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COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION 1
NAME: _______________________________________________________________________________

FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING

1. This theorist believes that adaptation and manipulation of stressors are essential for change.
A. Betty Newman
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Martha Rogers
D. Sister Calista Roy

2. Her theory can be defined as the development of science of humankind. She applied in her
theory the concept of energy fields, openness, pattern and organization.
A. Martha Rogers
B. Dorothea Orem
C. Virginia Henderson
D. Jean Watson

3. Smith conceptualizes this health model as a condition of actualization or realization of

person’s potential. It claims that the highest aspiration of people is fulfillment and complete
developmental actualization. Which of the following models refer to this?
A. Clinical model
B. Eudemonistic model
C. Adaptive model
D. Role performance model

4. Who among the following is considered as the first nursing theorist?

A. Phoebe
B. Clara Barton
C. Florence Nightingale
D. Sister Calista Roy

5. The most commonly used model that assists in the understanding of the patient’s place on
the wellness/illness continuum is:
A. Abraham Maslow
B. Dorothea Dix
C. Clara Barton

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 D. Theodor Fliedner

6. All of the following statements related to the early nursing practice are true except;
A. Religion has significantly played a role in the development of nursing
B. The role of caring and nurturing family members has traditionally been delegated to the
males in the family
C. From the beginning of time, women have always cared for infants and children in the
home
D. The traditional nursing role entailed physical maintenance and comfort, nurturing,
comforting and supporting

7. Which among the following statements is not true about the prominent nursing leaders in the
history of the early nursing?
A. Mary Breckinridge was the founder of the Planned Parenthood in America
B. Lilian Wald was the founder of public health nursing
C. Clara Barton was a schoolteacher turned nurse, who later established the America Red
Cros
D. Linda Richards was the first trained nurse and was known for introducing nurse’s note
and doctor’s order in the patient’s chart

Situation: Admission, transfer and discharge are common events in any health care settings
therefore the nurse must be knowledgeable in the process of admission, transfer and discharge.

8. A 50-year old male client who undergone an extensive surgery due to the trauma he
sustained from a vehicular accident is being transferred to the surgical unit from the post
anesthesia care unit. Which among the following is the most vital principle that the assigned
nurse to him should remember when admitting, transferring, or discharging a client?
A. The patient is a human being deserving dignity, courtesy, and respect
B. The patient is ill and unable to make decisions or give accurate information
C. The nurse knows best and should tell the patient what to do
D. Families get in the way and should be encouraged not to get involved in the patient’s
care

9. A 40-year old female client who has been diagnosed with type 1 DM is being prepared for
her dismissal from the hospital. Which among the following pertains to the purpose of discharge
planning?
A. Make certain she takes her medication as prescribed
B. Provide medical treatment
C. Provide ongoing patient education
D. Ensure continuity of care

10. A 85 year old male client has been diagnosed with cerebrovascular accident has been
admitted to the hospital for 6 days. The nurse is aware that discharge planning should be
initiated during which of the following?
A. When his condition has stabilized

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 B. On his admission to the hospital
C. When he begins to ask questions
D. When his family asks for information
11. Which of the following is the appropriate action of the nurse when the client insisted on
leaving the hospital despite his condition and without the doctor’s knowledge?
A. Call the family so they can expect the patient at home
B. Allow the patient to leave because no one can be held against his or her will
C. Call security because there must be a physician’s order before a patient may leave
D. Explain the risk of leaving and request that the patient sign a paper accepting
responsibility for problems that may occur

12. Which among the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse during the client’s
discharge?
A. Tell the patient everything will be all right
B. Encourage the patient not to worry
C. Wish the patient well
D. Introduce the patient to the office staff

Situation: Hygiene is the science of health and its preservation. Hygiene is personal matter
established by individual’s values and practices. The nurse must be knowledgeable in the proper
ways of rendering hygienic care to clients.

13. A nurse is bathing a 10year old client with a cast on the left leg. Which of the following
actions is appropriate for the nurse do when providing eye care?
A. To wash from the outer canthus to inner canthus
B. To cleanse dried exudate with hot water
A. C. To avoid drying circumorbital area after washing
C. To use a different section of washcloth for each eye

14. A nurse is to render perineal care to an 80 year old male client 1 day post TURP. Which
among the following is most appropriate action of the nurse?
A. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the penis, and allow the foreskin to return to former
position
B. Sprinkle powder under the foreskin to facilitate retraction of the foreskin
C. Leave the foreskin slightly damp to allow retraction to its former state
D. Retract the foreskin, cleanse the penis, and return the foreskin with a gentle forward
motion

15. Which among the following clients has the highest risk for complication of the feet?
A. A young man in a career that requires standing
B. A disoriented, elderly man
C. A 60-year-old person with diabetes mellitus
D. A 62-year-old patient with total hip replacement

Situation: Pressure ulcer is any lesions brought by unrelieved pressure leading to the damage of

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the underlying tissue. It is most common among clients who are confined in bed.

