03-07-2022 Code-J

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone:011-47623456

MM: 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST - 09 Time: 3 Hrs

(OYM)
KNCF01
Topics covered:
Physics : Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : Optical Isomerism
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance: Introduction, The DNA-structure of polynucleotide chain,
Derivation of DNA structure, DNA packaging in prokaryotes, DNA Packaging in eukaryotes, the
search for genetic material, Transforming principle, Evidence from experiments with
bacteriophage, Properties of genetic material, RNA world
Zoology : Biotechnology-Principles and Processes: Principles of Biotechnology, tools of recombinant
DNA technology, Separation and isolation of DNA fragments, cloning vectors, competent host,
Processes of recombinant DNA technology

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS
4
Choose the correct answer: (3) sin−1   (4) 90°
1. In resonance state of LCR series circuit, 5
resonance frequency of circuit is f. If the  0.4 
capacitance is made 4 times of initial value 3. In the L-R circuit the value of L is   H and
keeping inductance same, then the new  π 
resonance frequency will be value of resistance R is 30 Ω. If in the circuit an
alternating emf of 200 V at 50 cycles/sec is
1 1
(1) times (2) times connected the impedance of circuit and current
4 2 respectively will be
(3)
1
times (4) 4 times (1) 11.4 Ω, 17.5 A (2) 30.7 Ω, 6.5 A
3 (3) 40.4 Ω, 5 A (4) 50 Ω, 4 A
2. The initial phase angle for current I = 10 sin ωt + 4. A 60 µF capacitor is connected to a 110 V, 60 Hz
8 cos ωt, is AC supply. The rms value of current in the circuit
4 5 is
(1) tan−1   (2) tan−1  
5 3 (1) 2.5 A (2) 2.1 A
(3) 3.1 A (4) 3.5 A

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

5. In step-up transformer relation between number 1 1

of turns in primary coils (NP) and number of turns (3) (4)
2πf (2πfL − R ) πf (2πfL − R )
in secondary coils (NS), are related as
(1) NS > NP (2) NP > NS 13. In the circuit given below what will be the reading
(3) NS = NP (4) NP = 2NS of voltmeter?
6. The turns ratio NS : NP , of an ideal transformer
is given as 2 : 3. If the current passing through
the primary coil is 3 A, the current in secondary
coil is
(1) 4.5 A (2) 15 A
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A
7. A transformer is used to light a 50 W – 110 V
lamp from 220 mains. If main current is 0.25 A,
efficiency of transformer is
(1) 300 V (2) 900 V
(1) 91% (2) 95%
(3) 96% (4) 99% (3) 200 V (4) 400 V
8. In AC series circuit the resistance, inductive 14. The voltage of an source varies with time according to
reactance and capacitive reactance are 3 Ω, the equation, V = 100 sin 100 πt cos 100 πt.
10 Ω and 14 Ω respectively. The impedance of Where t is in second and V is in volt, then
circuit is (1) The peak voltage of the source is 100 volt
(1) 5 Ω (2) 4 Ω (2) The peak voltage of source is 50 volt

(3) 7 Ω (4) 10 Ω (3) The peak voltage of source is 100/ 2 volt

9. In an AC circuit, I = 100 sin 200 πt. The minimum (4) The peak voltage of source is 100 2 volt
time required for the current to achieve its peak 15. In the circuit shown in figure, neglecting source
value from I = 0 will be resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading
1 1 will respectively will be
(1) s (2) s
100 200
1 1
(3) s (4) s
300 400
10. An alternating voltage is connected in series with
a resistance R and an inductance L. If the
potential drop across the resistance is 200 V and
across the inductance is 150 V then the applied
voltage is
(1) 350 V (2) 250 V (1) 0 V, 3 A (2) 150 V, 3 A
(3) 500 V (4) 300 V (3) 150 V, 6 A (4) 0 V, 8 A
11. A 20 volts AC is applied to circuit consisting of a
16. In a circuit current changes with time according
resistance and a coil with negligible resistance. If
the voltage across the resistance is 12 V, the to I = 2 t , rms value of current between t = 2 s
voltage across the coil is to t = 4 s will be
(1) 16 V (2) 10 V
(1) 3 A (2) 3 3 A
(3) 8 V (4) 6 V
12. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series (3) 2 3 A (4) (2 − 2) A
with an alternating voltage source of frequency f.
The current leads the voltage by 45°. The value 17. For a series RLC circuit, R = XL = 2XC. The
of C is impedance of the circuit and phase difference
between V and I will be
1 1
(1) (2)
2πf (2πfL + R ) πf (2πfL + R )

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

5R 5R  1 E = E0sin(kx – ωt)
(1) , tan−1(2) (2) , tan−1  
2 2 2 B = B0sin(kx – ωt)

(3) 5 XC , tan−1(2) (4) 2R, tan−1(3) Which of the following equation is true?

