles, such as particles contain genetic material, surrounded
nuclei or mitochondria by a capsid . They have an attachment protein on
• cell walls made of murein their surface to help them enter host cells .
28 AQA Biology
Magnification is making things larger. Resolution is the ability to see two objects
that are close together as separate objects. There is a limit to the resolution of an
optical microscope, as it cannot resolve two objects that are closer together than
half the wavelength of the light being used in the microscope. Although you can see
eukaryotic cells from animals and plants using an optical microscope, it is no use for
studying the tiny organelles within the cells or the structure of prokaryotic cells.
The transmission electron microscope uses a beam of electrons, which has a
much smaller wavelength than light. Therefore its resolution is much greater than that
of an optical microscope.
This kind of microscope allows scientists to study the detailed structure of cells —
their ultrastructure. However, the specimen needs lengthy preparation, staining
with heavy metals and cutting into extremely thin sections. This means that a highly
skilled technician is needed.
Inside the microscope there must be a vacuum so that the electron beam can pass
through without being scattered. Therefore you cannot study a living organism using
an electron microscope. Also, you cannot view the image directly, as our eyes are not
sensitive to electron beams. The image can only be seen on a computer screen. Also,
the image can only be seen in black and white, not colour. Many electron micrographs
that you see in books have colours in them, but these have been added using a
computer. They are not the real colours of the structures.
The scanning electron microscope works rather like the transmission electron
microscope, except that the electron beam bounces off the surface of the object. This Exam tip
enables you to see the shape of structures such as viruses.
Remember that the
One problem that is faced when using microscopes is that the specimen has to resolution of an
be carefully prepared. This can mean adding chemicals to stabilise its structure, electron microscope
embedding it in wax or resin, adding stains and slicing it thinly before putting it onto a is higher than that of
slide or grid to view under the microscope. an optical microscope,
In doing this, the structure of the specimen can be altered. This means that a because electron
structure might be seen in the image that was not there in the original living beams have a smaller
specimen. We call these structures artefacts. For example, for many years, infoldings wavelength than light .
of the cell-surface membrane called mesosomes were seen in bacterial cells prepared Talking about higher
for electron microscopy. However, when a new system of preparing specimens called magnification will not
freeze-drying was developed, mesosomes were no longer seen. We now know that get you marks .
these infoldings were artefacts caused by the way the specimen was prepared.
Calculating the size of objects
We need to use different units to measure the size of objects, depending on their size.
■ 1 millimetre (mm) is 10 –3 m (i.e. there are 1000 mm in 1 m).
■ 1 micrometre (µm) is 10 –6 m (ie there are 1000 µm in 1 mm, or 1 000 000 µm in 1 m).
■ A nanometre (nm) is 10 –9 m (ie there are 1 000 000 nm in 1 mm, or
1 000 000 000 nm in 1 m).
You can work out the magnification of an image using the formula:
measured size
magnification =
actual size
Worked examples
1 Calculate the magnification of the animal cell in Figure 32 on page 24.
This diagram has a scale bar, so we measure the length of the scale bar in mm.
This is 12 mm.
We convert mm to µm because we must use the same units as the actual length,
and the actual length is 10 µm. So the measured length = 12 × 1000 = 12 000 µm.
measured size 12 000
magnification = = = 1200
actual size 10
×38 000
Figure 37
This time you are given the magnification and you can measure the size of the
image, but you need to find the actual size. This can be done by rearranging the
equation:
measured size
actual size =
magnification
30 AQA Biology
Pieces
of liver
Ice
Ice
(4) (5)
Pour the mixture into tubes and spin very The liquid layer on top (the supernatant) is
quickly in a centrifuge. The denser parts of poured into a fresh tube, leaving the
the mixture get spun to the bottom of the sediment behind (this contains the nuclei)
tube where they form a pellet, called
the 'sediment'.
(6)
The supernatant can then be spun again
at a faster speed to produce a sediment
containing mitochondria
Supernatant
First Second
supernatant supernatant
Sediment
Exam tip
Make sure that you understand that the isotonic solution stops the
organelles bursting by osmosis . Many students say that it stops the cells
from bursting — but of course they are being deliberately burst by using
the homogeniser, so you won’t get any marks for this .
In stage 1 in Figure 38, the buffer solution keeps the pH of the cell contents constant. Knowledge check 22
Any change in pH could denature the enzymes in the mixture, which means that any
How would you use
organelles isolated would not be very useful. Everything is kept ice cold, so that the
this technique to
enzymes do not denature, but also so they are not active. If the enzymes were active
obtain a sample of
they might digest the organelles. The buffer solution is isotonic so that the organelles
chloroplasts?
do not take in water by osmosis and burst.
Summary
■ The structure of cells can only be understood by ■ Electron microscopes use a beam of electrons,
using microscopes . which has a much smaller wavelength than light,
■ The resolution of an optical microscope is limited so they have much better resolution .
by the wavelength of light . To study very small ■ The real size of a magnified image, or the
structures, such as cell organelles, better magnification of an image, can be calculated
resolution is needed . using the formula:
■ Resolution is the ability to see two objects size of image
magnification =
close together as separate objects . size of real object
Magnification is making something appear
■ Cell fractionation and ultracentrifugation are
larger .
used to separate cell components .
S phase
(DNA replication)
Note:
The G1, S and G2
phases make up
G1 phase G2 phase interphase.
Cytokinesis Mitosis
Figure 39 The cell cycle
Most of the time a cell is in interphase. Interphase is when the cell is carrying out
its normal activities, such as producing more cytoplasm and organelles, respiration
and protein synthesis. The G1, S and G2 phases are all parts of interphase. During
the S phase of the cell cycle the DNA replicates ready for mitosis, so there are two
identical copies of each DNA molecule in the nucleus. Each DNA molecule forms
one chromosome. Therefore, after DNA replication, each chromosome consists of two
identical DNA molecules called chromatids that are joined together at a point called
the centromere. This is shown in Figure 40.
32 AQA Biology
Telophase
Sister chromatids (now effectively separate
chromosomes) reach opposite poles
During mitosis, the two chromatids split apart with each chromatid going to a
different end of the cell. A new nuclear envelope forms around each group of
chromatids (now called chromosomes). After this, the cytoplasm of the cell usually
splits in two, forming two genetically identical new cells, each with about half of the
organelles of the parent cell. This stage is called cytokinesis.
Knowledge check 23
Distance/μm
40 Curve Y
30
20
10
Knowledge check 24
Curve X
A substance called
0 5 10 15 20 colchicine inhibits
Time/minutes Figure 42 spindle formation .
Figure 42 shows the movement of chromosomes Explain the effect
during mitosis . Curve X shows the mean distance that this will have on
between the centromeres of the chromosomes and the mitosis .
nearest pole of the spindle .
a What does curve Y represent? Knowledge check 25
b i At what time did anaphase begin?
ii Explain one piece of evidence from the graph to support your answer . Cytoxan is a drug that
stops DNA unwinding
prior to replication .
When cells in a multicellular organism differentiate, they often lose the ability to Explain how this is
divide by mitosis. Most cells in the adult human have lost the ability to divide by useful in treating
mitosis. Some cells do retain the ability to divide, such as cells near the surface of the cancer .
skin, but even these cells divide only 20 to 50 times before they die.
Mitosis is a controlled process, and programmed cell death and losing the ability to
divide are part of this. Sometimes these control mechanisms break down and this Knowledge check 26
means that the resulting cell may be able to divide repeatedly in an uncontrolled Ciprofloxacin is a drug
way. These are cancer cells, and given a supply of nutrients they can grow into a that inhibits the enzyme
tumour. DNA gyrase . This
enzyme relaxes tightly
Binary fission in prokaryotes wound DNA, allowing
Bacterial cells divide by binary fission (Figure 43). DNA replication to
occur . DNA gyrase is
First of all, the circular DNA of the cell replicates. These two copies of the DNA are not present in human
attached to the cell’s membrane. If there are plasmids in the cell, these also replicate. cells . Explain how this
The cell then grows, increasing the distance between the two pieces of circular DNA. drug might be useful
A new cell wall starts to grow between the pieces of DNA, and more cell membrane is in treating bacterial
synthesised, so that the cell splits in two. Each daughter cell has one copy of the main diseases .
circular piece of DNA, and a variable number of copies of the plasmids.
34 AQA Biology
Bacterial cell
Plasmid
Bacterial DNA
DNA replication
and cell division
Figure 43 Binary fission
Viral replication
■ The virus attaches to the cell membrane of its host cell. The viral attachment
protein fits into a protein on the cell membrane of the host cell.
■ The virus is taken into the cell and the capsid is removed.
■ If the viral genetic material is RNA, it moves to the ribosomes and the ribosomes
start to produce enzymes to synthesise new virus particles. If the viral genetic
material is DNA, this acts as the genetic code for RNA to be produced that codes Knowledge check 27
for the production of viral enzymes and proteins. Use the information
■ New viruses are assembled by the host cell. Sometimes they leave the cell by about viral replication
‘budding’, which means they are coated with some membrane from the host cell as to explain why viruses
they leave. Sometimes they burst out of the host cell by rupturing the cell membrane. are described as non-
living .
Two possible ways in which a virus replicates are shown in Figure 44.
Required practical 2
Root tip squash
Plants have groups of dividing cells in certain places . One of these places is at the root tip, just behind the
root cap . It is possible to see many cells undergoing mitosis if you make a microscope slide of this region
of the root . However, to view this tissue under an optical microscope, the sample needs to be very thin, and
a stain needs to be added so that the chromosomes show up .
To make a root tip squash, cut 5 mm off the end of a young growing root . Put this into a glass dish containing
dilute hydrochloric acid and acetic orcein stain . Then warm this carefully . The hydrochloric acid separates
the cells, so the tissue becomes softer, and the acetic orcein stains the DNA in the chromosomes red .
Next put the root tip into the middle of a microscope slide . Add two drops of acetic orcein stain to it, and
carefully lower a cover slip on top . Fold a piece of filter paper and place it carefully on top, then push
firmly . This squashes the tissue and fl attens it into a thin layer only one cell thick .
After this, view the slide under an optical microscope and identify which stage of mitosis the cells are in .
1 How could you use this investigation to estimate how long each stage of mitosis lasts?
Turn to page 91 for the answer .