16. When the nurse is placing the client on a 30 degrees lateral position, she is preventing the
client to develop pressure ulcer over which of the following areas?
A. Spinous processes
B. Ischial tuberosities
C. Greater tronchanters
D. Occipital prominence

17. Which among the following pertains to stage III pressure ulcers?
A. Nonblanchable reddened areas where the skin is intact
B. Full-thickness skin loss extending to but not through the fascia
C. Extensive destruction of skin and muscle with possible sinus tracts
D. Areas of full-thickness skin loss with possible extension to the bone

Situation: Conduction of surgical procedures may vary in every health care institution but
providing quality care and ensuring client’s safety is a mutual aim among every health care
facilities.

18. A nurse is caring for a female client with Penrose drain in the left lower quadrant, who has
been returned to the medical-surgical unit from the post anesthesia care unit. The nurse knows
that the Penrose drain was placed to
A. instill solution for wound irrigation
B. prevent blockage of a passageway
C. drain the wound area by suction
D. drain the wound area by gravity

19. While doing an assessment to the client, the nurse noticed that the client’s abdominal
wound eviscerated, the nurse should;
A. Place her in high Fowler’s position
B. Give her fluids to prevent shock
C. Replace dressings with sterile fluffy pads
D. Apply warm, moist sterile dressings

20. A client was prescribed to wear an antiembolic stocking. The nurse should initially;
A. Measure the legs before applying stockings to assure proper fit
B. Apply the stockings while the client is sitting in a chair
C. Massage the legs when removing the stockings
D. Leave the stockings in place for one week intervals

21. The OR nurse must be aware of the surgical environment and the proper attire in each
area. Which of the following constitute a break in infection control which may cause
contamination in the OR?
A. The spouse of the client enters the unrestricted area in street clothes.
B. The OR nurse wear surgical attire when going to the storage areas.

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 C. The OR nurse is wearing scrub attire in the restricted area.
D. The OR nurse wear surgical attire in the OR room when preparing for the instruments.

Situation: Infection control is one of the most important parts of health care. It is concerned on
preventing nosocomial or health care related infection
22. To be able to protect the client’s first line of defense against infection, the nurse should do
which of the following?
A. Turn the client who is immobilized every 2 hours so the skin does not break down.
B. Collect an immunization history on the client.
C. Apply heat immediately after an injury.
D. Desensitize the client by providing small doses of allergen.

23. A client was admitted to the hospital after sustaining a traumatic abdominal injury. Prior to
undergoing a surgery to remove the spleen, the nurse should instruct the client to avoid which
of the following?
A. Carcinogens such as smoking
B. Animal dander causing allergies
C. Cuts leading to bloodstream infections
D. Irritants causing dermatitis

24. Which of the following actions of the nurse demonstrates surgical asepsis?
A. Wearing clean gloves to change linen.
B. Cleaning the client’s skin with povidone/iodine and alcohol before inserting an
intravenous catheter.
C. Putting on a HEPA mask when entering the room of a client with tuberculosis.
D. Placing a used syringe in a sharps container.

25. Which element of the chain of infection is being broken when the nurse uses sterile
technique in changing soiled surgical dressing?
A. Transmission
B. Infectious agent
C. Host
D. Reservoir

26. Which of the following actions would be helpful in preventing the development of hospital
acquired infection among clients?
A. Wearing a mask when changing the dressing on the client’s central line
B. Rising the suction catheter with normal saline after suctioning the client’s tracheostomy
tube
C. Wearing clean gloves to remove the lunch tray of a client with hepatitis A.
D. Wearing clean gloves to empty a would drain

27. Older clients are at a higher risk of acquiring infection because of which of the following
characteristics?
A. Increased production of saliva

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 B. Increased cough effort
C. Increased cell-mediated immunity
D. Thinning of the skin

SITUATION: Basic nursing skills are essential for they are vital in many nursing procedures.
Such skills are needed in order to promote health, prevent illness, cure a disease and
rehabilitate infirmities.

