TRƯỜNG THPT VĨNH LINH

ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPTQG 2022 - 01

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 1. My parents are________ to hear that I’ve passed the exam.
A.happy B. happily C. happiness D. unhappy
Question 2. Lady Gaga is an American singer, songwriter and actress, ______? 
A. doesn’t B. is she C. isn’t Lady Gaga D. isn’t she
Question 3. The children had to_______ in the principal’s office after they had taken part in a fight.
A. play second fiddle B. face the music
C. hit the right notes D. beat around the bush
Question 4. Laura was born in Boston ______2002.
A.by B. on C.in D.at
Question 5. The jury ______her compliments on her excellent knowledge of the subject.
A. paid B. gave C. made D. said
Question 6. I knew they were talking about me________ they stopped when I entered the room.
A.because of B. despite C. although D. because
Question 7. Indiana University, one of the largest in the nation, is located in a_______ town.
A. small beautiful Midwestern B. beautiful small Midwestern
C.beautiful Midwestern small D. Midwestern beautiful small
Question 8. The trouble with James is that he never _______on time for a meeting.
A. turns down B. turns up C. takes up D. take off
Question 9. When we came in, they _________the meal for us.
A. prepared B. prepare C. are preparing D. were preparing
Question 10. _________him, I will give him your regards.
A. When I see B. Before I saw C. Since I saw D. While I see
Question 11. The Youth Union in our school has decided to launch a/an__________ to raise funds for local
charities.
A. activity B. announcement C. campaign D. decision
Question 12. Researchers have ________ to the conclusion that personality is affected by your genes.
A. got B. reached C. arrived D. come
Question 13. The flood victims ________ with food and clean water by the volunteers.
A. provided B. were provided C. were providing D. provide .
Question 14. ________ this movie last week, I don’t want to see it again.
A. Having seen B. Being seen C. Having been seen D. Seeing
Question 15. The more you practice speaking in public, __________.
A. the more you become confident B. the more you become confidently
C. the greater confidence you become D. the more confident you become
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 16. “How fashionable a pair of trainers you have!”
- “______________”
A. Do you want to know where I bought them?
B. Thanks for your compliment.
C. I know it’s fashionable.
D. Yes, of course.
Question 17. “What did the meeting discuss? I didn’t attend it because of traffic jam.” - “______________”
A. I didn’t, either. B. That was great.
C. You missed the meeting. D. I’m sorry, I can’t.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18. A. report B. conclude C. deter D. sanction
Question 19. A. advertise B. definite C. understand D. composite

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 20. A. helped B. booked C. hoped D. waited
Question 21. A. item B. identical C. idiom D. ideal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22. The bomb exploded in the garage; fortunately, no one hurt.
A. put on B. went off C. got out D. kept up

Question 23. In life, Ray always gives me a hand with repairing the broken things in my house.
A. assists me by B. asks me to help with C. pleases me by D. serves me with

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community.
A. cooperate B. separate C. put togetherD. connect

Question 25. I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. withdraw some money from B. put some money into
C. give some money out D. leave some money inside
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 26. Seismology is not only used to determine the depth of the ocean floor. It is also used to locate oil.
A. Not only seismology is used to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
B. Not only seismology using to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
C. Not only is seismology used to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate oil.
D. Not only is seismology used to determine the depth of the ocean floor, it is also used to locate oil.
Question 27. He didn’t hurry. He missed the plane.
A. If he hurried, he wouldn’t miss the plane.
B. If he had hurried, he might catch the plane.
C. He didn’t miss the plane because he hurried.
D. If he had hurried, he could have caught the plane.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 28. (A)Our new neighbors (B)had been living in Paris (C)since ten years (D)before moving to their
present home.
Question 29. These people, (A)which houses (B)have been ruined by the storm (C)are spending the night in the
(D)local school.
Question 30. We should (A)learn all the new words (B)by heart in order to (C)rich our (D)vocabulary.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 31. The last time she played the piano was five years ago
A. The last time she played the piano five years ago. B. She doesn’t play the piano five years ago
C. She played the piano five years. D. She hasn’t played the piano for five years.
Question 32. It isn't necessary for you to finish the work right now.
A. It is necessary for you to start the work right now.
B. It isn't unnecessary for you to finish the work right now.
C. You don't have to finish the work right now.
D. You mustn't finish the work right now.
Question 33. “I can do this kind of job” David said
A. David said that he could do that kind of job B. David said that he can do that kind of job
C. David said that he could do this kind of job D. David said that I could do that kind of job

