Final Step-B Booklet
Final Step-B Booklet
7. A spherical conductor A of radius r placed concentrically inside a conducting shell B of radius R R r . A charge Q is
given to A, and then A is joined to B by a metal wire. The charge flowing from A and B will be :
R r
(A) Q (B) Q (C) Q (D) Zero
Rr Rr
17. A point charge q and a charge q are placed at x a and x a, respectively, which of the following represents a
part of E-x graph ?
18. An electric dipole of common P is placed at the origin along the x – axis. The
electric field at a point P, whole position vector makes an angle with the x – axis,
will make an angle :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) 2
1
with the x-axis, where tan tan
2
19. A charge q is placed at a distance a/2 above the centre of a horizontal square surface
of edge a as shown in figure. The electric flux through the square surface is :
(A) Q / 2 0 (B) Q / 0
(C) Q / 6 0 (D) Q / 8 0
20. A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has a charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the centre of the shell.
The electrostatic potential at a point P at a distance R/2 from the centre of the shell is :
2Q 2Q 2q 2Q q (q Q ) 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
40 R 4 0 R 40 R 40 R 40 R 40 R
*21. The work done to move a charge along an equipotential from A to B :
B B
(A) cannot be defined as E.d
(B) must be defined as E.d
A A
(C) is zero (D) can have a non-zero value
24. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid sphere having a charge distributed
uniformly in its volume as shown in the figure. The electric field inside the emptied space is:
(A) Zero everywhere
(B) Non-zero and uniform
(C) Non-uniform
(D) Zero only at its centre
25. Within a spherical charge distribution of charge density (r ), N equipotential surfaces of potential V0 , V0 V ,
V0 2ΔV , ....... V0 NΔV (ΔV 0) , are drawn and have increasing radii r0, r1, r2, ….. rN, respectively. If the
difference in the radii of the surfaces is constant for all values of V0 and ΔV then :
1 1
(A) (r ) constant (B) (r ) 2 (C) (r ) (D) (r ) r
r r
*26. If there were only one type of charge in the universe, then :
(A) E.dS 0 on any surface
s
(B) E.dS 0 if the charge is outside the surface
s
q
(C) s E.dS could not be defined (D) s E.dS 0 if charges of magnitude q were inside the surface
27. A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge in the upper half and negative surface charge in the lower
half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given in : (Figures are schematics and not drawn
to scale)
*31. Refer to the arrangement of charges in figure and a Gaussian surface of radius R with Q at the centre. Then :
Q
(A) Total flux through the surface of the sphere is
0
Q
(B) Field on the surface of the sphere is
4 0 R 2
(C) Flux through the surface of sphere due to 5Q is zero
(D) Field on the surface of sphere due to 2Q is same everywhere
32. What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?
(A) 1011 N m 2 / C (B) 1012 N m2 / C
(C) 1010 N m 2 / C (D) 8.86 1013 N m2 / C
33. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d apart with their axes coinciding. The charges on
the two rings are +q and –q. The potential difference between the centres of the two rings is :
qR q 1 1
(A) (B)
4 0 d 2 2 0 R R d2
2
q 1 1
(C) Zero (D)
4 0 R 2
R d 2
*34. A positive charge Q is uniformly distributed along a circular ring of radius R. A small test charge q is placed at the
centre of the ring. Then :
(A) If q > 0 and is displaced away from the centre in the plane of the ring, it will be
pushed back towards the centre
(B) If q < 0 and is displaced away from the centre in the plane of the ring, it will never
return to the centre and will continue moving till it hits the ring
(C) If q < 0, it will perform SHM for small displacement along the axis
(D) q at the centre of the ring is in an unstable equilibrium within the plane of the ring
for q > 0
35. The electric flux through a closed surface areas S enclosing charge Q is . If the surface area is doubled, then the flux
is:
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D)
2 4
36. A point charge q is placed inside a conducting spherical shell of inner radius 2R and outer radius 3R at a distance of R
1
from the centre of the shell. The electric potential at the centre of shell will be times :
4 0
(A) q/2R (B) 4q/3R (C) 5q/6R (D) 2q/3R
For Assertion & Reason type Questions, please use following codes (wherever required in PHYSICS).
(I) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(II) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of assertion
(III) If assertion is true but reason is false
(IV) If assertion is false but reason is true (V) Both assertion and reason are false
37. Assertion : Metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell, can be built to block an electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shell, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
VMC | Final Step | Part - B 5 Class XII | Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
38. Assertion : Free electrons move always from a region of higher potential to a region of lower potential.
Reason : Electron has a negative charge.
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
39. Assertion : Two concentric conducting spherical shells are charged. The charge on the outer shell is varied keeping the
charge on inner shell constant, as a result the electric potential difference between the two shells does not change.
Reason : In this type of situation potential difference depends on the charge of inner shell only
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
44. The electric potential V at any point x, y , z (all in meters) in space is given by V 4 x 2 volts. The electric field
48. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm and are uniformly
charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire, then, in equilibrium position, the ratio of the magnitude of
electric fields at the surface of the spheres A and B is ______.
49. The work done in moving an alpha particle between two points having potential difference 25 volts is 8 10 x J . Find x
.
50. Three charges Q0 , q and q are placed at the vertices of an isosceles right angle triangle as shown in the figure. The
2q
net electrostatics potential energy is zero, if Q0 is equal to . Find n .
n
DC Circuits
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. If specific resistance of a wire is , its volume is 3m3 , and its resistance is 3 omhs, then its length will be :
1 3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) 3 (D)
3
2. In the given circuit, it is observed that the current I is independent of the value of the
resistance R6 . Then the resistance value must satisfy :
1 1 1 1
(A) R1R2 R5 R3 R4 R6 (B)
R5 R6 R1 R2 R3 R4
(C) R1R4 R2 R3 (D) R1R3 R2 R4 R5 R6
3. A set of n identical resistors each of resistance R , when connected in series, has an effective resistance of x ohm.
When the resistors are connected in parallel, the effective resistance is y ohm. What is the relation between R, x, and y ?
xy
(A) R (B) R y x (C) R xy (D) R x y
x y
4. In the arrangement of resistances shown in figure, the potential
difference between the points B and D will be zero when the unknown
resistance X is :
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) EMF of the cell is needed to find out X.
5. The supply voltage to room is 120 V. The resistance of the lead wire is 6 . A 60 W bulb is already switched on.
What is the decrease of voltage across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is switched on in parallel to the bulb?
(A) Zero (B) 2.9 V (C) 13.3 V (D) 10.04 V
6. Two batteries of emf 1 and 2 2 1 and internal resistances r1 and r2 respectively are connected in parallel as
shown in figure.
(A) The equivalent emf eq of the two cells is between 1 and
2 , i.e. 1 < eq < 2.
(B) The equivalent emf eq is smaller than 1
(C) The eq is given by eq 1 2 always
(D) eq is independent of internal resistances r1 and r2
7. In the circuit shown, the EMF of each cell is Em and internal resistance of each cell is r. The current through the
resistor R is:
Em Em
(A) (B)
2R r 2r R
2 Em 2 Em
(C) (D)
R 2r 2R r
(A) 8V (B) 6V
(C) 4V (D) 2V
14. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between point A and B is :
10 5
(A) (B)
3 3
24 57
(C) (D)
57 24
15. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state, the meter bridge wire
has a resistance 0.1 / cm. the value of unknown resistance X and the current
drawn from the battery of negligible resistance is :
(A) 6,5A (B) 4, 0.1A
(C) 4,1.0 A (D) 12, 0.5A
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) None of these
*27. In a meter bridge experiment, the galvanometer shows no deflection when the jockey is touched at the point D. The
lengths AD and DC are marked in the figure. If R 20 and S 40 , L1 is equal to:
100 50 25
(A) cm (B) cm (C) 25 cm (D) cm
3 3 2
28. In the electric network shown, no current flows through the 4Ω resistor in the arm EB. The potential difference
between the points A and D will be :
29. The resistance of a bulb filament is 100 at a temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient of resistance is 0.005
per C , its resistance will become 200 at a temperature of:
(A) 300°C (B) 400°C (C) 500°C (D) 200°C
31. The resistance of a wire is 5 at 50°C and 6 at 100°C. The resistance of the wire at 0°C will be:
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 3
34. A battery of unknown EMF and unknown internal resistance is connected in series with a variable resistance R and an
ideal voltmeter is connected across the terminals of the battery. For R 3 , the voltmeter reads 8 V, and for R 6 , the
voltmeter reads 9.6 V. The EMF of the battery is _________ V.
35. In the circuit shown, the ideal voltmeter reads 12 V. Then, the rate of heat dissipation in the 4 resistance is _______ W.
36. A galvanometer has range 0 10 mA and internal resistance 15 . To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter of
range 0 3V , a resistance R ________ must be connected in parallel with it.
37. In the circuit shown, the ideal ammeter reads 18 A when the switch S is open. If the switch is closed, the ammeter reads
_________ A.
38. A wire of length l 2 m is made of a material whose charge carrier density is n 8 1028 m3 and resistivity
is 1.5 108 m . If a potential difference 96V is applied across the ends of the wire, the drift velocity of charge
carriers in the wire will be vd ________ mm/s. [Charge on each carrier, e 1.6 1019 C ]
39. In the given network, if an ideal battery of EMF 48 V is connected between the points A and B, the potential difference
between the points P and Q will be ________ V.
40. The resistance of a wire is R1 20.00 at temperature 300 K and R2 20.07 at temperature 310 K . The temperature
41. Two resistances R1 and R2 are connected in series with a battery. The time taken for the resistances to produce total heat
H is t1 . Now, the resistances are connected in parallel to each other and then connected to the same battery. Now, the time
t2 12 R
taken to produce total heat H is t2 . If , the value of 2 is _________.
t1 169 R1
42. Two cylindrical conductors A and B, of the same diameter, length L and 2L, and different materials of resistivity and
5
are connected in series with a battery of EMF 28 V. If L 25 cm , the magnitude of electric field in conductor A is
4
E A _________ N / C.
43. In a potentiometer experiment, a wire AB of length 1.2 m is used. For the circuit shown, the current through
galvanometer becomes zero when the jockey is touched at point P. If AP 1.0 m, the resistance per unit length of the
wire AB is ______ / m.
44. In the given network, if an ideal battery is connected between points A and B, a current
i1 5.6 A flows through the battery. If the same battery is connected between points B
and C, a current i2 10.5 A flows through the battery. The value of
R
10 1 __________ .
R2
45. In the figure shown, the potential difference between A and B is
VA VB 4 V and a current 2 A flows from A to B. The internal resistance of
the battery is _______ .
46. A bulb A has voltage rating 220V and power rating 40W , and a bulb B has voltage rating 220V and power rating
120W . If the two bulbs are connected in series with a DC voltage source of 220V , the potential difference across bulb
B is _________ V.
Capacitors
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two dielectric blocks in series. One of the
blocks has thickness d1 and dielectric constant k1 and the other has thickness d2 and
dielectric constant k2 as shown in figure. This arrangement can be thought as a
dielectric slab of thickness d (= d1 + d2) and effective dielectric constant k. The k is :
k1d1 k 2 d2 k1d 2 k2 d1 k1k2 d1 d2 2k1k 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d1 d 2 d1 d 2 k1d 2 k2 d1 k1 k2
2. In the circuit shown, a potential difference of 60 V is applied across AB. The
potential difference between the points M and N is :
(A) 10 V
(B) 15 V
(C) 20 V
(D) 30 V
3. A capacitor is connected to a battery. The force of attraction between the plates when the separation between them is
halved:
(A) remains the same (B) becomes eight times
(C) becomes four times (D) becomes double
4. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm with a dielectric of dielectric
constant 2.2 between them. When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 10 4 V / m , the charge density of the positive
plate will be close to :
(A) 6 10 7 C / m2 (B) 3 10 7 C / m2 (C) 3 10 4 C / m2 (D) 6 104 C / m2
5. In the circuit shown, the equivalent capacitance between the points A and B is :
10 15
(A) F (B) F
3 4
12 25
(C) F (D) F
5 6
6. Capacity of a spherical capacitor is C1 when inner sphere is charged and outer sphere is earthed and C2 when inner
sphere is earthed and outer sphere is charged. Then C1/C2 is : (a = radius of inner sphere, b = radius of outer sphere)
a b a b
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
b a a b
*7. In the circuit shown in figure initially key K1 is closed and key K2 is open.
