03/05/2016 CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

MM : 120 Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Time : 3 Hrs.

Test 08 (Mock Test)

Topics covered :

Physics : Full Syllabus

Chemistry : Full Syllabus

examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Biology : Full Syllabus

Instructions :
(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 1 mark. For every wrong response one fourth (¼) mark shall be deducted from total score.

(1)
 PHYSICS

4. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it.

1. The flux linked with a coil is given by If is the electric flux is associated with the curved
surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A
B  4t 2 – 2t  5 in unit of voltmetre will be

The ratio of the average emf between 0 to 3 second B

and instantaneous emf at 3 second is : C q A

5
(1) 1 (2) 1⎛ q ⎞ q
11 (1) ⎜   ⎟ (2) 2
2⎝ 0 ⎠ 0
11
(3) (4) 11 φ q
15 (3) (4) 
3 0
2. In the given circuit, find the ratio of charges on 2 C
5. In an inductor of self inductance L = 2 mH, current
and 4 C where symbols have there usual meanings
changes with time according to relation I = t2 e–t.
2C At what time, emf is zero

C (1) 4 s (2) 3 s
3C
4C (3) 2 s (4) 1 s

6. Dimensional formula of resistivity is

V
(1) [ML2T–2A–1] (2) [ML3T–3A–2]

4 3 (3) [ML3T–2A–1] (4) [ML–2T–2A–2]

(1) (2)
7 22 7. Two sources of equal emfs are connected to an
external resistance R. The internal resistances of
7 22 the two sources are R1 and R2 (R2 > R1). If the
(3) (4)
4 2 potential difference across the source having
internal resistance R2 is zero, then
3. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is
falling with its plane vertical in a horizontal R2 (R1 + R2 )
 R1R2
(1) R = (2) R =
magnetic induction B as shown in diagram. At the (R2 − R1) R1 + R2
position MNQ, the speed of ring is v. The potential
difference developed across the ring is : R1R2
(3) R = (4) R = R2 – R1
x R2 − R1
B x
8. The heat produced by a 100 W heater in 2 min is
x N x equal to
 (1) 4 × 103 J (2) 10 × 103 J
v
(3) 6 × 103 J (4) 12 × 103 J
M Q
9. For a series LCR circuit, the power loss at
(1) Zero
resonance is

BvR 2
(2) and M is at higher potential V2
2 V2
(1) ωL − 1 (2)
(3) RBv and  is at higher potential. ωC ωC

(4) 2RBv and Q is at higher potential (3) I2C (4) I2R

(2)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

10. In an LCR series as ac circuit the voltage across 15. The magnetic field intensity due to a thin wire
each of the component L, C, R is 50 V. The carrying current I shown in figure
voltage across the LC combination will be :

(1) 50 V (2) 50 2V

O
(3) 100 V (4) Zero R
2
11. A galvanometer of resistance 15  gives full scale
deflection of 2 mA. Calculate the shunt resistance
needed to convert it into an ammeter of range 0.5 A
μ0 I
(1) ( π − α + tan α )
(1) 6 m (2) 7 m 2 πR

(3) 10 m (4) 8 m μ0 I
(2) ( π − α)
2πR
12. The series combination of resistor and capacitor of
resistance R and capacitance C are connected to
μ0 I
an AC source of V volts and angular frequency . (3) ( π + α)
2πR

If the angular frequency is reduced to the
3 μ0 I
(4) ( π + α − tan α )
current is found to be reduced to one half without 2 πR
changing the value of the voltage. Determine the
16. A charge particle q is moving in a circle of radius
ratio of the capacitive reactance and the resistance.
R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic
moment is given by
3 3
(1) (2)
5 5 vR 2
(1) qvR2 (2) q
2
3 5
(3) (4) qvR
5 3 (3) qvR (4)
2
13. AC current is given by following formula 17. Lines of force, due to earth horizontal magnetic field
are
I = I1sint + I2cost.
(1) Elliptical (2) Curved lines
Find the peak value of current
(3) Concentric circles (4) Parallel and straight
18. The ratio of intensities of rays emitted from two
I12 + I22 I12 + I22
(1) (2) different coherent sources is . Then visibility of
2 2 fringes is given by