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Many people think that we can learn a lot about the culture of a foreign country (34)_____  by living in
that country. (35)____ , this is not necessarily true. Often the longer we stay in a foreign country, the more we
realize how little we actually know about the culture of that country. Books and talks about other people’s
culture can even (36)_____ dangerous because they concentrate on cultural differences and exaggerate national
characteristics; sometimes a lot of the information they contain is true.
In a survey recently carried out in Britain, people were asked to make a list of anything (37)_____ they
thought was typical of Britain and would interest foreign (37)_____ there. Most of them mentioned
Shakespeare, the Queen, village inns, English folk dancing, football hooligans, umbrellas, English castles,
cricket and fish and chips.

Question 34. A. simple B. simplicity C. simplify D. simply

Question 35. A. So B. However C. Unless D. Although
Question 36. A. be B. to be C. being D. will be
Question 37. A. in that B. when C. which D. where
Question 38. A. presenters B. visitors C. spectators D. viewers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The generation gap that was so in evidence during the 60s has resurfaced, but a 2009 study showed that it
was not the disruptive force. The Pew Research Center study found that 79% of Americans see major
differences between younger and older adults in the way they look at the world. In 1969, a Gallup Poll found
that a smaller percentage, 74%, perceived major differences.
Today, however, although more Americans see generational differences, most do not see them as divisive.
That is partly because of the areas of difference. The top areas of disagreement between young and old people,
according to the Pew Research Study, are the use of technology and taste in music. Grandparents are likely to
have observed these differences in their grandchildren who are tweens, teens, and young adults.
If large differences between the generations exist, why don't they spawn conflict? The answer is twofold.
First, the two largest areas of difference - technology and music - are less emotionally charged than political
issues. The older generation is likely to be proud of the younger generation's prowess in technology rather than
to view it as a problem. As for the musical differences, each generation wants its own style of music, and the
older generation generally can relate to that desire. Second, in the other areas of difference, the younger
generation tends to regard the older generation as superior to their own generation - clearly a difference from
the 1960s with its rallying cry of “Don't trust anyone over thirty!”. According to the Pew study, all generations
regard older Americans as superior in moral values, work ethics and respect for others.
Question 39. What is the passage mainly about?
A. Different points of view are the main problem between generations in America.
B. Generation gap doesn't cause a big problem in American families.
C. The areas of difference in generation gap have changed over the years.
D. The generation gap in the past was different from that in the modern time.
Question 40. According to paragraph 3, what are the two reasons why large differences between generations
don't cause disagreement?
A. The generosity of the elder generation and the attitude of the younger generation
B. The different styles of music and the knowledge of the elder generation
C. The pride of the elder generation and the obedience of the younger one
D. The major areas of difference between generations and the respect for the elder generation
Question 41. According to the passage, which is NOT true?
A. Grandparents feel uncomfortable with their grandchildren because of their better technology skills.
B. The majority of Americans agree that there are major differences in generations' viewpoints.
C. The elderly in America are admired in moral values, work ethics and respect for others.
D. Technology is one of the two biggest areas creating the gap between the old and the young.
Question 42. The word “prowess” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. skill B. enrichment C. creation D. awareness
Question 43. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. adults B. Americans C. differences D. areas
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Joseph Mallord William Turner, perhaps the most prolific and innovative of all British artists, was born in
London in 1775, to a barber and a wig-maker. Possibly due to the ill health of his mother, the young Turner was
sent to stay with various relatives as a child. His paintings are held in national and international collections, for
example at the Tate Gallery (London, UK), the Metropolitan Museum of Art (New York City, US) and the
Dunedin Public Art Gallery (New Zealand). He first exhibited at the Royal Academy at the age of 15. Slowly he
became well known and became a member of this institution. He remained a Londoner and kept a working-class
Cockney accent all his life, avoiding the veneer of social polish acquired by many artists of the time as they
climbed the professional ladder. Although he was better known for his oil paintings, he also made prints and he
was recognized as a master of water colors too.
Turner travelled throughout Europe and he particularly loved Venice. From the 1790s he undertook
sketching tours in England, Wales and Scotland, gathering material for water colors and oil paintings, and
gradually discovering the attractions of awe-inspiring mountainous landscapes, which became a major pre-
occupation in his work. In 1802 he made his first journey to Continental Europe. He was to return in 1817, after
the end of the Napoleonic wars, and from then on made annual visits across the Channel for much of the rest of
his life. Venice, as a maritime city, had an irresistible appeal for Turner, who from his earliest days was
absorbed in the power and serenity of the sea.
Between 1830 and 1839, Turner produced around 150 vignette illustrations for the work of authors who
included Scott, Lord Byron, Samuel Rogers, and Thomas Campbell. Turner was an enthusiastic reader and
responded with great sensitivity to the works he illustrated. He excelled at designing vignettes, often
condensing a vast range of incidents and landscapes into a miniature space.
Turner died at Cheyne Walk in Chelsea, and was buried in St Paul’s Cathedral. Because he had wanted all
of his paintings to stay in one building for the people of Britain, the Scottish National Gallery’s holdings of
works by Turner have entered the collection through a variety of purchases, gifts and bequests.
Question 44. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Turner’s life and profession. B. Turner’s travel and love.
C. The master of water colors. D. The holdings of works by Turner.
Question 45. What are NOT mentioned in the passage as Turner’s major works?
A. Prints. B. Oil paintings. C. Sand paintings. D. Water colors.
Question 46. The word “veneer” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. private property B. public image C. false appearance D. true quality
Question 47. For what purpose did Turner travel throughout England, Wales and Scotland?
A. To express his love for Europe. B. To collect material for his paintings.
C. To discover the new landscapes. D. To keep him away from the Napoleonic wars.
Question 48. Which of the following means most nearly the same as “absorbed in” in paragraph 2?
A. distracted from B. involved in C. fed up with D. supportive of
Question 49. What does the pronoun “he” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Samuel Rogers B. Turner C. Scott D. Thomas Campbell
Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the last paragraph?
A. Turner’s paintings were purchased for high prices in Britain.
B. Turner’s paintings were buried with him in St Paul’s Cathedral.
C. The Scottish National Gallery has restored Turner’s paintings to the original form.
D. The Scottish National Gallery has collected Turner’s paintings with great efforts.
 - The end! -

