DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE

SY 2022-2023

Instructions: Read each question carefully and shade the correct answer in the
answer sheet provided to you. Do not write anything on this test
questionnaire.

1. The respiratory system is made up of the organs in the body that help us to
breathe. Which of the following is a structure of the respiratory system?
A. Arteries
B. Blood
C. Heart
D. Trachea

2. What is the correct pathway of air which travels into the lungs?
A. Nasal passage → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchiole → bronchi →
alveoli
B. Nasal passage → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchiole →
alveoli
C. Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → bronchi → bronchiole →
alveoli
D. Nasal passage → pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → bronchiole →
alveoli

3. Miguel is experiencing a heavy cough, sore throat, headache, and shortness of

breath these past two days. If you were Miguel, what would you most likely do?
A. I will not tell anybody and stay at home.
B. I will continue to work even if I am not feeling well.
C. I will call my friends and decide to have an outing for us to unwind.
D. I will book an appointment with the doctor to ask for medical advice.

4. To prevent diseases in the respiratory and circulatory system, which best advice
would you give to your classmates that help support lungs and healthy heart?
A. Tell them to have a proper diet and take more rest.
B. Tell them to lose weight and have regular check-ups.
C. Tell them to have regular exercise and drink plenty of water.
D. Tell them to have a healthy lifestyle and avoid cigarette smoking and
alcohol drinking.

5. What non-Mendelian pattern of inheritance occurs when both alleles are

expressed equally in the phenotype of the heterozygote?
A. Codominance
B. Incomplete dominance
C. Multiple alleles
D. Sex-linked trait

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
6. Sex-limited traits and sex-influenced traits are both sex-related inheritance. What
is the difference between sex-limited and sex-influenced traits?
A. Sex-influenced traits can only be female while sex-limited traits are both
sexes.
B. Sex-influenced traits are expressed in males only while sex-limited traits
are in females.
C. Sex-limited traits are exclusively in one sex while sex-influenced traits are
expressed in both sexes.
D. Sex-limited traits can either be in both sexes while sex-influenced traits
are expressed in both sexes.

7. The Philippines has a high number of different flora (plants) and fauna (animals).
Which of the following contributes greatly to the species richness of the country?
A. Existence of many islands
B. Presence of bodies of water
C. Fertile soil due to volcanic activities
D. Geographical location in the tropics

8. Biodiversity is a variety of life in a particular habitat or ecosystem. Why do you

think it is important to the ecosystem?
A. It increases at each level of the food chain.
B. It helps the population adapt to ecological changes.
C. It reduces the number of insects in a given ecosystem.
D. It allows animals to feed permanently on one type of plant.

9. Many changes have taken place in the communities. You have noticed that
coastal areas were converted into beach resorts. Concrete structures and an
increasing population of people gradually take over the area. How could these
affect the population of the animals?
A. The population of the animals will not be disturbed and affected.
B. The species of animals will become more diverse due to the development of
a new environment.
C. The population of the animals will increase since more people will provide
with food and protection.
D. As the population of people increases, the impact of the development will
put many other species of animals on the edge of extinction due to loss of
habitat.

10. Plants are considered autotrophs. What cell organelles does photosynthesis
occur?
A. Chlorophyll
B. Chloroplast
C. Mesophyll
D. Stroma

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
11. A germinated mongo seed is exposed in a brightly lighted area for 3 days. What
will happen to the plant if the light intensity is then reduced slightly during the
next 3 days?
A. Photosynthesis will not continue.
B. Glucose production inside each plant cell will increase.
C. The rate at which nitrogen is used by the plant will increase.
D. The rate at which oxygen is released from the plant will decrease.

12. ATP and NADPH are both energy carrier molecules that drive the synthesis of
carbohydrates from CO2 and H2O in dark reactions. What would be the result if
ATP and NADPH are already used up at night?
A. Glucose production will stop.
B. Less oxygen will be produced.
C. Less carbon dioxide will be used.
D. Water molecules will split to form electrons.

13. As a research scientist, you want to know if leaves are capable of making food
during nighttime. Which of the following experimental design should you do to
know that leaves can make food?
A. Cover the plant with a paper bag overnight and test for the presence of
starch.
B. Put one potted plant in a very dark place overnight and test for the
presence of starch.
C. Cover one leaf of a potted plant with carbon paper for two hours and test
for the presence of starch.
D. Put one potted plant under the sun and the other in a shaded area for two
hours and test the presence of starch.