1 
I1 + I2 (1)
(3) (4) None of these 
2

14. If vy, vx, vm are the velocities of the -rays, X-rays 1 

(2)
and microwave respectively in space then 2 

(1) vy > vx > vm 1

⎛ 1  ⎞
(3) ⎜ ⎟
(2) vy < vx < vm ⎝2  ⎠

(3) vx > vm > vy

1 
(4)
(4) vy = vx = vm 

(3)
 examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

19. Young’s double slit experiment is used to 24. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in
determine the thickness of a thin transparent sheet Balmer series is
of thickness t of transparent material having
(1) 5 : 9 (2) 5 : 36
refractive index n as shown in the figure. Let the
central fringe which was obtained at a point A on (3) 1 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
a screen in absence of the thin sheet shifts to
point P the thickness of the sheet is 25. An electron makes a transition from an excited
state to the ground state of hydrogen like atom /
ion its :
P
(1) KE increases but PE and TE decreases
(2) KE, PE, TE decreases
d A (3) KE decreases, PE increases but TE remains
constant
(4) KE & TE decreases but PE increases
26. If the refractive index of air w.r.t. glass is 2/3 and
D that of diamond w.r.t. air is 12/5, then the refractive
index of glass w.r.t. diamond will be
xd D (n − 1) (1) 5/8 (2) 8/9
(1) (2)
D (n − 1) xd
(3) 5/18 (4) 18/5

xD x (n − 1) 27. The ground state energy of H2 atom is –13.6 eV.

(3) (4) What is the potential energy of the electron in this
d n − 1)
( dD
state?
20. Resolving power of telescope can be increased by (1) 0 eV (2) –27.2 eV
the increasing
(3) 1 eV (4) 2 eV
(1) Wavelength
28. In X-ray experiment K, K denote
(2) Diameter of objective
(1) Characteristic lines
(3) The diameter of eyepiece
(2) Continuous wavelength
(4) The focal length of eyepiece
(3)  emission respectively
21. The material suitable for making electromagnets
(4) None of these
should have
29. A bubble in glass slab ( = 1.5) when viewed from
(1) High retentivity and high coercivity
one side appears at 5 cm and viewed from other
(2) Low retentivity and low coercivity side appears at 2 cm, then thickness of slab is

(3) High retentivity and low coercivity (1) 3.75 cm

(4) Low retentivity and high coercivity (2) 3 cm

22. The universal property among all substances is (3) 10.5 cm

(1) Diamagnetism (2) Paramagnetism (4) 2.5 cm

30. Which one of the following pairs of nuclei are
(3) Ferromagnetism (4) Non-magnetism
isotones?
23. A magnetic substance has susceptibility –0.05 at 74, 71
(1) 34Se 31Ga
300 K. The susceptibility of the substances at 600
K will be (2) 38Sr
84,
38Sr
86

(3) 92 72
(1) –0.025 (2) –0.1 42M0 , 40Zr

(4) 40 32
(3) –0.05 (4) –0.0125 20Ca , 16S

(4)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

31. A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has 37. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
refractive index 5/3. A source of light is placed 4 m
below the surface of liquid. The minimum radius of (A) Type of semiconductor material
disc needed so that light is not coming out is (B) Amount of doping
(1)  (2) 3 m
(C) Temperature
(3) 6 m (4) 4 m
Which one of the following is correct ?
32. During -dacay
(1) A and B only
(1) An atomic electron is ejected
(2) B only
(2) An electron already present in the nucleus is
ejected (3) B and C only
(3) A proton in the nucleus decays emtting an (4) A, B and C
electron
38. The circuit shown contains two diodes, each with
(4) A neutron in the nucleus decays emitting an a forward resistance of 50  and with infinite
electron backward resistance. If the battery is of 6 V, the
current through the 100  resistance in ampere is
33. A radioactive nucleus (initial mass number A and
atomic number Z) emits 3 particles and 2
positrons. The ratio of number of neutrons to that D1 150 
of protons is the final nucleus will be :