(1) Enveloped
DNA virus
Attachment
(2) Non-enveloped
RNA virus
Entry
Uncoating Entry
DNA
Uncoating
RNA
Nucleus Replication
Replication
Assembly
Cell
membrane
Assembly ruptures
Budding
through host New viral
cell membrane RNA particle
is released
New viral
DNA particle
is released
Figure 44 Viral replication
Summary
■ DNA replication occurs during the interphase ■ Division of the cytoplasm (cytokinesis) usually
of the cell cycle when chromosomes cannot be occurs, producing two new cells .
seen . ■ Mitosis is a controlled process . Uncontrolled cell
■ Mitosis is the part of the cell cycle in which division can lead to the formation of tumours and
a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two of cancers . Many cancer treatments are directed
daughter cells, each with the identical copies at controlling the rate of cell division .
of DNA produced by the parent cell during DNA ■ Binary fission in prokaryotic cells involves:
replication . • replication of the circular DNA and of plasmids
■ During prophase, the chromosomes condense • division of the cytoplasm to produce two daughter
out . In metaphase, the chromosomes attach to cells, each with a single copy of the circular DNA
the equator of the spindle . During anaphase, the and a variable number of copies of plasmids
spindle fibres separate the sister chromatids, ■ Being non-living, viruses do not undergo cell
and in telophase a new nuclear membrane forms division . Following injection of their nucleic
around each identical set of chromatids (now acid, the infected host cell replicates the virus
daughter chromosomes) . particles .
36 AQA Biology
Protein molecules float in the phospholipid bilayer. Some of these are extrinsic proteins,
which float in just one half of the bilayer. Others are intrinsic and pass through the
whole bilayer. Cholesterol molecules are found among the phospholipids. These stabilise
the membrane by restricting the movement of other molecules within the membrane.
Many of the proteins and phospholipids have short carbohydrate chains attached to
them, on the outside surface of the membrane. They are known as glycoproteins and
glycolipids. The structure of the cell membrane is shown in Figure 46.
Polysaccharide
Glycoprotein
Protein Polysaccharide
Glycolipid
Phospholipid
Phospholipid bilayer
All the membranes in a cell have this fluid mosaic structure. This includes the
membranes of the chloroplast, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum and lysosomes. Exam tip
Make sure you describe
Movement across cell membranes diffusion and facilitated
Simple diffusion diffusion as movement
down a concentration
Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a region of high concentration to a
gradient, not ‘along’ it .
region of lower concentration down a concentration gradient.
Some molecules that are small and/or lipid soluble are able to diffuse through the
phospholipid bilayer. Oxygen, for example, is a small molecule and it is not charged,
so it is able to pass freely through the phospholipid bilayer. It diffuses from outside
the cell where it is in higher concentration, across the membrane into the cell, down a
concentration gradient. Simple diffusion is outlined in Figure 47.
Oxygen molecules
can diffuse through
the bilayer
Figure 47 Simple diffusion
38 AQA Biology
Extracellular space
Protein
channel
Cell membrane
Carrier
proteins
Intracellular space
Figure 48 Facilitated diffusion
Knowledge check 30
Figure 49 shows the rate of diffusion of two different molecules into a cell .
One molecule is entering the cell by simple diffusion and one by facilitated
diffusion . Which is which? Give a reason for your answer .
Rate of diffusion into cell
Figure 49
Osmosis
Water molecules are small, and although they carry charges they can slip between the
phospholipid molecules in the bilayer. They enter cells by a special kind of diffusion
called osmosis. Exam tip
The more water molecules that are present in a solution, the higher the water Always refer to water
potential of the solution. Pure water has the highest possible concentration of water potentials and not
molecules, so it has the highest possible water potential of 0. All solutions have a water concentrations .
lower water potential than this. Concentrated solutions, with a lot of solute, have a But it helps you to
low concentration of water so they have a low water potential, i.e. a negative water remember that a
potential. In osmosis, water diffuses from a region of high water potential to a region solution with a high
of lower water potential down a water potential gradient. water concentration
has a high water
Osmosis is outlined in Figure 50.
potential .
Osmosis is also a passive process because it does not require additional energy.
Water molecules
are attracted to
the solute
Figure 50 Osmosis
Exam tip
Water potentials are measured in pressure units and the numbers are
negative . Remember that water moves from a high (less negative) to a lower
(more negative) water potential . It may help you to think of temperatures .
Heat is transferred from a higher temperature to a lower temperature, so
heat would move from an object at −1°C to an object at −5°C .
Knowledge check 31
a The three cells in Figure 51 have different water potentials . Copy the diagram
and add arrows to show which way water would move between them .
A B
−1 kPa −5 kPa
Knowledge check 32
C a If you put a red blood
−3 kPa cell into water, it will
burst . Explain why .
b If you put a plant cell
Figure 51 into water, it will not
b Which of your arrows represents the fastest rate of water movement? burst . Explain why .
Active transport
Sometimes cells take up substances against their concentration gradient. In this
case, a process called active transport is used (Figure 52). Active transport, like
facilitated diffusion, uses carrier proteins that are specific to the molecule being
carried. However, active transport uses additional energy because the molecule is
being moved against its concentration gradient. This is why it is called an active
process. The energy for active transport comes from the hydrolysis of ATP:
ATP → ADP + energy
40 AQA Biology
Low concentration of
molecule outside cell Carrier protein
ATP ADP + Pi
High concentration of
molecule inside cell
Figure 52 Active transport
Knowledge check 33
Figure 53 shows the concentration of two ions inside and outside a cell .
Concentration of ion
Key
Outside cell
Inside cell
Ion A Ion B
Figure 53
How do ions A and B enter the cell? Give reasons for your answer .
Co-transport
Figure 54 shows how glucose is absorbed into the epithelial cells on the villi of the
small intestine.
There are three important protein carriers in this cell:
■ Protein A actively transports sodium ions out of the cell, creating a low
concentration of sodium ions inside the cell.
■ Protein B is a co-transport protein. It carries glucose into the cell, alongside
a sodium ion, which diffuses into the cell down its concentration gradient. It is
called a co-transport protein because it has to have both a sodium ion and a glucose
molecule to bring into the cell.
■ Protein C is a carrier protein that transports glucose out of the cell into the blood
capillary by facilitated diffusion.
Lumen of ileum
Knowledge check 34
Sodium Na+
A = Na+/K+ pump
ions The epithelial cell
Glucose B = Sodium-dependent
glucose carrier from the lining of the
protein
B small intestine shown
C = Glucose channel
protein in Figure 54 has many
Na+ infoldings of its cell-
surface membrane
on the face of the
A C cell that borders the
Active
transport Facilitated diffusion lumen of the gut . These
are called microvilli .
Na+ Capillary Suggest the advantage
of this .
Figure 54 Glucose absorption
Required practicals 3 and 4 Knowledge check 35
Explain why protein A in
Investigating osmosis Figure 54 is necessary
Investigation to find the water potential of potato tissue for the co-transport
A student set up seven Petri dishes so that each one contained a different protein to bring glucose
concentration of sucrose . She made up these solutions using 1 .0 M sucrose and molecules into the cell .
distilled water . Table 5 shows how she did this .
She then cut several cores of potato tissue using a cork borer, and sliced them
into slices about 2 mm thick . She washed them in distilled water and gently
blotted them dry using filter paper . She weighed the discs in batches of five,
recorded the mass, and then put five discs in each dish . The dishes were left in
a cool place overnight .
The following day she removed the discs from each dish in turn, carefully
blotted them dry and re-weighed them . She recorded the mass .
The student then calculated the percentage change in mass and plotted a
graph of her results . The results are shown in Figure 55 .
1 How did the student calculate the percentage change in mass?
2 Why was it better to calculate the percentage change in mass, rather than
just the change in mass?
3 Use your knowledge of water potential to explain why the discs placed in
1 .0 M sucrose lost mass, and those in 0 .1 M sucrose gained mass .
42 AQA Biology
15
10
−10
−15
−20
−25
Figure 55
The student found the sucrose solution with the same water potential as the
potato tissue by finding the concentration of sucrose where the line crosses the
x-axis . This is the concentration of sucrose where the potato tissue would not
gain or lose mass . In this case, it crosses the x-axis at 0 .32 M .
Investigating the effect of temperature on the permeability of
beetroot cell membrane
Beetroot cells contain a red pigment, so that when the cell membrane breaks
down the red pigment leaks out . The more permeable the membrane has
become, the more red pigment leaks out .
A student cut several cores of beetroot using a cork borer and then cut them
into cylinders 3 cm long . He stored them in a beaker of distilled water . The
student then pipetted 15 cm3 of distilled water into each of 10 test tubes . He
set up a water bath at 70°C, dropped a cylinder of beetroot into the water bath
for exactly 1 minute and then placed the cylinder into one of the test tubes of
water . The beetroot cylinder was left in the tube of water at room temperature
for exactly 15 minutes . After this time, the student carefully removed the
beetroot cylinder from the tube using forceps . He cooled the water bath to
65°C and then carried out the same process . This was repeated until he had
carried out the investigation at 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65 and 70°C . See
Figure 56 .
The student measured the concentration of the red pigment in each tube using
a colorimeter .
A colorimeter is an instrument that shines light of a particular wavelength
through a solution . The more intense the colour of the solution, the more light
is absorbed by the solution and therefore less light is transmitted through .
The colorimeter measures how much light is absorbed and how much light is
transmitted through .
Cylinders of
beetroot tissue
(3 × 0.5 cm) cut
with a cork-borer
Washed free of
damaged cell
contents
Individual cylinders
held in water at a After heat treatment, each
given temperature cylinder of tissue stands in
for 1 minute (70, 65, 15 cm3 distilled water, in a
60, 55, 50, 45, 40, labelled test tube, at room
35, 30 and 25°C) temperature for 15 minutes
Colorimeter
Colour Coloured solution 8
filter Light meter scale
6
4
Lamp
0
Light path Photosensitive 25 45 65
component Temperature/ °C
The colorimeter was set up so that it shone green light through the tubes . This
is because green is complementary to red . A red solution absorbs most of the
green light that is shone on it .
First of all, the student put a tube of distilled water into the colorimeter . This
is known as a ‘blank’ . He set the colorimeter so that this tube gave a reading of
0% absorption . The blank is necessary so that any light absorbed by the tube
itself, or the distilled water, is ignored . Therefore any light absorbed by the
other tubes will be absorbed by the red pigment .
The student put each tube in turn into the colorimeter and measured the
absorbance . The results are shown in Figure 56 .
44 AQA Biology
Notice that the permeability of the membrane increases with temperature, but
it only increases slowly until the temperature rises above about 50°C when
the permeability increases sharply . This is because the proteins in the cell
membrane start to denature, allowing pigment to pass out of the cell . Also,
as temperature increases, the phospholipids have more kinetic energy and
become more fluid . This also allows the membrane to become more ‘leaky’ .
4 If the student did not have a colorimeter available, how else could he
measure the colour of each tube?
Turn to page 91 for the answers .
