EC-Council Computer Incident Handler Exam by DFAT1

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EC-Council Computer Incident Handler Exam by DFAT1

Number: 212-89
Passing Score: 700
Time Limit: 120 min
File Version: 1.0
Exam A

QUESTION 1
“Information warfare” is conflict that uses Information/Information systems as weapons.
“Offensive” and “defensive” are two types of information warfare. Which of the following is
an example of defensive information warfare?

A. Hijacking television and radio transmissions for generating disinformation


B. Jamming radio transmissions
C. Disabling SSID broadcasts so that unauthorized users cannot detect the presence of a
wireless network
D. Spoofing or disabling the communication networks of a competitor or an enemy

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Quantitative risk is the numerical determination of the probability of an adverse event, and the extent
of the losses due to the event. Quantitative risk is calculated as:

A. (Probability of Loss) X (Loss)


B. (Probability of Loss) / (Loss)
C. (Loss) / (Probability of Loss)
D. Significant Risks x Probability of Loss X Loss

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
The insiders risk matrix consists of technical literacy and business process knowledge vectors.
Considering the matrix, one can conclude that:

A. If the insiders’ technical literacy and process knowledge is high, the risk posed by the
threat will be high
B. If the insiders’ technical literacy and process knowledge are high, the risk posed by the
threat will be insignificant
C. If the insiders’ technical literacy is high and process knowledge is low, the risk posed by
the threat will be high
D. If the insiders’ technical literacy is low and process knowledge is high, the risk posed by
the threat will be insignificant

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
Which of the following incident recovery testing methods works by creating a mock disaster,
like a fire, to identify the reaction of the procedures that are implemented to handle such
situations?
A. Procedure testing
B. Scenario testing
C. Facility testing
D. Live Walk Through testing

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
An access control policy authorizes a group of users to perform a set of actions on a set of
resources. Access to resources is based on necessity and if a particular job role requires the use
of those resources. Which of the following is not a fundamental element of an access control
policy?

A. Access group: Group of users to which the policy applies


B. Development group: Group of persons who develop the policy
C. Action group: Group of actions performed by the user on resources
D. Resource group: Resources controlled by the policy

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
One of the main objectives of incident management is to prevent incidents and attacks by
tightening the physical security of the system or infrastructure. According to CERT’s incident
management process, which stage focuses on implementing infrastructure improvements
resulting from postmortem reviews or other process improvement mechanisms?

A. Triage
B. Preparation
C. Protection
D. Detection

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond and manage an
incident. Which of the following steps focuses on limiting the scope and extent of an incident?

A. Eradication
B. Data Collection
C. Containment
D. Identification

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
Information gathering is an integral part of information warfare. Which of the following
activities is a part of passive information gathering?

A. Obtaining details of the target organization by scanning their network


B. Obtaining details of the target organization that are freely available on the Internet, and
through various other techniques by coming into direct contact with the organization
C. Obtaining details of the target organization by taking services of underground hacking
forums
D. Obtaining details of the target organization that are freely available on the Internet, and
through various other techniques without coming into direct contact with the organization

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
A risk mitigation strategy determines the circumstances under which an action has to be taken to
minimize and overcome risks. Identify the risk mitigation strategy that focuses on minimizing
the probability of risks and losses by searching for vulnerabilities in the system and appropriate
controls.

A. Risk absorption
B. Research and acknowledgment
C. Risk limitation
D. Risk assumption

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
In a qualitative risk analysis, risk is calculated in terms of:

A. (Attack Success + Criticality) – (Countermeasures)


B. Probability of Loss X Loss
C. Asset criticality assessment –(Risks and Associated Risk Levels)
D. (Countermeasures + Magnitude of Impact)- (Reports from prior risk assessments)

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 11
A computer forensic investigator must perform a proper investigation to protect digital evidence.
During the investigation, an investigator needs to process large amounts of data using a
combination of automated and manual methods. Identify the computer forensic process involved.

A. Collection
B. Analysis
C. Preparation
D. Examination

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 12
Computer forensics is a methodical series of techniques and procedures for gathering evidence
from computing equipment, various storage devices and/or digital media that can be presented in
a court of law in a coherent and meaningful format. Which one of the following is an
appropriate flow of steps in the computer forensics process?

A. Examination> Analysis> Preparation> Collection> Reporting


B. Preparation> Collection> Examination> Analysis> Reporting
C. Analysis> Preparation> Collection> Reporting> Examination
D. Preparation> Analysis> Collection> Examination>Reporting

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 13
Which one of the following is the correct flow of the stages in an incident response?