AZ4 A Z8 D2 50 
(1) (2)
Z2 Z4
100 
AZ4 A  Z  12
(3) (4)
Z8 Z4 6V

34. Hydrogen gas is filled in a transparent balloon

(1) Zero (2) 0.02
which is kept in air. The balloon behaves as

(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens (3) 0.03 (4) 0.36

(3) Convex mirror (4) Concave mirror 39. Four point charges –Q, –q, 2q and 2Q are placed,
one at each corners of square in order. The relation
35. An intrinisic semiconductor at absolute zero of between Q and q for which the potential at the
temperature behaves like centre of square is zero is
(1) An insulator
1
(1) Q = –q (2) Q = –
(2) A superconductor q
(3) An n-type semiconductor
1
(4) A metallic conductor (3) Q = q (4) Q 
q
36. If  = surface charge density and  = electric
40. The maximum frequency that can be reflected from
σ
permitivity. The dimensions of are same as ionosphere is
ε
(1) 5 MHz
(1) Electric force
(2) 6 GHz
(2) Electric field intensity

(3) Pressure (3) 5 kHz

(4) Electric charge (4) 500 MHz

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Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

CHEMISTRY

41. By which of the following, the order of reaction 45. Which equation is applicable to Langmuir
is determined ? adsorption isotherm at high pressures ?

(1) Temperature x x a
(1)  ap (2) 
(2) Mechanism of reaction m m b

(3) Molecularity x p x a
(3)  (4) 2
 2
m n m b
(4) Pressure
46. At isoelectric point, the colloid
42. For the following elementary reaction
(1) Stabilizes
2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2.
(2) Peptizes
If pressure is decreased by three times then
reaction rate (3) Does not possess net electrical charges
(1) Increases by 27 times (4) Cannot be coagulated
(2) Decreases by 27 times
47. German silver is alloy of ....
(3) Increases by 8 times
(1) Cu, Ni (2) Ag, Cu
(4) Decreases by 18 times
(3) Ag, Cu, Ni (4) Cu, Ni, Zn
43. Following mechanism has been proposed for a
reaction 48. What will be the correct order of theoretical
magnetic moment if Cr3+, Mn2+ and Fe3+ having
2A + B  D + E magnetic moment x, y and z in BM unit
respectively ?
A + B  C + D (slow)
(1) x > y > z
A + C  E (fast)
(2) x = y > z
The rate law expression for the reaction is
(3) x < y = z
(1) r = k[A]2[B] (2) r = k[A][B]
(4) x = y = z
(3) r = K[A]2 (4) r = k[A][C]
49. According to crystal field theory, which of the
44. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
following ligand acts as strongest ligand ?
(1) In enzyme catalyzed reactions, the rate of
(1) CO (2) H2O
reaction is higher in the pH range 5-7

(2) The coagulating power of the electrolyte is in (3) Fluoride ion (4) Thiocyanate ion
the fourth power of the valency of the active
50. Which of the following complex does not possess
ions
square planar shape ?
(3) In condensation methods, big particles of the
(1) [Ni(Cl)4]2–
substance are broken in the presence of
dispersion medium
(2) [Ni(CN)4]2–
(4) One molecule of enzyme can convert ten lacs
(3) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
of reactant molecules to product in one
minutes
(4) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]

(6)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

54. Which monomers are used for preparation of

CHO melamine polymer?
CHO
(i) conc. NaOH
51. product
(ii) dil H2SO4 NH2 NH2
N
OCH3 (1) & HCHO
N N
Product is
NH2
COOH
CH2OH NH2 NH2
(1)
(2) & HCHO
OCH3
NH2

CH2OH
H2N NHCH2OH
COOH N

(2) & HCHO

(3)
N N
OCH3
NH2

COOH
COOH H2NNH NHNH2
N
(3)
(4) & HCHO
N N
OCH3

NHNH2
CH2OH
55. Which catalyst is used in preparation of PVC ?
(4)
OCH3 (1) Tertiary butyl peroxide

(2) Ziegler-Natta
52. Which of the following is correct order of basicity
of amine in aqueous medium ? (3) Tertiary butyl phthalate

(1) (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > NH3 (4) Di-isobutyl aluminium hydride

(2) (C2H5)2 NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > NH3 56. Which of the following substances acts as food
colour ?
(3) (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > NH3
(1) -keto acid (2) -carotene

(4) > > > NH3 (3) Citric acid (4) Ascorbic acid
N N N
57. Which type of magnetic property does Ferrite
53. Which vitamin is insoluble in both water and fat ? (MgFe2O4) possess?