Summary
■ The cell membrane is composed of a bilayer • facilitated diffusion, which involves carrier
of phospholipids together with proteins, proteins and channel proteins
glycoproteins and glycolipids . This is the fluid- • osmosis, which is the diffusion of water across
mosaic model of membrane structure . a membrane down its water potential gradient
■ Movement across membranes occurs by: • active transport, which involves carrier
• simple diffusion of small and/or lipid- proteins and the hydrolysis of ATP
soluble molecules across the phospholipid • co-transport, which involves a carrier protein
bilayer moving two molecules or ions at the same time
Phagocyte
Lysome containing
enzymes
Nucleus
Pathogen Vacuole
Enzymes
digest pathogen
Figure 57 Phagocytosis
Many mitotic
divisions
Infecting virus
(the pathogen)
46 AQA Biology
Memory
Plasma cell
cell
M P P P
P M P
Knowledge check 36
Figure 60 Structure of an antibody If a person is given
a kidney transplant,
You will see that the antibody is Y-shaped. All antibodies are the same shape they need to be given
except for the two regions at the end — the variable region. The variable region is drugs to suppress
complementary to just one antigen, so that the antibody binds to the antigen, forming their immune system .
an antigen–antibody complex. This is the first stage in destroying the non-self antigen Explain why .
or a cell carrying a non-self antigen. The antibodies bind to the antigens, forming a
complex of antigens and antibodies. This is called agglutination. The complex is
then engulfed by phagocytes. Knowledge check 37
The antibodies produced
Primary and secondary immune responses by one plasma cell
If you have suffered from a particular infection once you will not catch the disease are described as
again. This is because you produced specific memory B lymphocytes as the result of ‘monoclonal’ (meaning
the first infection (Figure 61). ‘one clone’) . Explain why .
Concentration
B
of antibody
in blood
Time
1st injection 2nd injection
of antigen of antigen
The graph in Figure 61 shows that when you are first exposed to an antigen, there is a
short time delay before the antibody concentration in the blood rises. This is because
it takes time for the B lymphocytes to become activated, and then form clones of
plasma cells that secrete antibodies. However, this primary response results in
enough antibodies to destroy the infection.
48 AQA Biology
If you encounter the same infection at a later date, a secondary response occurs.
This time, a huge number of antibodies is secreted almost immediately. This response
is much faster because memory B lymphocytes are already present. These divide
to form plasma cells that secrete a high concentration of antibodies into the blood.
These destroy the pathogen so quickly that the person does not even feel ill.
Vaccines
It is possible suffer from some kinds of infection more than once, for example, colds.
This is because the cold virus keeps changing its antigens, so antibodies against one
cold virus will not bind to the antigens of a different strain of the virus.
This secondary response is the basis of vaccination. A vaccine is a preparation of Exam tip
antigens that is taken into the body to stimulate the production of memory B lymphocytes. Do not describe a
Obviously it would be dangerous to give a person a dangerous pathogen. Therefore, vaccine as a ‘safe
vaccines are made harmless in various ways: dose’ of an antigen or,
■ Giving the person the dead or inactivated pathogen, so it cannot cause disease worse still, as a ‘safe
symptoms, but the antigens are unaltered. dose of a disease’ . It
■ Using a live but harmless strain of the pathogen. This is an attenuated vaccine.
is a preparation of
antigens, but in a safe
■ Separating the antigens from the rest of the pathogen and administering the
form to administer .
antigens only.
Vaccines can be used to prevent people ever suffering from serious, life-threatening
diseases. It is even possible, if enough people are vaccinated against a disease, to prevent
the disease spreading in a population. It is not necessary for everyone in a population to
be vaccinated for this to happen. The idea of having enough people vaccinated against
a disease so that the disease cannot spread is called herd immunity. If enough people
in a population are vaccinated, but an unvaccinated person catches the disease, this will
mean that the sick person cannot pass the disease on (Figure 62).
No-one is
immunised
= Not immunised,
Most of the
population gets sick, and infectious
immunised
Spread of
infectious
disease is
contained
Figure 62 Herd immunity
There are some ethical issues concerning vaccines. While vaccines are generally Knowledge check 38
extremely safe, there is still a low probability of side-effects. Side-effects are most
Some vaccines are
likely to occur in people who have other conditions, for example, epilepsy, so people
given more than once,
with conditions that make them more at risk may not receive the vaccine. This is
for example the MMR
another reason why herd immunity is important.
vaccine is given in
Another issue is whether everyone should get the vaccine, or only people most at more than one dose .
risk. For example, the vaccine to protect against HPV (human papilloma virus) is Explain why .
only given to girls, because HPV is a cause of cervical cancer. Since boys cannot
suffer from cervical cancer they are not given the vaccine. However, HPV is sexually
transmitted, so some people argue that boys should be vaccinated too, to reduce the Knowledge check 39
chances of boys passing the virus to an unvaccinated girl. Vaccination cannot be
used to treat a person
Active and passive immunity once they have already
Active immunity is the process just described. In other words, active immunity been infected with a
is when a person is exposed to an antigen and their T and B lymphocytes mount pathogen . Explain why .
an immune response, resulting in the presence of memory B lymphocytes.
However, there are cases when people can receive ready-made antibodies that Knowledge check 40
protect them from disease. This is called passive immunity. An example is when
an unborn fetus receives antibodies from its mother across the placenta. Another A newborn baby receives
example is when people are injected with ready-made antibodies from animals antibodies from its
such as horses or rabbits to treat venomous bites. Passive immunity is different mother in breast milk .
from active immunity because the person is not making the necessary antibodies Is this active or passive
or memory cells. immunity? Explain why .
Knowledge check 42 Knowledge check 41
At one time, antibodies from immunised horses were used to treat people A person is vaccinated
suffering from tetanus . This treatment would not be suitable to use on the against TB . Is this
same person more than once . Explain why . active or passive
immunity? Explain why .
Summary
■ Each type of cell has specific molecules on its ■ The primary response occurs the first time a
surface, called antigens, that identify it . These person encounters an antigen . This is when
molecules include proteins and enable the plasma cells and memory B cells, specific to the
immune system to identify: antigen, are produced
• pathogens ■ The secondary response occurs the second
• cells from other organisms of the same species time a person encounters an antigen . This time
• abnormal body cells antibody production is much faster, quicker and
• toxins longer-lasting, as a result of memory B cells .
■ Some pathogens, for example, the cold virus, ■ Vaccines are used to provide protection for
keep changing their antigens . This means that you individuals and populations against disease . A
can suffer from the same disease again and again, vaccine is a preparation of antigens in a safe form
and it also makes it difficult to develop a vaccine . that can be administered to a person, by injection
■ T lymphocytes produce a cellular response . or otherwise, to stimulate the production of
■ B lymphocytes produce a humoral response . memory B cells .
50 AQA Biology
Attachment
protein
External
appearance Spherical envelope of lipid
(×400 000) bilayer with glycoproteins Protein coat
(derived from the membrane of (capsid)
the human cell from which the
virus escaped)
You will see that it has RNA as its genetic material and a membrane around its
capsid. It also contains an enzyme called reverse transcriptase. HIV is passed from
one person to another by transferring body fluids containing the virus, for example
by sexual contact or contaminated blood transfusions. The virus specifically infects
helper T cells, where it replicates (Figure 64).
When HIV first infects helper T cells, the enzyme reverse transcriptase is used to
make a DNA copy of the viral RNA. This is inserted into the host cell’s DNA. It can
remain dormant for a while, so the infected person will have no obvious symptoms,
although antibodies will be present shortly after infection. At this stage a person is
said to be HIV positive. However, after a while, the viral DNA becomes active and
Biological molecules • Cells 51
the helper T cells start to make new HIV particles. These bud out from the cell, Knowledge check 43
eventually destroying it. These HIV particles go on to infect new helper T cells.
How does destruction
Now that the virus is actively destroying helper T cells, the person’s immune system is of helper T cells lead
not working properly. The infected person starts to suffer from diseases that would not to an immune system
normally cause a problem if the immune system was working properly. These infections that does not work
are called opportunistic diseases. Among the diseases that can cause a problem at properly?
this stage are Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is a form of skin cancer, and TB (tuberculosis).
There are few drugs that can treat viral diseases because they do not show any Knowledge check 44
activity until they are in a living cell. This means that any antiviral drug has to enter
the host cell, where it may cause harm to the host. Most antiviral drugs interfere with How does the HIV virus
the process by which the host cell makes new viruses. gain entry to helper T
cells but not any other
Antibiotics are highly effective against bacteria. They kill bacteria by interfering kind of cell?
with their metabolism, for example, by inhibiting respiration or protein synthesis, or
stopping new cell walls being made. Viruses do not have any metabolism of their own,
so antibiotics will not destroy them.
Monoclonal antibodies
Monoclonal antibodies are antibodies that have come from a single clone of plasma
cells. In other words, they are identical antibodies that are complementary to a
single, specific antigen. They are very important in medicine. One use of monoclonal
antibodies is to target medication to one specific cell type. For example, many cancer
drugs are highly toxic and will kill healthy cells as well as cancer cells. If the drug is
bound to a monoclonal antibody that binds to a protein receptor on a cancer cell, but
not to receptors on healthy cells, this means that the drug can be targeted at cancer
cells while doing minimal damage to other cells (Figure 65).
Antibody
molecule
Drug attached
to antibody
Figure 65 Use of monoclonal antibodies
in cancer treatment
52 AQA Biology
concentration of antibodies a patient has in their blood. They can also be used in
diagnostics, for example, to detect blood cancers and to test whether the patient is
responding to the therapy they are receiving.
Monoclonal antibodies are also used in ELISA tests. ELISA stands for enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay (Figure 66).
Knowledge check 45
Antibody with enzyme Colourless substrate Enzyme converts
Well in attached is added. This for enzyme added. colourless substrate Why does a human
test plate only binds to the first to coloured product.
antibody if PSA is present. gene need to be
Figure 66 Using monoclonal antibodies to test for prostate cancer inserted into mice
so that they make
The example in Figure 66 is testing for prostate-specific antigen (PSA). This test antibodies suitable for
is used to screen for prostate cancer. Similar tests can be used to detect whether a human use?
person is HIV positive, or whether a woman is pregnant.
There are some ethical issues involved with monoclonal antibody production. One Knowledge check 46
issue is that it involves the use of mice, and to produce cells that multiply and produce In Figure 66:
antibodies, cancer cells are needed as well as plasma cells. This means deliberately
a Why is the well
inducing cancer in mice. Secondly, to make the antibodies suitable for use in humans,
washed at different
transgenic mice are used. A human gene has been inserted into the mice by genetic
stages in the test?
engineering. Some people have ethical objections to the use of genetic engineering.
b Why does the second
Thirdly, while monoclonal antibodies have been used successfully to treat many
antibody have an
diseases, there have been some problems, both in using them to treat disease and in
enzyme attached to it?
drug trials.
