FIITJEE – RBT-8 for (JEE-Advanced)

PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 2

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
BATCH – 2022

3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.

4. All the section can be filled in PART-A of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet

1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on
OMR sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for each
character of your Enrolment No. and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the
designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For Only One Part.

(i) Part-A (01-07) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have One or More correct answer.
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO
incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three
will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B)
will result in −1 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.
(ii) Part-A (08-14) – Contains seven (07) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.

(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are Two multiple
choice questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer
and -1 marks for wrong answer.

Name of the Candidate :____________________________________________

Batch :____________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :_______________________________________________

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IT−2022−RBT-8-Paper-2 JEEA 2

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
A
1. A container of large uniform cross sectional area A
resting on a horizontal surface holds two immiscible
H/2 d
non viscous and incompressible liquids of density d
and 3d, each of height H/2. The lower density liquid is
open to the atmosphere having pressure P0. A tiny
H/2 3d
hole of area a(a<<A) is punched to the vertical side of h
lower container at a height h (0<h<H/2) for which
range is maximum.
Range R
2H
(A) h = H /3 (B) Range R =
3
3H 2
(C) Range R = (D) Velocity of efflux v = gH
2 3

2. A YDSE is performed in a medium of refractive

index 1 . In front of one of the slits say S1 as S1

shown a thin glass slab of refractive index C

2 (  1 ) is kept. If initially the central maxima
O

2 S
was formed on the central line OC then
(A) central maxima will shift upwards
(B) central maxima will shift downwards
(C) the waves reaching on the screen at C from S1 will lead the waves reaching from S2
(D) the waves reaching C from S1 will lag from the waves reaching from S2

3. Two projectile are thrown at the same time from two different points. The projectile thrown
from the origin has initial velocity 3iˆ + 3jˆ with respect to earth. The projectile has initial
velocity aiˆ + bjˆ with respect to earth thrown from the point (10, 5). ( î is a unit vector along
horizontal, ĵ along vertical). If the projectile collides after two second, then the
1
(A) value of a is -2 (B) value of a is
2
1
(C) value of b is (D) value of b is –2
2
4. Find the acceleration of body A which slides without initial
velocity down a helical groove with a pitch H and a radius R R
at the end of the nth turn. Disregard friction.
gh h2 + 42R2 + 644n2R2
(A) a =
h2 + 42R2
gh h2 + 42R2 + 324n2R2 A
(B) a =
h2 + 42R2 H
gh h2 + 42R2 + 324n2R2
(C) a =
h2 − 42R2
gh h2 + 42R2 − 164n2R2
(D) a =
h2 + 42R2

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5. In the given figure, the block is attached with a system of

three ideal springs A, B, C. The block is displaced by a A

small distance x from its equilibrium position vertically

k
downwards and released. T represents the time period of
small vertical oscillations of the block. Then (pulleys are
ideal)
11m
(A) T = 2
B k
2k
(B) the deformation of the spring A is (2/11) times the
displacement of the block.
C
(C) the deformation of the spring C is (1/11) times the 2k
displacement of the block. m
(D) the deformation of the spring B is (4/11) times the
displacement of the block.

6. A constant force F is applied on a spring block system as shown in

figure. The mass of the block is m and spring constant is k. The k
F
block is placed over a smooth surface. Initially the spring was m
unstretched. Choose the correct alternative (s)
(A) the block will execute SHM (B) amplitude of oscillation is F/2k
m 2Fx − kx 2
(C) time period of oscillation is 2 (D) the maximum speed of block is
k m
(here x = F/k)

7. A particle is taken from point A to point B under the influence of a force field. Now it is taken
back from B to A and it is observed that the work done in taking the particle from A to B is
not equal to the work done in taking it from B to A. If Wnc and Wc is the work done by non
conservative forces and conservative forces present in the system respectively,U is the
change in potential energy,  k is the change is kinetic energy, then
(A) Wnc − U = k (B) Wc = −U
(C) Wnc + Wc = k (D) Wnc − U = −k
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. At a given instant, an observer stationary on the ground sees a package falling with speed v 1
at some angle with the vertical. A pilot flying at a constant horizontal speed relative to the
ground sees the package falling vertically with a speed v2 at the same instant. What is the
speed of the pilot relative to the ground?
(A) v1 + v2 (B) v1 – v2
(C) v 12 − v 22 (D) v 12 + v 22