28. A client with anemia is prescribed to receive iron injection. The nurse is aware that this
medication should be administered in the:
A. Gluteal muscle using Z-Track technique
B. Deltoid muscle using an air lock
C. Subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen
D. Anterolateral thigh using 5/8-inch needle

29. A 28 year old female client is to undergo cerebral angiogram. Prior to the procedure the
nurse should assess the client for:
A. Claustrophobia
B. Excessive weight
C. Allergy to eggs
D. Allergy to iodine or shellfish

30. The physician ordered for a client to have a wound culture to be obtained during the next
wound irrigation and dressing change. Which of the following is the most appropriate solution
to be use for the wound irrigation prior to the procedure?
A. Povidone-iodine (Betadine)
B. One-half-strength hydrogen peroxide
C. Normal saline
D. Acetic acid

31. To determine the necessity to perform an airway suctioning, the nurse should check the
client’s;
A. Oxygen saturation measurement
B. Respiratory rate
C. Breath sounds
D. Arterial blood gas results

32. A nurse is caring for a diabetic client. She is assisting the client in performing self
monitoring of blood glucose level. The nurse should teach the client to do which of the
following to obtain an adequate capillary sample?
A. Cleanse the hands beforehand using cool water
B. Let the arm hang dependently and milk the digit
C. Puncture the center of the finger pad
D. Puncture the finger as deeply as possible

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Situation: A 45 year old male client has been admitted to the medical surgical unit with a
diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. The nurse assigned to him took the initial vital sign and
obtained a blood pressure of 136/76 mmHg, pulse rate of 96 beats per minute and temperature
of 101°F (38.3°C). During the interview the nurse noted that the client has a history of
hyperlipidemia and alcohol abuse.
33. The client is prescribed to have a nasogastric tube insertion. Prior to the procedure the
nurse explains its purpose to the client. Which among the following is the most appropriate
statement the nurse should make?
A. “It empties the stomach of fluids and gas.”
B. “It prevents spasm of the sphincter of Oddi.”
C. “It prevents air from forming in the small and large intestine.”
D. “It removes bile from the gall bladder.”

34. Which among the following is the most reliable method of checking the placement of the
nasogastric tube?
A. Assessing the patient’s respiration and skin color.
B. Inserting the end of the tube in water and checking for bubbling.
C. Aspirating gastric contents with a syringe and checking ph.
D. Injecting air into the tube with a syringe and listening for rush of air.

35. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial action of the nurse when the client
vomits 200 ml after the nasogastric tube insertion?
A. Change the suction applied to the nasogastric tube from intermittent to continuous.
B. Advance the nasogastric tube 2”(5cm).
C. Replace a nasogastric contents with a large one.
D. Irrigate the tube with saline solution.

36. Which among the following methods would be most helpful to the nurse when measuring
the length of the nasogastric tube to be inserted to the client?
A. Center of forehead to top of nose to end of sternum
B. Tip of nose to tip of earlobe to end of sternum
C. Lips to tip of ear to just below the umbilicus
D. Tip of ear to midway between end of sternum and umbilicus

37. How should the nurse check the proper placement of the nasogatric tube after insertion?
A. The patient no longer complains of pain or nausea
B. 30 ml of normal saline can be injected with ease
C. Bubbles occur when the tube is submerged into water
D. Gastric contents are aspirated with cone tipped syringe

38. Another client is receiving an enteral feeding through the open system container. A
knowledgeable nurse knows that the difference between an open and closed system enteral
feeding is that;
A. An open system uses an open top container uses a syringe for administration

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 B. An open system uses an open top container or a syringe for administration and a closed
system consists of prefilled container that is spiked with enteral access device.
C. Closed system uses prefilled comtainer that can hang for 24 hours if sterile technique is
used and open system should have no more than 24 hours of formula feedings poured
at one time
D. Open system uses prefilled container and closed system uses open top container
39. During the report, the nurse indicates that the client’s NG tube quit draining over the last
hour. Prior to that, it was draining 100 ml of fluid q 2 hr. which plan would best assist this
client?
A. Anchor a new NG tube
B. Reposition the tube to promote drainage
C. Order a chest X-ray to determine the placement
D. Force 50 ml of normal saline down the tube

40. Which of the following actions of the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching about
the methods used to safely ensure proper NGT placement?
A. When confirming tube placement, place the tube’s end in a container of water
B. Use tongue blade and penlight to examine mouth and throat for signs of a coiled section
of tubing
C. Stop advancing tube when tape mark reaches the client’s nostril.
D. Inject 10 cc of air into tube. At the same time, auscultated for air sounds with
stethoscope placed over the epigastric region.