Summary
■ The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) ■ Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses
contains RNA as its genetic material, within a because viruses only replicate inside host cells
capsid that is surrounded by a membrane . It and have no metabolism of their own .
replicates inside helper T cells . ■ Monoclonal antibodies are used in:
■ HIV destroys helper T cells, which means that • targeting medication to specific cell types by
the immune system does not work properly . This attaching a therapeutic drug to an antibody
leads to opportunistic infections . • medical diagnosis
Paper 1 Paper 2
Any content from topics 1–4, including Any content from topics 1–4, including
relevant practical skills relevant practical skills
If you are taking A-level Biology, your exams will be structured as follows:
Any content from topics 1–4, Any content from topics 5–8, Any content from topics 1–8,
including relevant practical skills including relevant practical skills including relevant practical skills
76 marks: mixture of long- and 76 marks: mixture of long- and 38 marks: structured questions,
short-answer questions short-answer questions including practical techniques
15 marks: extended response 15 marks: comprehension 15 marks: critical analysis of
experimental data
25 marks: essay from a choice of
two titles
Comments
Each question is followed by a brief analysis of what to watch out for when answering
the question (icon e ). Student responses are then followed by detailed comments.
These are preceded by the icon e and indicate where credit is due. In the weaker
answers, they also point out areas for improvement, specific problems and common
errors, such as lack of clarity, weak or non-existent development, irrelevance,
misinterpretation of the question and mistaken meanings of terms.
■ Test paper 1
This paper has 91 marks available and should take 2 hours to complete. (Your actual AS papers will each have 75
marks available and will take 1 hour 30 minutes to complete.)
Question 1
Figure 1 shows an Amoeba, which is a single-celled organism.
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Cell-surface membrane
Contractile vacuole
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Ribosomes
150 µm
Figure 1
(a) (i) Calculate the magnification of Figure 1. Show your working. (2 marks)
(ii) Give two pieces of evidence from Figure 1 that enable you to identify this
as a eukaryotic cell. (2 marks)
(b) Amoeba lives in freshwater ponds and rivers. It has a contractile vacuole that
expels water from the cell. Explain why this is needed. (3 marks)
Student A
(a) (i) scale bar measures 30 mm = 30 000 μm
measured size
magnification =
real size
30 000
= = 200 ✓✓
150
(ii) The cell has a nucleus ✓ and mitochondria ✓ .
56 AQA Biology
e 4/4 marks awarded For (a)(i) the right answer is reached, but even if the
arithmetic had been wrong, a mark would have been awarded for the correct method.
For (a)(ii) these are both correct features of eukaryotic cells, visible in the diagram.
(b) The amoeba has a lower water potential than the freshwater pond ✓ so it
takes in water by osmosis ✓. The excess water must be removed from the
cell to stop it bursting ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded 1 mark is for stating that the cell has a lower water
potential than the pond water, 1 mark for water entering by osmosis, and 1 mark
for the reason why water needs to be expelled.
Student B
(a) (i) scale bar = 3 cm; 3000/150 = 20 ✗✗
(ii) It does not have a cell wall ✗ and it has a nucleus ✓.
e 1/4 marks awarded For (a)(i) student B has measured in cm, not mm, and then
multiplied by 1000. But there are 1000 μm in 1 mm, so this is the wrong conversion.
The answer is wrong and so is the working. In (a)(ii) 1 mark is given for mentioning
the nucleus. However, some eukaryotic cells (e.g. plant cells) have cell walls, so
this is not a feature to distinguish prokaryotic cells from eukaryotic cells.
e 2/3 marks awarded 1 mark is awarded for saying water enters by osmosis
and 1 mark for saying that it stops the cell bursting. However, there is no mention
of the water potential gradient, so the third mark cannot be given.
Question 2
(a) Describe a test you could carry out to test for a non-reducing sugar in a solution. (4 marks)
CH2OH
Cl O CH2Cl
X O OH
OH
O
CH2Cl
OH OH
Figure 2
(i) Name the bond labelled X. (1 mark)
(ii) Sucralose contains the same monosaccharides as sucrose. Name these
monosaccharides. (1 mark)
(iii) Explain why sucralose cannot be digested in the body. (2 marks)
e The first part of this question is simple recall of knowledge. The second part is
asking you to apply your knowledge to an unfamiliar example.
Student A
(a) First I would do the Benedict’s test for reducing sugar and show that this is
negative ✓. Then I would boil some of the solution with dilute hydrochloric
acid, and then neutralise it with alkali ✓. I would add Benedict’s reagent,
which is blue, and heat it in a boiling water bath ✓. If a non-reducing sugar
is present there will be an orange-red precipitate ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded This is an excellent answer. Student A gives full details
and has remembered to do a reducing sugar test first.
e 4/4 marks awarded Notice that just the word ‘glycosidic’ is needed to get the
mark in (b)(i) — there is no need to write more. (b)(ii) is correct and gets the mark.
In (b)(iii) student A mentions shape and fit, and uses the term ‘active site’.
Student B
(a) I would boil some of the solution with acid to hydrolyse it. Then I would add
some Benedict’s solution and boil it again ✓. If it goes brick red there is
reducing sugar present ✓.
e 2/4 marks awarded Student B does not remember to do a reducing sugar test
first. Also, although an acid hydrolysis has been carried out, there is no mention
of neutralising it with alkali before adding the Benedict’s reagent.
e 1/4 marks awarded Answer (b)(i) gets the mark. In (b)(ii), glucose is right but
galactose is not, so the mark cannot be awarded. (b)(iii) is too vague. There is no
reference to the active site of the enzyme and it is not clear that sucralose is a
different shape from the molecules that are normally present in the gut.
Question 3
(a) Give two differences between active transport and facilitated diffusion. (2 marks)
(b) Figure 3 shows the concentrations of some ions in pondwater, and inside the
cells of a plant that lives in a pond.
Concentration of ion
Pond water
Inside cell
(i) How have these ions entered the plant cells? Explain your answer. (2 marks)
(ii) How could you carry out an investigation to check whether your answer
is right? (2 marks)
Student A
(a) Active transport uses energy from hydrolysis of ATP but facilitated diffusion
is passive and does not require additional energy ✓.
Active transport transports substances against a concentration gradient
but facilitated diffusion transports substances down a concentration
gradient ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded These answers are excellent and use scientific
terminology well.
(b) (i) Active transport ✓ because all the ions are in a higher concentration
inside the cell than outside, so they must have entered against a
concentration gradient ✓.
(ii) I would grow the plant in the presence of a respiratory inhibitor so it
could not produce ATP in respiration ✓. If the ions no longer reached a
higher concentration inside the cell than in the pondwater then I would
know I was right ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded There is a clear explanation for why these ions have
entered the cell by active transport. There is also a clear understanding that
inhibiting respiration would reduce the supply of ATP and therefore would reduce
active transport.
Student B
(a) Active transport goes against a concentration gradient but facilitated
diffusion goes down a concentration gradient ✓.
Active transport requires energy but facilitated diffusion does not.
Active transport uses carrier proteins but facilitated diffusion
does not ✗.
e 1/2 marks awarded The first point here is right and gets a mark. The
second point is not well made but would have just gained credit (it should
really say that energy from ATP is needed). However, despite the instruction
to give two differences, the student has given a third response and it is wrong.
Therefore this cancels out the mark that would have been given for the second
point here.
(b) (i) Using a protein carrier, because ions cannot pass through the
phospholipids.
(ii) Use a high temperature to denature the proteins and see if the ions can
still enter the cell.
e 0/4 marks awarded In (b)(i) it is right to say that ions must enter via a protein,
but this is not a method of entry. Student B should have decided whether it was
facilitated diffusion or active transport. Also there is no use of information from
the graph. Part (b)(ii) is also wrong. Student B has not seen the clue in the first
part of the question — that this is to do with either active transport or diffusion.
This incorrect answer is clearly a guess.
Question 4
(a) Figure 4 shows a cell undergoing mitosis. Describe what will happen in the
next stage. (3 marks)
Figure 4
(b) Figure 5 shows the changes in the mass of DNA during two cell cycles.
Mass
0 12 24 36 48
Time/h
NH2
Figure 5
(i) On Figure 5, write the letter D to indicate aNtime when DNA replication is
taking place. HO
(1 mark)
(ii) On Figure 5, write the letter M to indicate
N a timeO when prophase and
O
metaphase are taking place. (1 mark)
HO
(c) Figure 6 shows the structure of cytarabine, a drug that is used to treat
cancer. It also shows the structure of deoxycytidine, which forms parts of
cytosine-containing nucleotides inOHDNA. Suggest how cytarabine is effective
in treating cancer. Cytarabine (3 marks)
NH2
NH2
N
N
HO
N O
HO N O
O
O
HO
OH
OH
Cytarabine
Deoxycytidine
Figure 6
NH2
e This question is also testing your knowledge and understanding. Again, part
(a) is more straightforward
N than part (b). Note that when a biology exam question
shows you chemical structures, as in part (c), this is usually so that you can see
thatHOtwo molecules are
N
similar
O in structure. You are not expected to have any
detailed knowledge
O of chemical structures.
Student A
(a) The centromeres will divide, separating the chromosomes into chromatids
OH
✓. Spindle fibres will contract, pulling ✓ the chromatids towards the poles
Deoxycytidine
of the cell ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded This is an excellent answer. Student A even gives detail
about the centromere dividing.
(b)
Mass
M
D
0 12 24 36 48
Time/h
(c) Cytarabine will form part of nucleotides that will be used instead of normal
cytosine nucleotides when DNA is replicated ✓. However, it is the wrong
shape to fit in the enzyme’s active site ✓, so a new molecule of DNA will not
be made. This will stop the cell dividing, and cancer cells divide too fast ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded This is a full answer, gaining full marks. Student A
clearly understands that the drug will result in nucleotides that mimic cytosine
nucleotides but are slightly different in shape, so DNA polymerase will not be
able to build them into functional DNA molecules. The idea that cancer cells
divide rapidly, so that stopping DNA replication will stop cancer spreading, is well
understood.
Student B
(a) The chromatids will separate ✓ and move to opposite poles of the cell ✓.
e 2/3 marks awarded This answer does not mention the role of the spindle
fibres.
(b)
Mass
D M
0 12 24 36 48
Time/h
e 1/2 marks awarded Student B has correctly identified when DNA replicates
but not mitosis. The downward part of the graph represents cytokinesis when
mitosis has finished.
(c) These molecules are similar in shape. It will make faulty cytosine
nucleotides ✓ that mean the DNA will not work properly.
e 1/3 marks awarded This answer scores 1 mark for the idea that the drug will
be incorporated into nucleotides that are then slightly different in shape. However
there is no mention of fitting into an enzyme’s active site, and it is not clear how
the DNA will be faulty — this is too vague. Student B does not relate the answer to
cancer cells dividing too quickly, either.