18. Which one of the following curve best represent (1) E0k = B0ω (2) E0ω = B0k
the variation of impedance, Z with the frequency,
k 2B0
f in series LCR circuit? (3) E0B0 = ωk (4) E0 =
ω
23. In a plane electromagnetic wave, electric field
(1) varies with time having an amplitude 1 V m–1.
The frequency of wave is 0.5 × 1015 Hz. The
wave is propagating along x-axis. The average
energy density of electric field is
(2) (1) 1.1 × 10–12 J m–3 (2) 2.2 × 10–12 J m–3
(3) 3.3 × 10–12 J m–3 (4) 4.4 × 10–12 J m–3
24. A pure inductor of inductance 25 mH is
connected to a source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The rms
(3)
value of current is
(1) 14 A (2) 20 A
(3) 28 A (4) 30 A
25. The self inductance of the motor of an electric fan
(4) is 10 H. In order to impart maximum power at 50
Hz, it should be connected to a capacitance of
(take π2 = 10)
19. A capacitor is having a capacity of 2 pF. Electric
(1) 3.0 × 10–6 F (2) 2.0 × 10–6 F
potential across the capacitor is changing at the –6
(3) 1.0 × 10 F (4) 1.0 × 10–3 F
rate of 1012 V s–1. The displacement current is
26. An AC voltage source has an output voltage,
(1) 2 A (2) 4 A V = (200 V) sin 2πft. This source is connected to
a 100 Ω resistance. RMS current in circuit is
(3) 6 A (4) 10 A
(1) 1.41 A (2) 2.41 A
20. The graph drawn between velocity and frequency (3) 3.41 A (4) 0.71 A
of EM wave in vacuum will be 27. The power is transmitted from a power house at
(1) Straight line parallel to frequency axis high voltage ac because
(1) Electric current travels faster at higher
(2) Straight line parallel to velocity axis voltage
(3) Straight line passing through origin and (2) It is more economical due to less power
making an angle of 45° with frequency axis wastage
(3) It is difficult to generate power at low voltage
(4) Hyperbola
21. Electromagnetic radiations of longest wavelength (4) None of these
is 28. Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by
(1) Radio waves (2) Visible radiation V = 5 sin (100 πt – π/6)
I = 4 sin (100 πt + π/6)
(3) Infrared radiation (4) γ - Rays (1) Voltage leads the current by 30°
22. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum, (2) Current leads the voltage by 30°
the electric and magnetic field of wave is (3) Current leads the voltage by 60°
described by (4) Voltage leads the current by 60°

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

29. A resonant AC circuit contains a capacitor of

capacitance 10–6 F and an inductor of 10–4 H.
The frequency of electric oscillation will be (1) (2)
(1) 105 Hz (2) 10 Hz
105 10
(3) Hz (4) Hz
2π 2π
1
30. A resistance of 300 Ω and inductance of H are
π (3) (4)
connected in series to an ac voltage 200 V and
200 Hz frequency. The phase angle between the
voltage and current is
36. Instantaneous displacement current of 1.0 A in
−1  4  −1  3  the space between the parallel plates of 1 µF
(1) tan 3 (2) tan 4
    capacitor can be established by changing the
3 2 potential difference at the rate of
(3) tan−1   (4) tan−1  
2 5 (1) 10–6 V s–1 (2) 106 V s–1
(3) 1 V s–1 (4) 0.1 V s–1
31. An ac circuit consists of an inductor of inductance
0.5 H and a capacitor of capacitance 8 µF in 37. A radar sends the waves towards an aircraft and
series. The current in the circuit is maximum receives the signal reflected by it.
when the angular frequency of ac source is The waves are
(1) Sound waves (2) Light waves
(1) 500 rad/sec (2) 200 rad/sec
(3) Radio waves (4) Microwaves
(3) 300 rad/sec (4) 400 rad/sec
38. Out of the following electromagnetic radiation
32. For higher frequency, a capacitor offers
which has the shortest wavelength?
(1) More reactance (2) Lesser reactance
(1) Radio wave (2) Infrared
(3) Zero reactance (4) Infinite reactance (3) Ultra violet (4) X-ray
33. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to 39. When a plane electromagnetic wave travels in
a source of alternating current. If its frequency is vacuum the average electric field energy density
increased while keeping the voltage of source is given by (here E0 is the amplitude of the
constant then electric field of the wave)
(1) Bulb will give more light 1 1
(2) Bulb will give less intense light (1) ε0E02 (2) ε0E02
4 2
(3) Bulb give light of same intensity as before
(3) ε0E02 (4) 2 ε0E02
(4) Bulb will stop radiating light
40. In an apparatus the electric field was formed to
34. The rms voltage of wave form shown in figure is
oscillate with an amplitude of 18 V m–1.
The amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field will
be
(1) 9 × 10–9 T (2) 11 × 10–11 T
–8
(3) 6 × 10 T (4) 4 × 10–8 T
41. The sun delivers 104 W m–2 of electromagnetic
flux to the earth surface. The total power incident
on a roof of dimension 10 m2 will be
(1) 104 W (2) 105 W
(1) 10 V (2) 7 V
6
(3) 10 W (4) 107 W
(3) 6.37 V (4) None of these
42. What is the impedance of LCR series circuit at
35. Which of the following curve correctly represent
resonance?
the variation of inductive reactance XL with
(1) Zero (2) R
frequency f ?
(3) ∞ (4) (XL – XC)