A. Preparation --> Identification --> Containment --> Eradication --> Recovery --> Followup
B. Identification --> Preparation --> Containment --> Recovery --> Follow-up --> Eradication
C. Containment --> Identification --> Preparation --> Recovery --> Follow-up --> Eradication
D. Eradication --> Containment --> Identification --> Preparation --> Recovery --> Follow-up

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
Except for some common roles, the roles in an IRT are distinct for every organization. Which
among the following is the role played by the Incident Coordinator of an IRT?

A. Focuses on the incident and handles it from management and technical point of view
B. Applies the appropriate technology and tries to eradicate and recover from the incident
C. Links the groups that are affected by the incidents, such as legal, human resources,
different business areas, and management
D. Links the appropriate technology to the incident to ensure that the foundation’s offices are
returned to normal operations as quickly as possible

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15
One of the goals of CSIRT is to manage security problems by taking a certain approach towards
the customers’ security vulnerabilities, and by responding effectively to potential information
security incidents. Identify the incident response approach that focuses on developing the
infrastructure and security processes before the occurrence or detection of an event or any
incident.

A. Interactive approach
B. Qualitative approach
C. Interactive approach
D. Proactive approach

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
A Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack is a more common type of DoS attack, where a
single system is targeted by a large number of infected machines over the Internet. In a DDoS
attack, attackers first infect multiple systems which are known as:

A. Spyware
B. Zombies
C. Worms
D. Trojans

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
Host based evidence is the evidence gathered and available on a computer system. It may include
logs, records, documents, and any other information stored in a computer system. Networkbased
evidence is the information gathered from the network resources. Which of the following
is Host-Based evidence?

A. Wiretaps
B. State of network interface
C. IDS logs
D. Router logs

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
The goal of incident response is to handle the incidents in a way that minimizes damage and
reduces recovery time and costs. Which of the following does not constitute a goal of incident
response?

A. Dealing with human resource department and various employee conflict behaviors
B. Helping personnel to recover quickly and efficiently from security incidents, minimizing
loss or theft of information and disruption of services
C. Using information gathered during incident handling to prepare for handling future
incidents in a better way and to provide stronger protection for systems and data
D. Dealing properly with legal issues that may arise during incidents

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
Organizations, or incident response teams, need to protect the evidence for any future legal
actions that may be taken against perpetrators that intentionally attacked the computer system.
Evidence protection is also required to meet legal compliance issues. Which of the following
documents helps in protecting evidence from physical or logical damage?

A. Chain-of-Custody
B. Network and Host log records
C. Chain-of-Precedence
D. Forensic analysis report

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20
The flowchart gives a view of different roles played by the different personnel of CSIRT.
Identify the incident response personnel denoted by A, B, C, D, E, F and G.
A. A-Incident Analyst, , B-Incident Coordinator, C-Public Relations, D-Administration, E
- Human Resources, F-Constituency, G-Incident Manager
B. A-Incident Coordinator, B-Constituency, C-Administration, D-Incident Manager, E -
Human Resources, F-Incident Analyst, G-Public Relations
C. A-Incident Coordinator, B-Incident Analyst, C-Public Relations, D-Administration, E -
Human Resources, F-Constituency, G-Incident Manager
D. A-Incident Manager, B-Incident Analyst, C-Public Relations, D-Administration E –
Human Resources, F-Constituency, G-Incident Analyst

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
Risk is defined as the probability of the occurrence of an incident.
Risk formulation generally begins with the likeliness of an event’s occurrence, the harm it may
cause, and is usually denoted as:

A. Consequences
B. Probability
C. Significances
D. Magnitude

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
Risk management consist of three processes; risk assessment, risk mitigation and evaluation and
assessment. Risk assessment determines the extent of the potential threat and the risk associated
with an IT system throughout its SDLC. How many primary steps does NIST’s risk assessment
methodology involve?

A. Six
B. Nine
C. Four
D. Twelve

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
Computer forensics is the branch of forensic science in which legal evidence is found in any
computer or on any digital media devices. Of the following, who is responsible for examining
the evidence acquired and separating the useful evidence?

A. Evidence Documenter
B. Evidence Manager
C. Evidence Examiner/Investigator
D. Evidence Supervisory

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 24
US-CERT and federal civilian agencies use the reporting timeframe criteria in the federal agency
reporting categorization. What is the timeframe required to report an incident under the CAT 4
federal agency category?

A. Within two (2) hours of discovery/detection


B. Within four (4) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and the
agency is unable to successfully mitigate activity
C. Weekly
D. Monthly

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
In the Control Analysis stage of the NIST’s risk assessment methodology, technical and
nontechnical control methods are classified into two categories. What are these two control
categories?