Then K1 is opened and K2 is closed (order is important).
When the circuit reaches steady state, let the final charge on C1 and C2 be
Q1 and Q2 and the potential difference across them be V1 and V2. Then:
(A) V1 = V2
(B) Q1 = Q2
(C) C1V1 + C2V2 = C1E
Q1 Q2
(D)
C1 C2
8. For the circuit shown in the adjoining figure, the charge on 4F capacitor is :
(A) 30C (B) 40C
(C) 24C (D) 54C
12. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 2 cm apart. A potential difference of 10 V is applied between them. The
electric field between the plates is:
(A) 20 N/C (B) 500 N/C (C) 5 N/C (D) 250 N/C
13. The effective capacitance between the points x and y in figure, will be :
(A) 1F (B) 1.5F
(C) 2F (D) 4F
14. The equivalent capacitance between the points X and Y in figure, will be :
(A) 2C/3
(B) C/3
(C) 3C/2
(D) 3C
*15. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery as shown in figure. Consider two situations.
A : Key K is kept closed and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle.
B : Key K is opened and plates of capacitors are moved apart using insulating handle.
Choose the correct option(s).
(A) In A : Q remains same but V changes
(B) In B : V remains same but Q changes
(C) In A : V remains same and Q changes
(D) In B : Q remains same and V changes
25
16. The effective capacitance of two capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 (with C2 C1 ) connected in parallel is
6
times the effective capacitance when they are connected in series. The ratio C2 / C1 is :
3 4 5 25
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3 6
(A) 2.65 106 ms 1 (B) 7.02 1012 ms 1 (C) 1.87 106 ms 1 (D) 32 10 19 ms 1
20. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a battery of emf V. if a dielectric slab is completely inserted
between the plates of the capacitor and battery remains connected, then electric field between plates :
(A) Decreases (B) increases
(C) remains constant. (D) may be increase or may be decrease.
4
23. Capacitance of a capacitor becomes times its original value if a dielectric slab of thickness t d / 2 is inserted
3
between the plates (d = separation between the plates). The dielectric constant of the slab is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
25. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging through a resistor R. Suppose t1 is the time taken for the energy
stored in the capacitor to reduce to half its initial value and t2 is the time taken for the charge to reduce to one-fourth its
initial value. Then, the ratio t1/t2 will be :
(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/4 (D) 2
26. Three capacitors each of 4 F are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is 6 F . This can be
done by connecting them.
(A) All in series (B) All in parallel
(C) Two in parallel and one in series (D) Two in series and one in parallel
32 31 33 34
(A) F (B) F (C) F (D) F
23 23 23 23
28. The work done against electric forces in increasing the potential difference of a capacitor from 20V to 40V is W.
The work done in increasing its potential difference from 40V to 50V will be:
(A) 4W (B) 3W/4 (C) 2W (D) W/2
29. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120 V and 200 V, respectively. It is found that by connecting them together,
the potential on each one can made zero. Then :
(A) 5C1 3C2 (B) 3C1 5C2 (C) 25C1 9C2 (D) 9C1 25C2
30. In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2 F capacitor changes as C is
varied from 1 F to 3 F . Q2 as a function of ‘C’ is given properly by
(figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)
38. An ideal ammeter and an uncharged capacitor are connected in a circuit as shown. A long time after the key is closed,
the reading of the ammeter is i 3 A. The EMF of the battery is _______ V.
39. A charged capacitor is allowed to discharge. The current flowing in the circuit is plotted against time as shown. The
i
time instant when the current is 0 is t 2 . Then 2 1 ______ .
16 2 1
42. An uncharged capacitor of capacitance C 10F and a resistance R 20 k are connected in series with an ideal
battery of EMF 16 V, and the switch is closed at t 0. The energy stored in the capacitor between t1 140 m/s and
t 2 280 ms is E _______ J . [loge 2 0.7]
Q 2Q
43. The two plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C are given charge and . The potential difference
3 3
Q
between the plates becomes V. Then, _______.
CV
44. Two identical capacitors A and B of capacitance C are taken and the separation between the plates of capacitor B is
increased to 3 times the original separation. The two capacitors are then connected in series with a battery and charged.
The electrostatic force between the plates of capacitor A is FA and the electrostatic force between the plates of
F1
capacitor B is F2 . Then, ________.
F2
45. An initially uncharged capacitor is connected in series with an ideal battery of EMF 12 V and a resistance R and the
switch is closed at t 0 . The charge on the positive plate of the capacitor is given as a function of time by:
q(t ) 1.2 104 e 500 t , where all quantities are in SI units. The resistance R _________ .
46. Two capacitors of capacitance C and 2C are charged to the same potential. Let the total potential energy stored in the
capacitors be U i . The capacitors are now connected in series such that plates carrying opposite charge are connected to
each other. After the current has become zero, the total potential energy stored in both capacitors is U f . Then,
U
10 i _________.
U f
47. A capacitor charged to a potential V has potential energy U. It is connected in series with a resistance and discharged.
V 15
Until the time the potential across the capacitor reduces to , the heat dissipated in the resistance is H U . Then,
N 16
N ________.
48. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C 2 F , plate separation d and area of the plates A initially has vacuum
d 2d
between the plates. Now, two dielectric slabs of area of cross-section A, thickness and , and dielectric constant
3 3
K1 2 and K 2 4 are inserted in the space between the plates. The capacitance of the capacitor becomes
C ' ________ F .
49. Three identical capacitors are connected in series with a battery. At steady state, the total potential energy stored in the
capacitors is U S . Now, the capacitors are discharged and then connected in parallel with the same battery. At steady
UP
state, the total potential energy stored in the capacitors is U P . Then, ________.
US
5. Two long straight parallel wires, carrying (adjustable) current I1 and I2, are kept at a distance d apart. If the force F
between the two wires is taken as positive when the wires repel each other and negative when the wires attract each
other, the graph showing the dependence of F, on the product I1, I2, would be :
6. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents I1 and I2 and in the same direction. They exert a force F
on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times and its direction is reversed. The distance is also
increased to 3d. The new value of the force between them is :
2F F F
(A) 2F (B) (C) (D)
3 3 3
7. A current carrying circular loop of radius R is placed in the x-y plane with centre at the origin. Half of the loop with
x > 0 is now bent so that it now lies in the y-z plane.
(A) The magnitude of magnetic moment now diminishes
(B) The magnetic moment does not change (C) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, .z), z >> R increases
(D) The magnitude of B at (0, 0, z), z >> R is unchanged
8. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W unit of work to turn it through 60. The torque needed
to maintain the needle in this position will be :
3
(A) W (B) 3W (C) W (D) 2W
2
9. A conductor lies along the z-axis at 1.5 z 1.5 m and carries a fixed current
of 10.0A in az direction (see figure). For a field B 3.0 10 4 e 0.2 x a y T ,
find the power required to move the conductor at constant speed to
x 2.0m, y 0 in 5 103 s. Assume parallel motion along the x-axis.
(A) 1.57 W
(B) 2.97 W
(C) 14.85 W
(D) 29.7 W
10. Wire 1 and 2 carrying currents I1 and I2 respectively are inclined at an angle to each
other. What is the force on a small element dl of wire 2 at a distance r from wire
1 (as shown in figure) due to the magnetic field of wire 1?
0 0
(A) I1 I 2 dl tan (B) I1 I 2 dl sin
2 r 2 r
0 0
(C) I 2 I 2 dl cos (D) I1 I 2 dl sin
2 r 4 r
11. An electron is projected with velocity 0 in a uniform electric field E perpendicular to the field. Again it is projected
with velocity 0 perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If r1 is initial radius of curvature just after entering in the
electric field and r2 is initial radius of curvature just after entering in magnetic field then the ratio r1/r2 is equal to :
Bv02 B Ev0 Bv0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
E E B E
12. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long solenoid. Which of the
following is true?
(A) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(B) The electron path will be circular about the axis
(C) The electron will experience a force at 45 to the axis and hence execute a helical path
(D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid
13. A proton (mass m) accelerated by a potential difference V flies through a
uniform transverse magnetic field occupies a region of space by width d. If
be the angle of deviation of proton from initial direction of motion (see figure),
the value of sin will be :
B q B q q Bd
(A) (B) (C) Bd (D) qV
2 mV d 2mV 2mV 2m
14. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different orientations as shown in
the figure blow :
If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the positive z direction, in which orientations the loop would be in
(i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium.
(A) (2) and (4), respectively (B) (2) and (3), respectively
(C) (1) and (2), respectively (D) (1) and (3), respectively
15. OABC is a current carrying square loop. An electron is projected from the centre of loop along its diagonal AC as
shown. Unit vector in the direction of initial acceleration will be :
ˆi ˆj
(A) k̂ (B)
2
ˆi ˆj
(C) k̂ (D)
2
16. If in a circular coil A of radius R, current I is flowing and in another coil B of radius 2R a current 2I is flowing, then the
ratio of the magnetic fields, BA and BB produced by them will be :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1/2 (D) 4
17. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the centre of the coil is
B. It is then bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be :
(A) nB (B) n2B (C) 2nB (D) 2n2 B
18. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular loop of area A is B. Then magnetic moment of the loop will be :
BA2 BA BA A 2BA A
(A) (B) A (C) (D)
0 0 0 0
22. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed across its cross-section.
a
The ratio of the magnetic field at distances and a from the axis is :
2
(A) 1/4 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) ½
23. Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I in opposite direction, are held by
insulating threads of length L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads
making an angle with the vertical. If wire have mass per unit length then the value of I
is : (g = gravitational acceleration)
gL gL gL gL
(A) 2 tan (B) tan (C) sin (D) 2sin
0 0 0 cos 0 cos
24. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a
uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field when the particle completes one full
circle is :
Mv 2
(A) 2πR (B) Zero (C) BQ 2πR (D) BQv2πR
R
25. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an arbitrary orientation in an external magnetic field B.
The work done to rotate the loop by 30 about an axis perpendicular to its plane is :
MB MB
(A) MB (B) 3 (C) (D) zero
2 2
26. A galvanometer has a 50 division scale. Battery has no internal resistance. It is found that
there is deflection of 40 divisions when R 2400 . Deflection becomes 20 divisions when
resistance taken from resistance box is 4900 . Then we can conclude.
(A) Current sensitivity of galvanometer is 20A / division
(B) Resistance of galvanometer is 200.
(C) Resistance required on R.B for a deflection of 10 divisions is 9800.
(D) Full scale deflection current is 2mA
27. A 50 resistance is connected to a battery of 5V. A galvanometer of resistance 100 is to be used as an ammeter to
measure current through the resistance, for this resistance rs is connected to the galvanometer. Which of the following
connections should be employed if the measured current is within 1% of the current without the ammeter in the circuit?
(A) rs 0.5 in series with the galvanometer (B) rs 1 in series with galvanometer
(C) rs 1 in parallel with it galvanometer (D) rs 0.5 in parallel with the galvanometer
28. At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit :
I. Electrons II. Protons III. He 2 IV. Neutrons
The emission at the instant can be :
(A) I, II, III (B) I, II, III, IV (C) IV (D) II, III
29. A magnetic dipole is acted upon by two magnetic fields which are inclined to each other at an angle of 75 . One of the
fields has a magnitude of 15 mT. The dipole attains stable equilibrium at an angle of 30 with this field. The magnitude
of the other field (in mT) is close to :
(A) 1 (B) 11 (C) 36 (D) 1060
*30. A cubical region of space is filled with some uniform electric and magnetic fields. An electron enters the cube across
one of its faces with velocity v and a positron enters via opposite face with velocity v . At this instant.