Question 5
(a) Complete Table 1 to give the names of the enzymes that catalyse each reaction. (3 marks)
Reaction Enzyme
Table 1
pH 1 pH 1
pH 11 Agar containing pH 11
starch
pH 3 pH 3
pH 9 Wells in agar, all pH 9
containing the
same volume and pH 7 pH 5
pH 7 pH 5
concentration of
amylase
Figure 7
(b) There were no clear zones round the wells for pH 1 and pH 11. Explain why. (3 marks)
(c) (i) The student concluded that the optimum pH for this enzyme is pH 7. Is
this a valid conclusion? Explain your answer. (2 marks)
(ii) Suggest a suitable control for this investigation, and explain why it is
needed. (2 marks)
e This questions starts with the usual straightforward recall part, but goes
on to test how well you can interpret information from an investigation. You will
probably have done at least one investigation to test the effect of a variable on the
action of an enzyme, but this exact example is likely to be unfamiliar. However, if
you understand the principles you should be able to cope with this fairly easily.
Student A
(a)
Reaction Enzyme
e 2/3 marks awarded The third enzyme isn’t wrong, just vague. Student A
should have written ‘DNA polymerase’. Note that it is important that the examiner
can read that you have written ‘lactase’ rather than ‘lactose’. If your writing is
not clear, you will not get the benefit of the doubt. If you have poor handwriting,
writing the answer to a question like this in capital letters might be a good idea.
(b) The starch had not been hydrolysed ✓ because these pHs are too acid or
too alkaline ✓.
The enzyme has been denatured ✓ so it cannot break down the starch.
e 3/3 marks awarded All 3 marks have been awarded for clear, correct answers.
(c) (i) This is wrong because the student didn’t test enough pH values. The
enzyme did work better at pH 7 than any other pH tested because it has
the largest clear zone ✓. However, the student should now test other pH
values between 6 and 8 because one of these might work better ✓.
(ii) Repeating this with boiled enzyme and buffer at each pH ✓. This would
show it is the enzyme digesting the starch and not the buffer solutions ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded These are excellent answers. Note that there is no mark
for saying whether the conclusion is right or not — the marks are for reasons.
Student A is clear on why a control is needed and what it should be.
Student B
(a)
Reaction Enzyme
e 2/3 marks awarded ‘Disaccharidase’ is too vague when you are told that the
specific substrate is lactose.
(b) These pHs are too far away from the optimum pH ✓ so the enzyme has been
denatured ✓ and starch has not been digested ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded It would have been better to use the word ‘hydrolysed’
rather than ‘digested’.
(c) (i) Yes, because this had the largest clear zone, so it worked best of
all the pHs ✓.
(ii) Use distilled water instead of the enzyme ✓ to show that it is the
enzyme that is digesting the starch ✓.
e 3/4 marks awarded In (c)(i) it would be wrong to say it is the right conclusion,
and no mark is given for this. Student B is aware that this is the pH that worked
best of those tested but does not recognise that a fuller range of pH values should
be tested before reaching this conclusion. In (c)(ii) student B suggests a different
control from that suggested by student A, but it is equally valid and the reason
given is also right, so both marks are awarded.
Question 6
(a) Give two properties of water that make it important in biology. (2 marks)
(b) Figure 8 shows the volume of red blood cells when placed in different
concentrations of sodium chloride.
Volume of red blood cells/arbitrary units
2.5
2.0
1.5
0.5
Figure 8
Student A
(a) Water has a relatively high heat capacity, making it slow to heat up and
cool down ✓.
It is an important solvent in which metabolic reactions take place in cells ✓.
(b) (i) As the sodium chloride concentration increases, the volume of the red
blood cells decreases. It decreases rapidly at first and then slightly less
rapidly from 100 mmol dm−3 onwards ✓.
(ii) If the water potential outside the cell is greater than the water potential
inside the cell, the cell takes in water by osmosis and swells. When the
water potential outside the cell is lower than inside the cell ✓, the cell
loses water by osmosis ✓ and it shrinks in volume ✓.
(iii) These concentrations have a very high water potential compared with
the cell ✓, so the cell takes in so much water by osmosis that it bursts ✓.
e 6/6 marks awarded In (b)(i) the graph is described well and student A has
noticed the change in gradient. Part (b)(ii) is a good answer, using the correct
terminology. A clear explanation, using water potential terminology, is provided
for (b)(iii).
Student B
(a) It takes part in hydrolysis reactions ✓.
It is good for cooling you down.
e 1/2 marks awarded A mark is given for the first point but the second point
does not give the property of water that makes it good for cooling you down.
Student B should have mentioned the high latent heat of vaporisation.
(b) (i) As the concentration of sodium chloride increases, the volume of the
cells decreases .
(ii) Water leaves the cells by osmosis ✓ when the water potential outside
the cell is lower than the water potential inside the cell, and the other
way round ✓ .
(iii) The cells get even smaller and they are too hard to measure ✗ .
e 2/6 marks awarded In (b)(i) student B just states the general trend and has
not noticed the change in gradient, so no marks are awarded . The answer to (b)
(ii) gets 2 marks out of 3 — losing a mark for not explaining how this changes
the volume of the cells . In (b)(iii) student B has not read the question properly
and is looking at the right-hand side of the graph, consequently inventing a
rather unlikely explanation . He/she needed to realise that a concentration below
50 mmol dm−3 would be on the left-hand side of the graph .
Question 7
Figure 9 shows the human immunodeficiency virus.
Figure 9
(a) Name molecule Y. (1 mark)
(c) Name two organelles that would become more active in a B cell when it
starts producing antibodies. (2 marks)
(d) Molecule X can vary in shape. This means that it is difficult to develop a
vaccine against HIV. Explain why. (2 marks)
Student A
(a) RNA ✓
(b) Molecule X acts as an antigen ✓. A B cell in the lymph nodes with the
right shape receptor to fit the antigen is activated by a helper T cell ✓. The
activated B cell divides to produce a clone of plasma cells ✓ and memory
B cells. The plasma cells secrete antibodies that are specific to the viral
antigen ✓.
(d) If it changes shape, then antibodies against the previous antigen will not
be effective against the new shape ✓. This means that the memory cells
produced from a vaccine will not produce the correct-shaped antibodies ✓
to fit the new antigen.
e 2/2 marks awarded This is a good answer, gaining both marks. Student A has
referred to the idea of shape and the need for antibodies to bind to the antigen,
and also refers to memory cells being produced as a result of vaccination.
Student B
(a) genetic material ✓
e 1/1 mark awarded This is correct even though the specification does specify
more detail than this. However, if you can state that it is RNA, this is a better answer.
(b) It triggers a specific B cell to divide and produce plasma cells.✓. These
plasma cells secrete antibodies with the correct binding sites to attach to
the virus ✓ and destroy it.
e 2/4 marks awarded The answer does not state that molecule X acts as an
antigen and does not refer to helper T cells activating B cells. However, the
production of plasma cells and the secretion of specific antibodies are both
mentioned.
e 1/2 marks awarded The answer should specify rough endoplasmic reticulum.
(d) The vaccine will produce antibodies against a specific shape of molecule. If
the molecule changes shape, the antibodies will not fit ✓.
e 1/2 marks awarded Student B has the right idea that changing the shape of
molecule X means that previous antibodies will not fit to it. However, there is no
reference to memory cells.
Question 8
Figure 10 shows a drawing of a liver cell as seen using an electron microscope.
A
G D
F
Figure 10
(a) Complete Table 2 to give the name and function of each structure A–G. (7 marks)
Label Name of structure Function
A
B
C
D
E
F
G
Table 2
(b) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of using an electron microscope,
rather than an optical microscope. (2 marks)
(c) Give two ways in which prokaryotic cells are different from eukaryotic cells. (2 marks)
e Again this is a straightforward question, but note that in (a) you need the name
of the organelle and its function to gain a mark.
Student A
(a)
Label Name of structure Function
A Nucleolus Synthesises ribosomes ✓
B Ribosome Makes proteins ✓
C Mitochondrion Aerobic respiration ✓
D Lysosome Contains hydrolytic enzymes that destroy worn-
out organelles ✓
E Golgi apparatus Modifies proteins and packages them for secretion ✓
F Cell-surface Controls what enters and leaves the cell ✓
membrane
G Rough endoplasmic Synthesises and transports proteins ✓
reticulum
e 1/2 marks awarded A clear advantage is given but the disadvantage is too
vague. Saying it is harder to use (or more expensive) without explaining clearly
will not get you a mark. A mark would have been given for saying that specimens
need lengthy preparation for EM, while an optical microscope requires only
simple preparation.
(c) Prokaryotic cells have cell walls made of murein but if eukaryotic cells
have a wall it is usually made of cellulose ✓.
Prokaryotic cells have circular DNA but eukaryotic cells have linear DNA ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded These are two well-expressed answers. Notice that the
student has made it clear which cell is being described and a comparison between
the two cell types has been made.
Question 9
(a) (i) Why is the cell-surface membrane described as fluid mosaic? (2 marks)
(ii) What is the function of cholesterol in cell membranes? (1 mark)
(b) Give two functions of the proteins in cell surface membranes. (2 marks)
(c) In 1925 Gorter and Grendel investigated the structure of cell membranes.
■ They dissolved the lipids from all the red blood cells in 1 mm3 of blood in
an organic solvent and then spread these lipid molecules on the surface
of water where they would form a layer one molecule thick.
■ The area occupied by these lipids was 0.92 m2.
■ The surface area of all the red blood cells in 1 mm3 of blood is 0.47 m2.
(i) What did this tell Gorter and Grendel about the structure of cell
membranes? Use suitable calculations to support your answer. (2 marks)
(ii) Red blood cells have no internal organelles. Explain the importance of
this to the validity of their data. (2 marks)
e This is mostly testing recall of knowledge. However, the data are intended to
test your understanding using an unfamiliar context. Notice that in (c)(i) you are
asked to use calculations to support your answer.
Student A
(a) (i) It is fluid because the phospholipid molecules move around and change
places with each other ✓ and it is mosaic because the proteins form a
mosaic pattern, scattered among the phospholipids ✓.
(ii) It makes the membrane more stable by restricting the movement of
molecules in the membrane ✓.
(c) (i) It showed them that the cell surface membrane is two lipid molecules
thick ✓. This is because the area occupied by the single layer of lipids
(0.92 m2) is almost exactly double the total surface area of the red blood
cells (0.47 m2) ✓.
(ii) If there were internal organelles, some of these would have had
membranes around them, such as mitochondria ✓. This means that
when they dissolved the lipids from the cell they would have had more
molecules than were in the cell-surface membrane ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded In (c)(i) 1 mark is for the correct deduction and 1 mark is
for the calculation, although saying one figure is almost exactly double another is
about the simplest calculation that would be allowed. (c)(ii) is another clear and
detailed answer, gaining both marks.
Student B
(a) (i) It can move around and it is mosaic because the proteins form a mosaic.
(ii) It makes the membrane more fluid.
e 0/3 marks awarded In (a)(i) the student says ‘it’ moves around, which
presumably means the membrane. The membrane does not move significantly —
it is the molecules in it that move, so this is wrong. The proteins form a mosaic but
as this is the term the student is asked to explain, the answer cannot be credited
without explaining that the mosaic is a pattern, or that the proteins are scattered
among the phospholipids. In (a)(ii) the answer is wrong because it makes the
membrane more stable and restricts movement.
e 2/2 marks awarded Student B has given three answers when only two were
asked for. Luckily, all three are right, so no marks are lost.