(1) A (2) B complex (1) Diamagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic

(3) Ferrimagnetic (4) Anti-ferromagnetic
(3) C (4) H

(7)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

58. Which of the following aqueous solution will have (1) Schottky defect
maximum vapour pressure at constant
temperature? (2) Metal excess defect because of absent anion

(1) 0.1 M NaCl (2) 0.1 M FeCl3 (3) Frenkel defect

(3) 0.1 M BaCl2 (4) 0.1 M Glucose (4) Metal excess defect because of excess cation
59. Which of the following mixture is the ideal 63. In the electrolytic refining of zinc
solution?
(1) Graphite is at the anode
(1) Chloroform and acetone
(2) The impure metal is at the cathode
(2) Benzene and toluene
(3) The metal ion gets reduced at the anode
(3) Phenol and aniline
(4) Acidified zinc sulphate is the electrolyte
(4) HCl and H2O
64. Which of the following is a strong oxidising agent?
60. From the following which one is 3° benzylic
halide? (1) Metallic compounds

Cl (2) Intermoleculer compounds

CH2 – Cl CH3 – Cl
(3) Inter-halogen compounds
(1) (2) CH3
Cl (4) Hydro halide compounds

AgCN
CH3 Cl P1
C – Cl 65. R – Cl
(3) (4) AgNO2
CH3 P2

61. Which of the following is an allylic halide? The product P1 and P2 respectively are
(1) P1 = RCN, P2 = R – NO2

CH2 – CH2 – X (2) P1 = R – NC, P2 = RONO

(1) (3) P1 = R – CN, P2 = R – ONO
(4) P1 = R – NC, P2 = R – NO2
R 66. What is the function of salt bridge in
X
electrochemical cell?
(2) R
(1) Conduction of Zn+2 ion
(2) Conduction of electrons
X
(3) (3) Maintain the electrical neutrality of both
solutions
(4) Conduction of Cu2+ ion
(4)
X 67. How the Blister copper is formed?
62. Following diagram represents (1) Due to the bubbles of sulphur dioxide gas
evolved from the fluid

(2) Due to the bubbles of carbon dioxide gas from

the fluid are evolved

(3) Due to the bubbles of carbon trioxide gas from

the fluid are evolved

(4) Due to the bubbles of carbon monoxide gas

from the fluid are evolved

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Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

74. Which of the following is not a concentration cell?

68. NHOH its name is
2+ 2+
(1) Zn | Zn (C1 ) || Zn (C2 ) | Zn
C – OC2H5
|| 2+ 2+
(2) Mg | Mg (C ) || Zn ( C ) | Zn
O 1 2

2+ 2+
(1) o - Hydroxyaminoethylbenzoate (3) Mg | Mg (C1 ) || Mg (C2 ) | Mg

(2) m - Hydroxyaminoethylbenzoate (4) All of these

75. Whcih of the following oxo-acid is not possible?
(3) o - Hydroxyethylbenzoicacid
(1) HOClO2 (2) HOFO2
(4) m - Hydroxyethylbenzoicacid
(3) HOBrO2 (4) HOIO2
69. The coordination number of bcc arrangement is 76. What will be the vapour pressure of solution
prepared by dissolving 18 gram of glucose to 178.2
(1) 2 (2) 4
gram water? [If v.p. of solvent is 760 mm of Hg at
(3) 6 (4) 8 given condition]
(1) 759.00 mm (2) 7.60 mm
70. Which formula is used to get degree of
dissociation ()? (3) 76.00 mm (4) 752.40 mm
77. The product P1 and P2 respectively are
Molar conductivity of solution at given dilution
(1) O NaBH4/C2H5OH
Molar conductivity of solution at infinite dilution P1
CH = CH – C – CH3
Molar conductivity of solution at inf inite dilution LiAlH4/H2O
(2) P2
Molar conductivity of solution at given concentration
CH = CH – CH2 – CH3
Eq. conduction of solution at inf inite dilution
(3) Eq. conduction of solution at given concentration (1) Both P1 and P2 are

(4) All of these OH

CH = CH – CH – CH3
71. Which reaction occurs at anode in lead storage
(2) Both P1 and P2 are
cell?