41. The nurse is to remove the client’s nasogastric tube. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of actions the nurse should follow?
1. Assist client into semi-Fowler’s position
2. Ask the client to hold her breath
3. Assess bowel function by auscultation for peristalsis
4. Flush tube with 10 ml of normal saline
5. Withdraw the tube gently and steadily
6. Monitor client for nausea and vomiting
A. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2, 6
B. 4, 2, 1, 6, 3, 5
C. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5, 6
D. 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5

Situation: A tracheostomy is a surgically created opening in the neck leading directly to the
trachea (the breathing tube). It is maintained open with a hollow tube called a tracheostomy
tube. This is indicated for clients who need long term airway support.

42. The nurse is caring for a 45 year old male client diagnosed with throat cancer. He was
tracheostomized two days ago and the nurse needs to clean his tracheostomy tube. Which
among the following parts of the tracheostomy tube can the nurse remove for cleaning?
A. Outer cannula
B. Inner cannula

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 C. Single-lumen tube
D. Double-lumen tube

43. As the nurse of a client with tracheostomy tube, which among the following safety
precaution should you make?
A. Keep a crash cart in the room
B. Be prepared to put him on a ventilator
C. Keep curved hemostat at the bedside
D. Be prepared to remove the tube

44. What is the purpose of keeping an obturator on the bedside of a client with tracheostomy
tube?
A. To facilitate insertion of the outer cannula
B. To secure the ties of the tube
C. To be kept by the client
D. To be used to make an opening for the tube

45. To remove crusty secretion on the incision site and tube flange of the client’s tracheostomy
tube, the nurse should soak the sterile applicator in what solution?
A. Ethyl alcohol
B. Isopropyl alcohol
C. Hydrogen peroxide (Full strength)
D. Hydrogen peroxide ( half-strength solution mixed with sterile normal saline)

46. A nurse in the medical-surgical unit noticed that the adult clients who need long term
airway support have a tracheostomy tube with cuffs. The nurse is aware that the main purpose
of a tracheostomy tube with inflatable cuff is;
A. Anchoring the tube in place
B. Distributing a low even pressure over the trachea
C. A guide for easy removal of the tracheostomy tube
D. Producing an airtight seal to prevent aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions and air
leakage

47. The staff nurse is observing the newly hired nurse while performing tracheostomy care to a
client and in replacing the tracheostomy tube holder. The staff nurse is assured that the tube
holder is not too tight when;
A. The client nods that he or she feels comfortable
B. The tracheostomy does not move more than ½ inch when the client is coughing
C. Two fingers can be slid comfortably under the holder
D. Four fingers can be slid comfortably under the holder

48. The newly hired nurse is to administer tube feeding to a client. The client’s safety is
compromised when the nurse;
A. Place the client in supine position
B. Aspirate and return residual stomach contents

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 C. Determine placement of tube
D. Check bowel sounds

SITUATION: Oxygen is the most essential and important physiologic requirement of the human
body. Absence of this vital element for over 6 minutes leads to irreversible brain damage .
Measures that promotes oxygenation is integral in successfully managing client’s response to
illnesses.

49. The nurse is aware that oxygen therapy is prescribed to;

A. Increase oxygen in the tissues and cells
B. Increase oxygen carrying capacity of the blood
C. Increase respiratory rate
D. Increase oxygen pressure in the alveolar sac

50. Which of the following is the adverse effect of endotracheal tube suctioning?
A. Hypertension
B. Cardiac Irregularities
C. A reddish coloration in the client’s face
D. Oxygen saturation level of 95%

51. Which among the following is determined by the gauge size of the endotracheal tubes?
A. The external circumference of the tube
B. The internal diameter of the tube
C. The length of the tube
D. The tube’s volumetric capacity

52. The nurse is performing suctioning to a client. When is the appropriate time for the nurse to
apply intermittent suction?
A. Insertion of the suction catheter
B. Withdrawing of the suction catheter
C. both insertion and withdrawing of the suction catheter
D. When the suction catheter tip reaches the bifurcation of the trachea

53. Which of the following is the function of the cuff in the tracheostomy tube?
A. Secure the placement of the tube
B. Separate trachea from the esophagus
C. Separate the larynx from the nasopharynx
D. Separate the upper and lower airway

SITUATION: An emergency is a situation that poses an immediate risk to health, life, property
or environment. Most emergencies require urgent intervention to prevent a worsening of the
situation, although in some situations, mitigation may not be possible and agencies may only be
able to offer palliative care for the aftermath.