14. Plants carry out both photosynthesis and respiration. How are photosynthesis
and cellular respiration related to each other?
A. The products of one process are the reactants of the other.
B. The products of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are just the same.
C. The reactants of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are just the same.
D. The reactant and the product of photosynthesis and cellular respiration
are just the same.

15. You have learned that photosynthesis and cellular respiration are connected
through an important relationship that enables life to survive. How are these
processes similar in terms of cellular features and reactions?
A. Both processes are contained in organelles with single membranes, and
both use a version of the cytochrome complex.
B. Both processes are contained in organelles with double membranes, and
both use a version of the cytochrome complex.
C. Both processes are contained in organelles with single membranes, and
neither uses a version of the cytochrome complex.
D. Both processes are contained in organelles with double membranes, and
neither uses a version of the cytochrome complex.
Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga
School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
16. How did the scientists explain the relationship between the colors observed and
the structure of the atom?
I. The intensity of the visible light differs.
II. It follows that electrons must occupy orbits of fixed energy.
III. The outermost particles in the metallic element are responsible for the
production of light.
IV. The colors observed are an indication that definite energy transformation
occurs in the atom emitting light.

A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. II and III
D. III and IV

17. Maria is working as a student assistant in their school’s Chemistry laboratory.

Which of the following is a direct application of knowledge about the properties of
compounds?
I. In proper storing of different substances for safety purposes.
II. In assisting students when it comes to proper usage of substances.
III. In identifying hazardous substances through reading chemical labels.
IV. In keeping records of borrowed laboratory tools and equipment in the
laboratory.

A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. III and IV only

18. Electronegativity is a measure of the tendency of an atom to attract electrons.

What is the relationship between the electronegativity of the elements from left to
right within a period and from top to bottom within a group?
A. Both increases
B. Increases then decreases
C. Decreases then increases
D. Stays the same then increases

19. The chemical bond is the force of holding atoms together in chemical compounds.
What holds ionic bonds together?
A. Sharing of attraction
B. The periodic table
C. Protons and neurons
D. Ions with opposite charges

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
20. Lewis structure is a simplified representation of the valence shell electrons in a
molecule.

Figure 1. Lewis Structure of CO2, CO and F2

(Source: http://www.columbia.edu/itc/chemistry/c1403_1404/images/PracticeExamSelectedAns.pdf
(accessed 12 10, 2021)
What evidence/s can you find in the following Lewis structures?
I. Fluorine (F2) has 14 valence electrons and follows the octets.
II. Carbon monoxide (CO) has 10 valence electrons and follows the octets.
III. Carbon dioxide (CO2) has 16 valence electrons and follows the octets.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, and III

21. One of the models that account for the distinctive properties of metals is the
Electron Sea Model. What detail/s would you use to support this model?
I. They are composed of closely packed and orderly arranged cations.
II. The array of cations is surrounded by a “sea” of freely moving electrons.
III. They are not associated with a single atom, and they move freely within
the structure of metal cations.
IV. The array is held together by the strong attraction between the positive
cations and negative protons.

A. I only
B. I and II
C. I, II, and III
D. I, II, III, and IV

22. Jane wants to protect her bicycle’s parts from rusting fast. Which of the following
organic compound do you think Jane will use?
A. Kerosene
B. Vinegar
C. Lubricating oil
D. Isopropyl alcohol

23. Mark told his grandson, Mito, never to play with gasoline. Which statement do
you think will support the idea of not doing so?
A. Gasoline is volatile.
B. Gasoline is viscous.
C. Gasoline is corrosive.
D. Gasoline is flammable.