(1) PbO2(s) + 4H(aq)

+
+ SO4−2(aq) + 2e− → PbSO4 + 2H2 O OH
CH = CH – CH – CH3
(2) Pb(s) + SO4−2(aq) → PbSO4(aq) + 2e− ,
(3) P1 =

(3) PbSO4 + 2e− → Pb+2(aq) + SO4−2(aq) OH

CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
(4) PbO2(s) + SO−42 + 2e− → PbSO4(s) + O2(g)
P2 =
72. When ZnO is heated, it appears ...... colour due to
metal excess defect. OH
CH2 – CH2 – CH – CH3
(1) Pink (2) Yellow
,
(4) P1 =
(3) Violet (4) Blue
OH
73. Which is used in Holme’s signal?
CH = CH – CH – CH3
(1) NH3 (2) SO2
(3) PH3 (4) CO2 P2 =

(9)
 examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

78. Cannizaro’s reaction is given by 80. The successive intermediate formed during
Hofmann bromamide reaction is
(1) CH3 – CH – CHO
CH3
O
KOH
O R – C – NH2 + Br2
(2) CH3 – C – H O O
(1) R – C – N – Br R–N=C=O R–C–N
O
H
(3) CH3 – C – CH3 O O
(4) All of these (2) R – C – N – Br R–C–N R–N=C=O
79. Which one is most basic? H
O O
(3) R – C – N R – C – N – Br R–N=C=O
(1) (2) N
N H
H
O O O
NH2
(4) R – N = C = O R–C–N R – C – N – Br
(3) (4) CH 2 = CH – NH 2 H

BOTANY
81. Which of the following mineral element is required 84. Guttation occurs through
for iron absorption?
(1) Stomata
(1) Ni
(2) Guard cell
(2) Mg
(3) Hydathodes
(3) Zn
(4) More than one option is correct
(4) Mn
85. If the pressure increases water potential _A_. At
82. Select the odd one w.r.t. short day palnt
negative pressure it __B__. Its value is_C_in open
(1) Paddy pure water.
(2) Xanthium
A B C
(3) Soyabean
(4) Cucumis (1) Decreases Increases Zero
83. Select the correct statements w.r.t. means of
transport shown in the given figure. (2) Increases Decreases Zero

(3) Increases Decreases One

(4) Decreases Increases One

86. Select the correct match for population interaction

where ‘+’ sign is for beneficial, ‘–’ sign for
detrimental and ‘zero’ for neutral interaction
(1) This type of absorption need the expenditure of
metabolic energy from the cell in the form of Type of
Species-A Species-B
ATP interaction
(2) Such as ionic - exchange occurs even against (1) + - Commensalism
their concentration - gradient
(3) Such as ionic - exchange occurs even (2) + + Amensalism
alongwith their concentration - gradient (3) + + Mutualism
(4) Only anions are located on the surface of the
cell wall (4) + - Competition

(10)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

87. What is ‘A’ indicates in the given figure? 92. Total 1200 seeds were obtained from the AaBb ×
AaBb cross. Find the number of plants produced
having both the recessive traits
(1) 70 (2) 75
A (3) 420 (4) 210
93. Which of the following represents test cross ?
(1) Tt × TT (2) Tt × tt