(A) The electric forces on both the particles cause identical accelerations
(B) The magnetic forces on both the particles cause equal accelerations in magnitude
(C) Both particles gain or loose energy at the same rate
(D) The motion of the centre of mass (CM) is determined by B alone
*31. A charged particle would continue to move with a constant velocity in a region wherein,
(A) E 0, B 0 (B) E 0, B 0 (C) E 0, B 0 (D) E 0, B 0
32. A particle of charge 16 1018 C moving with velocity 10 ms 1 along the x-axis entres a region where a magnetic
field of induction B is along the y-axis and an electric field of magnitude 10 Vm 1 is along the negative z-axis.
4
If the charged particle continues moving along the x-axis, the magnitude of B is :
(A) 103Wb / m2 (B) 105Wb / m2 (C) 1016 Wb / m2 (D) 103Wb / m 2
33. Two identical wires A and B, each of length ‘l’ carry the same current I. Wire A is bent into a circle of radius R and wire
B a bent to from a square of side ‘a’. If B A and BB are the values of magnetic field at the centres of the circle and
BA
square respectively, then the ratio is :
BB
2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 16 2 16 8 2
34. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 gives a full scale deflection, when a current of 1 mA is passed
through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer into ammeter giving a full scale deflection
for a current of 10 A, is :
(A) 0.01 (B) 2 (C) 0.1 (D) 3
35. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels on a circular path of radius r that is perpendicular to a magnetic field
B. The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is :
2 mq 2 q 2 B 2 qB 2 m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
B m m qB
36. To know the resistance G of a galvanometer by half deflection method, a battery of emf VE and resistance R is used to
deflect the galvanometer by angle . If a shunt of resistance S is needed to get half deflection then G, R and S are
related by the equation.
(A) S R G RG (B) 2S R G RG
(C) 2G S (D) 2S G
37. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2 cm are placed at right angles to each other. 3A and 4A are the currents
flowing in each coil respectively. The magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at the centre of the coils will be
0 4 107 Wb / Am
(A) 12 105 (B) 105 (C) 5 105 (D) 7 105
39. The magnitude of the Earth’s magnetic field at the pole is approximately 7 10 5 T .
Assuming that this field is produced by a current loop around the equator, the current that would generate such a field is
2 10 n A. The value of n is_____. Take radius of the earth as 6.4 106 m .
40. A solenoid of radius R is made of a long piece of wire of radius r, length L( R ) and resistively . The magnetic field
0 Er 2
at the axis of the solenoid if the wire is connected to a battery of emf E is given by . The value of k is ____.
k LR
41. In a hydrogen atom, the electron moves in an orbit of radius 0.5Å making 1016 rev / s . The magnetic moment of the
electron is given by 12.56 10 n Am2 .
42. A ring of mass 40 g radius 2cm and carrying a current of 10A floats in the magnetic field of a bar magnet when placed
co-axially with the magnet. The magnitude of the magnetic field is _____ a b × 10–2 T. (g = 10 m/s2)
43. A large number of infinitely long thin wires, each carrying the same current, are kept along z-axis. The value of
magnetic field ‘B’ at a point P a distance x from the origin varies as Bx . The value of is_____.
2
44. A circular loop of radius m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 100 T as shown in the figure. The loop carries a current of
1A. The magnetic of the torque acting on the loop is _____ Nm.
45. A steady current I gives through a wire loop PQR having shape of a right-angled triangle with PQ 3 x, PR 4 x and
7 0 I
QR 5 x . If the magnetic field at P due to this loop is , the value of k is:
k x
46. A potential difference of 600V is applied across the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. The separation between the
plates is 3 mm. An electron projected parallel to the plates with a speed of 2 10 4 m / s passes undeviated. The
magnitude of magnetic field within the plates is given by 10x T . The value of x is:
47. A charge Q is distributed uniformly on a rod of length L. The rod rotates about an axis passing through one its ends and
QL2
perpendicular to the rod. In this case, the magnetic moment of the rod is given by . Find the value of .
48. A horizontal long wire carries a current of 200 A. Another wire of linear density 20 10 3 kg m1 hangs below the long
wire a distance of 2cm from it. Take g 10 m / s 2 and find the current in the second wire.
49. In a galvanometer, 5% of the total current passes through it. If the resistance of the galvanometer is G, the shunt
G
resistance is . The value of k is ______.
k
50. A long straight wire of radius a carries a current which is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of
a
magnetic fields at distances and 2a from the centre of the wire is 1: . Find .
2
51. An -particle (mass 6.4 10 27 kg ) , having been accelerated by a potential difference of 104 V , enters normally a
region of thickness 0.1 m having a transverse magnetic field of 0.1T. In the field, it deviates by an angle . Find the
value of .
52. Two concentric circular coils A and B have radii 25 cm and 15 cm and carry currents 10A and 15A respectively in
opposite directions A has 24 turns and B has 18 turns. The magnetic field at the centre is a b c 0 T. The sum a + b + c
is k. Find k.
Electromagnetic Induction
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. A square of side L meters lies in the x-y plane in a region, where the magnetic field is given by
B B0 2ˆi 3 ˆj 4kˆ T , where B0 is constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the square is :
2. A metallic rod of length is tied to a string of length 2 and made to rotate with angular speed on a horizontal table
with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field B in the region, the emf induced across the ends of
the rod is :
2 Bl 3 3Bl 3
(A) (B)
2 2
4 Bl 2 5Bl 2
(C) (D)
2 2
3. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform
velocity v perpendicular to one of its sides. A magnetic induction B, constant in time
and space, pointing perpendicular to and into the plane of loop exists everywhere.
The current induced in the loop is :
(A) BLv / R clockwise (B) BLv / R anticlockwise
(C) 2BLv / R anticlockwise (D) zero
4. A rectangular loop of size 2m 1m is placed in x-y plane. A uniform but time varying magnetic field of strength
B 20t ˆi 10t 2 ˆj 50kˆ T where t is time elapsed in second. The magnitude of induced emf (in V) at time t is :
(A) 20 20t (B) 20 (C) 20 t (D) Zero
5. An electron moves on a straight line path XY as shown.
The abcd is a coil adjacent to the path of electron. What
will be the direction of current, if any induced in the coil ?
(A) The current will reverse its direction as the electron goes past the coil
(B) No current induced
(C) abcd (D) adcb
6. A thin semicircular conducting ring of radius R is falling with its plane vertical
in a horizontal magnetic induction B . At the position MNQ the speed of the ring
is v and the potential difference developed across the ring is :
(A) Zero
(B) Bv R 2 / 2 and M is at higher potential
(C) 2BRv and Q is at higher potential
(D) BRv and Q is at higher potential
7. An ideal inductor of 10 H is connected in series with a resistance of 5 and a battery of 5V. 2s after the connection is
made, the current flowing (in ampere) in the circuit is :
(A) 1 e (B) e (C) e 1 (D) 1 e
1
*8. A circular coil expands radially in region of magnetic field and no electromotive force is produced in the coil. This can
be because
(A) The magnetic field is constant
(B) The magnetic field is in the same plane as the circular coil and it may or may not vary
(C) The magnetic field has a perpendicular (to the plane of the coil) component whose magnitude is decreasing
suitably
(D) There is a constant magnetic field in the perpendicular (to the plane of the coil) direction
9. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its length. A constant uniform magnetic field
exists in space in a direction perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statement(s) from the
following.
(A) The entire rod is at the same electric potential
(B) There is an electric field in the rod
(C) The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and decrease towards its ends
(D) The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod and increase towards its ends
13. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent fixed point
and the carries a current I in the clockwise direction, as shown in the
figure. When the system is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength B
going into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape of the circle.
The tension in the wire is :
IBL IBL IBL
(A) IBL (B) (C) (D)
2 4
14. The current i in a coil varies with time as shown in the figure. The variation of induced emf with time would be :
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
15. In an LR circuit current at t = 0 is 20 A. After 2s it reduces to 18 A. The time constant of the circuit is : (in second)
2 10
(A) ln (B) 2 (C) (D) 2 ln
10 9
ln
9
magnetic flux
16. Dimensions of are :
electric flux
(A) LT 1 (B) TL1 (C) L3T 2 A2 (D) M 0 L0T 0
17. The ratio of time constants during current growth and current decay of the circuit shown in
figure is :
(A) 1:1 (B) 3:2
(C) 2:3 (D) 1: 3
18. The self inductance L of a solenoid of length l and area of cross section A, with a fixed number of turns N increases as :
(A) l and A increase (B) l decreases and A increases
(C) l increases and A decreases (D) both l and A decreases
Short bar magnet is moved along its axis with a constant velocity is best represented as :
28. A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. Electric field is induced :
(A) in AD, but not in BC
(B) in BC, but not in AD
(C) neither in AD nor in BC
(D) in both AD and BC
29. In a uniform magnetic field of induction B, a wire in the form of semicircle of radius r rotates about the diameter of the
circle with angular frequency . If the total resistance of the circuit is R, the mean power generated per period of
rotation is:
2 2
(A)
B r 2
(B)
B r
2
(C)
B r 2
(D)
B r 2
2R 8R 2R 8R
30. Two circular coils can be arranged in any of the three situations shown in the figure. Their mutual inductance will be :
(A) Maximum in situation (A)
(B) Maximum in situation (B)
(C) Maximum in situation (C)
(D) The same in all situations
31. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a coplanar loop.
The loop is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field in the direction going into the
plane of the figure. The magnitude of the field increases with time. I1 and I 2 are
the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then,
(A) I1 is in the direction ba and I 2 is in the direction dc
(B) I1 I 2
(C) I1 is in the direction ba and I 2 is in the direction cd
(D) I1 I 2
32. Two identical circular loops of metal wire are lying on a table without touching each other. Loop A carries a current
which increases with time. In response, the loop B :
(A) remains stationary (B) is attracted by the loop A
(C) is repelled by the loop A (D) rotates about its CM, with CM fixed
33. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an uniform magnetic field B direction along positive z-axis.
The direction of induced current as seen from the z-axis will be :
(A) Clockwise of the ve z-axis (B) Zero
(C) Anticlockwise of the ve z-axis (D) Along the magnetic field
34. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A = 10 cm2 and
length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is :
( 0 4 107 TmA1 )
(A) 2.4 105 H (B) 4.8 10 4 H (C) 4.8 10 5 H (D) 2.4 104 H
35. A conducting metal circular –wire loop of radius r is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field which varies which time
as B B0 e t , where B0 and are constants, at time t 0 . If the resistance of the loop is R then the heat generated
in the loop after a long time t is :
36. A fighter plane of length 20 m, wing span (distance from tip of one wing to the tip of the other wing) of 15 m and height
5 m is flying towards east over Delhi. Its speed is 240 m s 1 . The earth’s magnetic field over Delhi is 5 105 T with the
declination angle 0 and dip of such that sin 2 3 . If the voltage developed is VB between the lower and upper
side of the plane and Vw between the tips of the wings then VB and Vw are close to :
(A) VB 40 mV ; VW 135mV with left side of pilot at higher voltage
(B) VB 45 mV ; VW 120 mV with right side of pilot at higher voltage
(C) VB 40mV ; VW 135mV with right side of pilot at higher voltage
(D) VB 45mV ;VW 120 mV with left side of pilot at higher voltage
37. Consider a thin metallic sheet perpendicular to the plane of the paper moving with speed ‘v’ in a
uniform magnetic field B going into the plane of the paper (see figure). If charge densities
1 and 2 are induced on the left and right surfaces, respectively, of the sheet then
(ignore fringe effects).
0 B B
(A) 1 , 2 0 (B) 1 0 vB, 2 0 vB
2 2
B 0 B
(C) 1 0 , 2 (D) 1 2 0 vB
2 2
38. In the circuits (A) and (B) switches S1 and S2 are closed at t = 0 and are kept closed for a long time. The variation of
currents in the two circuits for t 0 are roughly shown by (figures are schematic and not drawn to scale)
41. A transformer (step up) with a 1: 8 turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary. The load in the secondary is 104 W .