(c) (i) Cell membranes are two phospholipids thick ✓. This is because
0.92/0.47 = 1.96, which is nearly 2 ✓.
(ii) Some cell organelles are surrounded by membranes ✓.
e 3/4 marks awarded In (c)(i) both marks are awarded and there is a clear
calculation to support the answer. In (c)(ii) there is 1 mark for understanding that
some cell organelles have membranes around them, but this is not linked to the
validity of the data, so the second mark cannot be awarded.
Question 10
(a) Describe how HIV causes the symptoms of AIDS. (6 marks)
(c) Explain the differences between active and passive immunity. (4 marks)
e This kind of question tests your knowledge and requires extended prose.
Student A
(a) HIV infects helper T cells ✓. The virus’s genetic information becomes
incorporated into the host cell DNA and may stay dormant for a long time. After
a period of time, the virus DNA becomes active and the virus multiplies inside
these cells ✓, destroying the cells when they burst out. T cells are important
in activating B cells ✓, so when T cells are destroyed by HIV the immune
system does not work properly ✓. This means the person is susceptible to
opportunistic diseases ✓, which are infectious diseases they would probably
fight off if they had the normal number of helper T cells ✓. An example is TB.
(b) The antigen is presented to a T cell in the lymph nodes ✓. The T cell with
receptors on its surface that are complementary to the antigen ✓ is activated
✓. This divides to form clones of T cells. One clone is cytotoxic T cells, which
destroy any cell that carries the specific antigen ✓. Another clone is helper T
cells, which activate B cells and increase antibody production by B cells ✓.
e 5/5 marks awarded This answer gives full details in a logical order and uses
good scientific terminology.
(c) Active immunity is when the body produces its own memory cells ✓ and
plasma cells that release antibodies ✓. Passive immunity is when the person
is given ready-made antibodies ✓, for example a baby receiving breast milk.
Passive immunity is short lived but active immunity is long lasting.
e 3/4 marks awarded This answer just missed the last mark because it does
not explain why passive immunity is short term. If student A had added that the
antibodies are broken down soon after they are given, the fourth mark could have
been awarded.
Student B
(a) HIV infects T cells. The virus multiplies inside these cells. This reduces the
number of T cells ✓. Without enough T cells the person’s immune system
is not very effective ✓ at stopping the person getting infectious diseases.
So the person gets a lot of infectious diseases and if AIDS is not treated
properly they will eventually die from an infection ✓.
e 3/6 marks awarded Student B says that the virus infects T cells, but does
not mention that it infects helper T cells and that helper T cells are important
72 AQA Biology
in activating B cells. Although the answer does mention that the person is
susceptible to infectious diseases, another mark could have been awarded if the
term ‘opportunistic diseases’ had been used.
(b) The antigen activates a specific T cell ✓, which divides to form clones of
cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells and plasma cells ✗. The cytotoxic T cells
destroy the antigen ✓.
e 2/5 marks awarded The answer states that a T cell is activated but does not
say that it has specific receptors in its membrane, nor that this is in the lymph
nodes. Student B correctly says that cytotoxic T cells are produced, and what they
do, but does not say what the helper T cells do. In addition, there is an error — T
cells do not produce plasma cells. Plasma cells are produced by B cells.
(c) Active immunity is when a person makes their own antibodies from plasma
cells ✓ and makes memory cells ✓. Passive immunity is when a person is
injected with antibodies that have been made by an experimental animal.
✓ This is much faster than active immunity because in active immunity it
takes time for the plasma cells to produce the antibodies ✓.
■■Test paper 2
This test has 91 marks available, and should take 2 hours to complete. This is similar in style to A-level paper 1.
Question 1
Figure 1 shows some biological molecules.
A CH2OH B CH2OH C
A CH OH B CH2OH C
C 2 O C O H CH2OH O H
H H H
C O C
H O H CH2OH O H R
H H H H
C C C C C C R
OH
H H OH
H H
HO C C OH HO C
OH H
C O C OH H C CH OH
2 H2N C COOH
OH H C C OH H
C C O C C CH2OH H2N C COOH
HO OH HO
C C C C H
H OH H OH C C
H OH H
H OH H OH
H OH
D E
D E
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH2
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH2
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH2
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 COO CH2
Figure 1
(a) Give the letter of the molecule(s) that fit each description in Table 1. (5 marks)
Description Molecule(s)
A molecule that is a polymer
A molecule that contains a glycosidic bond
A molecule that contains an ester bond
A molecule that would give a positive Benedict’s test for reducing sugar
A molecule that joins together with others to form a polypeptide
Table 1
Student A
(a)
Description Molecule(s)
A molecule that is a polymer D✓
A molecule that contains a glycosidic bond B, D ✓
A molecule that contains an ester bond E✓
A molecule that would give a positive Benedict’s test for A✓
reducing sugar
A molecule that joins together with others to form a polypeptide C ✓
e 5/5 marks awarded Five correct answers. Note that two examples are needed
in one case.
Student B
(a)
Description Molecule(s)
A molecule that is a polymer D, E
A molecule that contains a glycosidic bond B
A molecule that contains an ester bond E✓
A molecule that would give a positive A, B
Benedict’s test for reducing sugar
A molecule that joins together with others to C✓
form a polypeptide
e 2/3 marks awarded Although a protein contains peptide bonds, these hold the
protein in its primary structure, not the tertiary structure.
Question 2
Figure 2 represents the cell cycle.
Key
Mitosis P Prophase
P
M M Metaphase
A
A Anaphase
T
T Telophase
Interphase
Figure 2
(a) (i) Put a cross on Figure 2 to show where cytokinesis takes place. (1 mark)
(ii) Give two activities that occur in the cell during interphase. (1 mark)
(b) Vincristine is a drug that stops spindle fibres forming. What effect would this
drug have on mitosis? Explain your answer. (2 marks)
(c) Table 2 shows the percentage of nucleotides containing each of the four
bases in the DNA from various organisms.
Source of DNA Adenine % Guanine % Thymine % Cytosine %
Human 30 20 30 20
Turtle 28 22 28 22
E. coli 24
Salmon 29 21 29 21
Virus 25 24 33 18
Table 2
(i) Complete Table 2 to show the figures for E. coli. Explain how you arrived
at this answer. (1 mark)
(ii) The structure of the DNA in the virus is not the same as the structure
of DNA in the other organisms. Suggest what this difference in DNA
structure might be. (1 mark)
e This question is testing your knowledge and understanding. It starts with
simple recall but then moves to giving you information that is probably new to you,
to check whether you can apply your knowledge to an unfamiliar situation.
Student A
(a) (i) (cross placed right next to the line after telophase) ✓
(ii) DNA replication and protein synthesis ✓
(b) Mitosis will not be able to go past prophase ✓, because spindle fibres are
needed for the chromosomes to line up on during metaphase ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded Student A says clearly what will happen and then gives a
correct reason to explain.
This is because adenine pairs with thymine, and cytosine with guanine
so the amount of adenine nucleotides will be the same as thymine. The
rest of the nucleotides will be half cytosine and half guanine ✓.
(ii) The virus DNA must be single-stranded because A does not equal T and
C does not equal G ✓.
Student B
(a) (i) (a cross in telophase) ✗ (ii) DNA replication and respiration ✓
(b) Metaphase will not happen ✓ because a spindle is needed for the
chromosomes to attach to ✓.
Question 3
(a) (i) What is a capsid? (1 mark)
(ii) Viruses are considered to be non-living. Explain why. (2 marks)
(b) HIV infects helper T cells but not any other kind of cell. Explain how. (2 marks)
e This is another fairly straightforward question and answers can be brief if they
are focused on the right points.
Student A
(a) (i) A protein layer around the genetic material of a virus ✓.
(ii) They are thought to be non-living because they do not have a cell
structure ✓ and they show no metabolic activity such as respiration ✓.
(b) HIV has an attachment protein on its outside surface that fits with a
receptor protein ✓ in the cell surface membrane of a helper T cell. Other
kinds of cell do not have this attachment protein in their cell membranes ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded This is a fully correct answer that uses the right terminology.
Student B
(a) (i) A protein coat around the virus ✓.
(ii) Because they can only reproduce inside living cells ✓ and have no
metabolism of their own ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded Two brief answers, but enough for full marks.
(b) HIV fits with a receptor protein that is found only in the membrane of a
helper T cell ✓.
e 1/2 marks awarded Student B fails to refer to the attachment protein on the
surface of the virus.
Biological molecules • Cells 77
Question 4
Figure 3 shows part of a molecule of DNA.
X
O
Y
O
O
Z G
O
Figure 3
(a) Name: (i) bonds X (ii) molecule Y (iii) molecule Z. (3 marks)
Meselson and Stahl carried out an investigation to find out whether DNA
replication is conservative or semi-conservative. They grew bacteria for many
generations in a medium containing a heavy isotope of nitrogen (15N). These were
then transferred to a medium containing the normal isotope of nitrogen (14N).
DNA samples were extracted from the bacteria after they had been growing
on the heavy nitrogen medium for many generations (generation 0), after one
generation on the normal nitrogen medium (generation 1) and again after two
generations on the normal nitrogen medium (generation 2). The DNA was
centrifuged in a solution. Figure 4 shows some of the results.
Figure 4
(b) (i) These results support the hypothesis that DNA replicates semi-
conservatively. Explain how. (3 marks)
(ii) Complete Figure 4 to show the results you would expect after one more
generation on the 14N medium. (2 marks)
Student A
(a) (i) hydrogen ✓ (ii) deoxyribose ✓ (iii) cytosine ✓
e 3/3 marks awarded Precise answers are needed here. Compare student B’s
response.
••
Student B
(a) (i) hydrogen ✓ (ii) five-carbon sugar (iii) organic base
e 1/3 marks awarded The answers to (a)(ii) and (iii) are not wrong but they are
not detailed enough. The question says this is DNA, so the five-carbon sugar must
be deoxyribose. Also, the base must be cytosine as it pairs with guanine.
(b) (i) The DNA in generation 1 is lighter than the generation 0 DNA but
heavier than the DNA in the top band in generation 2 ✓.
(ii)
Question 5
A student was given tubes containing the following:
Table 3
(a) She carried out a Benedict’s test for reducing sugars on all the tubes,
followed by a biuret test. Complete Table 3 to show the results you would
expect for each tube. Use ‘✓’ for a positive result and ‘✗’ for a negative result. (4 marks)
(b) Describe the features of glycogen that make it a good storage molecule. (3 marks)
e This should be straightforward if you have learned your tests for biological
molecules.