TRƯỜNG THPT LAO BẢO ĐỀ MẪU ÔN THI TN THPT NĂM 2022-02

ĐỀ MẪU THAM KHẢO Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút
--------------------------------------------------

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1: A. jumped B. picked C. relaxed D. suited
Question 2: A. teacher B. clear C. reason D. mean
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the words whose underlined part differs from
the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following question
Question 3: A. begin B. decide C. provide D. answer
Question 4: A. interview B. mischievous C. attention D. restaurant
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Mary’s happy, _________?
A. isn’t she B. didn’t she C. hasn’t she D. won’t she
Question 6: This house__________ in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 7: The part of the country is famous________ its pineapples.
A. at B. to C. for D. from
Question 8: __________the sun rises, the warmer the weather is
A. Higher B. The higher C. Highest D. The highest
Question 9: In the kitchen there is a ________table.
A. beautiful large round wooden B. large beautiful wooden round
C. wooden round large beautiful D. round large garden beautiful
Question 10: London ______ a lot since we first came to live here.
A. changed B. has changed C. changes D. had changed
Question 11: She accepted the job ________ the salary, which was rather low.
A. because B. because of C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: I will have waited at the airport ________
A. when she arrived B. by the time she arrives. 
B. after she had arrived D. until she had retired
Question 13: ________ all necessary information, he started writing his report.
A. collected B. Being collected C. Having collected D. To collect
Question 14: Only a few of the many species at risk of extinction actually make it to the lists and obtain legal
_______.
A. protect B. protection C. protective D. protector
Question 15: Then the manager of the company retires, the deputy manager will _______ that position.
A. hold on B. catch on C. stand for D. take over
Question 16: If she _________ all the requirements for the job, she would be offered.
A. meets B. gets C. takes D. does
Question 17: After marriage, Mrs Hoa always keep a good________ with her mother-in-law.
A. relationship B. relation C. friendship D. association
Question 18: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as a________.
A. waterfall B. bell C. mirror D. lake
Question 19: David never waste his time; He tries to improve himself at every________.
A. technique B. opportunity C. consideration D. operation
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens and dust.
A. occupied B. polluted C. concentrated D. filled
Question 21: He had never experienced such discourtesy towards the president as it occurred at the annual
meeting in May.
A. politeness B. rudeness C. encouragement D. measurement
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Unless the two signatures are identical, the bank won’t honor the check.
A. similar B. different C. fake D. genuine
Question 23: In the initial days and weeks, it was literally a case of living from hand to mouth.
A. sending all the money. C. saving lots of money
C. spending a large amount of money D. loosing all the money.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the fol-
lowing exchanges.
Question 24: Nam and Mai are having a party at Nam’s house.
Nam: “Would you like to have some more dessert, Mai?” - Mai: “______. I’m full.”
A. That would be great B. Yes, I like your party
C. Yes, please D. No, thanks
Question 25: Tim and Peter had a quarrel last week and now Tom is giving Tim advice.
Tom: “I think the best way to solve that problem is to keep silent.”
Tim: “______. Silence may kill our friendship.”
A. That’s a great idea B. That’s not a good idea
C. I’m not wrong D. Yes, I think much
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you felt like
people from younger generations just don't get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect with people (26) ______
are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you. You can probably thank the generation gap
for these feelings.
There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent Generation, Baby
Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (27) ______ generation has its own unique set of
characteristics and norms. For (28) ______ , the Greatest Generation (born 1901-1924) is known for its
patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000) are characterized by
their dependence on technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is
no (29) ______ that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each other.
Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that (30) ______ between
individuals from different generations. So, what causes these differences?
Question 26: A. whoB. which C. when D. what
Question 27: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each
Question 28: A. answer B. process C. example D. study
Question 29: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training
Question 30: A. trade B. exist C. credit D. target
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has
varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth
century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies.
Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time
Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to
add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half
dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars.
As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not
prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for each of the original
colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There
is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error.
Question 31: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Stars on American coins
B. The teaching of astronomy in state universities
C. Colonial stamps and coins
D. The star as national symbol of the United States
Question 32: The expression "Curiously enough" is used because the author finds it strange that _____.
A. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes
B. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794
C. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen
D. no silver coins were issued until 1794
Question 33: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars?
A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake.
C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin?
A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half dime
Question 35: The word "their" in line 1 refers to _________.
A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Do you feel like your teenager is spending most of the day glued to a phone screen? You're not too far
off. A new survey from the Pew Research Center reveals the surprising ways that technology intersects with
teen friendships – and the results show that 57 percent of teens have made at least one new friend online. Even
more surprisingly, only 20 percent of those digital friends ever meet in person.
While teens do connect with their friends face-to-face outside of school, they spend 55 percent of their day
texting with friends, and only 25 percent of teens are spending actual time with their friends on a daily basis
(outside of school hallways). These new forms of communication are key in maintaining friendships day-to-day
– 27 percent of teens instant message their friends every day, 23 percent connect through social media every
day, and 7 percent even video chat daily. Text messaging remains the main form of communication – almost
half of survey respondents say it's their chosen method of communication with their closest friend.
While girls are more likely to text with their close friends, boys are meeting new friends (and maintaining
friendships) in the gaming world – 89 percent play with friends they know, and 54 percent play with online-
only friends. Whether they're close with their teammates or not, online garners say that playing makes them feel
"more connected" to friends they know, or garners they've never met.
When making new friends, social media has also become a major part of the teenage identity – 62 percent of
teens are quick to share their social media usernames when connecting with a new friend (although 80 percent
still consider their phone number the best method of contact). Despite the negative consequences-21 percent of
teenage users feel worse about their lives because of posts they see on social media – teens also have found
support and connection through various platforms. In fact, 68 percent of teens received support during a
challenging time in their lives via social media platforms.
Just as technology has become a gateway for new friendships, or a channel to stay connected with current
friends, it can also make a friendship breakup more public. The study reveals that girls are more likely to block
or unfriend former allies, and 68 percent of all teenage users report experiencing "drama among their friends on
social media."
Question 36: The word "digital" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.
A. analogue B. numeracy C. numerous D. online
Question 37: The word "they" in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. friends B. online-only friends C. online gamers D. their teammates
Question 38: According to the passage, what percentage of teens spend actual time with their friends?
A. 23% B. 25% C. 27% D. 55%
Question 39: The following sentences are true, EXCEPT _____.
A. Most teenagers use video chat to maintain relationship with friends
B. New forms of communication play an important role in keeping friendships
C. According to the survey, more than half of teens have ever made new friends online
D. Teens only meet face-to-face one fifth of online friends they have made
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The majority of teenage users agree that social media has negative consequences in their lives.
B. Thanks to social media, more than two thirds of teens are supported when they face with challenges
in their lives.
C. Boys are more likely to meet new friends than girls.
D. Most teens are not easy to give others their usernames when making new friends.
Question 41: What is the synonym of the word "breakup” in the last paragraph?
 A. commencing B. popularity C. termination D. divorce
Question 42: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The difference of making new friends between girls and boys.
B. Social media connects friendship.
C. Social media affects friendship too much.
D. Teenagers are making and keeping friends in a surprising way.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: What I told her a few days ago is not the solution to most of her problems.
A B C D
Question 44: Tom’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with it just because he’s the boss.
A B C D
Question 45: Modern office buildings have false floors under which computer and phone wires
A B C
can be lain.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions
Question 46: The last time I saw her was three years ago.
A. I have not seen her for three years.
B. About three years ago, I used to meet her.
C. I have often seen her for the last three years.
D. I saw her three years ago and will never meet her
Question 47: She said, "John, I'll show you round my city when you're here."
A. She made a trip round her city with John.
B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She promised to show John round her city.
D. She organized a trip round her city for John.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow afternoon.
 C. You may finish the report after tomorrow afternoon.
D. You should finish the report until tomorrow afternoon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe. She now regrets it.
A. Susan wishes that she applied for the summer job in the cafe.
B. Susan feels regret because she didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
C. If only Susan didn’t apply for the summer job in the cafe.
D. Susan wishes that she had applied for the summer job in the cafe.
Question 50: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang.
A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang.
B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang.
C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down.
D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang.