(1) Algae (2) Lichen (3) TT × TT (4) Tt × Tt

(3) Fungi (4) Competition 94. Which experiment was performed by F. Griffith
using Pneumococcus?
88. Which of the following is correct for the reaction
occuring during photorespiration? (1) Bacterial transformation
(1) In mitochondria, glycolate is oxidized to form (2) Viral transformation
glyoxylate
(3) Biochemical evidences for DNA as a genetic
(2) In mitochondria, two glycine molecules unite to material
form serine
(4) Bacterial transduction
(3) In peroxisome, three molecules of glycine unite
to form serine 95. Find out the correct order in which following steps
(A to E) of DNA fingerprinting are carried out
(4) In mitochondria, serine is converted into
hydroxypyruvate A – Separation of DNA fragments by
electrophoresis
89. Arrange the following option is ascending order of
their DDT concentration : B – Extraction of DNA from the sample cell

(i) Fish eating bird C – DNA is cut into fragments by using restriction
endonucleases
(ii) Big fishes
D – A radioactive DNA probe is introduced
(iii) Zooplankton
E – The DNA band pattern is transferred to a nylon
(iv) Small fishes
membrane or nitrocellulose
(1) (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (ii)
(1) A – C – B – D – E
(2) (iii) – (iv) – (ii) – (i)
(2) A – B – D – C – E
(3) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(3) C – B – A – D – E
(4) (iv) - (iii) – (ii) – (i)
(4) B – C – A – E – D
90. In India, how many genetically different strains of
rice are there? 96. Which of the following codon perform dual function?

(1) 1000 (2) 50000 (1) GUU (2) AGU

(3) 40000 (4) 10000 (3) UAA (4) AUG

91. Choose the correct option w.r.t. chromosome 97. Identify the correct labelling from given below
number

Meiocyte Meiospore
Plant
(2N ) (N )

(1) Oni on 24 48

(2) Housefly 12 12 (1) A – Initiation site

(2) B – Coding sequence
(3) C at 12 24
(3) C – Promoter
(4) Apple 34 17
(4) D – A gene

(11)
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

98. Consider the following organisms 99. Select the mis-matched pair :
(A) Saccharomyces (1) Gibberrelins-Induces flowering in some plants

(B) Wheat (2) Cytokinins – Reduces apical dominance

(C) Fruit fly (3) ABA - It stimulates the process of closing of

stomata
(D) E.coli
(4) Ethylene – It reduces drooping of leaves and
Find the correct option in which DNA sequencing flowers.
is achieved along with completion of H.G.P.
100. Deforestation results in :
(1) A and B (1) Jhum cultivation
(2) B and C (2) CO2 concentration increases in atmosphere
(3) C and D (3) Rapidly increasing population
(4) A and D (4) More than one option is correct

ZOOLOGY

101. If cystic duct is blocked then which component of (1) B–Neutrophil– 90% of WBC’s
food would majorily affected?
(2) A–Erythrocyte– 4-6 million
(1) Carbohydrate (2) Protein
(3) C–Basophil– 0–1% of WBC’s
(3) Fat (4) Nucleic acid
(4) D–Eosinophil– 40% of WBC’s
102. Gastrin and enterogastrone are secreted from
106. Glenoid cavity and acetabulum are found in :
(1) Duodenum and stomach respectively (1) Pelvic and pectoral girdle respectively
(2) Stomach and ileum respectively (2) Pelvic girdle only
(3) Stomach and duodenum respectively (3) Pelvic girdle and vertebral column respetively
(4) Both are secreted from stomach (4) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle respectively
103. In case of emphysema, correct statement is 107. During muscle contraction which statement is
(1) Alveoli loss their elasticity incorrect?
(1) Myosin filament slide over actine filament
(2) Alveolar sac remain filled with air after
expiration (2) Actine filament slide over myosine filament
(3) Tracheal dialatory drug is effective (3) Z–line far apart from each other
(4) All of these (4) Both (1) and (3)
104. Which one of the following factor related to blood 108. Reason behind hypertonicity of human urine is
clotting ? (1) Counter current mechanism
(1) Vitamin K, Na+ (2) Henle’s loop
(2) Vitamin K, K+ (3) Vasa recta
(3) Vitamin K, Ca+2 (4) All of these
(4) Vitamin K, Mg+2 109. K+, H+ and NH3 specifically related which process
of urine formation
105. Identify the correct match :
(1) Absorption
(2) Selective reabsorption
(3) Tubular secretion
(4) Secretion