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

43. In a series RLC circuit at resonance the applied (1) Inductor (L) and capacitor (C)
ac voltage is 220 V. The potential drop across (2) Inductor (L) alone
the capacitor is 110 V. The potential drop across
(3) Capacitor (C) alone
resistance will be
(4) Only resistance (R) and inductor (L)
(1) 110 V (2) 110 2 V
45. A transformer is used to light a (100 W – 110 V)
(3) 220 V (4) 220 2 V lamp from a 220 V main supply. If the main
current is 0.5 A, then efficiency of transformer is
44. The phase difference between the alternating
nearly
π
current and emf is . Which of the following (1) 100% (2) 85%
2
cannot be the constituents of the circuit? (3) 80% (4) 91%

CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following compounds exhibit optical CHO OH CHO
isomerism? H OH CH3 CHO H CH3
(1) C2H5OC2H5 (2)
49. CH3 I H II OH III
CH2ClCH2Cl
Homomer are
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(1) I and III (2) I and II
(4) CH3CHOHCH2CH3 (3) I, II and III (4) II and III
47. Which of the following is R configuration? O O O
H
CH3
H – C – CH2Cl H H H
O
(1) C2H5 (2) (I) (II)
CN O
H H H
H3C – C – C ≡ CH
CH2OH H
O O O
CHO (IV)
50. (III)
H – C – OH
CH2OH Identify the correct statements about these
(3)
molecules
COOH
H2N – C – H (1) I is a meso compound

(4) CH3 (2) I & III are identical

48. The simplest alcohol which exhibit enantiomerism (3) II and IV are a pair of enantiomers
is
(4) All of these
(1) Propanol (2) 1-butanol
51. The correct statement about the compound given
(3) 2-propanol (4) 2-butanol below is

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022
Cl H 55. Which of the following structures represents a

CH3 threo-stereoisomer –
H3C
CH3 CH3
Cl
H H OH H OH
(1) H OH (2) H Br
(1) The compound possesses centre of
CH3 CH3
symmetry
CH3 CH3
(2) The compound possesses plane of
Br OH H OH
symmetry (3) H Br (4) H H
(3) The compound is optically active CH3 CH3
(4) The compound is meso-form 56. The interchange of two groups (Br and CH3) at
52. What is R – S designation of given compound? the chiral centre of the projection formula (I)
CHO yields the formula (II), while the interchange of
H Cl another set of two groups (C2H5 and Cl) of (I)
D H yields the projection formula (III).
Cl CH3 CH3
Br
(1) 2 S, 3 S (2) 2 S, 3 R Cl Br Cl CH3 C2H5 Br
C2H5 C2H5 Cl
(3) 2 R, 3 R (4) 2 R, 3 S (I) (II) (III)
53. Which compound would exhibit optical isomers– Which of the following statements is not correct
about the structures (I), (II) and (III) -

COOH NO2 CH3 (1) (II) and (III) are identical

(1) (2) C OH (2) (I) and (III) are enantiomers

NO2 H3C COOH (3) (II) and (III) are enantiomers

COOH
(4) (I) and (II) are enantiomers
HOOC H
C O 57. The pair of structures given below represents –
(3) (4) C
C CH2–CH3
CH3
H COOH H
C
C
54. Which of the following compounds is a meso HO CH3
compound – HO CH2–CH3 H
H Cl Br Cl (1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(1) (2)
Cl H H H (3) Homomers

Cl Cl H Cl (4) Position isomers

58. Identify R configuration –
(3) (4)
H H Br H COOH CN
(1) H (2) CH3 C ≡ CH
CH3 CH2OH

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

CHO COOH CO2H CH2OH

(3) H OH (4) H2N H
(3) H2N CH2OH (4) H2N H
CH2OH CH3
H CO2H
59. The correct configuration assigned for
63. CH3–CHCl–CH2–CH3 has a chiral centre which
compounds (I) and (II) respectively are -
one of the following represents its R configuration
COOH CH3
HO -
H OH C
Br CH2CH3 C2H5 C2H5
CH3 | |
(I) (II) (1) H––C––CH3 (2) Cl––C––CH3
| |
(1) R, R (2) S, S Cl H

(3) R, S (4) S, R CH3 C2H5

| |
60. Select the optically inactive compound among the (3) H––C––Cl (4) H3C––C––Cl
| |
following C2H5 H
64. Among the following four structures i to iv

