EMC.E05-001.v2019-05-04.q108: Leave A Reply

EMC.E05-001.v2019-05-04.
q108
Exam Code: E05-001

Exam Name: Associate - Information Storage and Management Exam
Certification Provider: EMC
Free Question Number: 108
Version: v2019-05-04
# of views: 802
# of Questions views: 18593
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NEW QUESTION: 1
What is an accurate statement about a virtual desktop infrastructure?
A. Each user is provided a dedicated desktop VM with its own operating system and applications
B. Operating system and applications hosted on a client system are shared by multiple users
C. Each user has an individual desktop session on the remote compute system in which
applications execute
D. Operating system and applications on the remote desktop are downloaded on the client for
local execution
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 2
Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
A. Partial mesh
B. Full mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 3
Which technique is used in Kerberos to authenticate a client-server application across an
insecure network?
A. Secret-key cryptography
B. One-way hash function
C. Shared secret
D. Open ID control
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 4
How does an iSCSI initiator discover its targets?
A. Initiator sends a query to an iSNS server for a list of available targets
B. Initiator receives the iSCSI names of its targets from the primary DNS server
C. Initiator uses the data center bridging exchange protocol for the discovery
D. Initiator sends SCSI commands and the target responds by sending its name
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 5
What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
B. Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
C. Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
D. Reduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 6
Which method is used to establish a VPN connection between a primary and remote data center
to perform secure remote replication?
A. Site-to-site VPN connection
B. Remote access VPN connection
C. Intra-site VPN connection
D. Long distance VPN connection
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 7
An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1.
What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 5 configuration?
A. 4800
B. 11200
C. 16800
D. 22400
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 8
What is a benefit of N_Port virtualization (NPV)?
A. Reduces the number of domain IDs in a fabric
B. Eliminates the overhead of fabric services in an FC SAN
C. Enables online expansion of virtual volumes
D. Allows an N_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 9
Which process uses a file-level storage tiering technique to perform policy-based data
movement?
A. Archiving
B. Deduplication
C. Replication
D. Backup
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 10
Which cloud service does VMware vCloud Air provide?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Database as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 11
What is an accurate statement about VSAN trunking?
A. Allows network traffic from multiple VSANs to traverse a single interswitch link
B. Enables an F_Port to transfer multiple VSAN traffic over a single port channel
C. Provides VSANIDs to F_Ports to include them in the VSANs
D. Forwards FC frames between F_Ports that belong to the same VSAN
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 12
What is a benefit of backing up data to a disk library?
A. Provides improved backup and recovery performance
B. Provides built-in portability to meet offsite requirements
C. Supports the shoe shining effect for improved backup performance
D. Pre-configured and dedicated appliance is only used for backups
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 13
An application uses ten, 15 GB devices.
A pointer-based full volume replica of the application is required.
The replica will be kept for 24 hours and the data changes by 10% every 24 hours. How much
storage should be allocated for the replication?
A. 15 GB
B. 30 GB
C. 150 GB
D. 300 GB
NEW QUESTION: 14
Which EMC product provides a software-defined platform that supports both block and file
storage services?
A. ViPR Controller
B. ScaleIO
C. Elastic Cloud Storage
D. XtremIO
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 15
Which iSCSI host connectivity option is recommended in a CPU-intensive application
environment?
A. NIC with software-based iSCSI initiator
B. TCP offload engine
C. iSCSI HBA
D. Converged Network Adapter
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 16
What is a function of a Fibre Channel Forwarder in an FCoE SAN?
A. Applies zoning configurations and provides fabric services
B. Transfers FCoE traffic over an FC SAN
C. Encapsulates IP packets into FC frames
D. Provides both NIC and FC HBA functionality
Explanation:
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NEW QUESTION: 17
An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application
requires 4 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate
4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB.
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70 percent utilization is 110 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and
performance requirements given a RAID 0 configuration?
A. 8
B. 20
C. 30
D. 45
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 18
What accurately describes the flow control mechanism in an FC SAN?
A. Both transmitting and receiving ports agree on the number of buffers available during port login
B. Negotiation occurs between an E_Port and an F_Port, and between two N_Ports
C. Credit value is incremented when a frame is transmitted and decremented upon receiving a
response
D. Receiver Ready (R_RDY) is sent from the receiving port if available credits reach zero
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 19
What is a benefit of source-based deduplication over target-based deduplication?
A. Backup data can be retained longer
B. Only unique data is sent over the network to be backed up
C. Backup processing is offloaded from the backup client
D. Less backup data is stored on the backup server
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
NEW QUESTION: 20
The exhibit illustrates a software-defined storage environment. What do the labels "X" and "Y"
represent in the exhibit?
A. X is a virtual storage system and Y is a virtual storage pool
B. X is a virtual storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
C. X is a physical storage pool and Y is a virtual storage system
D. X is a virtual storage pool and Y is a physical storage system
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 21
A company has an FC SAN environment. The company's network administrator wants to ensure
that a particular switch port cannot function as an EPort and cannot be used to create an
interswitch link. Which security mechanism should be used?
A. Persistent port disable
B. Virtual SAN
C. Port type locking
D. Port binding
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 22
What is a function of the NDMP server in an NDMP-based backup approach?
A. Reads the data from the storage device and sends the data to the backup device
B. Reads the data from the backup server and sends the data to the backup device
C. Instructs the NAS head to start the backup operation
D. Instructs the backup agent on the client to send the data to the backup device
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 23
A service provider is offering cloud services to Enterprise P and Enterprise Q.
Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent?