9. Two identical circular coils M and N are arranged coaxially as

shown in the figure. Separation between the coils is large as M N
compared to their radii. The arrangement is viewed from left
along the common axis. The sign convention adopted is that
currents are taken to be positive when they appear to flow in
clockwise direction. Then which of the following is not correct?
(A) if M carries a constant positive current and is moved towards N, a positive current is
induced in N
(B) if M carries a constant positive current and N is moved towards M, a negative current is
induced in N
(C) if a positive current in M is switched off, a positive current is momentarily induced in N
(D) if both coils carry positive currents, they will attract each other

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IT−2022−RBT-8-Paper-2 JEEA 4

10. Three blocks a, b, and c of masses 10 kg, 10 kg and 20 kg are

arranged as shown in figure. All the surfaces are frictionless and
string is inextensible. Pulleys are light. A constant force
F = 20 N is applied on block a as shown. Pulleys and string are
light. Part of the string connecting both pulleys is vertical and part of
the strings connecting pulleys with masses m1 and m2 are b
horizontal. c a F
(A) Acceleration of mass blocks a, b and c is 0.5 m/s2.
(B) Acceleration of mass block b is 1.5 m/s2.
(C) Tension in the string is 10 N.
(D) Acceleration of mass block c is 0.5

11. The rigid square plate ABCD moves in the xy plane. If v ( ˆi + ˆj )

( )
VA = v ˆi + ˆj and VD = vjˆ , then VC
VB
is
A
450
B
ĵ

(A) 1 (B) 2
1
(C) (D) 0 î

v. ˆj C
D

12. Three identical plates of area A are arranged as shown.

(1) (2) (3)
a charge +Q is given to plate (2). Then,
(A) charge +2Q/3 appears on plate 1
(B) charge −2Q/3 appears on plate 1
(C) charge −2Q/3 appears on plate 3
(D) charge on plate 1 + charge on plate 3 = 0 d 2d

13. A microammeter has a resistance of 100 and a full scale range of 50A. It can be used as
a voltmeter or as a higher range ammeter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick the
correct range and resistance combinations
(A) 50 V range with 10 k resistance in series
(B) 20 V range with 200 k resistance in series
(C) 5 mA range with 1  resistance in parallel
(D) 10 mA range with 1  resistance in parallel

14. If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are assumed to be fundamental quantities, then
energy has a dimensional formula
(A) [P1T–1 A–1/2] (B) [P1T–1 A1/2]
2 –1 1
(C) [P T A ] (D) [P1T1 A–1]

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(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

In the shown diagram two point masses m are joined by a

massless rod of length 5.5 m. The lower end of the mass system
is dragged with constant velocity v0 rightwards. Initial value of  is
530 m

15. The initial kinetic energy of the system will be L

25mv 02
(A) mv 02 (B) m
16  v0
25mv 02 25mv 02
(C) (D)
32 18

16. The magnitude of velocity of centre of mass when  = 370, will be

5v 0 6v 0
(A) (B) 2v0 (C) v 0 2 (D)
6 5

Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

2A

The figure shows a network of resistors and a battery. i

i
If 1A current flows through the branch CF, then answer the
following questions

17. The emf E of the battery is

(A) 24 V (B) 12 V
(C) 18 V (D) 6 V

18. If a zero resistance wire is connected in parallel to branch CF. The current through
(A) branch DE is zero (B) branch BC is zero
(C) branch BC is 0.5 A (D) branch AB is 2.5 A

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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Which of the following pairs produce same gas?
(A) (Ca3N2 + dil. HCl) and (NH4NO2 on heating)
(B) [(NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating] and (NH4NO2 on heating)
(C) (NH4NO3 on heating) and [Hg(NO3)2 on heating]
(D) (NH4Cl on heating) and [NaNO3 + Zn + NaOH(aq.) on heating]

2. A current is passed through 500 mL of an aqueous solution of CaI2. After sometime, it is

observed that 50 millimoles of I2 have been formed. Which of the following statements
is(are) correct?
(A) The number of faradays of charge passed through the solution is 0.10 F.
(B) The volume of dry H2 at STP that has been formed during electrolysis is 1120 mL.
(C) The pH of the solution is nearly 0.7.
(D) The mass of calcium produced is 2.0 g.