The current in the secondary is I (in Ampered). Find 10I.
42. A uniformly wound solenoidal coil of self-inductance 1.8 104 H and resistance 6 is broken up into two identical
coils. These identical coils are then connected in parallel across a 15V battery of negligible resistance. The steady state
current through the battery is ………? (in A)
43. A current of 2A is increasing at a rate of 4 A/s through a coil of inductance 2H. The energy stored in the inductor per
unit time at given instant is : (in J/s)
44. A coil of inductance 1 H and negligible resistance is connected to a source of DC supply, whose voltage is given by
V = 4t. If the voltage is applied when t = 0, then find the energy stored in the coil in 4 s (in J) is:
45. A conducting rod AB of length l = 1m is moving at a velocity v = 4m/s making an
angle 30 with its length. A uniform magnetic field B = 2T exists in a direction
perpendicular to the plane of motion. Then : VA VB __________V.
47. The flux linked with a coil at any instant t is given by : 10t 2 50t 250
The magnitude of induced emf at t 3 s is : (in Volts)
48. A coil of inductance 8.4 mH and resistance 6 is connected to a 12V battery. The current in the coil is 1 A at
approximately the time : (in ms)
49. When current in a coil changes from 5A to 2A in 0.1s, an average voltage of 50 V is produced. The self-inductance of
the coil in Henry is L Find 100 L.
50. In the circuit, what is potential difference VB V A (in V) when current I is 5 A and is decreasing at the rate of 103 A s 1 ?
51. A capacitor of capacity 2F is charged to a potential difference of 12V . It is then connected across an inductor of
inductance 6H . What is the current (in A) in the circuit at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is
6.0 V?
52. Two coils, 1 and 2 have a mutual inductance M = 5H and resistance R 10 each. A current flows in coils as I1 2t 2 ,
where t is time. Find the total charge (in C) that has flow through coil 2 between t = 0 and t = 2s.
53. The current in a coil of self-induction 2.0 henry is increasing according to i 2 sin t 2 ampere. Find the amount of
energy spent during the period when the current changes from 0 to 2 ampere.
AC Circuits
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. If the rms current in a 50 Hz ac-circuit is 5 A, the value of the current 1/300 seconds after its value becomes zero is.
(A) 5 2A (B) 5 3/ 2 A (C) 5/6 A (D) 5/ 2 A
2. A resistance is connected to a capacitor in AC and the phase difference is between current and voltage. When the
4
same resistance is connected to an inductor, phase difference becomes tan1 2 . Power factor of the circuit when both
capacitor and inductor are connected to the resistance will be :
1 1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2
3. Which of the following combinations should be selected for better tuning of an LCR circuit used for communication?
(A) R 20 , L 1.5 H , C 35F (B) R 25 , L 2.5 H , C 45F
(C) R 15 , L 3.5 H , C 30F (D) R 25 , L 1.5 H , C 45F
4. The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected to a 12 watt light bulb. The value of the
peak current is.
(A) 1/ 2 A (B) 2A (C) 2A (D) 2 2A
(B) 0 and 50 s
*6. As the frequency of an ac circuit increases, the current first increases and then decreases. What combination of circuit
elements is most likely to comprise the circuit?
(A) Inductor and capacitor (B) Resistor and inductor
(C) Resistor and capacitor (D) Resistor, inductor and capacitor
7. Alternating current can not be measured by DC ammeter because :
(A) AC cannot pass through DC ammeter
(B) AC changes direction
(C) Average value of current for complete cycle is zero
(D) DC ammeter will get damaged
*8. In an alternating current circuit consisting of elements in series, the current increases on increasing the frequency of
supply. Which of the following elements are likely to constitute the circuit?
(A) Only resistor (B) Resistor and an inductor
(C) Resistor and a capacitor (D) Only a capacitor
*12. For an LCR circuit, the power transferred from the driving source to the driven oscillator is P I 2 Z cos .
(A) Here, the power factor cos 0 , P 0
(B) The driving force an give no energy to the oscillator (P = 0) in some cases
(C) The driving force cannot syphon out (P < 0) the energy out of oscillator
(D) The driving force can take away energy out of oscillator
13. Assertion : Choke coil is preferred to a capacitor to reduce AC in a circuit.
Reason : Inductor acts as a leak-proof wattless resistor.
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E
14. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed form C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the
inductance should be changed from L to ?
(A) 4L (B) 2L (C) L/2 (D) L/4
*17. The line that draws power supply to your house from street has
(A) Zero average current
(B) 220 V average voltage
(C) Voltage and current out of phase by 90°
(D) Voltage and current possibly differing in phase such that | |
2
18. A resistance ‘R’ draws power ‘P’ when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in series with the
resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes ‘Z’, the power drawn will be :
2
R R R
(A) P (B) P (C) P (D) P
Z Z Z
19. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3kW power supply. If the current in the secondary
coil 6A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil respectively are :
(A) 300V, 15 A (B) 450V, 15 A (C) 450V, 13.5A (D) 600V, 15A
20. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and ac voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed from the circuit.
The phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is / 3 if instead, C is removed from the circuit,
the phase difference is again / 3 the power factor of the circuit is :
1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
2 2 2
21. The transistor –oscillator using a resonant circuit with an inductor L (of negligible resistance) and a capacitor C in series
produce oscillations of frequency f. If L is doubled and C is changed to 4C , the frequency will be :
(A) f /2 (B) f /4 (C) 8f (D) f /2 2
22. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with a alternating voltage source of frequency f . the current leads the
voltage by 45 . The value of C is :
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
f 2f L R 2f 2f L R f 2f L R 2f 2f L R
23. The power factor of an AC circuit with having resistance R and inductance L (connected in series) and an angular
frequency is :
R R L R
(A) (B) 1 / 2
(C) (D) 1/ 2
L R
R 2 2 L2 R 2 2 L2
24. The current l in an A.C. circuit inductance coil varies with time according to the graph given below.
Which one of the following graphs gives the variation of voltage with time ?
(A)
C V V 2
1 2
2
(B)
C V12 V22 (C)
C V12 V22 (D)
C V 2 V 2
1 2 2
L L L L
26. An ac is given by equation I I1 cos t I 2 sin t . The rms value of current is given by :
2
I1 I 2 I1 I 2 1 I12 I 22
(A) (B) (C) I12 I 22 (D)
2 2 2 2
27. A series LR circuit is connected to a voltage source with V t V0 sin t . After very large time, current I (t) behaves as
L
t0
R
28. An LCR circuit is equivalent to a damped pendulum. In an LCR circuit the capacitor
is charged to Q0 and then connected to the L and R as shown here.
2
If a student plots graphs of the square of maximum charge (QMax ) on capacitor with
time (t) for two different value L1 and L2 (L1 > L2) of L then which of the following
represents this graph correctly? (plots are schematic and not drawn to scale)
29. For the LCR circuit, shown here, the current is observed to lead the applied voltage. An additional capacitor C ,
when joined with the capacitor C present in the circuit, makes the power factor of the circuit unity. The capacitor C ,
must have been connected in :
1 ω2 LC
(A) series with C and has a magnitude
ω2 L
C
(B) series with C and has a magnitude
( 2 LC 1)
C
(C) parallel with C and has a magnitude
2
(ω LC 1)
1 ω2 LC
(D) parallel with C and has a magnitude
ω2 L
36. The power factor of the circuit shown in the figure is P. Then Find 100 P.
37. In an oscillating LC circuit the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on the capacitor when the energy is
stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is Q / x . Find x.
38. An AC series circuit has a resistance of 12 and an impedance of 15 . The power factor of the circuit will be P. Find
10 P.
39. The r.m.s value of potential difference V shown in the figure is V0 . Find x.
40. A sinusoidal alternating current of peak value I passes through a heater of resistance R. Then the mean power output
I 02 R
of heater is. . Find x.
x
41. In an LCR series AC circuit, the voltage across each of the components L, C and R is 50V. The voltage across the LC
combination will be : (in V)
42. An ac voltage is represented by E 220 2 cos 50 t . How many times will the current becomes zero in the second?
43. In a series L-C-R circuit R 200 and the voltage and the frequency of the main supply is 220 V and 50 Hz
respectively. On taking out the capacitance from the circuit the current lags behind the voltage by 30. On taking out
the inductor from the circuit the current leads the voltage by 30. The power dissipated in the L-C-R circuit is (in W)
44. An arc lamp requires a direct current of 10 A at 80 V to function. If it is connected to 220 V (rms), 50 Hz AC supply,
x
the series inductor needed for it to work is close to H . Find x.
1000
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
3
1. A thin convex lens made from crown glass has focal length f. When it is measured in two different liquids
2
4 5
having refractive indices and , it has the focal length f1 and f2, respectively. The correct relation between the focal
3 3
lengths is :
(A) f1 f 2 f (B) f1 f and f 2 becomes negative
(C) f 2 f and f1 become negative (D) f1 and f 2 both become negative
2. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right angled
prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and
blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47 respectively. The prism will :
(A) Not separate the three colours at all
(B) Separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
(C) Separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours
(D) Separate all the three colours from one another
3. At two point P and Q on screen in Young’s double slit experiment, waves from slits S1 and S2 have a path difference
0 and respectively. The ratio of intensities at P and Q will be :
4
(A) 3:2 (B) 2 :1 (C) 2 :1 (D) 4 :1
4. At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single –slit diffraction pattern, the phase difference between
the Huygen’s wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the slit is :
(A) radian (B) radian (C) radian (D) radian
8 4 2
5. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment a straight black line of length L is drawn on inside part of objective
lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is I.
The magnification of the telescope is
LI L L L
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 1
LI I I I
6. A breaker contains water up to a height h1 and kerosene of height h2 above water so that the total height of
(water kerosene) is h1 h2 . Refractive index of water is 1 and that of kerosene is 2 . The apparent shift in the
position of the bottom of the beaker when viewed from above is :
1 1 1 1
(A) 1 h2 1 h1 (B) 1 h1 1 h2
1 2 1 2
1 1 1 1
(C) 1 h1 1 h2 (D) 1 h2 1 h1
1 2 1 2
7. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength ‘ ’, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose width ‘a’
is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If ‘D’ is the distance of the screen from the slit, the width of the central
maxima will be :
Da 2Da 2D D
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a a
8. Two identical thin plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5) each having radius of curvature of 20 cm are placed
with their convex surface in contact at the centre. The intervening space is filled with oil of refractive index 1.7.
The focal length of the combination is :
(A) 50 cm (B) 50 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 25 cm
9. Statement-I On viewing the clear blue portion of the sky through a Calcite Crystal, the intensity of transmitted
light varies as the crystal is rotated.
Statement-II The light coming from the sky is polarized due to scattering of sun light by particles in the
atmosphere. The scattering is largest for blue light.
(A) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
(B) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(C) Statement I is true, Statement II is true Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(D) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I
10. The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot A / 2 . The angle of
minimum deviation is :
(A) 90 A (B) 180 2A (C) 180 3A (D) 180 2A
11. In a double slit experiment, the two slits are 1mm apart and the screen is placed 1m away. A monochromatic light of
wavelength 500 nm is used. What will be the width of each slit for obtaining ten maxima of double slit within the
central maxima of single slit pattern ?
(A) 0.5 mm (B) 0.02 mm (C) 0.2 mm (D) 0.1 mm
12. A green light is incident from the water to the air-water interface at the critical angle () . Select the correct statement.
(A) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90° to the normal
(B) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out of the air
medium
(C) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out to the air
medium.
(D) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal
13. In the Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is K,
( being the wavelength of light used). The intensity at a point where the path difference is / 4 will be :
(A) K (B) K /4 (D) K /2 (D) zero
14. Let the x y plane be the boundary between two transparent media. Medium 1 in z 0 has a refractive index of 2
and medium 2 with z 0 has refractive index of 3 . A ray of light in medium 1 given by the vector
A 6 3 ˆi 8 3 ˆj 10 kˆ is incident on the plane of separation. The angle of refraction in medium 2 is :
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 75 (D) 30
15. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of
(A) Microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease
(B) Microscope and telescope both will increase.