A. Externally-hosted private cloud
B. On-premise community cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Externally-hosted community cloud
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 24
What is a benefit of application virtualization?
A. Avoids conflicts between different versions of the same application
B. Enables an application to directly access a LUN on a storage system
C. Runs applications without requiring the use of cache memory
D. Presents more memory to an application than is physically available
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 25
What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for
the same data?
A. Facilitates faster restores
B. Facilitates faster backups
C. Reduces the storage space required for backups
D. Eliminates the need for full backups
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 26
Which type of fabric topology does the exhibit represent?
A. Full mesh
B. Partial mesh
C. Single core-edge
D. Dual core-edge
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 27
An organization plans to deploy a deduplication solution by retaining their legacy backup
application. They are concerned about the application servers' performance and a long backup
window during backups.
Which deduplication solution(s) should be recommended to the organization?
A. Post-process
B. Source-based global deduplication
C. Variable-length segment and source-based
D. Fixed-length block and source-based
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 28
In which stage of the business continuity planning lifecycle does an organization identify critical
business processes and assign recovery priorities?
A. Analyzing
B. Establishing objectives
C. Designing and developing
D. Implementing
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 29
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS.
A. 6
B. 16
C. 25
D. 28
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 30
What is an accurate statement about Software as a Service?
A. Consumer has limited control over user-specific application configuration settings
B. Consumer has control over the operating systems and deployed applications
C. Consumer has control over the configuration settings of the application-hosting environment
D. Consumer has limited control over select networking components, such as host firewalls
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 31
The exhibit represents an FCIP tunnel configuration that merges the two FC SANs at either end
of the tunnel. Which types of ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent on the FCIP gateway
shown in the exhibit?
A. X = E_Port and Y = VE_Port