3. Products of which of the following reactions is/are correctly represented.

N=O
NHMe
N - Me

(A) NaNO /HCl

⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
⎯
→

NMe 2
NMe 2

NaNO /HCl
(B) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
⎯
→

NO
O
NH2
N=N
(C)
(i) NaNO2 /HCl, 0 C o
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(ii) −napthol/NaOH

(i) KMnO4
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(ii)  OH
(D)
N O N
(iii) H3 O
+

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4. Me
H3O +
H3C C - O - OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → P1 + P2

P2 + FeCl3 → Violet Colour

P1 + NaOI → P3 + P4
yellow
Incorrect statement for the above sequence is
(A) P3 on reaction with Ag gives acetylene
(B) P4 on reaction with sodalime gives toluene
(C) P4 on reaction with sodalime gives benzene
(D) P1 on reaction with LiAlH4 gives a compound which gives blue colour in Victor Meyer test

5.

6. Select the correct statement(s)

(A) the value of rate constant cannot exceed the value of Arrhenius factor
(B) molecularity of multiple step reaction can be obtained from mechanism
(C) half life of a fourth order reaction is linearly dependent on initial concentration of reactant
(D) reactions with order  1 cannot get complete infinite time interval

7. H ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →P ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ Q ⎯⎯⎯⎯ →R

1.MeMgBr Pd/BaSO LiAlH
Ph 2.BrCH2COOC2H5 H2
4 4
dryether

Select correct compound/s

(A) Ph (B) O
‘Q’ is ’P’ is Ph − C  C − C − CH2Br
COOC 2H5
(C) (D) ‘P’ is Ph − C  C − CH2 − COOC2H5
Ph
‘R’ is
OH

(Single Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

8. 3.64 g of silver salt of an organic dibasic acid yields, on strong heating, 2.16 g of silver. If the
weight percentage of carbon in it 8 times the weight percentage of hydrogen and one-half
the weight percentage of oxygen, determine the molecular formula of the acid[Atomic weight
of Ag = 108]
(A) C4H6O4 (B) C4H6O6
(C) C2H6O2 (D) C5H10O5

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9. Consider the following aldose/ketoses. Which of them can give same osazone on reaction
with PhNHNH2.

(A) I, II only (B) I, II and III only

(C) I, II and IV only (D) I, II, III and IV

10. Buna-N synthetic rubber is a copolymer of

(A) H2C = CH − CN and H2C = CH − CH = CH2
(B) H2C = CH − CN and H2C = CH − C = CH2
|
CH3
(C) H2C = CH − C = CH2 and H2C = CH − CH = CH2
|
Cl
(D) H2C = CH − CH = CH2 and H5C6 − CH = CH2

11. Which of the following are correct statement

(A) Spontaneous adsorption of gases on solid surface is an endothermic process as entropy
decreases during adsorption.
(B) Formation of micelles takes place when temperature is below Kraft Temperature (Tk) and
concentration is above critical micelle concentration (CMC).
(C) A colloid of Fe(OH)3 is prepared by adding a little excess (required to completely
precipitate Fe3+ ions as Fe(OH)3)) of NaOH in FeCl3 solution the particles of this sol will
move towards anode during electrophoresis.
(D) According to Hardy-Schulze rule for the coagulation of As2S3 sol flocculation value of
Fe3+ ion will be more than Ba2+ or Na+.

