MICRO LAB 9-16 RATIO

Session 9
1. A client who has recently traveled to China comes to the emergency department (ED) with
increasing shortness of breath and is strongly suspected of having a COVID-19. Which of these
prescribed actions will you take first?
a. Place the client on contact and airborne precautions
b. Obtain blood, urine, and sputum for cultures
c. Administer methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) 1 gram/IV
d. Infuse normal saline at 100ml/hr
Answer: A
Rationale: Option A: Since COVID-19 is a severe disease with a high mortality rate, the
initial action should be to protectother clients and health care workers by placing the
client in isolation. If an airborne-agent isolation (negative pressure)
room is not available in the ED, droplet precautions should be initiated until the client
can be moved to a negative-pressure room. Options B, C, and D: The other options
should also be taken rapidly but are not as important as preventing transmission of the
disease.

2. You are preparing to leave the room after performing oral suctioning on a client who is on
contact and airborne
precautions. In which order will you perform the following actions?
1. Take off the gown.
2. Remove N95 respirator.
3. Perform hand hygiene.
4. Take off goggles.
5. Remove gloves.
a. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
b. 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
d. 2, 4, 2, 1, 3
Answer: A
Rationale: The sequence will prevent contact of the contaminated gloves and gowns with
areas (such as your hair) that cannot be easily cleaned after client contact and stop
transmission of microorganisms to you and your other clients.

3. A 10-year-old client contracted COVID-19 when traveling abroad with her parents. The nurse
knows she must put on personal protective equipment to protect herself while providing care.
Based on the mode of transmission, which personal protective should the nurse wear?
a. Gloves
b. Gown and gloves
c. Gown, gloves, and mask
d. Gown, gloves, mask, and eye goggles or eye shield
Answer: D
Rationale: The transmission of COVID-19isn’t fully understood. Therefore, all modes of
transmission must be considered possible, including airborne, droplet, and direct
contact with the virus. For protection from contracting COVID-19, any health
care worker providing care for a client with COVID-19should wear a gown, gloves, mask,
and eye goggles or an eye shield.

4. To prevent COVID-19 social distancing must be followed. The safe distance to prevent the
transmission of the virus is?
a. 1 foot
b. 6 meters
c. 6 feet
d. 1 meter
Answer: D
Rationale: Physical distancing helps limit the spread of COVID-19 – this means we keep a
distance of at least 1m from each other and avoid spending time in crowded places or in
groups.

5. Which of the following is the most important purpose of handwashing?

a. To promote hand circulation
b. To prevent the transfer of microorganism
c. To avoid touching the client with a dirty hand
d. To provide comfort
Answer: B
Rationale: Hand washing is the single most effective infection control measure.

8. The school nurse is asked which action will take to have the most impact on the incidence of
infectious diseases in school.
The correct response is:
a. Grant written information about infection control to all parents
b. Ensure that students are immunized according to national guidelines
c. Make soap and water easily accessible in the classrooms
d. Educate students on how to cover their mouths when coughing
Answer: B
Rationale: Option B: Prioritization. The incidence of once-common infectious diseases
like measles, chickenpox, and mumps has been most effectively reduced by
immunization of all school-aged children. Options A, C, and D: The other
options are also important but will not have much impact as immunization.

9. What is the most effective treatment of SARS?

a. Antibiotics
b. Antiviral
c. Bronchodilators
d. No specific treatment
Answer: D
Rationale: No drugs, including antibiotics, appeared to be effective against SARS hence
there is no specific treatment for it.

10. The following are the clinical manifestations of SARS. EXCEPT?

a. Sudden onset of high-grade fever, greater than 42C
b. Headache and body aches
c. Mild respiratory symptoms at the onset
d. Two days after: dry cough and respiratory difficulty.
Answer: A
Rationale: The first symptom was a high fever of more than 100.4°F (38.0°C). Other mild
respiratory symptoms were similar to those of flu.

Session 10
1. Signs of plasma leakage usually appears after how many hours?
a. 24 hours.
b. 48 hours.
c. 72 hours.
d. 4 hours.
Answer: A
Rationale: Shortly after the fever breaks or sometimes within 24 hours before, signs of
plasma leakage appear along with the development of hemorrhagic symptoms.

2. What is the vector of the dengue virus?

a. Male Aedes aegypti mosquito.
b. Female Aedes aegypti mosquito.
c. Any Aedes aegypti mosquito.
d. All of the above.
Answer: B
Rationale: The vector of dengue virus is the female Aedes aegypti mosquito.

3. There are how many serotypes of the dengue virus?

a. 2.
b. 4.
c. 6.
d. 10.
Answer: B
Rationale: The dengue virus has 4 serotypes.

4. The causative agent of diphtheria is?

a. Vibrio coma
b. Klebs-Loeffler bacillus
c. Culex Triteaniorhynchus
d. Herpes virus varicellae
Answer: B
Rationale: The causative Agent of diphtheria is Corynebacterium Diphtheriae also known
as Klebs-Loeffler bacillus.