CH3 NH2 CH NHAc CH3

(1) CH3
(2) AcNH3 CH3
NH2 C2H5 – CH – C3H7
(i)
O CH3
(ii) C2H5 – C – CH – C2H5
HOOC NHAc
(3) H
AcNH COOH
(iii) H – C⊕
H

O2N NO2 CH3

(4) MeOOC COOH (iv) C2H5 – CH – C2H5

It is true that –
61. The absolute configuration of the following (1) Only (iii) is a chiral compound
compound is - (2) Only (ii) and (iv) are chiral compounds
CH3 (3) All four are chiral compounds
H Cl (4) Only (i) and (ii) are chiral compounds
Cl H 65. Which of the following molecules is expected to
C2H5 rotate the plane of plane-polarised light?
(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2S, 3S CHO
(3) 2R, 3S (4) 2R, 3R (1) HO H (2)
CH2OH SH
62. Among the following L-serine is –
NH2 CO2H COOH
H2N NH2
(3) H H (4) H2N H
(1) H CO2H (2) HOH2C H Ph
Ph
H
CH2OH NH2
66. Number of Diastereomers for Ribose are

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

(3) III & IV (4) I & IV

70. Which of the following is not diastereomers?

(1) I & III (2) II & IV
(3) III & IV (4) II & IV

71. Enantiomeric structure are

(1) II & III only (2) I & IV only
(3) III & IV only (4) I & II, III & IV
72. How many optical, geometrical and stereoisomers
are possible for 1, 2–dichlorocyclopropane

(1) 4 (2) 6 respectively?

(3) 3 (4) 8 (1) 0, 2, 2 (2) 2, 2, 4

67. Sum of optically active and inactive Isomers of (3) 3, 2, 5 (4) 3, 2, 3

Tartaric Acid and Glyceraldehyde. 73. Which of the following is a pair of diastereomers?
COOH COOH
(1) 2 (2) 5
H OH HO H
(3) 6 (4) 8
H OH HO H
68. What is R – S designation of given compound?
(1) COOH COOH
CHO
COOH COOH
H Cl
D H
H OH HO H
HO H H OH
Cl
(1) 2 S, 3 S (2) 2 S, 3 R (2) CH3 CH3

(3) 2 R, 3 R (4) 2 R, 3 S COOH COOH

H OH H OH
For Q69 to Q71, There are four compounds
HO H H OH
represented in Fischer projection
(3) CH3 CH3
CH3 CH3 COOH COOH
H Cl Cl H H OH HO H
H OH H3C OH H OH H OH
CH3 H
(4) CH3 COOH
I II
CH3 H
74. Which of the following is correct Fischer
H Cl Cl CH3 projection for the given optically active
CH3 OH CH3 H
compound?
H OH COOH
III IV
69. Which of the following are identical? HO
CH3
(1) I & II (2) I & IV
H

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)
COOH COOH
H OH CH3 CH3
H OH
H OH C=C=C
CH3 (1) CH3 (2) H H
(1)
COOH COOH
H Br
CH3 OH H Br
(3) COOH (4) None of these
(2) H
77. Which of the following is a pair of diastereomers?
H
H H Br CH3
HO CH3 Br C C CH3 and H C C H
(1) CH3 Cl CH3 Cl
(3) COOH
OH H CH3 H CH3
Br C C H and Br C C H
CH3 H Cl Cl
(2) CH3 CH3

(4) COOH H H H CH3

75. Which of the following species is chiral? Br C C CH3 and Br C C H
OH (3) CH3 Cl CH3 Cl

(4) All of these

OH
H 78. An enantiomerically impure solution of 2-butanol
CHO
H shows specific rotation of + 6.76°, and specific
(1) CHO
rotation of (–) 2-butanol is – 13.52°. What is the
H CH3
C=C=C=C percentage extent of recemisation?

(2) H3C H
(1) 50 (2) 60
H NH2 H NH2 (3) 70 (4) 80
CHO
79. How many meso-forms are possible for
|
(CHOH)4
H3C |
(3) CH3 CH2OH

H Br (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 0 (4) 4
80. Total number of stereoisomers of given

(4) compound will be

76. Which of the following molecule is with no
asymmetric carbon but is optically active?

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

(1) 8 (2) 2 86. How many stereoisomer does this molecule

have CH3CH=CHCH2CHBrCH3
(3) 6 (4) 4
(1) 8 (2) 2
81. Total number of stereoisomers for the compound (3) 4 (4) 6
87. The pair of structures represents -
is
H Me Me H Me H