------------------HẾT-----------------

TRƯỜNG THPT LQD KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2022-03

ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 5 trang,) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. protested B. wondered C. answered D. resolved
Question 2: A. fame B. walk C. lane D. cage
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. apply B. require C. obtain D. rescue
Question 4: A. hospital B. extinction C. quality D. ancestor
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: They are your classmates, ____________?
A. haven’t they B. didn’t they C. won’t they D. aren’t they
Question 6: The students ___________ to take part in extracurricular activities.
A. encourage B. were encouraging C. were encouraged D. encouraged
Question 7: Parents should be responsible ___________ taking care of their children.
A. of B. for C. with D. to
Question 8: The richer they are, __________ they become.
A. the more generous B. more generous C. the most generous D. most generous
Question 9: My mother has bought me a _____________ watch.
A. new Swiss grey B. grey new Swiss C. Swiss new grey D. new grey Swiss
Question 10: Tom was playing football when he ____________ his leg.
A. broke B. was breaking C. breaks D. is breaking
Question 11: Many people failed to send their children to school ___________ their poverty.
A. because B. because of C. though D. in spite of
Question 12: The men will have finished their work ___________.
A. before you will comeback B. by the time you come back
C. after you had come back D. as soon as you came back
Question 13: __________ the message to his boss, he felt completely relaxed.
A. Being sent B. To send C. Having sent D. Sent
Question 14: Japan has submitted an ____________ to host the World Cup.
A. apply  B. applicant C. application D. applicable
Question 15: It rained so heavily that the plane couldn’t __________.
A. take off B. go up C. pull down D. put out
Question 16: ___________your time - don’t rush!
A. Tell B. Find C. Spend D. Take
Question 17: We usually go by train, even though the car _________ is a lot quicker.
A. journey B. trip C. voyage D. travel
Question 18: This is where I grew up. I know this area like the _________of my hand.
A. back B. palm C. finger D. knuckle
Question 19: You are requested to fasten your seatbelts in the ___________ of safety.
A. benefits B. interests C. advantages D. profits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: His friend was injured and he was fortunate to return home safe and sound.
 A. lucky B. famous C. popular D. healthy
Question 21: The universities want to preserve their autonomy from central government.
A. support B. influence C. independence D. control
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions
Question 22: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (UCN) Red List is a comprehensive
catalogue of the conservation status of species.
A. understandable B. incomplete C. total D. diverse
Question 23: I take issue with those who try to impose their will on others.
A. totally agree with B. strongly disagree with
C. strongly object to D. thoroughly disapprove of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 24: Jane and Mary are talking about their future jobs.
Jane: “I have always dreamt of working for an international newspaper.” Mary: “______”
A. It was a quality newspaper B. Sounds great. I’m confident you’ll be successful.
C. I was just going to say that. D. That’s a good idea.
Question 25: David and Tom are talking about protecting endangered species.
David: “We should protect endangered species because animal and plant extinction can ruin the ecosystem
and reduce biodiversity.”
Tom: “_______. Saving species in danger of extinction means going against the laws of nature”
A. I couldn’t agree more. B. I’m afraid I disagree.
C. Absolutely. D. No doubt about it.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
THE UNITED NATIONS
The main United Nations organization is in New York City, 26. ________ the UN has a "family"
of other related organizations all over the world. These organizations try to provide a better life for
everyone. One example is UNICEF, an organization that provides food, medical care, and many other
services to poor children wherever they live. Another example is the World Health Organization, 27.
_________ develops medical programs all over the world.
There are thousands of UN workers in developing countries. They work as planners to increase
28. __________ in farming and industry. They provide medical services, improve education programs,
and spread scientific information. They develop programs that provide jobs and better living