B. X = F_Port and Y = VN_Port
C. X =VF_Port and Y = E_Port
D. X = VN_Port and Y = VE_Port
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 32
Which lossless Ethernet functionality helps Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE) devices to
convey and configure their features with the other CEE devices in the network?
A. Data center bridging exchange protocol
B. Enhanced transmission selection
C. Priority-based flow control
D. Congestion notification
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 33
What is an accurate statement about a virtual machine (VM) snapshot?
A. Captures the state and data of a running VM at a specific point-in-time
B. Provides the capability to delete the parent VM once the snapshot is created
C. Runs as an independent copy from the parent VM
D. Provides the capability to restore VM data to any point-in-time
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 34
What accurately describes link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Combines two or more parallel interswitch links into a single logical interswitch link
B. Aggregates the data transmission rate of all HBA and storage system port pairs
C. Consolidates compute-to-compute traffic and storage traffic into a single interswitch link
D. Replaces multiple parallel interswitch links by a single physical interswitch link
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 35
What determines how far back the recovery points can go in a continuous data protection (CDP)
solution?
A. Amount of space that is configured for the journal
B. Size of the CDP appliance used for replication
C. Size of the source and replica volumes
D. Type of write splitter used for replication
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 36
What is a characteristic of an FC-AL implementation?
A. Devices can be added and removed dynamically without any impact
B. Supports connectivity up to 15 million nodes
C. Requires at least one connectivity device
D. Reserves one address for connecting an FC-SW port
NEW QUESTION: 37
What is an accurate statement about OAuth security control?
A. Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource
owner
B. Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
C. Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
D. Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 38
Which component is required for a "recovery-in-place" backup approach?
A. Disk-based backup target
B. Agent-based backup client
C. NDMP server
D. Data deduplication server
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 39
In continuous data protection (CDP) remote replication, where are the two split write I/Os of an
incoming write I/O directed?
A. One I/O goes to the local CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the production volume
B. One I/O goes to the compute system and the other I/O goes to the production volume
C. One I/O goes to the remote CDP appliance and the other I/O goes to the replica
D. One I/O goes to the journal volume and the other I/O goes to the replica
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 40
Which data center characteristic ensures that data is stored and retrieved exactly as it was
received?
A. Data integrity
B. Security
C. Scalability
D. Manageability
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 41
Why should a replica be consistent with its source?
A. Ensure the usability of the replica
B. Reduce the need to create multiple replicas
C. Ensure the security of the replica
D. Reduce the size of the replica
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 42
What is an accurate statement about OpenID control?
A. Enables an organization to use authentication services from an identity provider
B. Enables initiators and targets to authenticate each other by using a shared secret code
C. Provides strong authentication for client-server applications by using secret-key cryptography
D. Allows a client to access protected resources from a resource server on behalf of a resource
owner
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 43
Which product provides an integrated IT infrastructure solution for data center deployment by
combining IT resources into a single package?
A. VCE Vblock
B. EMC VPLEX
C. EMC ViPR
D. VMware vCloud
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 44
Which action takes place during the login phase in an FCoE SAN?
A. VN_Ports obtain FC addresses
B. Nodes locate the Fibre Channel Forwarder
C. Initialization protocol starts transporting FC data
D. VN_Port to N_Port pairing is established
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 45
Which type of login is performed between an N_Port and an F_Port in a Fibre Channel SAN
environment?
A. FLOGI
B. PLOGI
C. PRLI
D. WWPN
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 46
An application generates 8400 small random I/Os at peak workloads with a read/write ratio of 2:1.
What is the disk load at peak activity for a RAID 1/0 configuration?
A. 5600
B. 11200
C. 16800
D. 22400
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 47
In an FC SAN environment, which security mechanism prevents a switch port from being enabled
even after a switch reboot?
A. Port locking
B. Port type locking
C. Port binding
D. Fabric binding
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 48
What is a characteristic of software-defined networking?
A. Abstracts and separates the control plane from the data plane
B. Data plane sends instructions to the control plane to handle network traffic
C. Controller in network switches takes over data plane functions
D. External software combines both data plane and control plane functions
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 49
Which type of storage system is built specifically for storing fixed content?
A. Content addressed storage
B. Block-based storage
C. File-based storage
D. Unified storage
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 50
What is an accurate statement about the function of an archiving server?
A. Enables the ability to configure policies for archiving data
B. Installs agents on the archiving storage device
C. Scans the data that can be archived on application servers
D. Creates stub files on an archiving storage device
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 51
What maps the logical path of a file system to its physical path in a file-level virtualization
implementation?
A. Global namespace
B. Remote procedure call
C. Distributed file system
D. Cache coherency
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 52
What is an accurate statement about a fabric-provided MAC address (FPMA) used in an FCoE
SAN?
A. FCoE switches provide MAC addresses to VN_Ports during node login
B. FC switches provide MAC addresses to VE_Ports dynamically during discovery
C. Compute systems provide MAC addresses to the VF_Ports on FCoE switches
D. Both VF_Ports and VE_Ports obtain MAC addresses from FC switches
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 53
Which type of LUN provides full control for precise data placement and allows an administrator to
create LUNs on different RAID sets if there is workload contention?
A. Traditional
B. Thin
C. Journal
D. Bitmap
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 54
What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
B. Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
C. Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
D. Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 55
What is a component of an FCoE switch?
A. Ethernet Bridge
B. Virtual N_Port
C. Converged Network Adapter
D. FCIP Forwarder
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 56
Which EMC product provides a remote replication solution for EMC VMAX3 storage systems?
A. SRDF
B. SnapSure
C. MirrorView
D. ProtectPoint
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 57
In an FCoE SAN, what describes a Fibre Channel Forwarder function?
A. Provide both FC HBA and Nic functionality
B. Transfer FCoe traffic over an FC SAN
C. Encapsulate IP packets into FC frames
D. Apply zoning configurations and provide fabric services
NEW QUESTION: 58
What is an accurate statement about an integrated NAS controller?
A. Contains a specialized operating system dedicated to file serving
B. Stripes data across multiple NAS systems for data protection
C. Abstracts and pools NAS controllers across multiple NAS systems
D. Contains an FC Forwarder that is optimized for file sharing functions
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 59
What is a benefit of block-level storage virtualization?
A. Enables the online expansion of virtual volumes
B. Enhances performance by limiting the RSCN traffic
C. Improves security through logical segmentation of block storage devices
D. Increases scalability through separation of FC addresses across VSANs
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 60
What is a characteristic of target-based inline deduplication?
A. Backup data is stored on the backup device and then deduplication is performed
B. Deduplication processing occurs at the backup device before it is stored on the backup device
C. Deduplication processing occurs on the client before backup data is sent to the backup device
D. Changes must be made in the backup software to implement deduplication
NEW QUESTION: 61
Which type of Fibre Channel (FC) ports do the labels "X" and "Y" represent in the exhibit?
A. X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port