H H H CH Cl H
Cl 2

(1) Enantiomers (2) Position isomers

(3) Conformers (4) Chain isomers

(1) 2 (2) 6 88. Number of chiral carbon atoms in the

compound P, Q and R respectively would be –
(3) 6 (4) 8 Me
82. Which one of the following pairs represents P ⇒
Me
stereo isomerism -
Me
(1) Linkage isomerism and Geometrical
isomerism Q ⇒
(2) Chain isomerism and Rotational isomerism
(3) Optical isomerism and Geometrical isomerism R ⇒
(4) Structural isomerism and Geometrical
isomerism Me
83. Which of the following is not chiral - (1) 2, 1, 1 (2) 1, 1, 1
(1) 2-Butanol (3) 2, 0, 2 (4) 2, 0, 1
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(2) 2,3-Dibromo pentane
(3) 3-Bromo pentane 89.
(4) 2-Hydroxy propanoic acid
84. Among the following which one can have a Br Br Br Br
meso form - (A) (B)
(1) CH3CH(OH)CH(Cl)C2H5 Relationship between above pair (A) & (B) is :
(2) CH3CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3 (1) Enantiomers
(3) C2H5CH(OH)CH(OH)CH3 (2) Diastereomers
(4) HOCH2CH(Cl)CH3 (3) Identical
85. CH3–CHCl–CH2–CH3 has a chiral centre (4) Structural isomers
which one of the following represents its R 90. Which of the following pair represents
configuration - Diastereomers ?
C2H5 C2H5 CH3 CH3
| |
(1) H––C––CH3 (2) Cl––C––CH3 H Br H Br
| | (1) &
H OH HO H
Cl H
CH3 CH3
CH3 C2H5
| | COOH COOH
(3) H––C––Cl (4) H3C––C––Cl
| | H OH HO H
(2) &
C2H5 H HO H HO H
COO COO

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

C2H5 O O C2H5 (4) All of these

(3) H O C & C O H
H3 C H OH H OH CH3
CH3 CH3

BOTANY
91. Choose odd one out w.r.t. nucleoside. (2) Sugar deoxyribose and phosphate residues
(1) Adenosine (2) Deoxyguanosine occur in equal number
(3) Uridine (4) Cytosine A+G
(3) = 1 , this value is not constant for all
92. Which of the given is one of the hallmarks of T+C
DNA double helix model of Watson and Crick? species
(1) It is made up of two polynucleotide chains (4) Purine guanine is equimolar with pyrimidine
forming backbone of DNA cytosine
(2) The two chains run parallel in polarity 97. Nucleic acids are made up of
(3) The base pairing between two strands of (1) Amino acids (2) Hexose sugar
polynucleotide chains (3) Sulphate (4) Nucleotides
(4) The two chains are coiled in a left handed 98. Which of the given nitrogenous base will pair with
fashion only adenine base in RNA?
93. Identify A, B, C and D w.r.t. central dogma of (1) Guanine (2) Cytosine
molecular biology.
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine
99. Nucleotide is
(1) Nitrogenous base, pentose sugar and
phosphoric acid
A B C D (2) Nitrogenous base, hexose sugar and
(1) Transcription Translation Replication E.
phosphoric acid
Chargaff (3) Only nitrogen base and pentose sugar
(2) Replication Translation Transcription M. (4) Only nitrogen base and phosphoric acid
Wilkins
100. Nucleic acids are found in
(3) Replication Transcription Translation J.
Watson
(1) Only nucleus
(2) Only cytoplasm
(4) Replication Transcription Translation F. Crick
(3) Both nucleus and cytoplasm
94. A double stranded DNA has 20 coils with 60 (4) Both nucleus and vacuole
nucleotides of Adenine. Find out the number of
cytosine bases? 101. Select the odd one w.r.t. pyrimidines.
(1) Cytosine (2) Adenine
(1) 140 nucleotides (2) 70 nucleotides
(3) Uracil (4) Thymine
(3) 280 nucleotides (4) 35 nucleotides
102. The pitch of the DNA helix is
95. Who among the given suggested that structure of
DNA was sort of helix? (1) 2.2 nm (2) 3.4 nm
(1) Watson and Crick (3) 5.2 nm (4) 6.1 nm
(2) M. Wilkins and R. Franklin 103. Purine bases which are present in DNA are
(3) Hershey and Chase (1) U and G (2) A and G
(4) F. Meischer and Altmann (3) A and C (4) G and T
96. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Chargaff’s 104. Purine and pyrimidines pairs of complementary
rule. strands of DNA are held together by
(1) Purines and pyrimidines occur in equal (1) H-bonds (2) O-bonds
amounts (3) C-bonds (4) N-bonds