5. A poisonous substance produced during the growth of a microorganism which is responsible

for major pathologic
changes.
a. Endotoxin
b. Choleragen
c. Exotoxin
d. A and B

Answer: C
Rationale: Corynebacterium Diphtheriae is a toxin-producing bacterium. It manufactures
exotoxin (poisonous substance produced during the growth of a microorganism) which
is responsible for major pathologic changes.

Session 11
1. The mosquito responsible for Japanese encephalitis;
a. Culex Triteaniorhynchus
b. Malassezia furfur
c. Loa loa
d. Aedespolynensis
Answer:A
Rationale: Japanese Encephalitis is a potentially severe viral disease spread by mosquito
bite Culex Triteaniorhynchus that live in rice fields and pig farms.

2. General manifestation of encephalitis include drooping or falling of the upper eyelid, known
as;
a. stupor
b. ptosis
c. apathy
d. arthralgia
Answer: B
Rationale: Ptosis is a condition in which there is drooping or falling of the upper eyelid.

3. The adult worm’s mate and release millions of microscopic worms known as:
a. microfilaria
b. macrofilaria
c. elephantiasis
d. onchocerciasis
Answer: A
Rationale: The adult worm can reach the lymph vessels with the bites of an infected
mosquito and the adult worms’ mate and release millions of microscopic worms known
as microfilaria.

4. A fungal infection which usually appears between the toes characterized by red, dry, cracked,
and itchy skin between the
toes and can also affect toenails.
a. Tinea cruris
b. Tinea versicolor
c. Trichophytosis
d. Tinea pedis
Answer: D
Rationale: Athlete’s foot (Tinea pedis) is an infection usually appears between the toes
characterized by red, dry, cracked, and itchy skin between the toes and can also affect
toenails.
5. Fungal infection of the groin and upper thighs.

a. Tinea cruris
b. Tinea versicolor
c. Trichophytosis
d. Tinea pedis
Answer: A
Rationale: Jock itch (Tinea Cruris) is the infection of the groin and upper thighs. Both
men and women can be infected with the disease.

Session 12

1. What do you call the pinkish rash on the soft palate of a patient diagnosed with German
measles?
a. Petechial rash
b. Blueberry rash
c. Forchheimer’s spot
d. Koplik spot
Answer: C
Rationale: Forchheimer’s spot is a pinkish rash on the soft palate an exanthematous rash
that appears first on the face, spreading to the neck, the arms, trunk, and legs.

2. When maternal rubella infection occurs during the first month or first trimester of pregnancy
the risk of congenital malformation is?
a. 4%
b. 10%
c. 90%
d. 100%
Answer: D
Rationale: 100% risk for congenital malformation when maternal infection occurs during
the first month or first trimester of pregnancy

3. In females, diagnostic exam for gonorrhea includes?

a. gram staining
b. culture of specimen
c. CBC and platelet
d. throat swab
Answer: B
Rationale: In females, culture of specimen (inoculation of specimen on Thayer Martin
medium which contains antibiotic that inhibits growth of other microorganisms) is
performed.

4. This hepatitis is transmitted through blood transfusion from asymptomatic donors and by
receiving tattoos and are considered infectious;
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
Answer: C
Rationale: Hepatitis C is transmitted through blood transfusion from asymptomatic
donors and by receiving tattoos.

5. This hepatitis is found in patients with an acute or chronic episodes of hepatitis B and
requires presence of HbsAg;
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
Answer: D
Rationale: Hepatitis D is found in patients with an acute or chronic episodes of hepatitis
B and requires presence of HbsAg

Session 13
1. A type of herpes simplex virus that can be transmitted by kissing and sharing kitchen utensils
and towels.
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
Answer: A
Rationale: HSV type 1 can be transmitted by kissing and sharing kitchen utensils and
towels. Patients usually catch the infection from family members or friends who carry the
virus

2. What do you call the condition in which it is characterized by corneal anesthesia due to the
affectation of the ophthalmic branch?
a. Gasserian ganglionitis
b. Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome
c. Epstein Barr virus
d. La Grippe
Answer: A
Rationale: Gasserian ganglionitis is characterized by corneal anesthesia due to
ophthalmic branch (5th cranial nerve) is affected

3. What do you call the paralysis of the facial nerve and vesicles in the external auditory canal?
a. Gasserian ganglionitis
b. Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome
c. Epstein Barr virus
d. La Grippe
Answer: B
Rationale: Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome is the paralysis of the facial nerve and vesicles in the
external auditory canal that affects the 7th cranial nerve.
4. What is the incubation period of hookworm after the larval penetration?
a. 2 to 4 weeks
b. 4 to 6 weeks
c. 6 to 8 weeks
d. 8 to 10 weeks
Answer: B
Rationale: Incubation period is 4 to 6 weeks after the larvae penetrate the skin. Generally,
40 to 100 days or 2 to 8 weeks.

5. What is the mode of transmission of hookworm disease?

a. Direct Contact
b. Indirect contact
c. Droplet infection
d. Airborne spread
Answer:A
Rationale: Hookworm disease is accomplished directly through the skin of the foot (ground itch).

