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Memory Based Questions & Solutions

PAPER 1 & 2
Date & Day : 28th August 2022, SUNDAY

Paper - 1 : Duration & Time : 3 Hrs. , 09:00-12:00 IST

Paper - 2 : Duration & Time : 3 Hrs. , 14:30-17:30 IST
Total Marks (PCM) : 180 + 180

SUBJECT: CHEMISTRY

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 PAPER-1 : INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Question Paper-1 has three (03) parts: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
 Each part has a total Eighteen (18) questions divided into three (03) sections (Section-1, Section-2, Section-3)
 Total number of questions in Question Paper-1 are 54 and Maximum Marks are One Hundred and Eighty (180).
Type of Questions and Marking Schemes

SECTION-1
• This section contains Eight (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than
two decimal places truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal placed.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION 2

This section contains SIX (06) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.

SECTION 3

This section contains THREE (04) questions of matching type.

• This section each question of Match List type i.e. Match List-I to List-II. List-I had 4 questions to be
matched to List-II which had 5 options. One or more than one options were correct.
• Each question has Five options (A), (B), (C) (D) and (E). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
• Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen.
• Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
• Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
 PAPER-2 : INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Question Paper-1 has three (03) parts: Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.
 Each part has a total Eighteen (18) questions divided into three (03) sections (Section-1, Section-2, Section-3)
 Total number of questions in Question Paper-2 are 54 and Maximum Marks are One Hundred and Eighty (180).
Type of Questions and Marking Schemes

SECTION-1
• This section contains Eight (08) questions. The answer to each question is a SINGLE DIGIT
NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme :
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered.
Zero Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION 2

This section contains SIX (06) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get −2 marks.

SECTION 3

• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct
answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.
 | JEE (ADVANCED) 2022 | DATE : 28-08-2022 | MEMORY BASED | CHEMISTRY

1. On reaction Xe with O2F2 gives a product P, on hydrolysis of one mole of P, how many moles of HF are
formed.
Ans. (2)

Xe + O2F2 XeF2 + O2(g)

Sol. (P)

H2O

Xe + 2HF + ½O2

2. Atoms of an element crystalize in FCC lattice and also occpy alternate tetrahedral voids, then packing
fraction of solid in close to :
(A) 75% (B) 55% (C) 35% (D) 25%
Ans. (C)
Sol. No. of atoms per unit cell (Z)
1 1
Z = 8 [corner] + 6[Face] + 4 [Alternate TV]
8 2
Z=1+3+4
Z=8
It is diamond like structure in which
√3𝑎
2r =
4
8
 a=( 𝑟)
√3
4
8× 𝜋𝑟 3
PF = 3
8 3
× 100 = 35%
[ 𝑟]
√3

3. Which of the following is/are correct :

(A) Chemisorption is endothermic.
(B) Chemisorption involve unimolecular layer.
(C) Phesisorption increases with decrease in temperature.
(D) In phesisorption 100-140 kJ of heat is released.
Ans. (BC)
Sol. (A) Chemisorption is exothermic process.
(B) In Chemisorption unimolecular layer is formed.
(C) Phesisorption increases with decrease in temperature.
(D) In Phesisorption 20-40 kJ of heat is released.

4. HClO3 on reaction with HCl give product X, which on reaction with ozone give product Y. Then product Y
is.
(A) Cl2O6 (B) ClO2 (C) Cl2O (D) Cl2O7
Ans. (A)

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Sol. HClO3 + HCl Cl2 + H2O

( X)

O3

Cl2O6 ClO3
(Y)

5. AgNO3 on heating release two paramagnetic gases. Calculate number of electrons in antibonding orbitals
of the gas which has higher unpaired electron.

Sol. 2AgNO Ag
3 O(s) + 2NO (g)
2 2



2Ag (s) + ½O2(g)

Both NO2 and O2 are paramagnetic as NO2 has only unpaired electron while O2 has two unpaired
electrons. Electronic configuration of O2 (16) is
(1s)2 (*1s)2 (2s)2 (*2s)2 (2pz)2 (2p2x = 2p2y) (*2px1 = *2p1y)
no of electrons in antibonding orbitals is = 6
Ans. (6)

6. PbS on reaction with conc. HNO3 release a gas 'X', which of the following option is/are correct about gas
X.
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Colourless
(C) The molecule is bent (D) Acidic oxide
Ans. (A & B)

Sol. PbS  conc. HNO3  PbSO4   S  H2O  NOg

( X)
NO(g) is Paramagnetic & Colourless.