(C) Microscope and telescope both will decrease
(D) Microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase.
VMC | Final Step | Part - B 41 Class XII | Physics
Vidyamandir Classes
16. The angle of a prism is A. one of its refracting surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A on the
first surface returns back through the same path after suffering reflection at the slivered surface. The refractive index ,
of the prism is :
1
(A) 2sin A (B) 2 cos A (C) cos A (D) tan A
2
17. This question has paragraph followed by two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Of the given four alternatives
after the statements, choose one that describes the statements.
A thin air film is formed by putting the convex surface of a plane-convex lens over a plane glass plate. With
monochromatic light, this film gives an interference pattern due to light reflected from the top (convex) surface and the
bottom (glass plate) surface of the film.
Statement 1 : When light reflects from the air-glass plate interface, the reflected wave suffers a phase change of .
Statement 2 : The centre of the interference pattern is dark.
(A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(D) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
18. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other, if lenses are
made of different materials of refractive indices 1 and 2 and R is the radius of curvature of the curved surface of the
lenses, then the focal length of the combination is :
R 2R R R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1 2 2 1 2 1 2 2 1 2
19. For a normal eye, the cornea of eye provides a converging power of 40 D and the least converging power of the eye lens
behind the cornea is 20 D. using this information, the distance between the retina and the cornea-eye lens can be
estimated to be :
(A) 1.67 cm (B) 1.5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 2.5 cm
20. A car is fitted with a convex side-view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first car is
overtaking the first car at a relative speed of 15m/s. The speed of the image of the second car as seen in the mirror of the
first one is :
1 1
(A) m/s (B) 10 m/s (C) 15 m/s (D) m/s
15 10
21. A mixture of light, consisting of wavelength 590 nm and an unknown wavelength, illuminates Young’s double slit and
gives rise to two overlapping interference patterns on the screen. The central maximum of both lights coincide. Further,
it is observed that the third bright fringe of known light coincides with the 4th bright fringe of the unknown light. From
this data, the wavelength of the unknown light is :
(A) 393.4 nm (B) 885.0 nm (C) 442.5 nm (D) 776.8 nm
22. A parallel beam of light of wavelength is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern formed on a screen
placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the diffraction pattern, the phase
difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D)
23. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence I, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to be small) and
emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is , the angle of incidence I, is nearly
equal to :
A A A
(A) A (B) (C) (D)
2 2
24. Two beams, A and B of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization are seen through a
Polaroid. From the position, when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam B has zero intensity), a rotation of
Polaroid through 30° makes the two beams appear equally bright. If the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB
respectively, then IA/IB equals :
(A) 3 (B) 3/2 (C) 1 (D) 1/3
25. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance u from the lens and
measuring the distance v of the image pin. The graph between u and v plotted by the student should look like :
26. A concave mirror of focal length f1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length f 2 . A beam of light
coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens –concave mirror combination returns to infinity. The distance d
must equal :
(A) f1 f 2 (B) f1 f 2 (C) 2 f1 f 2 (D) 2 f1 f 2
27. In an optics experiments, with the position of the object fixed, a student varies the position of a convex lens and for each
position; the screen is adjusted to get a clear image of the object. A graph between the object distance u and the image
distance v, from the lens, is plotted using the same scale for the two axes. A straight line passing through the origin and
making an angle 135 with the x-axis meets the experimental curve at P. The magnitude of the coordinates of P will be:
f f
(A) (2f, 2f) (B) , (C) (f, f) (D) (4f, 4f)
2 2
28. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to, be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material
whose refractive index:
(A) Lies between 2 and 1 (B) lies between 2 and 2
(C) is less than 1 (D) is greater than 2
29. A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude 20 cm. which one of the following options describe best the
image formed of an object of height 2 cm placed 30 cm from the lens ?
(A) Virtual, upright, height = 1 cm (B) Virtual, upright, height = 0.5 cm
(C) Real, inverted, height = 4 cm (D) Real, inverted, height = 1cm
2
30. A transparent sold cylinder rod has a refractive index of . It is surrounded by air. A light ray is incident at the mid
3
point of one end of the rod as shown in the figure. C
The incident angle for which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is :
1 3 2 1
(A) sin 1 (B) sin 1 (C) sin 1 (D) sin 1
2 2 3 3
31. A thin prism of angle 15 made of glass of refractive index 1 1.5 is combined with another prism of glass of
refractive index 2 1.75 . The combination of the prisms produces dispersion without deviation. The angle of the
second prism should be :
(A) 5° (B) 7° (C) 10° (D) 12°
32. In a Young’s double slit experiment the intensity at a point where the path difference is ( being the wavelength of
6
the light used) is I. If I0 denotes the maximum intensity, I I0 is equal to :
1 3 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 4
33. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium of refractive index , falls on a surface separating the medium from
air at an angle of incidence of 45 . For which of the following value of the ray can undergo total internal reflection ?
(A) 1.33 (B) 1.40 (C) 1.50 (D) 1.25
34. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f 2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is :
f1 f 2 f1 f 2 f1 f2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 f1 f 2 f2 f1
35. A Young’s double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the interference fringe formed on a
screen is :
(A) Hyperbola (B) Circle (C) Straight line (D) Parabola
36. A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light
from the coin travels upto the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface.
How fast is the light travelling in the liquid ?
(A) 2.4 108 m / s (B) 3.0 108 m / s
(C) 1.2 108 m / s (D) 1.8 108 m / s
37. A fish looking up through the water sees the outside world, contained in a circular horizon. If the refractive index of
water is 4/3 and the fish is 12 cm below the water surface, the radius of this circle in cm is :
36
(A) 36 7 (B) (C) 36 5 (D) 4 5
7
38. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of :
(A) 106 rad (B) 102 rad (C) 104 rad (D) 106 rad
39. If I0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in the single slit diffraction pattern, then what will be its intensity when
the slit width is doubled?
I0
(A) 2I0 (B) 4I0 (C) I0 (D)
2
40. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a Polaroid A and then through another Polaroid B which is
oriented so that its principle plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that of A. The intensity of the emergent light is
I0 I0 I0
(A) I0 (B) (C) (D)
2 4 8
41. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 2 and its refracting angle is 30 . One of the refracting surfaces of
the prism is made a mirror inwards. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace
its path after reflection from the mirrored surface its path after reflection from the mirrored surface if its angle of
incidence on the prism is :
(A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 0 (D) 30°
42. Two point white dots are 1 mm apart on a black paper. They are viewed by eye of pupil diameter 3 mm. Approximately,
what is the maximum distance at which these dots can be resolved by the eye? [Take wavelength of light = 500 nm]
(A) 5m (B) 1m (C) 6m (D) 3m
43. For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the condition of total internal
refraction of this ray required refractive index of prism will be :
3 1 2 1
(A) (B)
2 2
3 7
(C) (D)
2 6
44. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum
deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass. Then :
(A) D1 D2 (B) D1 = D2
(C) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending upon the angle of prism
(D) D1 D2
45. A light ray is incident perpendicular to one face of a 90 prism and totally
internally reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45 , we
conclude that for the refractive index n as :
1
(A) n (B) n 2
2
1
(C) n (D) n 2
2
46. A disc is placed on a surface of pond which has refractive index 5/3. A source of light is placed 4 m below the surface
of liquid. The minimum radius of disc needed so that light is not coming out is :
(A) (B) 3m (C) 6m (D) 4m
47. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30 cm is silvered at the curved surface. Now, this
lens has been used to form the image of an object. A what distance from this lens, an object be placed in order to have a
real image of the size of the object?
(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 80 cm
48. A bubble in glass slab 1.5 when viewed from one side appears at 5 cm and 2 cm from other side, then thickness
of slab is :
(A) 3.75 cm (B) 3 cm (C) 10.5 cm (D) 2.5 cm
49. Two coherent point source S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as
shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be :
(A) Points (B) Straight line
(C) Semi-circle (D) Concentric circles
50. A tall man of height 6 feet, want to see his full image. Then required minimum length of the mirror will be :
(A) 12 feet (B) 3 feet (C) 6 feet (D) any length
51. When a un-polarised light of intensity I0 is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which does not get
transmitted is :
1 1
(A) I0 (B) I0 (C) Zero (D) I0
2 4
52. The angle of incidence at which reflected light is totally polarized for reflection from air to glass (refractive index n), is:
1 1
(A) sin 1 n (B) sin 1 (C) tan1 (D) tan 1 n
n n
53. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. on the other side of the
lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright
image of the object coincident with it ?
(A) 50 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 12 cm (D) 60 cm
54. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s
double slit experiment, is :
(A) Infinite (B) Five (C) Three (D) Zero
55. Light enters at an angle of incidence in transparent rod of refractive index n. for what value of the refractive index of the
material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of angle
of incidence ?
(A) n 1.1 (B) n 1 (C) n 2 (D) n 1.3
57. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having a refractive index . If c is the velocity of light in vacuum,
the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is :
t t tc
(A) (B) (C) t c (D)
c c
58. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and thickness at the centre is 3mm. If speed of light in material of lens is
2 108 m / s , the focal length of the lens is :
(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 30 cm (D) 10 cm
59. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall, for its two
different positions. The area of the source of light is :
A1 A2 1 1 A1 A2
(A) (B) (C) A1 A2 (D)
2 A1 A2 2
60. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to :
(A) Reduce spherical aberration (B) Have high resolution
(C) Increase span of observation (D) Have low dispersion
61. The earth radiates in the infra-red region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by :
(A) Rayleigh Jeans law (B) Planck’s law
(C) Stefan’s law of Radiation (D) Wien’s law
62. In a fresnel biprism experiment, the two positions of lens given separation between the slits as 16 cm and 9 cm
respectively. What is the actual distance of separation ?
(A) 13 cm (B) 14 cm (C) 12.5 cm (D) 12 cm
3
63. Time taken by sunlight to pass through a window of thickness 4 mm whose refractive index is is :
2
(A) 2 104 s (B) 2 108 s (C) 2 1011 s (D) 2 1011 s
64. The graph between angle of deviation ( ) and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by :
65. In Young’s double slit experiment, the fringe width is found to be 0.4 mm. if the whole apparatus is immersed in water
4
of refractive index , without disturbing the geometrical arrangement, the new fringe width will be :
3
(A) 0.30 mm (B) 0.40 mm (C) 0.53 mm (D) 450 microns
66. Unpolarized light of intensity I 0 is incident on surface of a block of glass at Brewster’s angle. In that case, which one
of the following statements is true?
(A) transmitted light is partially polarized with intensity I 0 / 2
(B) transmitted light is completely polarized with intensity less than I 0 / 2
(C) reflected light is completely polarized with intensity less than I 0 / 2
(D) reflected light is partially polarized with intensity I 0 / 2
67. Wavelength of light used in an optical instrument are 1 4000 Å and 2 5000Å, then ratio of their respective
resolving powers (corresponding to 1 and 2 ) is :
(A) 16 : 25 (B) 9 :1 (C) 4:5 (D) 5:4
68. An observer looks at a distant tree of height 10 m with a telescope of magnifying power of 20. To the observer the tree
appears :
(A) 10 times taller (B) 10 times nearer (C) 20 times taller (D) 20 times nearer
69. The box of a pin hole camera, of length L, has a hole of radius a. It is assumed that when the hole is illuminated by a
parallel beam of light of wavelength the spread of the spot (obtained on the opposite wall of the camera)is the sum of
its geometrical spread and the spread due to diffraction . The spot would then have its minimum size (say bmin ) when :
2 2 2 2 2
(A) a and bmin (B) a L and bmin
L L L
2
(C) a L and bmin 4 L (D) a and bmin 4 L
L
70. A convex lens, of focal length 30 cm, a concave lens of focal length 120 cm,
and a plane mirror are arranged as shown. For an object kept at a distance of
60 cm from the convex lens, the final image, formed by the combinations, is
a real image, at a distance of :
(A) 60 cm from the convex lens
(B) 60 cm from the convex lens
(C) 70 cm from the concave lens
(D) 70 cm from the concave lens
71. To determine refractive index of glass slab using a travelling microscope, minimum number of readings required are :
(A) Two (B) Four (C) three (D) five
72. A hemispherical glass body of radius 10 cm and refractive index 1.5 is silvered on its
curved surface. A small air bubble is 6 cm below the flat surface inside it along the
axis. The position of the image of the air bubble made by the mirror is seen.