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Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

110. Coronary arteries supply blood to 117. Oligonucleotide primer are added in which step of
polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
(1) Heart (2) Kidney
(1) Denaturation
(3) Liver (4) Spleen
(2) Annealing
111. Which statement is correct in case of
repolarization (3) Extension

(1) Open Na+ channel, closed K+ channel (4) Replication

(2) Closed Na+ channel, closed K+ channel 118. Choose the correct option for PCR in given figure

(3) Closed Na+ channel, open K+ channel

(4) Only K+ channel closed
A
112. Find out hormones secreted from kidney
B
(1) Erythropoietin (2) Rennin
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) ADH C

113. During spermiogenesis, which one of the following

changes seen is incorrect?
(1) Nucleus absorb water
(2) Acrosome formation from golgi complex
(3) Arrangement of centriole for axial filament (1) A=Denaturation 60°C Separation of two
formation strands of DNA
(4) All of these (2) B=Annealing 90°C Oligonucleotide
primers separation
114. Ovulation takes place at
are added
(1) High level of LH (3) A=Denaturation 90°C Separation of two
(2) Secondary oocyte stage only strands of DNA

(3) End of proliferative phase (4) C=Annealing 72°C Oligonucleotide

primers separation
(4) All of these are added
115. Which of the following ART method show 119. ‘Cry’ protein is associated with :
fertilization outside the body?
(1) Bt cotton
(1) IVF (2) ZIFT
(2) Bt brinjal
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) GIFT only (3) Bt corn
116. Adaptive radiation was proposed by Osborn. It was (4) All of these
caused by
120. Average volume of semen for each ejaculation is:
(1) Isolation
(1) 1 – 3 ml
(2) Need for food
(2) 3 – 4 ml
(3) Need for better breeding grounds (3) 5 – 6 ml
(4) All of these (4) 7 – 8 ml

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 examtimepdfs.blogspot.com
Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016 Test 08 _ Code-A (Mock Test)

03/05/2016 CODE-A

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MM : 120 Time : 3 Hrs.

Crash & Test Series GUJCET 2016
Test 08 (Mock Test)
Answers

1. (2) 31. (2) 61. (3) 91. (4)

2. (2) 32. (4) 62. (4) 92. (2)
3. (4) 33. (3) 63. (4) 93. (2)
4. (1) 34. (2) 64. (3) 94. (1)
5. (3) 35. (1) 65. (4) 95. (4)
6. (2) 36. (2) 66. (3) 96. (4)
7. (4) 37. (4) 67. (1) 97. (2)
8. (4) 38. (2) 68. (1) 98. (3)
9. (4) 39. (1) 69. (4) 99. (4)
10. (4) 40. (1) 70. (1) 100. (2)
11. (1) 41. (2) 71 (2) 101. (3)
12. (1) 42. (2) 72 (2) 102. (3)
13. (4) 43. (2) 73 (3) 103. (4)
14. (4) 44. (3) 74 (2) 104. (3)
15.  45. (2) 75 (2) 105. (2)
16. (4) 46. (3) 76 (4) 106. (4)
17. (4) 47. (4) 77 (3) 107. (4)
18. (3) 48. (3) 78. (1) 108. (4)
19. (1) 49. (1) 79. (1) 109. (3)
20. (2) 50. (1) 80. (2) 110. (1)
21. (2) 51. (1) 81. (1) 111. (3)
22. (1) 52. (2) 82. (4) 112. (1)
23. (1) 53. (4) 83. (2) 113. (1)
24. (1) 54. (1) 84. (3) 114. (4)
25. (1) 55. (2) 85. (2) 115. (3)
26. (1) 56. (2) 86. (3) 116. (4)
27. (2) 57. (3) 87. (3) 117. (2)
28. (1) 58. (4) 88. (2) 118. (3)
29. (3) 59. (2) 89. (2) 119. (4)
30. (1) 60. (3) 90. (2) 120. (2)

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