B. X is an F_Port and Y is an E_Port
C. X is an F_Port and Y is an F_Port
D. X is an N_Port and Y is an N_Port
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 62
Which data center characteristic ensures that adequate resources are provided to efficiently store
and process data?
A. Capacity
B. Availability
C. Scalability
D. Performance
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 63
An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files
are stored on a block-based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during
VM backup because the backup agents on the VMs are consuming a large amount of resources.
Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?
A. Image-based backup
B. Three-way NDMP backup
C. Two-way NDMP backup
D. Target-based deduplication backup
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 64
What is a benefit of using content addressed storage (CAS) as an archival solution?
A. Ensures content authenticity and integrity
B. Supports location independence using different content IDs for an object
C. Provides the ability to perform production operations on the CAS
D. Enables modification of archived data
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 65
Which solid state drive component performs write coalescing?
A. Controller
B. I/O interface
C. Non-volatile memory
D. Cache
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 66
Which data access method enables a compute system to access a file system that resides on a
storage system?
A. File-based
B. Block-based
C. Object-based
D. Sector-based
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 67
What provides the ability to automatically relocate extents across physical storage drives over the
entire pool when new drives are added to the pool?
A. Storage pool rebalancing
B. Extent relocation
C. Storage pool tiering
D. Automated extent tiering
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 68
What improves the performance of multi-threaded large block I/O workloads on a solid state
drive?
A. Parallel I/O channels
B. I/O coalescing
C. Native command queuing
D. High capacity RAM cache
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 69
What is an example of a security management task in a storage infrastructure?
A. Configuring LUN masking to restrict hosts from accessing a specific LUN
B. Enforcing storage space quotas to restrict users from overprovisioning resources
C. Restricting the number of simultaneous client access to application servers
D. Enabling sending messages to a support center in the event of resource failure
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 70
Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform to create a compute-based
storage area network?
A. ScaleIO
B. XtremIO
C. Isilon
D. Atmos
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 71
What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Repudiation
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 72
An organization performs a full back up every Sunday and cumulative backups on the remaining
days. On Thursday, a data corruption occurs that requires a data restoration from the backup
copies.
How many backup copies are required to perform this restoration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 73
How do VSANs ensure security in an IT infrastructure?
A. By providing isolation over a shared infrastructure
B. By authenticating a new switch that joins a fabric
C. By limiting the number of switches in a fabric
D. By prohibiting an unused switch port from being used
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 74
What is a benefit when a node is added to a scale-out NAS cluster?
A. Increased cluster performance
B. Reduced capital expenditure
C. Simplified cluster management
D. Decreased data duplication
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 75
Which EMC product provides a software-defined storage platform that supports object storage
services?
A. Elastic Cloud Storage
B. ViPR Controller
C. ScaleIO
D. XtremIO
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 76
What is the purpose of monitoring capacity in a storage infrastructure?
A. Tracking the amount of storage infrastructure resources used and available
B. Evaluating utilization of components and identifying bottlenecks
C. Tracking configuration changes to the storage infrastructure elements
D. Identifying component failures that may lead to service unavailability
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 77
Which VMware product provides a network virtualization platform for a software-defined data
center?
A. NSX
B. ESXi
C. Horizon
D. AirWatch
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 78
Which fabric login type enables two N_Ports to exchange service parameters to establish a
session?
A. PLOGI
B. PRLI
C. FLOGI
D. WWPN
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 79
What contains the information about backup configuration and backup metadata?
A. Backup catalog
B. Proxy server
C. Tracking database
D. Backup image
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 80
What is an accurate statement about the application streaming technique of application
virtualization?
A. Application is downloaded in portions on the client for local execution
B. Application executes remotely and its user interface is transmitted to the client
C. Application executes on the client without the use of a locally-installed agent
D. Application is converted into a standalone package that directly executes on the client
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 81
What is an accurate statement about a virtual tape library?
A. Legacy backup software can be used without additional modules or changes
B. Portability of physical tapes to offsite locations is supported
C. Only sequential data access for both backup and recovery is supported
D. Regular maintenance tasks associated with a physical tape drive are required
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 82