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

105. DNA is predominant genetic material but RNA (1) 1.2 metres (2) 1.8 metres
can also act as genetic material in ______ (3) 1.36 metres (4) 2.2 metres
(1) Few protozoans (2) Some viruses 113. If phosphate is attached to nucleoside
(3) Few bacteria (4) Some algae (1) Purine is formed
106. Select the mismatched pair w.r.t. genetic (2) Pyrimidine is formed
material and number of nucleotides or base pairs
(bp) present in given organisms. (3) Nucleotide is formed
(4) Pentose sugar is formed
Organism Base pair Genetic
(bp) material 114. dGMP consists of
(1) Guanine and ribose sugar only
(1) φ × 174 5386 bp ds DNA
bacteriophage (2) Guanine, ribose sugar and phosphate
(3) Guanine and deoxyribose sugar only
(2) Escherichia 4.6 × 106 bp ds DNA
coli (4) Guanine, deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
115. If a DNA molecule has 3000 bp then what will be
(3) Lambda 48502 bp ds DNA the number of N-glycosidic linkage in it?
phage
(1) 3000 (2) 1500
(4) Human 3.3 × 109 bp ds DNA (3) 300 (4) 6000
genome
116. Uridine monophosphate is composed of all of the
107. Who found DNA to be acidic in nature? following, except
(1) F. Meischer (1) Uracil
(2) Altmann (2) Deoxyribose sugar
(3) T.H. Morgan (3) Phosphate
(4) Francis Crick (4) Phosphoester linkage
108. A evolved from B with chemical 117. In the molecular structure of DNA, cytosine
always pairs with
modification that make it more stable.
(1) Adenine (2) Uracil
Select the option which correctly fills A and B.
(3) Guanine (4) Thymine
(1) A - DNA, B - RNA
118. In between the two nucleotides,_____ linkage is
(2) A - RNA, B - DNA
present.
(3) A - DNA, B - Protein
(1) N-glycosidic (2) Phosphodiester
(4) A - RNA, B - Protein
(3) Phosphoester (4) Amide
109. Which of the given is not the component of
119. The packaging of chromatin at higher level
deoxyribose nucleic acid?
requires additional set of proteins that collectively
(1) Adenine are referred to as
(2) Pentose sugar (1) Histone proteins
(3) Uracil (2) Nucleosomes
(4) Phosphate (3) Non-Histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins
110. DNA was first identified by_______ in ______ (4) Chromatins
(1) Watson and Crick, 1861 120. Select the odd one w.r.t. Griffith's experiment
(1) S strain bacterium killed the mice
(2) Watson and Crick, 1953
(2) Bacteria producing smooth shiny colony is
(3) Friedrich Miescher, 1869
virulent bacterium
(4) Friedrich Miescher, 1972 (3) Mice infected with the R strain die from
111. Reverse transcription is indicated by pneumonia
(1) DNA → mRNA (2) mRNA → Protein (4) Griffith used Streptococcus bacteria in his
experiment
(3) DNA → DNA (4) RNA → DNA
112. Length of DNA in a diploid human cell is
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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

121. Which of the given form of RNA have structural (2) Can express itself in the form of “Mendelian
and catalytic role during translation? characters”
(1) mRNA (2) rRNA (3) Should be chemically and structurally stable
(3) tRNA (4) hnRNA (4) Should provide the scope for fast
122. Histone proteins are changes/mutations in genes
(1) Positively charged and basic 130. In Hershey and Chase experiment, the DNA of
(2) Found mainly in ribosomes T2-phage was made radioactive by using
(3) Negatively charged and interact with DNA (1) S32 (2) S35
(4) Acidic and participate in DNA packaging (3) P32 (4) N15
123. Histone proteins are rich in amino acids such as 131. The core part in nucleosome is made up of which
of the given subunits of histone protein?
(1) Tryptophan and tyrosine
(1) Only H1
(2) Histidine and cystine
(2) Both H1 and H2A
(3) Methionine and valine
(3) H1, H2A and H2B
(4) Lysine and arginine
124. Number of base pairs of DNA in a single (4) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
nucleosome are 132. Which of the given features make RNA
(1) 10 unsuitable for being genetic material?
(2) 100 a – Presence of 2′ OH in sugar
(3) 200 b – Double stranded nature
(4) 500 c – Presence of 5-methyl uracil
125. Which of the following is not the property of d – Catalytic nature
euchromatin? (1) a, b and c
(1) Loosely packed
(2) Both b and c
(2) Lightly stained
(3) Both a and d
(3) Transcriptionally inactive
(4) All a, b, c and d
(4) Both (1) and (2)
133. Phosphoester bond is absent in all, except
126. For experiment on transforming principle,
pathogenic organism selected by Griffith was a (1) Uridine
(1) Prokaryote (2) Virus (2) Deoxycytidine
(3) Protist (4) Fungus (3) Adenosine monophosphate
127. Biochemical characterisation of transforming (4) Guanosine
principle was performed by A B
134. D DNA RNA Protein
(1) Altmann C

(2) Avery, Macleod and McCarty In above flow chart, which step is found in some
(3) F. Miescher RNA viruses only?
(4) R. Franklin (1) D
128. The experiment which gave unequivocal proof of (2) A
DNA as genetic material used three steps in the (3) B
sequence
(4) C
(1) Blending → Infection → Centrifugation
135. All of the following bonds, are found in DNA helix,
(2) Centrifugation → Blending → Infection
except,
(3) Infection → Blending → Centrifugation
(1) Hydrogen bond
(4) Infection → Centrifugation → Blending
(2) Glycosidic bond
129. All are the criteria must be fulfilled by the
molecule that can act as genetic material, except (3) Phosphodiester bond
(1) Should be able to generate replica (4) Peptide bond