Session 14
1.Complications of Influenza includes swelling in the liver and brain associated with epidemic
influenza B infection.
This is known as?
a. Encephalitis
b. Reye’s syndrome
c. Ramsay-Hunt Syndrome
d. Epstein Barr virus
Answer: B
Rationale: Reye’s syndrome is a complication of influenza characterized by swelling of the
liver and brain associated with epidemic influenza B infection.

2. What do you call a condition in which the number of WBC circulating in the blood is
abnormally low?
a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Anemia
c. Leukemia
d. Leukopenia
Answer: D
Rationale: Leukopenia is a condition in which the number of WBC circulating in the blood
is abnormally low.

3. Which is a causative agent of an avian influenza?

a. Myxovirus
b. Orthomyxoviridae
c. Varicella
d. Necator americanus
Answer: B
Rationale: Avian influenza (A1) virus. All A1 viruses belong to Influenza virus A, a genus
of the Orthomyxoviridae family

3. How long is duration of treatment for lepromatous and borderline leprosy?

a. 6-9 months
b. B.10- 13 months
c. 14 to 16 months
d. 24 to 30 months
Answer: D
Rationale: Multibacillary (Lepromatous and Borderline) is the most infectious type and it
duration of treatment lasts for 24 to 30 months.

4. The period of communicability of leptospirosis is?

A. 5 to 10 days
B. 12 to 15 days
C. 20 to 25 days
D. 10 to 20 days
Answer: D
Rationale: The incubation period of leprosy is 6 to 15 days and its period of
communicability is 10 to 20 days

Session 15
1. Which one of the following are NOT antimalarial compounds?
a. Quinine
b. Artemisinin
c. Chloroquine
d. Mefloquine
e. Penicillin
Answer: E
Rationale: Penicillin is an antibiotic that targets bacteria. The others are all antimalarial
compounds.

2. Which of these statements is correct?

a. Malaria is a neglected tropical disease
b. If you get malaria once, you won’t get it again
c. Malaria is quite often endemic in poorer regions of the world
Answer: C
Rationale: Whilst malaria is not caused by poverty itself, the ability to control and
eliminate the disease is affected by socioeconomic factors. A study by Xia Zhao and
colleagues from the University of Oxford found that increased socio-economic
improvements such as wealth, life expectancy and urbanization were the key drivers in
eliminating malaria in Europe in the
early 20th century.

3. What antiviral drug is used in the treatment of measles?

a. Quinine
b. Quantrel
c. Isoprinosin
d. Acyclovir
Answer: B
Rationale: The antiviral drug used in measles or morbilli is Isoprinosin
4. It is an inflammation of the meninges of the brain and the spinal cord as the result of viral or
bacterial infection.
a. Encephalitis
b. Meningitis
c. Duratitis
d. Keratitis’
Answer: B

Rationale: Meningitis/ Cerebrospinal Fever is the inflammation of the meninges of the

brain and the spinal cord as the result of viral or bacterial infection. Inflammation
involves three meningeal membranes – dura matter, arachnoid membrane and pia matter.

5. What type of meningitis invade the bloodstream without involving the meninges.
a. Acute meningococcemia
b. Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
c. Aseptic meningitis
d. Septic meningitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Acute meningococcemia invades the bloodstream without involving the
meninges. Onset is characterized by nasopharyngitis, followed by a sudden attack of
high-grade fever with chills, nausea, vomiting, malaise, and headache.

Session 16
1. Which of the following is a self-limiting disease of the lymphatic system caused by the
Epstein-Barr virus?
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Mumps
c. Measles
d. Pneumonia
Answer: A
Rationale: Infectious Mononucleosis/Glandular Fever, “Mono” is an acute self-limiting
disease of the lymphatic system caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), a member of the
herpes group.

2. Which of the following is a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system
damaging the peripheral nervous system?
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Guillain-Barre syndrome
c. Stroke
d. ALS
Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barre syndrome a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the
immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. The initial symptoms are
typically changing in sensation or pain along with muscle weakness, beginning in the
feet and hands.

3.. What do you call the acute viral disease manifested by the swelling of one or both parotid
glands?
a. Infectious Parotitis
b. Epidemic Parotitis
c. Mumps
d. All mentioned
Answer: D

Rationale: Mumps/Infectious Parotitis/ Epidemic Parotitis is an acute viral disease

manifested by the swelling of one or both parotid glands, with occasional involvement of
other glandular structures, particularly the testes in males.

4. What is the causative agent of mumps is?

a. Paramyxovirus
b. Bordetella
c. Hemophilus influenzae
d. Zoster virus
Answer: A
Rationale: The causative agent of mumps is paramyxovirus

5. Mumps is communicable in?

a. 24-hour period immediately preceding the onset of parotitis
b. 48-hour period immediately preceding the onset of parotitis
c. 36-hour period immediately preceding the onset of parotitis
d. 72-hour period immediately preceding the onset of parotitis
Answer: B
Rationale: Mumps is communicable six days before and nine days after the onset of
parotid gland swelling and 48-hour period immediately preceding the onset of parotitis –
is the highest communicability