54. In which type of fire does a type C fire extinguisher is used?

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 A. Paper
B. Cloth
C. Grease
D. Electrical

55. A newly assigned nurse in the pediatric unit is caring for a 3 year old child who sustained an
injury from falling. Which among the following will most likely put children to a higher risk for
specific types of injuries?
A. Sex of the child
B. Overall health
C. Educational level
D. Developmental level

56. Poisoning with which of the following substances can cause vomiting?
A. Lye
B. Petroleum products
C. Household cleaners
D. Salicylates, such as aspirin

57. An 18 year old male client was brought to the hospital due to an accidental poisoning.
Which among the following is the most appropriate for the nurse to do initially?
A. Induce vomiting
B. Assess the patient
C. Place the patient in an upright position
D. Notify the poison control center

SITUATION : Mastery of Intravenous therapy and all aspects that address the response of the
client to complication related to it will help the new nurse in providing quality care.
58. A client has an order of 10% Dextrose in water (D10W) 1000ml to run for 8 hours. When
the nurse returns after 1 hour of initiation of the intravenous fluid therapy, he noticed that the
solution is already consumed. The nurse is aware that the client may develop;
A. Speed shock
B. Renal failure
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pulmonary edema

59. Which of the following is the most appropriate action of the nurse when the client’s IV of
Plain LR is not infusing well?
A. Pinch the rubber part to flush out clogged blood
B. Coil tube and squeeze hard
C. Lower IV to check for return flow
D. Restart the IV

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60. A client is prescribed to have a venoclysis of 5% dextrose in water 1000ml to be consumed
in 24 hours as a vehicle for intravenous medication. How many drops per minute should the
nurse regulate the solution?
A. 20 drops per minute
B. 5 drops per minute
C. 10 drops per minute
D. 15 drops per minute

61. A nurse who is caring for an infant client with intravenous fluid replacement knows that
infants are more at risk for;
A. Hypotension
B. Fluid overload
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Pulmonary emboli

62. One of the responsibilities of the nurse caring for a client receiving a TPN is to administer
the solution at the prescribed rate because giving TPN too rapidly may lead to;
A. Constipation
B. Air embolism
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Dumping syndrome

Situation: End of life care does not only pertain to the care of clients during their last days or
hours, it also includes the care of clients who are diagnosed with terminal illness that is
progressive and incurable.

63. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with terminal cancer and has a feeding tube. The
client and his family are discussing about the removal of the feeding tube. Which of the
following is a correct statement about the difference between active and passive euthanasia?
A. Passive euthanasia involves a deliberate action that results in the death of the client.
B. Active euthanasia is a client right guaranteed.
C. Passive euthanasia is governed by the principles of informed consent and the client’s
right to refuse treatment.
D. Active euthanasia involves a lack of action that results in the death of the client

64. Which of the following statements made by a dying client shows that he is coping with the
end of life process?
A. “I am going to stay positive and look to the future.”
B. “I do not want to talk about my death with my family.”
C. “I am going to fight until the doctors find a cure.”
D. “I let myself cry often. When will this change?”

65. Which of the following is the most therapeutic action of the nurse when a client started to
cry while talking about her husband who passed away 2 years ago?
A. Change the subject to something less difficult for Mrs. Arnaiz

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 B. Remain silent and hold Mrs. Arnaiz’s hand
C. Leave the room to provide privacy
D. Pretend not to notice the tears and continue the conversation

66. Arrange the following according to order: NGT insertion procedure

1. Measure to determine the length of insertion
2. Insert tube by asking the patient to swallow
3. Position the patient to High Fowler’s and wash hands
4. Secure NGT by using tape
5. Inspect the nostril patency
a. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
b. 3, 5, 1, 2, 4
c. 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
d. 3, 1, 4, 2, 5

67. Upon entering a child’s room, the nurse notes that the child’s chest tube becomes
disconnected from the Pleurevac. What should the nurse do first?
a. Clamp the chest tube closer to the drainage system
b. Apply pressure directly over the incision site
c. Clamp the chest tube near the incision site
d. Reconnect the chest tube to the Pleurevac