12. For a solution of 0.849 g of mercurous chloride in 50 g of HgCl2(l) the freezing point
depression is 1.24oC. Kf for HgCl2 is 34.3. What is the state of mercurous chloride in HgCl2?
(Hg – 200, Cl – 35.5)
(A) as Hg2Cl2 molecules (B) as HgCl molecules
+ –
(C) as Hg and Cl ions (D) as Hg22+ and Cl– ions

13. In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at
(A) C1 and C5 respectively of the sugar molecule
(B) C5 and C1 respectively of the sugar molecule
(C) C5 and C2 respectively of the sugar molecule
(D) C2 and C5 respectively of the sugar molecule

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14. Which of the following reactions will have -hydroxy acid as a product:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) All of these

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

O
Cl ⎯⎯⎯⎯3
Zn/H O
→ + HCHO
2

→ ( A ) + (B )
NaOC H
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯2 5
Heat

→ ( C ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Zn −Hg
→ (D )
KMnO
⎯⎯⎯⎯
+
4
HCl
H

(F ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Alc.KOH
(E ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Br /PBr 2 3

Answer the following questions on the basis of above write up.

15. Which of the following statement is correct for the compound(E)?

(A) It is a vicinal bromide (B) It is an -bromo acid
(C) It is a -bromo acid (D) It reacts with HCl to form acid chloride

16. Which of the following is ‘F’?

(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2CHCOOH (B) CH3CH = CHCH2CH2COOK

OH
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH = CH - COOK (D) CH3CH2CH2CHCH2COOK

OH

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Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

17.

18. 2 m3 vessel containing 1024 particles have an orifice of area 10–2 mm2. If the average speed
of particles is 4  103 m/sec. Calculate the time taken (in sec) when initial pressure in the
container drop to half of initial value. [In2 = 0.7]
(A) 1.4  105 sec (B) 2.8  105 sec
(C) 1.4  103 sec (D) none of these

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S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A
(Multi Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Each of the circles |z – 1 – i| = 1 and |z – 1 + i| = 1 touches internally a circle of radius 2. The
equation of the circle touching all the three circles can be
(A) 3zz + z + z − 1 = 0 (B) 3zz − 7(z + z) + 15 = 0
(C) zz − z − z − 3 = 0 (D) 3zz + (z + z) − 1 = 0

 x + 2y  f ( x ) + 2f ( y )
2. If f  = x, y  R and f ' ( 0 ) = 1; then f ( x ) is
 3  3
(A) a second degree polynomial in x (B) continuous x R
(C) differentiable x R (D) a linear function in x

4x − x 3 + ln ( b2 − 3b + 3 ) 2  x  3
3. Let f(x) =  .The possible real value/s of b such that f(x) has
 x − 18 x3
the smallest value at x = 3.
(A) 0 (B) 1/2
(C) 1 (D) 3/2


1 a+ b
4. If the sum  (k + 2) = where a,b,c  N and lie in 1, 15 then
k =1 k +k k +2 c
(A) a =1 (B) b =2
(C) c = 8 (D) a + b + c = 12

5. A student has to match three historical events i.e. Dandi March, Quit India Movement and
Mahatma Gandhi’s assassination with the years 1948, 1930 and 1942. The student has no
knowledge of the correct answers and decides to match the events and years randomly. Let
Ei : ( 0  i  3 ) denote the event that the student gets exactly i correct answer, then
(A) P (E0 ) + P (E3 ) = P (E1 ) (B) P (E0 ) .P (E1 ) = P (E3 )
(C) P (E0  E1 ) = P (E2 ) (D) P (E0 ) + P (E1 ) + P (E3 ) = 1

−1 ; x  0

6. Let f ( x ) =  0 ; x = 0 , g ( x ) = x (1 − x 2 ) and h" ( x ) = 6x − 4 . If h ( x ) has local minima
 1 ; x 1

value 5 at x = 1 , then which of the following are (is) correct?
(A) Tangent to y = h ( x ) at (2, 7) is 5x − y = 3

(B) Area bounded by y = h ( x ) , y = g ( f ( x ) ) between x = 0 and x = 2 is

32
.
3
(C) Area bounded by ordinates of local maxima, local minima, y = h ( x ) and x – axis can be
1  4 
3
4 
2
19 
expressed as 1   3   3 
  − x  − 2  − x  − x +
3
 dx .