A. Preventive and Detective controls


B. Preventive and Predictive controls
C. Detective and Disguised controls
D. Predictive and Detective controls

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26
Xconsoft, a major software developer located out of New Jersey, realized that sensitive
information from folders shared across its network is being accessed by unauthorized people and
leaked to third parties, which could result in huge financial losses for the organization. In this
context, which of the following statements most appropriately defines “computer security
incident”?

A. Rectifying the loss of information that may affect the investment of the organization in
different business activities
B. Events related to physical security incidents and trouble- shooting issues in corporate
networks
C. Any real or suspected adverse event in relation to the security of computer systems or
networks
D. Policies guaranteeing access to information system resources
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
An incident is analyzed for its nature, intensity, and its effects on the network and systems.
Which stage of the incident response and handling process involves auditing the system and
network log files?

A. Identification
B. Containment
C. Reporting
D. Incident recording

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
Incident handling and response steps help you to detect, identify, respond, and manage an
incident. Which of the following helps in recognizing and separating the infected hosts from the
information system?

A. Configuring firewall to default settings


B. Sending mails to only group of friends
C. Browsing particular government websites
D. Inspecting the processes running on the system

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29
Identify a standard national process which establishes a set of activities, general tasks, and a
management structure to certify and accredit systems that will maintain the information
assurance (IA) and security posture of a system or site.

A. NIASAP
B. NIAAAP
C. NIPACP
D. NIACAP

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
An incident response plan consists of a set of instructions to detect and respond to an incident. It
defines the areas of responsibility, and creates procedures for handling various computer security
incidents. Which of the following is an essential pre-requisite for an Incident response plan?

A. Company’s financial support


B. An approval from court of law
C. Availability of forensic experts
D. Incident analysis report

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 31
Contingency planning enables organizations to develop and maintain effective methods to handle
emergencies. Every organization will have its own specific requirements that the planning should
address. There are five major components of the IT contingency plan; namely supporting
information, notification/activation, recovery, and reconstitution and plan appendices. What is
the main purpose of a reconstitution plan?

A. To provide the introduction and detailed concept of the contingency plan


B. To define the notification procedures, damage assessments, and offers the plan activation
C. To provide a sequence of recovery activities with the help of recovery procedures
D. To restore the original site, tests systems to prevent the incident, and terminates operations

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32
Risk analysis involves the process of defining and evaluating dangers. The numerical determination of the
probability of an adverse event, and the extent of the losses due to the event, refers to which approach of
risk determination?

A. Qualitative risk analysis


B. Descriptive risk analysis
C. Quantitative risk analysis
D. Analytical risk analysis

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Multiple component incidents consist of a combination of two or more attacks in a system. Which of the
following is not a multiple component incident?

A. An insider intentionally deleting files from a workstation


B. An attacker infecting a machine to launch a DDoS attack
C. An attacker using email with malicious code to infect internal work station
D. An attacker redirecting user to a malicious website and infects his system with Trojan
Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34
Policies are designed to protect the organizational resources on the network by establishing the set rules
and procedures. Which of the following policies authorizes a group of users to perform a set of actions on a
set of resources?

A. Audit Trail Policy


B. Logging Policy
C. Access Control Policy
D. Documentation policy

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Which one of the following is an appropriate flow of the incident recovery steps?

A. System Restoration --> System Validation --> System Operations --> System Monitoring
B. System Operations --> System Restoration --> System Validation --> System Monitoring
C. System Validation --> System Operations --> System Restoration --> System Monitoring
D. System Restoration --> System Monitoring --> System Validation --> System Operations

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
In which of the steps of NIST’s risk assessment methodology are the boundaries of the IT system, along
with the resources and the information that constitute the system, identified?

A. Control Analysis
B. Likelihood Determination
C. System Characterization
D. Control Recommendations

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
Identifying and analyzing an incident is a very critical part of the incident response procedure. Which of the
following signs do not indicate a computer security incident?
A. A system alarm or similar indication from an intrusion-detection
B. Failed logon attempts and creation of new user accounts
C. Smoke emitting from the system
D. System crashes or poor system performance

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
The insider’s incident response plan helps the organization to minimize or limit the damage caused due to
malicious insiders. Organizations should ensure that the insider perpetrators are not included in the
response team or are not aware of the progress. Which of the following statements is not true about the
incident response plan?

A. Persons responsible for handling insiders incidents should be trained on the contents and execution of
the response plan
B. The employees should also be trained on how to report suspicious behaviors of the insiders
C. The organization should share or provide the details of the insider’s incident response plan with all
employees
D. The organization should regularly update the employee on different forms of external and internal
attacks through training program

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
An organization faced an information security incident, where a disgruntled employee passed sensitive
access control information to a competitor. The organization’s incident response manager, upon
investigation, found that the incident must be handled within a few hours on the same day to maintain
business continuity and market competitiveness. How would you categorize such information security
incidents?