68. A client should be able to describe the signs of pacemaker malfunction. Which behavior by
the client indicates that this goal has been met?
a. State the estimated life of the battery, and understands the need for prophylactic
replacement
b. Identifies the need to monitor the rate daily
c. Identifies the significance of drainage or discoloration around the battery insertion site
d. Identifies the need to report rate changes and symptoms such as dizziness and
hiccoughs

69. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take when the high pressure alarm
repeatedly sounded on a client’s ventilator?
a. Check all connection sites on the ventilator
b. Administer cough suppressants as ordered PRN
c. Assess the need to suction excess sputum
d. Administer morphine ordered for “fighting” the ventilator

70. What nursing intervention should be implemented before the deflation of tracheostomy
cuff?
a. Take the pulse oximetry reading
b. Have the obturator available
c. Encourage deep breathing and coughing
d. Suction the trachea and mouth

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71. A patient with Chronic Renal Failure is being maintained on Peritoneal Dialysis. Which of
the following is NOT an indication that the patient is developing possible Peritonitis?
a. Blood-tinged drainage after two exchanges
b. Rigid abdomen with abdominal pain
c. Decreased rate of fluid return
d. Nausea and vomiting

72. You are caring for a patient with Colostomy. In preparing a teaching plan for this patient
which of the following would be an incorrect statement?
a. Irrigation is necessary since the fecal contents are liquid
b. That the stoma should be dark pink to red in appearance
c. That the bag should be checked when starting new medication to be sure that it is
completely dissolved
d. That the bag/appliance should be changed q 2-3 days

73. You are caring for a patient receiving hyperalimentation. The flow rate ordered is 60cc/hr.
After two hours the patient complains of feeling extremely nauseous, and of having a bad
headache. Which of the following would be the most appropriate intervention by the nurse?
a. Stop the infusion immediately
b. Increase the flow rate as the patient is likely hypoglycemic
c. Decrease the flow rate and observe the patient
d. Check the patient's glucose level and urinary output

74. Which of the following is an abnormal finding when observing water-sealed chest drainage
for proper functioning?
a. Bubbling initially with coughing and deep inspiration
b. Continuous bubbling where the water seal is maintained
c. Water level fluctuations with breathing
d. A collection chamber that is less than 1/2 full

75. A patient is receiving Incentive Spirometry post-operatively. Which of the following would
demonstrate misunderstanding on the part of the nurse regarding this treatment modality?
a. The patient should be medicated for pain, PRN prior to beginning the treatment
b. The head of the bed should be elevated to at least 45 degrees
c. The therapy should begin on the second or third post-op day
d. The patient should be taught to hold their breath following inspiration, and then to
exhale slowly

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING

SITUATION: One of the major elements of PHC is the Use of Appropriate Technology, which
determines by different criteria.

1. The following would characterize primary health care, except:

A. Focus of health care on the well persons

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 B. Reliance of the community on health professionals
C. Acceptance of indigenous practice
D. Decision making is from bottom going up

2. Which of the following is not an element of primary health care?

A. Availability of essential drugs in the community
B. Treatment of non-communicable disease
C. Responsible parenthood
D. Healthy public policy

3. A client is experiencing stomachache. Nurse Mark suggests to her mother to obtain which
herbal medicine in their backyard?
A. Ginger solution C. Bayabas solution
B. Tsaang-gubat solution D. None of these

SITUATION: There are cornerstones or pillars in Primary Health care to achieve its mission.

4. Linkages is an important action wherein the community leaders relate with other agencies
like the following EXCEPT:
A. Schools C. World Health Organization
B. Red Cross D. Rotary Club

SITUATION: Nurses play a vital role for meeting the goal of primary health care which calls
for active continuing partnership among the communities, private and government agencies in
health development. She must be aware of her healthcare team member as well as the
referral system.