The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with 70 percent utilization is 90 IOPS.
A. 8
B. 70
C. 110
D. 140
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 83
What accurately describes the function of the policy engine in a file-level storage tiering
environment?
A. Facilitates moving data from primary storage to secondary storage based on pre-defined
policies
B. Creates a stub file in secondary storage pointing to data on the primary storage
C. Ensures that primary and secondary storage have identical data for compliance
D. Runs the backup agent and determines the files to be copied to the secondary storage
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 84
Which capability does big data analytics provide?
A. Enabling data-driven decisions from large volumes of data
B. Storing large volumes of data without affecting availability
C. Reducing the data storage capacity requirement
D. Performing analytics using traditional tools
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 85
Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
A. Gateway
B. Scale-out
C. Unified
D. Integrated
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 86
What is a benefit of link aggregation in a SAN?
A. Provides a higher throughput than a single interswitch link can provide
B. Distributes the network traffic across all virtual SANs, ensuring even virtual SAN utilization
C. Optimizes performance by consolidating all interswitch links into a single physical link
D. Provides the flexibility to deploy the same interswitch links for both FC and iSCSI traffic
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 87
Which operation is performed by a scale-out NAS cluster when clients send data to the cluster?
A. Data is divided and stored on multiple nodes in parallel
B. Data is consolidated into a block and then stored on the NAS head
C. Data is evenly distributed to every file system in the cluster
D. NAS file system and cluster grow dynamically to store the data
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 88
What accurately describes the seek time of a disk drive?
A. Time taken to position the read/write head over the correct track
B. Time taken by the platter to position the data under the read/write head
C. Time taken to read a block of data from the platter
D. Time taken by the controller to service an I/O from the application
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 89
Which type of storage device does the "X" represent in the exhibit?
A. Object-based
B. Block-based
C. File-based
D. Unified-based
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 90
What is a benefit of a storage area network (SAN)?
A. Enables compute systems across locations to access shared storage
B. Ensures secure data transmission using only channel technologies
C. Ensures high response times without the protocol overhead
D. Enables consolidation of control and data planes in a single system
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 91
What is an accurate statement about infrastructure discovery?
A. Creates an inventory of infrastructure components and provides information about the
components
B. Standardizes on-going infrastructure management activities and assesses potential risks of the
activities
C. Classifies, organizes, and analyzes all infrastructure management best practices stored in data
lakes
D. Detects potential security attacks on a storage infrastructure and deploys specialized tools to
eliminate the attacks
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 92
Which data structure enables two node ports to identify and manage a set of information units in a
Fibre Channel (FC) SAN?
A. Exchange
B. Sequence
C. Frame
D. Domain
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 93
What is enabled by the N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV)?
A. A single physical N_Port to obtain multiple FC addresses
B. A single virtual N_Port to act as a physical Ethernet port
C. A virtualization layer to map virtual volumes to LUN IDs
D. A single physical N_Port to act as a virtual HBA port
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 94
What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup data is sent directly from NAS to the backup device
B. Backup data is sent to the backup device through the application servers
C. A dedicated backup device is required for each NAS
D. All NAS systems should have the same operating environment
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 95
What keeps the name server up-to-date on all switches in a fabric?
A. SW-RSCN
B. Management server
C. Zoning
D. FLOGI
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 96
Which environment is represented in the exhibit?
A. Write-back cache
B. Write-through cache
C. Read miss
D. Read hit
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 97
An organization plans to deploy a new backup device in their data center. The organization wants
the new backup device to support their legacy backup software without requiring any changes to
the software. In addition, the organization wants the backup device to provide random data
access for better performance.
Which backup device should be recommended?
A. Virtual tape library
B. Tape-based backup appliance
C. Tape library
D. Optical juke box
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 98
What is an accurate statement about full volume replication?
A. Target device is at least as large as the source device
B. Target device requires only a fraction of the space used by the source device
C. Target device is accessible only after the replication session starts
D. Target and source devices should be on different storage arrays
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 99
In an FCoE environment, which functionality provides a framework for the allocation of bandwidth
to different network traffic classes?
A. Enhanced transmission selection
B. Priority-based flow control
C. Congestion notification
D. Data center bridging exchange protocol
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 100