A. Low level incident


B. Middle level incident
C. High level incident
D. Ultra-high level incident

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
An incident recovery plan is a statement of actions that should be taken before, during, or after an incident.
Identify which of the following is not an objective of the incident recovery plan?

A. Providing assurance that systems are reliable


B. Providing a standard for testing the recovery plan
C. Avoiding the legal liabilities arising due to incident
D. Creating new business processes to maintain profitability after incident
Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
Business continuity is defined as the ability of an organization to continue to function even after a disastrous
event, accomplished through the deployment of redundant hardware and software, the use of fault tolerant
systems, as well as a solid backup and recovery strategy. Identify the plan which is a mandatory part of a
business continuity plan?

A. Sales and marketing plan


B. Business recovery plan
C. New business strategy plan
D. Forensics procedure plan

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
The network perimeter should be configured in such a way that it denies all incoming and outgoing traffic/
services that are not required. Which service listed below, if blocked, can help in preventing Denial of
Service attack?

A. SMTP service
B. POP3 service
C. SAM service
D. Echo service

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Identify the malicious program that is masked as a genuine harmless program, and gives the attacker
unrestricted access to the user’s information and system. These programs may unleash dangerous
programs that may erase the unsuspecting user’s disk, and send the victim’s credit card numbers and
passwords to a stranger.

A. Virus
B. Trojan
C. Worm
D. Cookie tracker

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
The data on affected systems must be backed up so that it can be retrieved if it is damaged during incident
response. The system backup can also be used for further investigation of the incident. Identify the stage of
the incident response and handling process in which complete backup of the infected system is carried out?

A. Incident investigation
B. Containment
C. Eradication
D. Incident recording

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
Insider threats can be detected by observing concerning behaviors exhibited by insiders, such as conflicts
with supervisors and coworkers, decline in performance, tardiness, or unexplained absenteeism. Select the
technique that helps in detecting insider threats.

A. Correlating known patterns of suspicious and malicious behavior


B. Making is compulsory for employees to sign a non-disclosure agreement
C. Categorizing information according to its sensitivity and access rights
D. Protecting computer systems by implementing proper controls

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
An estimation of the expected losses after an incident helps organizations in prioritizing and formulating
their incident response. The cost of an incident can be categorized as a tangible or intangible cost. Identify
the tangible cost associated with virus outbreak.

A. Lost productivity hours


B. Damage to corporate reputation
C. Loss of goodwill
D. Psychological damage

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
A security policy will take the form of a document or a collection of documents, depending on the situation
or usage. It can also become a point of reference in case a violation occurs that results in a dismissal or
other penalty. Which of the following is NOT true for a good security policy?

A. It must be implementable through system administration procedures, publishing of acceptable use


guidelines, or other appropriate methods
B. It must be enforceable with security tools where appropriate, and with sanctions, where actual
prevention is not technically feasible
C. It must be approved by a court of law after verification of stated terms and facts
D. It must clearly define the areas of responsibility for the users, administrators, and management

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 48
Identify the network security incident where intended authorized users are prevented from using system,
network, or applications by flooding the network with a high volume of traffic that consumes all existing
network resources.

A. SQL injection
B. Denial-of-Service
C. XSS attack
D. URL manipulation

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
Which of the following terms may be defined as “a measure of possible inability to achieve a goal, objective,
or target within a defined security, cost, plan, and technical limitations that adversely affects the
organization’s operations and revenues?”

A. Threat
B. Vulnerability
C. Risk
D. Incident Response

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 50
A US Federal agency network was the target of a DoS attack that prevented and impaired the normal
authorized functionality of the networks. According to agency’s reporting timeframe guidelines, this incident
should be reported within two (2) hours of discovery/detection if the successful attack is still ongoing and
the agency is unable to successfully mitigate the activity. Which incident category of US Federal Agency
does this incident belong to?

A. CAT 1
B. CAT 2
C. CAT 5
D. CAT 6

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 51
Digital evidence plays a major role in prosecuting cyber criminals. John, a cyber-crime investigator, is asked
to investigate a child pornography case. The personal computer of the criminal in question was confiscated
by the county police. Which of the following evidence files will lead John in his investigation?

A. Web server log


B. Routing table list
C. Web browser history
D. SAM file

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
An audit trail policy collects all audit trails such as series of records of computer events, about an operating
system, an application, or user activities. Which of the following statements is not true for an audit trail
policy?

A. It helps in compliance to various regulatory laws, rules, and guidelines


B. It helps in calculating intangible losses to the organization due to an incident
C. It helps in tracking individual actions and allows users to be personally accountable for their actions
D. It helps in reconstructing the events after a problem has occurred

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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