(A) 14 cm below flat surface (B) 20 cm below flat surface
(C) 16 cm below flat surface (D) 30 cm below flat surface
73. Two stars are 10 light years away from the earth. They are seen through a telescope of objective diameter 30 cm. The
wavelength of light is 600 nm. To see the stars just resolved by the telescope, the minimum distance between them
should be (1 light year = 9.46 1015 m ) of the order of
(A) 108 km (B) 1010 km (C) 1011 km (D) 106 km
74. Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of 25 cm, the minimum
separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm wavelength is :
(A) 100 m (B) 300 m (C) 1m (D) 30 m
75. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases with height from the ground.
When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens’ principle leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam:
(A) bends downwards (B) bends upwards
(C) becomes narrower (D) goes horizontally without any deflection
76. Monochromatic light is incident on a glass prism of angle A. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is , a
ray, incident at an angle , on the face AB would get transmitted through the face AC of the prism provided.
1 1
(A) cos 1 sin A sin 1 (B) sin 1 sin A sin 1
1 1
(C) sin 1 sin A sin 1 (D) cos 1 sin A sin 1
77. You are asked to design a shaving mirror assuming that a person keeps it 10 cm from his face and view the magnified
image of the face at the closest comfortable distance of 25 cm. The radius of curvature of the mirror would then be:
(A) 30 cm (B) 24 cm (C) 60 cm (D) –24 cm
78. A parallel beam of electrons travelling in x-direction falls on a slit of
width d (see figure). If after passing the slit, an electron acquires
momentum py in the y-direction then for a majority of electrons passing
through the slit (h is plank’s constant)
(A) | py | d h (B) | py | d h (C) | py | d h (D) | p y | d h
79. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. If a 50 m tall tower at a
distance of 1 km is observed through this telescope in normal setting, the angle formed by the image of the tower is ,
than is closed to :
(A) 1° (B) 15° (C) 30° (D) 60°
80. A thin convex lens of focal length f is put on a plane mirror as shown in the figure. When
an object is kept at a distance a from the lens - mirror combination, its image is formed at a
distance a/3 in front the combination. The value of a is:
3
(A) f (B) 2f (C) 3f (D) f
2
81. In a Young’s double slit experiment with light of wavelength the separation of slits is d and distance of screen is D
such that D d . If the fringe width is , the distance from point of maximum intensity to the point where
intensity falls to half of maximum intensity on either side is :
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 3 6
83. A point source of light S is placed at a distance 10 cm in front of the centre of a mirror of width 20 cm suspended
vertically on a wall. An insect walks with a speed 10 m/s in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a
distance 20 cm from it as shown in figure. Find the maximum time during which the insect can see the image of the
source S in the mirror.
84. A point source of light S is placed on the major optical axis of the concave mirror at a distance of 60 cm. At what
distance from the concave mirror should a flat mirror be placed for the rays to converage again at the point S having
been reflected from the concave mirror and then from the flat one? The radius of the concave mirror is 80 cm.
86. A fish is rising up vertically inside a pond with velocity 4 cm/s, and notices a bird, which is diving downward and its
velocity appears to be 16 cm/s (to the fish). What is the real velocity of of diving bird, if refractive index of water is
4/3?
87. Consider the situation as shown in figure. The point O is the centre.
The light ray forms an angle of 60° with the normal. The normal
makes an angle 60° with the horizontal and each mirror makes an
angle 60° with the normal. The value of refractive index of that
spherical portion so that light ray retraces its path is n , than n is :
88. A ray of light makes normal incidence of the diagonal face of a right angled
prism as shown in figure. If 37 , then the angle of deviation after second
step (from AB) is ( sin 37 3 / 5 )
89. A cylindrical glass rod of radius 0.1 m, and refractive index 3 lies on a
horizontal plane mirror. A horizontal ray of light moving perpendicular to the
axis of the rod is incident on it. At what height from the mirror should the ray be
incident so that it leaves the rod at a height of 0.1 m above the plane mirror?
91. Two waves of equal frequencies have their amplitude in the ratio of 5 : 3. They are superimposed on each other.
Calculate the ratio of the maximum to minimum intensities of the resultant wave.
92. A Young’s double slit apparatus has slits separated by 0.25 mm and a screen 48 cm away from the slits. The whole
apparatus is immersed in water and the slits are illuminated by the red light ( 700 nm in volume). Find the fringe
width of the pattern formed on the screen. ( w 4 / 3) in mm
93. One side of a glass slab is silvered as shown in figure. A ray of light is
incident on the other side at an angle of incidence i 45 . Refractive
index of glass is given as 1.5.
The deviation of the ray of light from its initial path when it comes out of
the slab is:
94. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m above the surface of water in a lake. The refractive index. The refractive index
of water is 4/3. A fish inside the lake, in the line of fall of the ball, is looking at the ball. At an instant, when the ball is
12.8 m above the water surface, the fish see the speed of ball as.
95. The magnification of an object placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm is +2. To obtain a magnification of
2 , the object has to be moved a distance equal to :
Modern Physics
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. The radiation corresponding to 3 2 transition of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to produce photoelectrons.
These electrons are made to enter a magnetic field of 3 104 T. If the radius of the largest circular path following by
these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of the metal is close to :
(A) 1.8 eV (B) 1.1 eV (C) 0.8 eV (D) 1.6 eV
2. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength and if the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the
surface of the material is :
( h Plank’s constant, c speed of light)
2hc hc hc hc
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2
3. Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?
4. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromic light of wavelength, . The stopping potential for photo-
electric current for this light is 3V0 . If the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2 , the stopping
potential is V0 . The threshold wavelength for this surface for photo-electric effect is :
(A) (B) (C) 6 (D) 4
4 6
5. This question has Statement-I and Statement-II of the four choices given after the statements, choose the one that best
describes the two statements.
Statement-1 A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency v v0 (the threshold
frequency). The maximum kinetic energy and the stopping potential are Kmax and V0 respectively. If
the frequency incident on the surface is doubled, both the Kmax and V0 are also doubled.
Statement-2 The maximum kinetic energy and stopping potential of photoelectrons emitted from a surface are
linearly dependent on the frequency of incident light.
(A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1
(B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
(D) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
7. Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV . If the voltage is increased to 100 kV
then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons would :
(A) increase by 2 times (B) decrease by 2 times
(C) decrease by 4 times (D) increase by 4 times
8. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons was
found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is : (hc = 1240 eV-nm)
(A) 3.09 eV (B) 1.42 eV (C) 151 eV (D) 1.68 eV
9. A beam of cathode rays is subjected to crossed electric (E) and magnetic fields (B). The fields are adjusted such that the
beam is not deflected. The specific charge of the cathode rays is given by :
B2 2VB 2 2VE 2 E2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2VE 2 E2 B2 2VB 2
10. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor :
1
(A) 1/2 (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2
11. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three different
radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement :
(A) Curves a and b represent incident radiations of same frequency but different intensities.
(B) Curves b and c represent incident radiations of different frequency and different intensities.
(C) Curves b and c represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity.
(D) Curves a and b represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities.
12. Monochromic light of frequency 6.0 1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power emitted is 2 103 W . The number of
photons emitted, on an average, by the source per second is :
(A) 5 1016 (B) 5 1017 (C) 5 1014 (D) 5 1015
13. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function, h0 . If photons of energy 2h0 fall on this surface, the electrons
come out with a maximum velocity 4 106 m / s. When the photon energy is increased to 5h0 , then maximum velocity
of photoelectrons will be :
(A) 2 107 m / s (B) 2 106 m / s (C) 8 106 m / s (D) 8 105 m / s
14. The anode voltage of a photocells kept fixed. The wavelength of the light falling on the cathode is gradually changed.
The plate current I of photocell varies as follows.
17. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons from a metal
Vs the frequency of the incident radiation gives a straight line whose slope :
(A) Depends on the nature of the metal used
(B) Depends on the intensity of the radiation
(C) Depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used
(D) Is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation
18. An electron beam has a kinetic energy equal to 100 eV . Find its wavelength associated with a beam, if mass of
electron 9.110 31 kg and 1eV 1.6 10 19 J / eV . (Plank’s constant 6.6 10 34 Js )
(A) 24.6 Å (B) 0.12 Å (C) 1.2 Å (D) 6.3 Å
19. An electron of mass m and charge e is accelerated from rest through a potential difference V in vacuum. Its final
velocity will be :
2 eV eV eV eV
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m m 2m m
20. An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a potential difference V, has de-Broglie wavelength . The de-
Broglie wavelength associated with a proton of mass M accelerated through the same potential difference, will be :
M m M m
(A) (B) (C) (D)
m M m M
21. The time taken by a photoelectron to come out after the photon strikes is approximately :
(A) 104 s (B) 1010 s (C) 1016 s (D) 101 s
22. The wavelength of a 1keV photon is 1.24 109 m. What is the frequency of 1MeV proton ?
(A) 1.24 1015 (B) 2.4 1020 (C) 1.24 1018 (D) 2.4 1023
23. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectron emission from
this substance is approximately :
(A) 540 nm (B) 400 nm (C) 310 nm (D) 220 nm
24. The momentum of a photon of an electromagnetic radiation is 3.3 10 29 kg ms 1. What is the frequency of the
associated waves? [ h 6.6 10 34 Js ; c 3 108 ms 1 ]
(A) 1.5 1023 Hz (B) 7.5 1012 Hz (C) 6 103 Hz (D) 9 10 32 Hz
25. Hydrogen (1H1) , deuterium (1H2), singly ionized helium (2He4)+ and doubly ionized lithium (3Li8)++ all have one
electron around the nucleus. Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n = 1. If 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 respectively for
four elements, then approximately which one of the following is correct?
(A) 41 2 2 23 4 (B) 1 2 2 23 4
(C) 1 2 43 9 4 (D) 1 2 2 33 4 4
r
26. The electric potential between a proton and an electron is given by V V0 ln , where r0 is a constant. Assuming
r0
Bohr’s model to be applicable, what is the variation of rn with n, (n being the principal quantum number) ?
1 1
(A) rn n (B) rn (C) rn n2 (D) rn
n n2
27. Radiations of wavelength 180 nm ejects photo-electrons from a plate whose work functions is 2.0 eV. If a uniform
magnetic field of flux density 5.0 10–5 tesla is applied parallel to the plate, what should be the radius of the path
followed by electrons ejected normally from the plate with maximum energy ?
(A) 0.2 m (B) 0.148 m (C) 0.048 m (D) 0.418 m
1
28. A photocell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1 m away. When the same source of light is placed m
2
away, the number of electrons emitted by photocathode would :
(A) Decrease by a factor of 4 (B) Increase by a factor of 4
(C) Decrease by a factor of 2 (D) Increase by a factor of 2
29. The de-Broglie wave corresponding to a particle of mass m and velocity v has a wavelength associated with it :
h mh m
(A) (B) hmv (C) (D)
mv v hv
30. In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the
Balmer series is :
27 5 4 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 27 9 4
27 125
31. In radius of the 13 Al nucleus is taken to be R Al , then the radius of 53 Te nucleus is nearly :
1/ 3 1/ 3
3 23 53 5
(A) RAl (B) RAl (C) R Al (D) R Al
4 53 13 3
32. Consider 3rd orbit of He (Helium), using non-relativistic approach, the speed of electron in this orbit will be :
[Given K 9 109 constant, Z 2 and h (Plank’s Constant) 6.6 10 34 Js ] :
(A) 0.73 106 m / s (B) 3.0 108 m / s (C) 2.92 106 m / s (D) 1.46 106 m / s
33. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of the threshold wavelength is
nearest to
(A) 1: 2 (B) 4 :1 (C) 2 :1 (D) 1: 4
7
34. The bonding energy per nucleon of 3 Li & 42 He are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively. In the nuclear reaction
7 1
3 Li 1 H 42 He 42 He Q the value of energy Q released is :
(A) 19.6 MeV (B) 2.4 MeV (C) 8.4 MeV (D) 17.3 MeV
35. In a hydrogen like atom electron make transition from an energy level with quantum number n to another with quantum
number (n – 1). If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted is proportional to
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) 2
(C) 3
(D)
n n n /2 n3
27 64
36. If the nuclear radius of Al is 3.6 fermi, the approximate nuclear radius of Cu in fermi is :
(A) 2.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 4.8 (D) 3.6
37. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform field of 3 10 4 Vm1 so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop
will be (Take the mass of the charge = 9.9 1015 kg and g 10ms 2 ) :
(A) 3.3 1018 C (B) 3.2 1018 C (C) 1.6 1018 C (D) 4.8 10 18 C
38.