Student A
(a) Contents of tube Result of Benedict’s test Result of biuret test
Amylase and starch that had ✓ ✓ ✓
been incubated for 12 hours
Albumen, a protein ✗ ✓ ✓
Glucose ✓ ✗ ✓
Sucrose ✗ ✗ ✓
e 4/4 marks awarded 1 mark is given for each for each correct row.
e 3/3 marks awarded This gets full marks for three good features, all well
explained.
Student B
(a)
Contents of tube Result of Result of biuret
Benedict’s test test
Amylase and starch that had been ✓ ✗ ✗
incubated for 12 hours
Albumen, a protein ✗ ✓ ✓
Glucose ✓ ✗ ✓
Sucrose ✓ ✗ ✗
e 2/4 marks awarded Student B has not realised that the enzyme amylase is
a protein and will therefore give a positive biuret test result, or that sucrose is a
non-reducing sugar so will not give a positive result for Benedict’s test.
e 1/3 marks awarded This gets 1 mark for the ‘compact’ idea, but the statement
that glycogen is insoluble does not get a mark without explaining why this is a
useful feature.
Question 6
A student carried out an investigation to find the water potential of onion tissue.
She was given 500 cm3 of 1.0 M sucrose solution. She used this to set up two sets
of test tubes with sucrose concentrations ranging from 1.0 M to 0.1 M. Each set of
tubes contained 20 cm3 of sucrose solution.
(a) Complete Table 4 to show the volumes of distilled water and 1.0 M sucrose
solution she placed in each tube to produce 20 cm3 of the concentration
required. (2 marks)
Concentration of Volume of 1.0 M sucrose Volume of distilled water
sucrose/M added/cm3 added/cm3
0.9
0.4
Table 4
In one set of tubes she put a thin slice of onion tissue. In the other set of tubes
she placed a drop of methylene blue dye. She put a bung in each tube and left
them in a cool place for 24 hours.
After 24 hours, the student carefully removed the onion tissue from the tubes
containing onion. She replaced the bung and gently tapped the tubes to make
sure the contents were mixed.
The student took a Pasteur pipette and removed a few drops of the 1.0 M solution
with the blue dye in it. She carefully inserted the Pasteur pipette into the clear
solution and released a drop of dye. This is shown in Figure 5.
Test tube
Figure 5
The student observed carefully whether the blue drop rose, fell or hovered. Her
results are shown in Table 5.
Sucrose solution/M Movement of blue drop
1.0 Fell
0.9 Fell
0.8 Fell slowly
0.7 Hovered
0.6 Rose slowly
0.5 Rose
0.4 Rose
0.3 Rose
0.2 Rose
0.1 Rose
Table 5
(b) Use your knowledge of water potential to explain the results for:
(i) 1.0 M (3 marks)
(ii) 0.1 M (3 marks)
(c) The student decided that the water potential of the onion tissue was similar
to the water potential of 0.7 M sucrose. Explain why. (2 marks)
(d) (i) Explain why it was important that the student put a bung in each tube
before leaving it for 24 hours. (1 mark)
(ii) It was not important to weigh the slices of onion that the student used.
Explain why. (2 marks)
e This question is testing whether you can apply your understanding to what is
probably an unfamiliar practical situation. However, if you understand the topic
and build on practical skills you have acquired you should be able to answer this.
Once again, make sure you read the information in the question carefully.
Student A
(a) Concentration of Volume of 1.0 M Volume of distilled
sucrose/M sucrose added/cm3 water added/cm3
0.9 18 2✓
0.4 8 12 ✓
(b) (i) The 1.0 M sucrose solution has a lower water potential than the onion
cells ✓. Therefore water leaves the onion cells by osmosis ✓. This lowers
the density of the solution, so when the drop of dye enters it, it sinks ✓.
(ii) The 0.1 M sucrose solution has a higher water potential than the onion cells
✓. Therefore water enters the onion cells by osmosis ✓. This increases the
density of the solution, so when the drop of dye enters it, it rises ✓.
e 6/6 marks awarded These answers show clear understanding and are well
expressed.
(c) This is because the solutions are similar in density, as the drop of dye does
not rise or fall ✓. Therefore the onion cells and the solution have not taken
in or lost any water because they have the same water potential ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded Full marks for a correct reason here, expressed in terms
of water potential.
(d) (i) So no evaporation could take place that would change the water potential ✓.
(ii) The investigation is measuring whether the solution has taken in or lost
water ✓. This does not depend on the mass of the tissue used ✓.
e 3/3 marks awarded This is clearly expressed using the term ‘water potential’,
and also correctly refers to evaporation.
Student B
(a)
Concentration of Volume of 1.0 M Volume of distilled
sucrose/M sucrose added/cm3 water added/cm3
0.9 18 2✓
0.4 4 6
e 1/2 marks awarded Although the proportions are right in the second row, this
would not give a total volume of 20 cm3.
(b) (i) Water has left the onion cells by osmosis ✓. This lowers the density of
the solution, so when the drop of dye enters it, it sinks ✓.
(ii) Water has entered the onion cells by osmosis ✓. This increases the
density of the solution, so when the drop of dye enters it, it rises ✓.
e 4/6 marks awarded Student B has not used the term ‘water potential’ in the
explanation.
(c) This is because the solutions have stayed the same concentration, as the
drop of dye does not rise or fall. Therefore the onion cells and the solution
are in equilibrium ✓.
e 1/2 marks awarded 1 mark is awarded for understanding that the solution is
in equilibrium with the onion cells but there is no reference to water potential for
the second mark.
e 0/3 marks awarded Although the bung does stop evaporation, student B does not
explain that this would change the concentration or water potential of the solution. In
(d)(ii) student B is completely wrong, and has not seen that a change in density of the
solution does not require the onion tissue to be exactly uniform in each tube.
Question 7
Figure 6 shows the effect of substrate concentration on the rate of an enzyme-
controlled reaction.
Rate of reaction
B C
Substrate concentration
Figure 6
Table 6
(c) Explain why 2 cm3 of water was added to tubes 1 and 3, but not to tube 2. (1 mark)
Student A
(a) (i) Substrate concentration ✓ because when you add more substrate the
rate of reaction increases ✓.
(ii) Enzyme availability ✓ because all the active sites are being used ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded Student A has identified the limiting factor in each case,
and given a clear reason.
(b) The drug is a competitive inhibitor ✓ that fits in the active site of the enzyme
✓. This means that fewer enzyme molecules will form an enzyme–substrate
complex ✓, so less cholesterol is made.
e 3/3 marks awarded Note that student A uses the technical terms ‘active site’
and ‘enzyme–substrate complex’.
(c) To make the concentrations of enzyme and substrate the same in all the
tubes ✓.
(d) (i) ■ Tube 1: The protease enzyme in the pineapple had digested the
gelatine ✓.
■ Tube 2: The hydrochloric acid had denatured the enzyme ✓, so it
could not digest the gelatine ✓.
(ii) To show that it is an enzyme in the pineapple puree that digests the
gelatine ✓, because boiling the pineapple puree denatures the enzyme ✓.
e 5/5 marks awarded Full marks for correct, clearly written answers.
Student B
(a) (i) Substrate concentration ✓, because when you add more substrate the
rate of reaction increases ✓.
(ii) Availability of active sites ✓, because all the active sites are being used ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded Student B has identified the limiting factor in each case,
and given a clear reason.
(b) The drug is the same shape as the substrate, so it fits in the active site of
the enzyme ✓. This means that fewer enzyme molecules will bind to an
active site ✓, so less cholesterol is made.
e 2/3 mark awarded The drug is a similar shape to the substrate, not the same
shape, and student B has not described it as a competitive inhibitor.
e 0/1 mark awarded The concentrations of the enzyme and substrate need to be
the same.
(d) (i) ■ Tube 1: The pineapple had broken down the gelatine.
■ Tube 2: It was too acid, so it could not digest the gelatine ✓.
(ii) as a control
e 1/5 marks awarded For tube 1 student B has not said that it is an enzyme
in pineapple that digests the gelatine. For tube 2 student B recognises that the
gelatine is still present, but does not relate this to the denaturation of the enzyme.
In (d)(ii), although this is a control, student B has not shown that they understand
the purpose of the control. The answer should say that it is to show that the
enzyme is responsible for the effects noticed, and not any other factor.
Question 8
Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain their own DNA, which is like bacterial
DNA. They also contain ribosomes that are like bacterial ribosomes.
(a) Describe one way in which the following features of chloroplasts and
mitochondria are different from those of eukaryotic cells:
(i) DNA (1 mark)
(ii) Ribosomes (1 mark)
A biologist wanted to obtain a sample of chloroplasts for an investigation. He
homogenised some fresh spinach leaves in ice-cold, isotonic buffer solution. He
strained the mixture through muslin, then spun the mixture in a test tube in an
ultracentrifuge.
(b) (i) Explain why the spinach leaves were homogenised in a buffer solution. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain why the buffer solution was:
■ ice cold (1 mark)
■ isotonic (1 mark)
(c) (i) The mixture was filtered before it was centrifuged. Suggest why. (1 mark)
(ii) The biologist could obtain a fairly pure sample of chloroplasts from the
mixture that had been spun in an ultracentrifuge. Explain how. (3 marks)
e This question is about a technique you should be familiar with. Therefore this
is testing knowledge and understanding.
Student A
(a) (i) This will be circular instead of being linear ✓.
(ii) These will be smaller than eukaryotic ribosomes ✓.
(b) (i) This keeps the pH constant ✓ so that the enzymes do not denature ✓.
(ii) ■ Ice cold: to stop enzyme activity ✓.
■ Isotonic: to stop the organelles taking in water by osmosis and
bursting ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded These clear and accurate answers are worth full marks.
e 4/4 marks awarded In (c)(i) student A uses good terminology. Part (c)(ii)
correctly refers to the density of the organelles, rather than the weight or size.
Student B
(a) (i) The DNA is circular.
(ii) They are smaller.
e 0/2 marks awarded Student B has not made it clear whether they are
referring to the feature of prokaryotic cells or eukaryotic cells.
e 1/4 marks awarded 1 mark is awarded for the buffer keeping the pH constant
but there is no reference to stopping the enzymes from denaturing. In (b)(ii) it does
not matter whether the cells burst, as we want the cells to be broken open, which
is why they are homogenised. It is the organelles that need to be kept intact.
e 0/4 marks awarded In (c)(i) student B does not say how large particles might be in
the tube. It needs to be clear that large particles will be parts of the tissue that have not
been broken up in homogenisation. The term ‘cell debris’ is the best way to explain this.
In (c)(ii) student B needs to explain that centrifugation separates organelles by density,
and show that they understand that the chloroplasts will be in the second pellet.