conditions. They help countries 29. _________ their population growth.
The United Nations also holds large international conferences, where people meet to discuss
important world issues. One conference was about the uses and ownership of oceans. 30. ________ was
about women. There are also International Years. In these special years, people work together to
improve situations and solve problems. One year was the International Year of the Child.
Question 26: A. however B. but C. so D. therefore
Question 27: A. which B. that C. where D. who
Question 28: A. result B. effect C. production D. outcome
Question 29: A. control B. manage C. adjust D. balance
Question 30: A. Some B. Other C. Others D. Another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Experiments have shown that in selecting personnel for a job, interviewing is at best a hindrance, and
may even cause harm. These studies have disclosed that the judgments of interviewers differ markedly and bear
little or no relationship to the adequacy of the job applicants. Of the many reasons why this should be the case,
four in particular stand out.
The first reason is related to an error of judgment known as the halo effect. If a person has one
noticeably good trait, his or her other characteristics will be judged as better than they really are. Thus, an
individual who dresses smartly and shows self- confidence is likely to be judged capable of doing a job well
regardless of his or her real ability. The horns effect describes essentially the same error, but focuses on one
particularly bad trait. Here the individual will be judged as incapable of doing a good job because of one flaw.
Interviewers are also prejudiced by the primacy effect. This error occurs when interpretation of later
information is distorted by earlier related information. Hence, in an interview situation, the interviewer spends
most of the interview trying to confirm the impression given by the candidate in the first few moments. Studies
have repeatedly demonstrated that such an impression is unrelated to the aptitude of the applicant.
The phenomenon known as the contrast effect also skews the judgment of interviewers. A suitable
candidate may be underestimated because he or she is different from a previous one who appears exceptionally
intelligent. Likewise, an average candidate who is preceded by one who gives a weak showing may be judged
as more suitable than he or she really is.
Since interviews as a form of personnel selection have been shown to be inadequate, other selection
procedures have been devised that more accurately predict candidate suitability. Of the various tests devised,
the predictor that appears to do this most successfully is cognitive ability as measured by a variety of verbal and
spatial tests.
Question 31: What could be the best title for the passage?
A. Effects of Interviewing on Job Applicants
B. Weaknesses of the Job Interview Process
C. Judgements of Interviewers Concerning Job Applicants
D. Techniques Interviewers Use for Judging Job Applicants
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, the halo effect __________.
A. stands out as the worst judgement error
B. only takes effect when a candidate is well dressed
C. exemplifies how one good characteristic colors perceptions
D. increases the interviewer’s ability to judge real potential
Question 33: The word “hindrance” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. encouragement B. assistance C. procedure D. interference
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. characteristics B. individuals C. effects D. experiments
Question 35: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason why
interviewing is not an accurate way to predict candidate suitability?
A. halo effect B. primacy effect C. contrast effect D. cognitive effect
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
Almon Strowger, an American engineer, constructed the first automatic telephone switching system, which
had a horizontal, bladelike contact arm, in 1891. The first commercial switchboard based on his invention
opened in La Porte, Indiana, a year later and was an instant success with business users. To access the system,
the caller pressed buttons to reach the desired number and turned the handle to activate the telephone ringer.
During the same year, Strowger's step-by-step call advancement technology was implemented in the long-
distance service between New York and Chicago when it proved to have the capacity of carrying signals
through cable-joint extensions.
The first actual dial telephones, patented by Lee De Forest in 1907, were installed in Milwaukee in 1896. In