5. Intersectoral linkages refers to:

A. Coordination among government and nongovernmental agencies in providing health
services to the people
B. Effective referral system among the different units of the DOH
C. Discouraging outside help to encourage self-reliance among the community
members
D. Linking the people to the services provided by the government

6. It is defined by WHO as essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and
families in the community by means acceptable to them:
A. PHC C. UNICEF
B. Primary health serviceD. ANSAP

7. If the primary level of care is not capable of solving the problem, where would you refer for
secondary level of care?
A. Rehabilitation center
B. Barangay captain’s house
C. Doctor’s clinic in the municipality
D. District hospital

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8. The RHU team consists of the following except:
A. Community workers
B. Public health nurse
C. Health auxillary volunteers
D. Respiratory Therapist

9. Tertiary care by the home health nurse is directed toward children with:
A. Problems in mobility
B. Minor problems
C. Short-term needs
D. Clinically apparent disease

10. Tertiary prevention is being provided to Mr. Armando Solis by Nurse Betty. An example of
tertiary prevention is:
A. Poison control
B. Self-examination for breast cancer
C. Identifying complication of diabetes
D. Marriage counselling

11. Nicolasa is scheduled for Pap Smear. She has a strong family history of cervical cancer.
This is an example of:
A. Secondary preventionC. Tertiary prevention
B. Primary prevention D. Health screening

12. The medical specialist at PGH prescribes therapy sessions to improve the muscle tone of
the weak arm and leg of Aling Marta when she gets discharged. This level of prevention is:
A. Primary C. Tertiary
B. Secondary D. All of the choices

SITUATION: The Department of Health, as mandated by Executive Order 102 has now its
new role as the national authority on health and providing technical and other resource
assistance to concerned groups.

13. Which of the following is the mission of the DOH?

A. Promote healthy lifestyle
B. Ensure accessibility and quality of health care
C. Reduce morbidity and mortality
D. Improve general health status of the people

14. Which of the following statements describes the DOH vision?

A. Leader and Models in health
B. Improve quality of life
C. Quality of healthy care
D. Health for all Filipino

15. The vision of the DOH is:

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 A. Health for all Filipinos by 2012
B. Leader, staunch, advocate and model in promoting health for all in the Philippines
C. Guarantee equitable and quality health for all Filipinos
D. Better health outcomes

16. The overriding goal of the DOH is:

A. Health care delivery system upgrading
B. Health sector reform agenda (HSRA)
C. FOURmula ONE for health
D. National Health Insurance Program (NHIP)

17. Health Sector reform has been formulated because of the following EXCEPT:
A. Persistence of large variations in health status across population groups and
geographic areas
B. Rising burden from chronic and degenerative diseases
C. High burden from infectious disease
D. Burden from disease is heaviest among middle class families

18. The DOH adopted which of the following as the framework for the implementation of
health sector reform?
A. FOURmula ONE for Health
B. National Health Insurance Program (NHIP)
C. HighFIVE formula
D. Healthcare system upgrading plan

19. The following are goals of FOURmula ONE for health EXCEPT:
A. Better health outcomes
B. More responsive health system
C. Equitable health care financing
D. Better health facilities

20. Health services were devolved to the Local Government Units (LGUs) for the following
reasons, except:
A. To transform LGU’s into self reliant communities
B. To involve people in the development and progress of their communities
C. Empower local health officials
D. To provide people better access to decision making

SITUATION: In the Philippines, the health of people in the workplace is another important
focus for community health nursing practice.

21. A basic qualification a Public Health Nurse must have EXCEPT:

A. Graduate of Bachelor of Science in Nursing (BSN)
B. A Registered Nurse
C. Has Master’s Degree in Public Health
D. None of the Above

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22. It is the specialty practice that provides for and delivers health care services to workers
and worker populations
A. Public Health Nursing
B. Occupational Health Nursing
C. Rehabilitative Care Nursing
D. Company Nurse

23. Functions of Public Health Nurse as an Occupational Health Nurse include the following
except:
A. Informing the affected workers regarding the nature of hazards
B. Ensure strict compliance in the use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
C. Makes periodical testing for physical examination of workers
D. Encourage workers to demand on their needs to the employer

SITUATION: Changes in technology, the nation’s economy and the increasing number of
population have brought about changes in the health care system

24. Which of the following health care agencies is usually family centered, relatively recent in
popularity and oftentimes focuses on maintenance of comfort and satisfactory lifestyle of
clients in the terminal phase of illness?
A. Hospice C. Community Health Center
B. NGO D. Support group

25. What is the program launched by Former President Arroyo and DOH with a primary goal
of ensuring that affordable, high quality, safe and effective drugs and medicines are always
available especially to the poor:
A. GMA 50 C. Free drug for the poor
B. Botika sa Paso D. Drug Consignment System

SITUATION: Nurse Jinkee is assigned as the Community Health Nurse in Barangay Masigasig.
She follows-up referred clients in their respective homes.