Which feature of an object-based storage system abstracts and provides a common view of
storage independent of location to applications?
A. Global namespace
B. Flexible data access
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Scale-out architecture
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 101

Which technique protects the data in cache from power failures?
A. Vaulting
B. Mirroring
C. Cache tiering
D. Idle flushing
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 102

A system has three components and all three components need to be operational for 24 hours;
Monday through Friday. During a particular week, failure of component 3 occurred as follows:
Tuesday = 8 AM to 1 PM
Thursday = 5 PM to 10 PM
Friday = 5 AM to 10 AM
What is the mean time between failures on component 3 for that week?
A. 5 hours
B. 35 hours
C. 40hours
D. 51 hours
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 103

In an object-based storage system, data is divided into 10 data segments and 4 coding segments
using the erasure coding technique. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against
which data is protected by this configuration?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 10
D. 14
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 104

Which part of the Fibre Channel (FC) frame does the label "X" represent in the exhibit?
A. Frame Header
B. CRC
C. SOF
D. Data Field
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 105

What is an accurate statement about the Network File System (NFS) protocol?
A. Provides a set of remote procedure calls to access a remote file system
B. Uses the server message block protocol to provide file locking capability
C. Translates block I/O requests from a file system into object-level requests
D. Automatically scales the file systems on clients as the workload increases
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 106

What is an accurate statement about incremental forever backups?
A. Requires only one initial full back up
B. Requires periodic full back ups
C. Backup is not created directly from the production data
D. Copies the data that has changed since the last full back up
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 107

What is a function of the FC-1 layer of the Fibre Channel (FC) protocol stack?
A. Defines data encoding
B. Provides FC addressing
C. Defines the physical interface
D. Maps upper layer protocols to FC layers
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION: 108

What is a function of the orchestration layer in a data center infrastructure?
A. Provides workflows for automated execution of management tasks
B. Aggregates physical infrastructure components into resource pools
C. Measures the consumption of IT resources by various services
D. Decouples an operating environment from the underlying hardware
Explanation:

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EMC.E05-001.v2019-05-04.

Exam Code: E05-001

Which cloud deployment model does the exhibit represent?

A. X = E_Port and Y = VE_Port

A. X is an E_Port and Y is an N_Port

NEW QUESTION: 100

NEW QUESTION: 101

NEW QUESTION: 102

NEW QUESTION: 103

NEW QUESTION: 104

NEW QUESTION: 105

NEW QUESTION: 106

NEW QUESTION: 107

NEW QUESTION: 108

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