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
24. What evidence can you find why Maria wants to use formaldehyde on the fish for
her project in Biology class?
A. To preserve the fish
B. To make the fish fresh
C. To make the fish stay alive
D. To make the fish stay healthy

25. How many particles are equal to 1 mole of any kind of substance?
A. 6.02 x 1022 particles
B. 6.02 x 1023 particles
C. 6.05 x 1022 particles
D. 6.05 x 1023 particles

26. Refer to the sample data below.

What can you infer about the relationship between the mass and the number of
moles?
A. Both are inversely related to each other because as one increases, the other
decreases.
B. Both are directly related to each other because as one increases, the other
also increases.
C. An increase in the mass of different substances does necessarily mean an
increase in the number of moles because the number of moles is computed
by dividing the mass of the sample by its mass.
D. An increase in the mass of different substances does not necessarily mean
an increase in the number of moles because the number of moles is
computed by dividing the mass of the sample by its molar mass.

27. The following are representative particles of matter. Which among them
represents a covalent bond?
A. Atom
B. Ion
C. Molecule
D. Particle unit

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
28. The “fuel value” of the hydrogen-containing fuels depends on the mass
percentage of hydrogen (H). How would you rank Ethane (C 2H6) in terms of its
fuel value compared to Propane (C3H8)?
A. Ethane has the same fuel value as Propane.
B. Ethane has a low fuel value compared to Propane.
C. Ethane has a high fuel value compared to Propane.
D. None of the above

29. A volcano is a natural opening on the surface of the Earth where molten hot
gases, smoke, and ash are ejected. Which of the following characteristics of a
volcano depends on its magma emission?
A. Age
B. Location
C. Shape
D. Size

30. You are living in an area near an active volcano. What practice would you do
best to prepare yourself if a volcanic eruption possibly occurs?
A. Follow evacuation or shelter orders.
B. Prepare an emergency kit with needed essentials.
C. Consult a doctor if you have existing respiratory illnesses.
D. During a volcanic eruption, listen for emergency information and alerts.

31. Shield volcanoes are formed by the accumulation of non-viscous lava that oozes
out from them. How would you describe this type of volcano?
A. Narrow domed structure
B. Large and has a narrow crater
C. Broad, slightly domed structure
D. Steep slope and has a wide crater

32. Suppose you can predict when one volcano erupts, what would you do to lessen its
harmful effects on people and the environment?
A. Convince people to build their houses away from volcanoes.
B. Let the natural phenomenon happen and don’t do anything about it.
C. Inform people about the advantages and disadvantages of a volcanic eruption.
D. Raise awareness about the impacts of a volcanic eruption on humans and the
environment.

33. Geothermal energy is heat from the earth. It is a renewable energy source due to the
constant generation of heat inside the earth. Which of the following statements
describe the effects of using geothermal energy in our environment?
A. There is more pollution associated with geothermal energy compared to other
energy-generating systems.
B. In geothermal energy, energy fluid needs to be pumped back into the
underground reservoirs to maintain sustainability.
C. Geothermal energy does not burn fuel to generate electricity and releases only
a small amount of sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide.
D. Geothermal energy consumption is far from the potential energy available from
geothermal resources. This doesn’t affect the environment negatively.

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
34. In choosing a vacation place to cool off in the summer season, how will you
determine a better place to go to?
A. A place near the bodies of water
B. A place where I can find skyscrapers
C. A place without any kinds of vegetation or trees
D. A place where the climate is not easily affected by the heat of the sun, like
the highlands

35. Carbon dioxide is one of the Greenhouse gases. What will happen if there is too
much carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?
A. Climate change
B. Temperature increases
C. Water vapor condenses
D. Greenhouse effect deactivates

36. What fact will you use to defend that the stars are not moving in the night sky?
A. Stars don’t move, they only blink.
B. Stars are made of gaseous materials.
C. Stars appear to move due to Earth’s revolution.
D. Stars are heavenly bodies found a million lightyears away from the Earth.

37. Constellations were first determined and named by the people from the ancient
civilization. Which statement best describes the reason for naming constellations
from that era?
A. They accidentally named the constellation after seeing them.
B. They name the constellations to explain the complexity of these patterns
in the sky.
C. They name the constellations to help them mark the events that happened
in their life.
D. They name the constellations as a reference for their uses in agriculture
and navigation.

38. If the gravitational acceleration on the moon is 1/6 that of earth, how does the
time of fall on the moon differ from that of the Earth?
A. The object will fall for a longer time on the moon.
B. The object will fall for a shorter time on the moon.
C. The time of fall of an object on the moon cannot be determined.
D. The object will fall at the same time both on Earth and on the moon.