 
3

20
(D) Area bounded by y = h ( x ) , its tangent at (2, 7) and y – axis is .
3

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7. Let A be a non singular, symmetric matrix of order three such that A = adj. A + A T , then ( )
A
(A) A −1 = (B) A −1 = 16A
16
( )
(C) adj. A −1 = 64A ( )
(D) adj. A −1 =
A
1024

(Single Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

an
8. If   1 is an nth root of unity, then 1 + 5 + 92 + ….. + (4n – 3) n−1 =
 −1
and deduce the values of the following.
 2   4   2(n − 1) 
1 + 5cos   + 9cos   + ..... + (4n − 3)cos   = bn
 n   n   n 
 2   4   2(n − 1)   
5 sin   + 9 sin   + ..... + (4n − 3)sin   = c ncot  
 n   n   n  n
for n  2, then the value of a – b – c will be
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 4 (D) 8

9. Two perpendicular chords PQ and PR are drawn through the vertex P of a parabola x2 = 4y.
If circle drawn with diameter on a focal chord of the locus of circumcentre of triangle PQR
always touch a line ax + by + c = 0, then the value of (a + b – c) will be
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 35 (D) 70

10. Let ABC be an acute angled triangle such that a tan A + b tanB + c tanC = 6R . Where R is
the circum radius of ABC , then the least value of tan2 A + tan2 B + tan2 C is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

3
11. If    3 + x 3 dx   , then the value of   −  where [.] denotes G.I.F will be
1
(A) 0 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 6

12. Let A = {1,2,3,4,5} . If f be a bijective mapping from A to A, then the number of mappings
such that f(K)  K , K = 1,2,3,4,5 is
(A) 40 (B) 42
(C) 44 (D) 46

1
13. If tangents to the parabola y2 = 4x are normal to x2 = 4by, then |b| < , then the numerical
k
quantity k should be
(A) 8 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1

k =n n
Ck
14. Value of lim  is
k =0 n (K + 2 )
n → K

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

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IT−2022−RBT-8-Paper-2 JEEA 13

(Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions
have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question no. 15 to 16

ABC is a triangle in which A = 18o , b – a = 2 and ab = 4.

15. ABC is
(A) acute angled triangle (B) obtuse angled triangle
(C) right angled triangle (D) isosceles triangle

16. Maximum length of side c

(A) 10 − 2 5 (B) 10 + 2 5
(C) 10 + 2 5 (D) 10 − 2 5

Paragraph for Question no. 17 to 18

Let k1, k2 be any two integers given in the relation

| (n – a)! – t| + |t – (n – b)!| + | a + b – k1n – k2|  0  n such that a  b  n and a, b, n, t  N.
Let P, Q be any two points on the curve
 k 
y = log 1  x + 2  + log2 ( 4x 2 + 4k 2 x + (k1 + k 2 ) . Also P lies on the circle x2 + y2 = k13 − 2k2
2 
2
and Q lies inside the given circle such that its abscissa is an integer.

17. The minimum value of OP . OQ

(A) 4 (B) 7
(C) 5 (D) 6

18. The maximum value of OP . OQ

(A) 7 (B) 8
(C) 10 (D) 12

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IT−2022−RBT-8-Paper-2 JEEA 14

ANSWERS
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN--1
1 :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A
1. ABD 2. BC 3. AC 4. A
5. ABCD 6. ACD 7. ABC 8. C
9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. A
17. B 18. A

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 2
2 :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A
1. BD 2. AB 3. ABCD 4. B
5. BCD 6. AD 7. CD 8. B
9. C 10. A 11. C 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. C 18. A

S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– 3
3 :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A

1. ABD 2. BCD 3. ABC 4. ABC

5. ABCD 6. ABCD 7. BC 8. D
9. C 10. B 11. D 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. B 16. B
17. A 18. A

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