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following defined biotechnology as 144. Restriction enzymes are naturally synthesized
the integration of natural science and organisms, within
cells, parts there of and molecular analogues for (1) Bacteria (2) Viruses
products and services? (3) Plants (4) Animals
(1) EFB (2) CDRI 145. In genetic engineering, plasmids are used as
(3) W.H.O. (4) NACO (1) Vector (2) Polymerase
137. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. a plasmid. (3) Selectable marker (4) Competent host
(1) It is autonomously replicating 146. A desirable foreign gene has been introduced
(2) It is an extra-chromosomal DNA into a bacterial plasmid by using restriction
endonuclease and ligase. Such a resultant DNA
(3) Its DNA is double stranded and circular
is called
(4) DNA is always single stranded and linear
(1) Replicated DNA
138. The cutting of DNA at specific location became
(2) Complementary DNA
possible with the discovery of
(3) Recombinant DNA
(1) Restriction enzymes (2) DNA polymerase
(4) Palindromic DNA
(3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA ligase
147. In genetic engineering, restriction enzymes are
139. _____ deals with techniques of using live used to cut
organisms or their enzymes to produce products (1) Single stranded RNA
and processes useful to humans.
(2) Single stranded DNA
Select the option that fills the blank correctly. (3) Double stranded DNA
(1) Virology (2) Biotechnology (4) Double stranded RNA
(3) Biochemistry (4) Physiology 148. Special sequence in the DNA recognized by
140. In EcoRI, E stands for restriction endonuclease is called
(1) Escherichia (2) Eukaryote (1) Restriction nucleoside sequence
(3) Enzyme (4) Entamoeba (2) Recognition nucleoside sequence
141. Which of the following is known as molecular (3) Restriction nitrogenous sequence
scissors of DNA? (4) Palindromic nucleotide sequence
(1) Ligase 149. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of
(2) Polymerase enzymes called
(3) Restriction endonuclease (1) Nucleases (2) Ligases
(3) Nucleotidases (4) Nucleosidases
(4) Selectable marker
150. The bond digested by Hind II is
142. The genes encoding resistance to____ are
(1) Hydrogen bond between adjacent
considered useful selectable markers for E.coli.
nucleotides on same strand
Select the option to fill in the blank correctly. (2) Hydrogen bond between adjacent
(1) Antibiotic (2) Disease nucleotides on different strands
(3) Allergy (4) Cancer (3) Phosphodiester bond between adjacent
nucleotides on same strand
143. The end of fragments of DNA molecules cut by
restriction endonuclease are sticky due to (4) Bond between sugar and nitrogenous base of
presence of adjacent nucleotides on same strand
(1) Paired bases 151. Which of the following is not included in genetic
(2) Unpaired bases engineering?
(3) Ca+2 in reaction mixture (1) Creation of recombinant DNA
(4) Exonuclease activity (2) Gene cloning

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

(3) Gene transfer (3) East Asian Foundation of Biotechnology

(4) Making curd at home (4) Ethiopian Federation of Biotechnology
152. Specific DNA sequence responsible for initiating 159. All of the following are key tools used in genetic
replication is engineering except
(1) Recombinant DNA (1) Polymerase (2) Host organism
(2) Ori site (3) Vectors (4) Anticodons
(3) Palindrome 160. The first restriction endonuclease isolated was
(4) Restriction sequence (1) Hind II (2) Hind I
153. Which of the following restriction enzyme is (3) Eco RI (4) Bam HI
obtained from Escherichia coli ? 161. In restriction enzyme EcoRI, the second two
(1) pBR322 (2) Eco RI letters come from
(3) Bam HI (4) Pst I (1) Genus (2) Species
154. Linking of desired gene with plasmid vector (3) Colony (4) Strain
became possible with the discovery of 162. An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides
(1) Restriction exonuclease from the ends of DNA is
(2) Restriction endonuclease (1) Endonuclease (2) Exonuclease
(3) DNA ligase (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA polymerase

(4) β-galactosidase 163. Which of the following is optimum temperature

for polymerization step in PCR reaction?
155. Identify the palindromic sequence in the following
and choose the correct option. (1) 60°C (2) 65°C

(1) 5′GAATTC3′ (2) 5′GAATTC3′ (3) 72°C (4) 80°C

3′CTTUUG5′ 3′CTTAAG5′ 164. Pst I and Pvu I restriction sites are present in
pBR322 in
(3) 5′CCTTGGA3′ (4) 5′CGATAC3′
(1) tetR gene (2) rop
3′GGACCT5′ 3′GCTAAG5′
(3) ampR gene (4) Ori
156. Who constructed recombinant DNA on the first
instance? 165. Selectable marker
(1) Helps in selecting transformants from non
(1) Har Gobind Khorana
transformants.
(2) Hugo de Vries
(2) Helps in mixing of non-recombinants and
(3) Kary Mullis recombinants
(4) Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer (3) Is the region which can be tested for
157. Microbe found to be most useful in genetic insertional inactivation
engineering as host among the following is (4) Are genes encoding resistance to allergies
(1) Escherichia coli 166. Statement A : It is compulsory to cut the vector
and alien DNA with the same restriction enzyme
(2) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
in recombinant DNA techlonogy.
(3) Pseudomonas
Statement B : Due to this only a recombinant
(4) Penicillium vector molecule is created.
158. EFB stands for Choose the correct option
(1) European Foundation of Biotechnology (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) European Federation of Biotechnology (2) Only statement B is correct

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Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J) One Year Medical-2022