39. Gravity is the downward force upon a projectile that influences its vertical motion.
How does gravity affect the trajectory of a projectile?
A. It decreases its horizontal acceleration.
B. It increases the height the projectile can obtain.
C. It influences its vertical motion and causes a parabolic path.
D. It creates a force that keeps the projectile at constant horizontal velocity.

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
40. Two billiard balls approach each other at equal speeds. If they collide in a perfectly
elastic collision, what will happen to their velocities after collision?
A. Zero
B. Same in magnitude and direction
C. Same in magnitude but opposite in direction
D. Different in magnitude and opposite in direction

41. A 0.30 kg cart moving on an air track at 1.2 m/s collides and sticks to another
cart of mass 0.50 kg which was stationary before the collision. What is the velocity
of the combined carts after collision?
A. 0.35 m/s
B. 0.45 m/s
C. 0.55 m/s
D. 0.65 m/s

42. When energy changes from one form to another, the amount of energy stays the
same. This principle is held by which of the following law?
A. Law of Energy
B. Law of Conservation of Mass
C. Law of Conservation of Energy
D. Law of Chemical Combination

43. Gravitational Potential Energy (GPE) is determined by the height of an object

above the Earth’s center of gravity and its weight. At which position does a roller
coaster have the greatest gravitational energy?
A. At its lowest point.
B. At its highest point.
C. Halfway between its highest and lowest points.
D. At any point, Gravitational Potential Energy is the same.

44. Is it possible to change the temperature of a glass of water by stirring the water,
even though the glass is insulated from its surrounding?
A. No, stirring will not affect the temperature of the water.
B. No, insulation prevents the change of temperature of the water.
C. Yes, stirring the water increases its internal energy causing an increase in
the temperature.
D. Yes, stirring the water increases its internal energy causing a decrease in
the temperature.

45. Refrigerators work by causing the refrigerant to circulate inside them. What is
commonly used as a refrigerant for most refrigerators?
A. Gas that is hard to liquefy
B. Gas that is easy to solidify
C. Liquid that is easy to turn into gas
D. Liquid that is hard to turn into solid

Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga

School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test
46. It’s a really hot day and your air conditioner is broken. Your younger brother
says, “Let’s open the refrigerator door and cool this place off”. Will his idea work?
A. Yes, because it can absorb heat from the surroundings.
B. Yes, because it can release cold air from the inside out into the room.
C. No, because it is too small to cool a room unless more than one refrigerator
is kept open.
D. No, because it works like heat pumps that remove heat from the inside out
into the surroundings, making the room hotter.

47. A generator is a machine that converts energy for transmission and distribution
over power lines to domestic, commercial, and industrial customers. What energy
transformation takes place in a generator?
A. Heat to mechanical
B. Mechanical to electrical
C. Chemical to mechanical
D. Electrical to mechanical

48. When power reaches the distribution lines, the step-down transformer reduced
further the voltage to 220 to 230 volts for household consumption. What will
happen to an appliance labeled with 110-volt if it is plugged directly into our
sockets?
A. It will burn or explode due to excess voltage or emf.
B. It will function but will not last long because the voltage is not compatible.
C. Its voltage will automatically change according to the voltage in the power
supply.
D. It will work properly since the voltage indicated in an appliance is not
associated with the voltage in the power supply.

49. In thermal power stations, coal is used for the generation of electricity. The heat
energy produced due to the combustion of coal converts water into steam. How
does energy change from one form to another before it is transformed into
electrical energy?
A. Heat Energy → Electrical Energy → Mechanical Energy
B. Heat Energy → Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy
C. Mechanical Energy → Electrical Energy → Heat Energy
D. Mechanical Energy → Heat Energy → Electrical Energy

50. The hydroelectric power plant is a major source of electric current in some places
in our country. It is considered almost 100% efficient because it produces little
waste heat. Which of the following could be the reason why our country cannot
depend on this type of power plant?
A. Our country has no adequate source of funds.
B. The bodies of water in the country are not sufficient.
C. There are not enough ideal locations for dams to store large quantities of
water.
D. It produces a large number of pollutants that could contaminate our
environment.
Test Curator: Jonas F. Saldia DepEd-Caraga
School: Taligaman National High School Sukdanan
Email Address: [email protected] Standardized Diagnostic Test