Question 9
(a) (i) Give two functions of proteins in cell-surface membranes. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain the features of phospholipids that enable them to form a bilayer
in a cell-surface membrane. (2 marks)
In an investigation, scientists placed human cells in a solution of calcium ions. At
regular intervals they measured the concentration of calcium ions in the solution
and inside the cells. Their results are shown in Figure 7.
concentration/arbitrary units
20
Concentration of
external solution
Calcium ion
15
10
5
Mean concentration
inside cells
0 20 40 60 80
Time/minutes
Figure 7
(b) By what process did the calcium ions leave the cells? Use evidence from
Figure 7 to support your answer. (2 marks)
e This question starts with easy recall but then gives you a graph to test
whether you can apply your knowledge correctly.
Student A
(a) (i) channel proteins ✓ and receptors ✓
(ii) The ‘heads’ are hydrophilic and the ‘tails’ are hydrophobic ✓. This
means that the heads always arrange themselves towards water and
the tails arrange themselves away from water ✓.
e 4/4 marks awarded Clear and correct answers, for full marks.
(b) Active transport ✓, because the ions reach a much higher concentration
outside the cell than inside, so they move against a concentration gradient ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded Full marks again for a clear, well-expressed answer.
Student B
(a) (i) carrier proteins ✓ and antigens ✓
(ii) The ‘heads’ are water loving and the ‘tails’ are water hating ✗.
e 2/4 marks awarded In (a)(ii) student B should have used the terms
‘hydrophilic’ and ‘hydrophobic’, and then explained how these properties cause
the phospholipids to orientate themselves into a bilayer.
(b) Active transport ✓, because the ions leave the cell against a concentration
gradient ✓.
e 2/2 marks awarded A succinct answer is all that is needed for full marks.
Question 10
(a) Describe how B cells respond to a pathogen. (6 marks)
(b) Explain how a vaccine can prevent a person from developing an infectious disease. (5 marks)
Student A
(a) The antigen is presented to a B cell in the lymph nodes ✓ that has receptors
in its membrane that are complementary to the antigen ✓. This B cell is
activated by a helper T cell ✓, so it divides to form two clones. One clone
consists of plasma cells ✓, which secrete antibodies specific to the antigen
✓. Another clone is memory B cells, which retain an immunological
memory of the original antigen ✓.
e 6/6 marks awarded This is an excellent account, which is detailed and clearly
expressed.
Student B
(a) The antigen is presented to a B cell in the lymph nodes ✓, which is activated
by a helper T cell ✓. It divides to form a clone consisting of plasma cells ✓,
which secrete antibodies specific to the antigen ✓. It also produces memory
B cells, which remember the original antigen ✓.
e 5/6 marks awarded A further mark would have been awarded for reference to
the receptors in the B cell membrane that are complementary to the antigen.
(b) The vaccine causes plasma cells and memory cells to be produced ✓. If
the antigen is encountered again the memory B cells produce specific
antibodies ✓ so fast that the person does not become ill ✓.
e 3/5 marks awarded Student B does not explain that the vaccine contains
antigens, and there is no reference to the primary and secondary response.
(c) People who are vaccinated cannot become infected with the pathogen that
causes the disease ✓. This means that infected people are unlikely to meet
an unvaccinated person to pass on the infection ✓.
e 2/4 marks awarded The answer needs to mention herd immunity, and there
is no explanation of the concept, i.e. that if most people in a population are
vaccinated, it is difficult for an infectious disease to spread.
Required practical 2
1 You would keep a tally of how many cells are in each stage. You can find the percentage of time
spent in each stage by the formula:
number of cells in stage
× 100%
total number of cells
Then you find how long it takes the cell to complete mitosis and work out how long each stage is by
using the percentages calculated above.
Required practical 3
final mass – original mass
1 × 100%
original mass
2 So that the tubes could be compared. The mass of potato in each dish is not exactly the same.
3 1.0 M sucrose has a lower water potential than the potato cells, so water leaves the potato cells by
osmosis. Therefore they lose mass. The 0.1 M sucrose has a higher water potential than the potato
cells, so water enters the potato cells by osmosis, causing the potato cells to gain mass.
4 There are several possible answers here but one possibility is to compare the intensity of colour to a
colour chart.
3 0 A enters by simple diffusion, as the rate system will mount an immune response against the
of diffusion into the cell increases as the kidney unless the immune system is suppressed.
concentration of the molecule outside the cell 37 This is because they are all the same and are
increases. B enters by facilitated diffusion specific to the same antigen.
because the rate of diffusion into the cell 38 This is a ‘booster’ to increase the number of memory
increases as the concentration of the molecule cells present.
outside the cell increases, until a point is reached 39 After a vaccine is administered, it takes time for a
where the rate levels off. This is the point where primary response to occur and for specific antibodies
all the carrier proteins are being used, so diffusion and memory cells to be produced. If the person is
cannot go any faster. already infected, a primary response will be happening
31 a in their body anyway. Vaccines are only effective if
a primary response takes place before the person
A B is infected, so that a rapid secondary response is
stimulated when the person encounters the pathogen.
-1 kPa -5 kPa
40 This is passive immunity because the baby is
receiving ready-made antibodies and does not
produce memory cells of its own.
41 This is active immunity because the person
C is mounting their own immune response to
-3 kPa an antigen, making their own antibodies and
memory cells.
42 The antibodies would treat the tetanus infection,
but the horse antibodies would act as a non-self
antigen to the person. Therefore the person will
b The fastest rate of flow is from A to B as the mount an immune response against the horse
water potential gradient is greatest between antibodies. If they are used a second time, there will
these two cells. be a big secondary response, with large numbers of
32 a It will take in water and its volume will increase. antibodies released to bind to the horse antibodies,
There is no cell wall around it, so once the cell and they would not be effective.
reaches a certain volume it will burst. 4 3 Helper T cells stimulate antibody production by
b A plant cell will not burst as it has a fairly rigid plasma cells, so fewer antibodies will be made in
cell wall around it, so there is a limit to how response to pathogens.
much its volume can increase when it takes in 4 4 HIV has an attachment protein that fits into a
water by osmosis. receptor protein on the helper T cell membrane. No
33 Ion A enters by diffusion because it enters the cell other kind of cell has this receptor protein on its cell
down a concentration gradient. Ion B enters by active surface membrane.
transport, as there is a greater concentration of the 45 Mouse antibodies would be slightly different in their
ion inside the cell than outside, so it is entering the structure from human antibodies. A human given
cell against a concentration gradient. normal mouse antibodies would mount an immune
3 4 This increases the surface area of the cell, so that response against them and the antibodies would not
digested food molecules can be absorbed more be effective.
efficiently. 4 6 a This is so that any antibodies that have not bound
35 It actively transports sodium ions out of the cell, to the antibodies in the well are washed away. If
creating a low concentration of sodium ions inside they remained in the well they could give a false
the cell. Therefore glucose diffuses in at B, carrying positive result.
a glucose molecule with it. b The enzyme causes a colour change when the
36 The kidney will have antigens on it that are ‘self’ to final solution is added. This is necessary so that a
the person who donates the kidney but are ‘non-self’ visible colour change is seen and the doctor can
to the recipient. Therefore the recipient’s immune tell whether the test is positive or negative.
A channel proteins 38
acidity, measuring 23 chloroplasts 26
activation energy 12 cholesterol molecules 37
active immunity 50 chromatids 32–33
active transport 40–41 chromosomes 32–33
adenosine triphosphate (ATP) 21–22, 40–41 ciprofloxacin 34
agglutination 48 clonal selection 47
alkalinity 23 clones 46
amino acids 10 cohesion 23
anaphase 33 colchicine 34
animal cells 24 competitive inhibitors 15–16
antibiotics 52 condensation 7, 8, 18
antibodies 47–48 co-transport 41
antigen-presenting cells 45–46 cytokinesis 33, 34
antigens 45–46 cytotoxic cells 46
artefacts 29 cytoxan 34
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) 21–22, 40–41
attachment protein 28 D
attenuated vaccines 48 denaturing 11
densities 30
B deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) 18–19, 28, 34–35
bacterial cells 34–35 deoxyribose 18
Benedict’s test 11 diffusion 38–39
binary fission 34–35 disaccharides 8
Biuret test 11 DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) 18–19, 28, 34–35
B lymphocytes 47–49 DNA gyrase 34
DNA replication 20
C double helix 19
carbohydrates 7–8, 9, 11
carrier proteins 38, 41 E
cell cycles 32–34 ELISA tests 53
cell division 32–34 emulsion test 11
cell fractionation 30–31 enzyme concentration 13–14
cell membranes enzymes 12–17
movement across 38–42 eukaryotic cells 24–26
structure 37–38 extrinsic proteins 37
cell recognition 45–50
cells, methods of study 28–31 F
cell structure 24–31 facilitated diffusion 38–39
cell surface membrane 25 fatty acids 9
cellulose 8 flagella 27
cell wall 26, 27 fluid mosaic structure 37–38
centromere 32–33 fructose 7
H O
helper T cells 46, 51–52 opportunistic diseases 52
herd immunity 49 optical microscopes 28–29
high surface tension 23 optimum pH 13
HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) 51–52 organelles 24, 25–26
hydrolysis 7, 21 organs 26
osmosis 39–40, 42–45
I
immune system 45–53 P
induced fit 12 passive immunity 50
inhibitors 15–16 pH 13, 23
inorganic ions 23 phagocytes 45
interphase 32 phagocytosis 45–46
intrinsic proteins 37 phosphodiester bonds 18–19
iodine test 11 phospholipids 9–10, 37–38
isomers 7 Pi 21
plant cells 24, 25–26
L plasma cells 47
lactose 8
plasmids 27
latent heat of evaporation 23
polymers 7, 8
lipids 9–10
polynucleotide strands 18–19
lysosomes 25
polypeptides 10–11
M polysaccharides 8
magnification 29 primary immune response 48
maltose 8 prokaryotes 34–35
memory cells 47 prokaryotic cells 27
metabolites 22 prophase 33
metaphase 33 prostate cancer screening 53
microscopes 28–29 protein molecules 37
mitochondria 25 proteins
mitosis 25, 32–34 enzymes 12–16
molecules, in food 11 properties 10–11
R thermal buffers 23
resolution 29 tissues 26
reverse transcriptase 51 T lymphocytes 46
ribosomes 25 transmission electron microscopes 29
RNA (ribonucleic acid) 20–21, 28, 51 triglycerides 9
rough endoplasmic reticulum 25, 26
U
S ultracentrifugation 30–31
scanning electron microscopes 29 ultrastructure 29
secondary immune response 49
simple diffusion 38 V
size, calculating 29–30 vaccines 49–50
smooth endoplasmic reticulum 25 vacuole 26
solvents 22–23 vesicles 26
starch 8 viral replication 35–36
substrate concentration 14–15 viruses 27–28
sucrose 8
W
supernatants 30–31
water 22–23, 39–40
systems 26
water potentials 39–40, 42–45
T
telophase 33
temperature, and enzyme activity 12–13