The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval t 2 t 1 between the time t 2 when 2/3 of it has
decayed and the time t 1 when 1/3 of it had decays is :
(A) 30 days (B) 50 days (C) 60 days (D) 15 days
39. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t 0, number of P species
are 4 N0 and that of Q are N0 . Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute where as that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially
there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R
present in the sample would be :
9 N0 5N 0
(A) 2 N0 (B) 3 N0 (C) (D)
2 2
40. Formation of covalent bonds in compounds exhibits :
(A) Wave nature of electron (B) Particle nature of electron
(C) Both wave and particle nature of electron (D) None of these
41. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N0 counts per minute at t 0 and N0 / e counts per minute at
t 5 minutes. The time ( in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is :
2 5
(A) loge (B) (C) 5log10 2 (D) 5log e 2
5 log e 2
42. Hydrogen atom is excited from ground state to another state with principal quantum number equal to 4. Then, the
number of spectral lines in the emission spectra will be :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 6
1 2
43. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach
2
for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to :
1 1 1
(A) (B) v2 (C) (D)
Ze m v4
44. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an
electron is projected along the direction of the fields with a certain velocity then :
(A) Its velocity will decrease
(B) Its velocity will increase
(C) It will turn towards right of direction of motion
(D) It will turn towards left of direction of motion
A
45. If M A ; Z , M p and M n denotes the masses of the nucleus Z X, proton and neutron respectively in unit of
u 1u 931.5 MeV / c 2 and BE represents its bonding energy in MeV, then :
(A) M A, Z ZM p A Z M n BE (B) M A, Z ZM p A Z M n BE / c 2
(C) M A, Z ZM p A Z M n BE / c 2 (D) M A, Z ZM p A Z M n BE
46. Two radioactive materials X1 and X 2 have decay constant 5 and respectively. If initially they have the same
number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X1 to that X 2 will be 1/ e after a time :
(A) 1/ 4 (B) e/ (C) (D) 1/ 2
47. The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2eV and the stopping potential for a
radiation incident on this surface 5 V. The incident radiation lies in :
(A) Ultra-violet region (B) Infra-red region
(C) Visible region (D) X-ray region
48. Radiation of wavelength , is incident on a photocell. The fastest emitted electron has speed v. If the wavelength is
3
changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be :
4
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
4 4 4 3
(A) v (B) v (C) v (D) v
3
3
3
4
49. Half-lives of two radioactive elements A and B are 20 minutes and 40 minutes, respectively. Initially, the samples have
equal number of nuclei. After 80 minutes, the ratio of decayed numbers of A and B nuclei will be :
(A) 1:16 (B) 4:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 5:4
50. A hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 and emits a photon. This photon strikes a doubly ionized
lithium atom z 3 in excited state and completely removes the orbiting electron. The least quantum number for the
excited state of the ion for the process is :
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
51. When photons of wavelength 1 are incident on an isolated sphere, the corresponding stopping potential is found to be
V. When photons of wavelength 2 are used, the corresponding stopping potential was thrice that of the above value.
If light of wavelength 3 is used then find the stopping potential for this case :
hc 1 1 1 hc 1 1 1
(A) (B)
e 3 2 1 e 3 2 2 1
hc 1 1 1 hc 1 1 3
(C) (D)
e 3 2 1 e 3 2 2 21
52. A neutron moving with a speed ‘v’ makes a head on collision with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state.
The minimum kinetic energy of the neutron for which inelastic collision will take place is :
(A) 20.4eV (B) 10.2eV (C) 12.1eV (D) 16.8eV
53. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelength and . If the maximum
2
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in the first case, the work function of the
surface is :
hc hc hc 3hc
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3
54. Match List-1 (Fundamental experiment) with List –II (its conclusion) and select the correct option form the choices
given below the list. Match the following :
List -1 List – II
P Franck – Hertz (i) Particle nature of light
Q Photo – electric (ii) Discrete energy levels of atom
R Davison – Germer Experiment. (iii) Wave nature of electron
(iv) Structure of atom
P Q R P Q R
(A) ii i iii (B) iv iii ii
(C) i iv iii (D) ii iv iii
55. De-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated by a voltage of 50 V is code to :
(| e | 1.6 1019 C , me 9.1 1031 kg , h 6.6 1034 Js )
(A) 0.5 Å (B) 1.2 Å (C) 1.7 Å (D) 2.4 Å
56. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron in then n = 4 level is :
(A) two times the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state
(B) four times the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state
(C) half of the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state
(D) 1/4th of the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state.
57. As An electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of hydrogen – like atom/ion
(A) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increased but total energy remains same
(B) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
(C) its kinetic energy increase but potential energy and total energy decrease
(D) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
58. If one were to apply Bohr model to a particle of mass m and charge q moving in a plane under the influence of a
magnetic field B, the energy of the charged particle in the nth level will be :
hqB hqB hqB hqB
(A) n (B) n (C) n (D) n
2 m 4 m 8 m m
59. Let N be the number of particles emitted by 1 gram of Na24 radioactive nuclei (half life = 15 hrs) in 7.5 hours,
N is close to (Avogadro number = 6.023 10 23 / g mole)
(A) 6.2 1031 (B) 7.5 10 21 (C) 1.25 10 22 (D) 1.75 10 22
60. Suppose alpha particles of speed 2.0 107 m/s are shot at lead atoms (Z = 82). If minimum separation between alpha
particle and lead nucleus is 2.82 × 102n then the value of n is .
61. The energy of the photon in eV, when absorbed by a hydrogen atom, causes an electronic transition form the initial state
n = 2 to the final state n = 5 is .
62. A tiny bottle of radon gas contains 8.0 1012 atoms of radon. The half life of radon in 3.8 days. If disintegrations per
second in the bottle is 1.01 10 n then the value of n is .
63. If a radioactive sample initially contains 8.00 × 1014 parent nuclei with a half life of 7.00 h, if parent nuclei remain 24.0
h later is 7.43 x 10 n then the value of n is .
64. It is observed that after 3h only 0.25 mg of a pure radioactive material that was originally 2 mg is left. The half life of
the material in hours is .
65. If the work function of the target material is 1.24 eV and wavelength of incident light is 4.36 107 m . Then the
regarding potential necessary to stop the emission of photoelectrons is .
15
66. Position emission by O is the first stage in a medical scanning technique called PET (Position Emission
Tomography). The half life is 122s. If the initial decay rate of a sample is 0.2 Ci , and 1.30 10n nuclei are present
then the value of n .
67. The electron in the hydrogen atom is in the n = 2 state. Then the ratio of modulus of potential energy to kinetic energy
is .
68. The photoelectric work function of a metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength 3000 Å falls on it. The velocity of ejected
photoelectrons is approximately 10n then the value of n is .
1
3.1 1019 1.6 9.31 10 31 v 2
6
v 106 m/s
69. Iodine-131 is used to treat thyroid disorders because, when ingested, it localizes in the thyroid glad. Its half life is 8.1
days. The activity of 0.80g of 131I in mCi is .
70. Light of two different frequencies, whose photons have energies 1 and 2.5 eV respectively successively illuminate a
metal whose work function is 0.5 eV. If the ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is 1 : n then value of
n is .
71. In an effort to date a piece of bone, its count rate due to 14 C is computed and found to be only 0.048 that of a similar
fresh piece of bone. If age of the bone is 2.50 10 2 n then the value of n is . (half life of 14C is 5700 years)
n
72. If de Broglie wavelength of an electron acceleration to a potential difference of V volt is Å then the value of n is
V
.
80
73. The radioactive isotope 27 Co is used in the treatment of tumors. If undergoes decay with a half life of 5.25 years.
The initial decay rate of a 0.01 g sample is n 1011 then the value of n is .
90
74. The radioisotope 38 Sr has a half life of 29 year. A sample has an initial decay rate of 24Ci . If nuclei decay in the first
13
year is n 10 then the value of n is .
Choose the correct alternative. Only One Choice is Correct. However, questions marked ‘*’ May have
More than One Correct option.
1. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R 100 and an
e.m.f. of 3.5V . If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V , the current in
the circuit will be :
(A) 20 mA (B) 35 mA
(C) 30 mA (D) 40 mA
5. The output from a NAND gate is divided into two in parallel and fed to another NAND gate. The resulting gate is a:
(A) AND gate (B) NOR gate (C) OR gate (D) NOT gate
6. One way in which the operation of a n-p-n transistor differs from that of a p-n-p :
(A) The emitter junction injects minority carriers into the base region of a p-n-p
(B) The emitter injects holes into the base of the p-n-p and electrons into the base region of n-p-n
(C) The emitter injects holes into the base of a n-p-n
(D) The emitter junction is reversed biased in n-p-n
8. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is insulator where as Si is
intrinsic semiconductor. This is because :
(A) In case of C the valence band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature.
(B) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature.
(C) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they lie in the
third.
(D) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the fourth orbit.
10. The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and output C.
The voltage wave forms across A, B and C are as given. The logic
circuit gate is :
(A) OR gate
(B) NOR gate
(C) AND gate
(D) NAND gate
11. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by 40 A which results in a change in
collector currently by 2 mA . This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a load resistance of 4 k .
The voltage gain of the amplifier is :
(A) 2000 (B) 3000 (C) 4000 (D) 1000
13. Pure Si at 500 K has equal number of electron ne and hole nh concentrations of 1.5 1016 m3 . Doping by indium
increases nh to 4.5 1022 m3 . The doped semiconductor is of :
(A) p-type having electron concentration ne 5 109 m 3
(B) n-type having electron concentration ne 5 1022 m 3
(C) p-type having electron concentration ne 2.5 1010 m 3
(D) n-type having electron concentration ne 2.5 1023 m 3
14. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200 .
The power gain of the amplifier is :
(A) 500 (B) 1000 (C) 1250 (D) 50
15. The following figure shown a logic gate circuit with two
inputs A and B and the output Y. The voltage waveforms
of A, B and Y are as given :
The logic gate is :
(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate
(C) AND gate (D) NAND gate
is equivalent to :
(A) NOR gate (B) OR gate (C) AND gate (D) NAND gate
18. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C.
The voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below :
IC
20. For a common base circuit if 0.98 then current gain for common emitter circuit will be :
IE
(A) 49 (B) 98 (C) 4.9 (D) 25.5
24. Identify the semiconductor devices whose characteristics are given below, in the order (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) :
(A) Simple diode, Zener diode, Solar cell, Light dependent resistance
(B) Zener diode, simple diode, light dependent resistance, solar cell
(C) Solar cell, Light dependent resistance, Zener diode, simple diode
(D) Zener diode, Solar cell, simple diode, Light dependent resistance
*25. For a common emitter configuration, if and have their usual meanings, the incorrect relationship between and
is :
1 1 2
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
1 1 1 2
26. An unknown transistor needs to be identified as a npn or pnp type. A multimeter, with ve and ve terminals, is used
to measure resistance between different terminals of transistor. If terminal 2 is the base of the transistor then which of
the following is correct for a pnp transistor?