(3) Both A and B are incorrect (3) EcoR I (4) Pst I

(4) Both A and B are correct 174. What does the ‘T’ refers in ‘T-DNA’, part of Ti
167. The sticky ends of the DNA fragments can be plasmid?
joined together by using (1) Tumor (2) Transfer
(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase (3) Tumefaciens (4) Toxic
(3) DNase (4) RNase 175. Bacterial cell (host) can be made competent to
168. Separation and isolation of DNA fragments is take up DNA by
done by (1) Treating them with Cl– ions
(1) Western blotting (2) Electrophoresis (2) Treating them with divalent cations (Ca+2)
(3) ELISA (4) RT-PCR (3) Treating with ethidium bromide
169. Agarose is a polysaccharide and most commonly (4) Large scale culture
used matrix in gel electrophoresis.
176. When recombinant DNA is directly injected in the
It is obtained from
nucleus of an animal cell, it is called
(1) Sea urchin (2) Sea star
(1) Electroporation (2) Gene gun
(3) Sea weeds (4) Sea mouse
(3) Microinjection (4) Biolistics
170. Polymerase chain reaction is concerned with
177. Which of the following technique is used to form
(1) DNA repairing
around 1 billion copies of template DNA strand in
(2) DNA amplification just minutes or hours?
(3) DNA ligation (1) Autoradiography
(4) DNA fragmentation (2) Polymerase chain reaction
171. Read the features w.r.t. cloning vectors. (3) Electrophoresis
(A) Ori site (B) Selectable marker
(4) ELISA
(C) Cloning site (D) Recognition site
178. Select the culture system which produces larger
Select the set which is correct for the features of biomass leading to higher yield of desired
cloning vectors proteins.
(1) (A) and (B) only (1) Continuous culture
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) Polymerase chain reaction
(3) (B) and (C) only (3) Closed system
(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) (4) Batch culture in sparged stirred tank
172. Which is correct w.r.t. ori? bioreactor
(1) Regulates copy number of the linked DNA 179. Downstream processing includes all the given
(2) Help in screening of transformants steps except
(3) Are non-significant structural elements (1) DNA isolation (2) Purification
(4) Always occur inside a selectable marker (3) Extraction (4) Separation
173. Following recognition sites are not present in any 180. Which of the following is a plasmid?
selectable marker of pBR322 except (1) pBR322 (2) BamH I
(1) Cla I (2) Hind II (3) Sal I (4) EcoRI

  

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One Year Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test-09 (Code-J)

ANSWERS
FT09_OYM_Code J (03-07-2022)

1 (2) 37 (4) 73 (3) 109 (3) 145 (1)

2 (1) 38 (4) 74 (1) 110 (3) 146 (3)
3 (4) 39 (1) 75 (3) 111 (4) 147 (3)
4 (1) 40 (3) 76 (2) 112 (4) 148 (4)
5 (1) 41 (2) 77 (3) 113 (3) 149 (1)
6 (1) 42 (2) 78 (1) 114 (4) 150 (3)
7 (1) 43 (3) 79 (3) 115 (4) 151 (4)
8 (1) 44 (4) 80 (4) 116 (2) 152 (2)
9 (4) 45 (4) 81 (4) 117 (3) 153 (2)
10 (2) 46 (4) 82 () 118 (2) 154 (3)
11 (1) 47 (3) 83 () 119 (3) 155 (2)
12 (1) 48 (4) 84 () 120 (3) 156 (4)
13 (3) 49 (2) 85 () 121 (2) 157 (1)
14 (2) 50 (4) 86 () 122 (1) 158 (2)
15 (4) 51 (3) 87 () 123 (4) 159 (4)
16 (3) 52 (2) 88 () 124 (3) 160 (1)
17 (2) 53 (1) 89 () 125 (3) 161 (2)
18 (3) 54 (3) 90 () 126 (1) 162 (2)
19 (1) 55 (3) 91 (4) 127 (2) 163 (3)
20 (1) 56 (3) 92 (3) 128 (3) 164 (3)
21 (1) 57 (3) 93 (4) 129 (4) 165 (1)
22 (1) 58 (3) 94 (1) 130 (3) 166 (4)
23 (2) 59 (1) 95 (2) 131 (4) 167 (1)
24 (3) 60 (4) 96 (3) 132 (3) 168 (2)
25 (3) 61 (2) 97 (4) 133 (3) 169 (3)
26 (1) 62 (1) 98 (3) 134 (4) 170 (2)
27 (2) 63 (2) 99 (1) 135 (4) 171 (4)
28 (3) 64 (4) 100 (3) 136 (1) 172 (1)
29 (3) 65 (1) 101 (2) 137 (4) 173 (4)
30 (1) 66 (2) 102 (2) 138 (1) 174 (2)
31 (1) 67 (2) 103 (2) 139 (2) 175 (2)
32 (2) 68 (2) 104 (1) 140 (1) 176 (3)
33 (1) 69 (4) 105 (2) 141 (3) 177 (2)
34 (1) 70 (4) 106 (1) 142 (1) 178 (1)
35 (1) 71 (4) 107 (2) 143 (2) 179 (1)
36 (2) 72 (4) 108 (1) 144 (1) 180 (1)

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