7. 1.24 gram White phosphorus on reaction with excess NaOH, produce a gas 'X', Which on reaction with
CuSO4 gives a product, then find mass of CuSO4 which is consumed in this reaction.
Ans. (2.38)
Sol. P4 (s) + 3NaOH PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2
1.24
124
= 0.01 mole 0.01 mole

2PH3 + 3CuSO4 Cu3 P2 + 3H2SO4

3
= 0.01 mole ( × 0.01 ) mole
2

3
mass of CuSO4 consumed = x 0.01 x 159
2
= 2.385 gram

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8. 0.1 mole of anionic solid dissolve in 1.8 kg water ionic solid is 90% dissociated in water. Vapour pressure
of solution is 59.724 mm of Hg and vapour pressure of pure water is 60 mm of Hg. Then calculate number
of ions in ionic solid.
𝑃0 −𝑃𝑠 𝑛𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒
Sol. = i
𝑃𝑠 𝑛𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡

60−59.724 0.1 0.276

= i=
59.724 100 59.724

276
i = 4.62 = 1 + (n – 1)
59.726
 0.9
(n – 1) 0.9 = 3.62
n–1=4
n=5

9. BN (inorganic graphite) can be prepared by reaction of ammonia with which of the following compound.
(A) B2H6 (B) B (C) B2O3 (D) NaBH4
Ans. (A & C)
HighTemperatur e
Sol. (i) B2H6 + NH3  (BN)x
excess T  200 C
o

Boron nitride slippery solid has same structure as graphite. (Inorganic graphite)
900o C
(ii) B2O3 + 2NH3   2(BN) + 3H2O

10. 0.01 mole of each H2CO3, NaHCO3, Na2CO3 and NaOH are mixed in 100ml of water, then final pH of
resulting solution is: (Given pKa1 & pKa2 of H2CO3 is 6.8, 10.32)
Ans. (10)
Sol. H2CO3 + NaOH  NaHCO3
0.01mole 0.01mole 0.01mole
0 0 0.02 mole

in final solution NaHCO3 = 0.02 mole

Na2CO3 = 0.01 mole
this act as buffer solution

[𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 ]
pH = pKa2+log
[𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 ]

0.01
= 10.32 + log ( )
0.02
= 10.32 – 0.30
= 10.02

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11. The reactions which are taking place in temperature range of 900k to 1500k in blast furnance in metallurgy
of iron are.
(A) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g)
(B) CaO(s) + SiO2(s)  CaSiO3(s) (Slag formation)
(C) FeO + CO  Fe + CO2
(D) FeO + C  Fe + CO
Ans. (ABC)
Sol. At 900 – 1500 K (higher temperature range in the blast furnace):
C + CO2  2 CO ; FeO + CO  Fe + CO2
Limestone is also decomposed tom CaO which removes silicate impurity of the ore as slag. The slag is
in molten state and separates out from iron.
CaCO3  CaO + CO2 ; CaO + SiO2  CaSiO3

12. Calculate reduction potential at 25° C for MnO−

4 Mn
Given
o
EMnO −
2 /MnO2
= 1.68 V
o
EMnO 2 /Mn
+2 = 1.21 V
o
EMn +2 /Mn = –1.03 V
Ans. (0.77)
Sol. MnO4− + 8H+ +7e– Mn + 4H2O …….(1)
−
MnO4 + 4H + 3e MnO2 + 2H2O
+ – …….(2)
MnO2 + 4H+ + 2e–Mn+2 + 2H2O …….(3)
Mn2e– Mn …….(4)
0 0 0 0
∆G1 = ∆G2 + ∆G2 + ∆G3
–7 × E = –3 × 1.68 – 2 × 1.21 – 2 × (–1.03)
o
EMnO –
4 /Mn
= 0.77 V

13. Which of the following option is/are correct about 2P z orbital.

(A) *2pz orbital have 3 nodal planes (B) 2pz orbital has one node in xy plane
(C) *2pz orbital has one node in xy plane (D) 2pz orbital have 3 nodal planes
Ans. (A & B)
Sol.
Antibonding sigma
molecular orbital

– + – + – – + – +
Nodal plane = 3
2pz 2pz *1s
*2pz


Bonding sigma
molecular orbital

– + + + – – + – Nodal plane = 2

2pz 2pz 2pz

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Nodal plane = 2

Nodal plane = 1

14. Pb2+ on reaction with dil. HCl give a ppt which is dissolve in excess HCl due to formation of :
(A) [PbCl4]2– (B) [PbCl6]2– (C) [PbCl6]4– (D) PbCl2
Ans. (A)
Pb2+ + dil. HCl  PbCl2 
 [PbCl4]2– excess
Sol.
HCl

1. Na/NH3 2. Br2 (excess) 3. Alc. KOH

15.

Number of tetraenes formed as product in the above scheme of reaction in which no carbon is 'sp'
hybridized.
Ans. (2)
Br
Sol. Na/NH3 Br2 (excess)

Br Br
Br

alc. KOH


Cis / trans

16. In final product number of methylene group (–CH2–)

1. O / Zn,H O

3

2

2.KMnO 4
3.NaOH,Electrolys is
4. Cr2O 3  773 K

Ans. (0)
O O
KMnO 4
Sol.
1. O 3
 2  OH
2. Zn,H2 O H

Cr O
2
3  NaOH
773 K
Electrolysis
n–hexane

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 | JEE (ADVANCED) 2022 | DATE : 28-08-2022 | MEMORY BASED | CHEMISTRY

NO2

P R T
17.  Q  S U
V
CH3
COOH

Which of the following is/are correct for above sequence reaction.

(A) P  H2/Ni, T  C2H5OH, V = KMnO4
(B) P  H2/Ni, R  HNO2, T = H3PO2

(C) R  HNO2, U = , V = KMnO4

CH3
(D) P  Sn/HCl, T = H3PO2, V = KMnO4
Ans. (ABCD)

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