1912, their sound transmittal apparatus adapted an electronic tube to function as an amplifier. Transatlantic
radio-telephone service linked New York and London in 1927. However, the long distance coaxial cable, which
was hailed as unprecedented, came on the scene in 1936 connecting New York and Philadelphia. The Bell
Laboratories research facility came up with the transistor to replace the cumbersome vacuum tube, thus
diminishing the size of the electronic switch system to about 10 percent of that of the original. Crossbar
switching, installed in terminals in 1938, operated on the principle of an electromagnetic force, which rotated
horizontal and vertical bars within a rectangular frame and brought contacts together in a split second. A
technological breakthrough in the form of undersea cables between the United States and Hawaii was
implemented almost twenty years later. An extension was connected to Japan in 1964.
Question 36: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. A Link between Research and Technology
B. The Telephone: A Technological Fantasy
C. The Developing Sophistication of the Telephone
D. The Patent History of the Telephone
Question 37: The word "instant" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. immeasurable B. impelling C. immediate D. impervious
Question 38: How did Lee De Forest improve the existing telephone?
A. He integrated the mouthpiece and the receiver.
B. He created a device to boost the reception quality.
C. He made implementation of the dial system possible.
D. He modified a pipe to transmit sound.
Question 39: The word "hailed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. prepared B. preserved C. praised D. proposed
Question 40: The phrase "of that" in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. the size B. the tube C. the system D. the percent
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Strowger's switchboard found application in long-distance lines because it could carry connections
through cable extensions
B. Telephone networks expanded because of the work of a few inventions.
C. The first commercial switchboard based on Strowger’s invention opened in 1892.
D. The use of the transistor helped to reduce the size of the electronic switch system.
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that initially telephones _________.
A. utilized human operators
B. were limited to businesses
C. revitalized business in La Porte, Indiana
D. did not have a bell
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Tom first meets his wife when he was at university nearly twenty years ago.
A B C D
Question 44: The whale’s inexplicable predilection for beaching itself is the second greatest threat to their
A B C D
survival.
Question 45: Many important historic documents were destroyed when the library was bombed.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: I haven’t been to the cinema for two months.
A. I went to the cinema for two months.
B. The last time I went to the cinema was two months ago.
C. It was two months ago that I didn’t go to the cinema.
D. I didn’t go to the cinema for two months.
Question 47: “Shall I carry the shopping for you?" said the man to me.
A. I wanted the man to carry the shopping for me. B. The man asked me to carry the shopping for him.
C. The man offered to carry the shopping for me. D. I said that the man should carry the shopping for me.
Question 48: You are not allowed to talk during the exam.
A. You shouldn’t talk during the exam. B. You mustn’t talk during the exam.
C. You may not talk during the exam. D. You needn’t talk during the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Jim missed the first part of the movie. He regrets it now.
A. Jim wishes he hadn’t missed the first part of the movie.
B. It was Jim’s wish that he didn’t miss the first part of the movie.
C. Jim regrets not to miss the first part of the movie.
D. It was with great regret that Jim didn’t miss the first part of the movie.
Question 50: Edward Jenner developed the first anti-smallpox serum in 1796. There was protection against this
terrible disease only then.
A. Only after there was protection against smallpox did Edward Jenner develop the first anti-smallpox serum in
1796.
B. But for Edward Jenner’s development of the first anti-smallpox serum in 1796, there would be protection
against this terrible disease.
C. No sooner had there been protection against smallpox than Edward Jenner developed the first anti-smallpox
serum in 1796.
D. Not until Edward Jenner developed the first anti-smallpox serum in 1796 was there protection against this
terrible disease.

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