(A) ve terminal 2, ve terminal 3, resistance low
(B) ve terminal 2, ve terminal 1, resistance high
(C) ve terminal 1, ve terminal 2, resistance high
(D) ve terminal 3, ve terminal 2, resistance high
27. An experiment is performed to determine the I-V characteristics of a Zener diode, which has a protective resistance of
R 100 , and a maximum power of dissipation rating of 1W. The minimum voltage range of the DC source in the
circuit is :
(A) 0 5V (B) 0 24V (C) 0 12V (D) 0 8V
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
(A) OR –Gate (B) NAND –Gate (C) AND –Gate (D) NOR –Gate
29. The ratio (R) of output resistance r0 , and the input resistance ri in measurements of input and output characteristics of a
transistor is typically in the range:
(A) R 102 103 (B) R 1 10 (C) R 0.1 1.0 (D) R 0.1 0.01
30. To get an output of 1 from the circuit shown in figure the input must be :
(A) a 0, b 0, c 1 (B) a 1, b 0, c 0
(C) a 1, b 0, c 1 (D) a 0, b 1, c 0
31. A realistic graph depicting the variation of the reciprocal of input resistance in an input characteristics measurement in a
common emitter transistor configuration is :
34. A modulated signal Cm t has the form Cm t 30sin 300 t 10 cos 200 t cos 400 t . The carrier frequency f c .
the modulating frequency (message frequency) f , and the modulation index are respectively given by :
1 2
(A) f c 200 Hz; f 50 Hz; (B) f c 150 Hz; f 50 Hz;
2 3
1 1
(C) f c 150 Hz; f 30 Hz; (D) f c 200 Hz; f 30 Hz;
3 2
35. In an unbiased n-p junction electrons diffuse from n-region to p-region because
(A) holes in p-region attract them
(B) electrons travel across the junction due to potential difference
(C) electron concentration in n-region is more as compared to that in p-region
(D) only electrons move from n to p region and not the vice –versa.
37. A 2V battery is connected across AB as shown in the figure. The value of the
current supplied by the battery when in one case battery’s positive terminal is
connected to A and in other case when positive terminal of battery is connected to
B will respectively by :
(A) 0.2 A and 0.1 A (B) 0.4 A and 0.2 A (C) 0.1 A and 0.2 A (D) 0.2 A and 0.4A
38. A red LED emits light at 0.1 watt uniformly around it. The amplitude of the electric field of the light at a distance of 1 m
from the diode is :
(A) 5.48 V/m (B) 7.75 V/m (C) 1.73 V/m (D) 2.45 V/m
39. A signal of 5 kHz frequency is amplitude modulated on a carrier wave of frequency 2 MHz. The frequencies of the
resultant single is/are
(A) 2005 kHz, 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz (B) 2000 kHz and 1995 kHz
(C) 2 MHz only (B) 2005 kHz and 1995 kHz
NCERT Exemplar
40. The output of the given circuit in figure.
41. Three waves A, B and C of frequencies and 60 MHz, respectively are to be transmitted from one place to another.
Which of the following is the most appropriate mode of communication :
(A) A is transmitted via space wave while B and C are transmitted via sky wave
(B) A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave and C via space wave
(C) B and C are transmitted via ground wave while
(D) would be like that of a full rectifier
42. A 1KW signal is transmitted using a communication channel which provides attenuation at the rate 2dB per km. If
P
the communication channel has a total length of 5 km, the power of the signal received is : [gain in dB 10 kg 0 ]
Pt
(A) 900W (B) 100W (C) 990W (D) 1010W
44. A male voice after modulation-transmission sounds like that of a female to the receiver. The problem is due to :
(A) poor selection of modulation index (selected 0 m 1)
(B) poor bandwidth selection of amplifiers
(C) poor selection of carrier frequency
(D) loss of energy in transmission
48. The band gap in germanium is ΔE 0.68 eV . Assuming that the number of hole-electron pairs is proportional to
e k / 2 kT , find the percentage increase in the number of charge carriers in pure germanium as the temperature is
increased form 300 K to 320 K.
49. The concentration of hole-electron pairs in pure silicon at T 300 K is 7 1015 per cubic metre. Antimony is doped
into silicon in a proportion of 1 atom in 107 atoms. The number of silicon atoms per cubic meter is 5 1028 . Assuming
that half of the impurity atoms contribute electrons in the conduction band, the factor by which the number of charge
carriers increases due to doping is × 107.
51. Calculate the potential difference across the diode shown in figure. The drift current for the diode is 20A V.
52. Each of the resistances shown in figure has a value of 20 . Find the equivalent resistance between A and B .
53. When the base current in a transistor is changed from 30 A to 80A , the collector current is changed form
1.0 mA to 3.5 mA. Find the current gain .
54. A load resistor of 2k is connected in the collector branch of an amplifier circuit using a transistor in common-emitter
mode. The current gain 50 . The input resistance of the transistor is 0.50 . If the input current is changed hy
50A , by what amount does the output voltage change V.
55. Find the current through the battery in each of the circuits shown in figure A.
56. Find the currents through the resistances in the circuit shown in figure A.
57. The draft current in a p-n junction is 20.0 A Estimate the number of electrons crossing a cross-section per second in
the depletion region is × 1012.
Electromagnetic Waves
CHOOSE THE CORRECT ALTERNATIVE. ONLY ONE CHOICE IS CORRECT. HOWEVER, QUESTIONS MARKED ‘*’ MAY
HAVE MORE THAN ONE CORRECT OPTION.
1. The energy of the em waves if of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong ?
(A) Ultraviolet (B) rays (C) X-rays (D) Infra-red rays
2. A radiation of energy ‘E’’ falls normally on a perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is
(C = velocity of light).
2E E E 2E
(A) 2
(B) 2
(C) (D)
C C C C
3. Light with an energy flux of 25 10 Wm2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. It the surface area
4
(A) 1.25 106 N (B) 2.50 106 N (C) 1.20 106 N (D) 3.0 106 N
4. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules most efficiently is :
(A) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating.
(B) Infra –red waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
(C) The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water molecules.
(D) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules.
5. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3.0MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with relative
permittivity 4.0 then :
(A) Wavelength is doubled and frequency becomes half
(B) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged
(C) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged
(D) Wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged
6.
The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by E iˆ 40cos kz 6 108 t where E, z and t are in
7. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in
vacuum is equal to :
(A) The speed of light in vacuum (B) Reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
(C) The ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum (D) Unity
8. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an em. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be represented by :
(A) E E0i , B B0 j (B) E E0 kˆ, B B0 i
(C) E E0 ˆj , B B0iˆ (D) ˆ
E E0 ˆj , B B0 k
9. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays is :
(A) Microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays (B) Gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared microwaves
(C) Microwaves, gamma rays, infrared, ultraviolet (D) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamma rays
10. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?
(A) Both electric and magnetic field vectors exist at same time.
(B) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors.
(C) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction
propagation of wave.
(D) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
11.
The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is given by: E 10cos 107 t kx ˆjV / m, where t and x are
(A) Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100 m
(B) Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
(C) Moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
(D) Moving along y direction with frequency 2106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
13. The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity 0 and permeability 0 is given by :
1 0 0
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0 0
0 0 0 0
16. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which one of the following statements is true ?
(A) The radiation emitted is in the infra-red region
(B) The radiation is emitted only during the day
(C) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
(D) The radiation emitted les in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
21. The frequency order for rays (B), X-rays (A), UV rays (C) is :
(A) B AC (B) ABC (C) CB A (D) AC B
24. If 0 and 0 are the electric permittivity and magnetic permeability in a free space, and are the corresponding
quantities in medium, the index and refraction of the medium is :
0 0 0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
0 0 0 0
25. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the smaller wavelength?
(A) X-rays (B) rays (C) UV waves (D) microwaves
26. A signal emitted by an antenna from a certain point can be received at another point of the surface in the form of :
(A) Sky wave (B) ground wave (C) sea wave (D) both (A) and (B)
27. The structure of solids is investigated by using.
(A) Cosmic (B) X- rays (C) rays (D) infra-red radiations
28. The frequency of electromagnetic wave, which best suited to observe a particle of radius 3 104 cm is of the order of
(A) 1015 (B) 1014 (C) 1013 (D) 1012
29. Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest wavelength ?
(A) X –rays (B) rays (C) Microwaves (D) Radiowaves
30. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy:
(a) Blue light (b) Yellow light (c) X-ray (d) Radiowave
The correct choice is :
(A) d, b, a, c (B) a, b, d, c (C) c, a, b, d (D) b, a, d, c
31. Microwave oven acts on the principal of
(A) giving rotational energy to water molecules
(B) giving translational energy to water molecules
(C) giving vibrational energy to water molecules
(D) Transferring electrons from lower to higher energy levels in water molecule
32. Consider an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum. Choose the correct statement.
1
(A) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in y direction the electric field is E E yz x, t zˆ and the
2
1
magnetic field is B Bz x, t yˆ
2
1
(B) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in y direction the electric fields is E E yz x, t yˆ and the
2
1
magnetic field is B Bz x, t zˆ
2
1
(C) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in x direction the electric field is E E yz y , z, t yˆ zˆ and
2
1
the magnetic field is B B yz y , z , t yˆ zˆ
2
1
(D) For an electromagnetic wave propagating in x direction the electric field is E E yz x, t yˆ zˆ and the
2
1
magnetic field is B B yz x, t yˆ zˆ
2
33. An electromagnetic wave travelling in the x-direction has frequency of 2 1014 Hz and electric field amplitude of
27V m1 . From the options given below, which one describes the magnetic field for this wave?
(A) B ( x, t ) (3 10 8T ) j sin[2 (1.5 10 8 x 2 1014 t )]
(B) B ( x, t ) (9 10 8T ) k sin[2 (1.5 10 6 x 2 1014 t )]
(C) B ( x, t ) (9 108T )i sin[2 (1.5 10 8 x 2 1014 t )]
(D) None of these
34. For plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the z direction, which one of the following combination gives the correct
possible direction for E and B field respectively?
tissue’s density and specific heat, use the values for water) 1.2 10 n . Find n.
38. A leaky capacitor with circular plates of radius R 12 cm has a capacitance of 5 F and an effective resistance of
4 105 . At t 0, the potential difference across the plates is zero but is increasing at the constant rate of 2000 V/s.
plate absorbs 60% and reflects 40% of the incident radiation, the momentum transferred to it in 5 min is 8.71 10 n kg
m/s. Find n
40. At a distance of 6 m from a monochromatic (single wavelength) point source, the amplitude of the electric field is 10
V/m. The amplitude of the magnetic field is nearly 108 T . Find .
41. The distance from a 100 W isotropic power source at which electric field of electromagnetic wave will be
Em 15 V/m is approximately x cm. Find x.
42. Energy from the sun falls on the Earth at a rate of 1353 W/m2 which is known as the solar constant. The rms value of
V
. Find Erms .
the electric field of sunlight is Erms
m
43. A plane wave of intensity I = 0.70 W/cm2 illuminates a sphere with ideal mirror surface of radius 5 cm. The force
experienced by the sphere is P 102 N . Find P
44. An isotropic point source emits light of wavelength 589 nm. The power of the source is 10W. The mean density of the
flow of photons at a distance 2m from the source is 6 10 P cm 2 s 1 . Find P
45. The energy of visible light corresponding to its mean wavelength is about xeV. The value of x is:
46. The electric field on an e.m. wave is given by
E 2.,5 cos(2 10 6 t 10 2 x )Vm 1
where t and x are in second and metre respectively. The wavelength of wave is found to be 100x. The value of x is:
47. An electromagnetic wave is represented as
E 38.8 sin (1.2 107 z 3.6 1015 t ) Vm 1
The average intensity of the beam in watt/m2 is:
48. A radio can tune to a station broadcasting at 7.5 MHz. The wavelength of the wave is 10 x metre. The value of x
49. The electric field amplitude of e.m. waves is 120 N/C. The peak value of magnetic field is n 107 tesla. The value of
n is :