26. There is a sudden increase in the occurrence of malaria in this area. As a preventive
measure to your pregnant clients, you will:
A. Instruct the patient to wear long sleeve shorts and pants all the time and apply
mosquito repellants when going out of the house to protect themselves from mosquitoes
B. Tell the pregnant women to transfer to another place of residence temporarily until
there are no more cases of malaria in the locality
C. Give them each 2 chloroquine tablets to be taken every week as prophylaxis
D. Perform fumigation to destroy all mosquitoes

27. One important aspect of prenatal care is micronutrient supplementation to prevent anemia
and deficiencies. A pregnant woman should receive Vitamin A at what dose and schedule?
A. 600 mg daily
B. 10,000 IU two times a week starting 4th month
C. 5,000 IU once a week starting on the second month
D. 100,000 IU once on the fifth month

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28. Klausa Pascual complained that she has foul smelling mucoid vaginal discharge. On
assessment, you observed no other unusual finding. A home remedy that you can advise her
is:
A. Wash perineal area with guava leaves decoction at least twice a day
B. Mix hydrogen 2 tbsp betadine solution with one “tabo” water and use it for flushing after
every voiding
C. Apply gentian violet on the perineal area after bathing
D. Wash perineal area frequently using one “tabo” of warm water mixed with tablespoon
Del Monte vinegar

29. Marie, on her 36th week of pregnancy is concerned that she has received only 2 doses
of TT immunization. Since she plans to deliver at home, she is worried that because of the
status of her TT immunization, her baby might be at risk for tetanus. You correctly inform her
that:
A. Two injections of TT is enough to provide her baby with protection from tetanus
neonatorum
B. She has to deliver in the hospital where sterility is maintained to ensure the safety of her
baby
C. She can still have immunization for TT
D. The baby will be protected from tetanus but she will not be protected due to inadequate
injections

30. All of the following should be observed in home deliveries, EXCEPT:

A. Clean hands C. Clean sheets
B. Clean record D. Clean surface

31. In home deliveries of premature babies or those who need special care like babies with
injuries and congenital anomalies, who have the responsibility of bringing the baby to the
hospital?
A. Neighbor C. Mother
B. Birth attendant D. Mother and birth attendant

SITUATION: Essential Health Service Package is package of services that every woman has to
receive before and after pregnancy and or delivery of a baby.

32. Essential Health Care Package for the Newborns, Infants and Children does not include:
A. Newborn resuscitation
B. Micronutrient supplementation
C. Birth registration
D. Foster care and rehabilitation

33. The following are intervention that must be done when an unconscious pregnant woman
is rushed to your facility except:
A. Keep her back arms at the side
B. Monitor Blood pressure and pulse
C. Give IVF to correct or prevent shock
D. Give Oral Rehydration Solution

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SITUATION: The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) was launched in 1976 in
cooperation with the World Health Organization to reduce the morbidity and mortality among
infants and children.

34. When handling, transporting and storing vaccines, special care must be given to provide
quality potent vaccines among the targets. measles vaccine must be stored in:
A. Freezer (-15o C to -25o C)
B. Freezer (-10o C to -20o C)
C. Body of the Ref (+2o C to +8o C)
D. Body of the Ref (+5o C to +10o C)

35. Aside from proper storage, PHN must practice which of the following to assure that all
vaccines are utilized before its expiry date?
A. First expiry last out (FELO)
B. First expiry first out (FEFO)
C. Last expiry first out (LEFO)
D. Last expiry first use (LEFU)

36. Which of the following conditions is NOT true about contraindications to immunization?
A. Do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS
B. Do not give BCG if the child has known hepatitis
C. Do not give DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has had convulsions within 3 days of DPT
D. Do not give DPT to a child who has recurrent convulsion or active neurologic disease

37. The DOH recently launched “Iligtas sa Tigdas and Pinas” immunization campaign against
measles-rubella with coverage children age:
A. 9 months – below 8 years old
B. 9 months – below 5 years old
C. 9 months – below 3 years old
D. 9 months – below 2 years old

38. “Iligtas sa Tigdas and Pinas” differs from the previous immunization campaign for it give a
Measles Free certification in a city/province provided that it met the following criteria except:
A. It should be measles free 3 months after the immunization campaign
B. All of the Barangays met rapid coverage assessment with no missed child and 95%
house to house accuracy
C. All of the Barangays should consume all the supplied vaccines to them.
D. Measles surveillance indicators met the national standard in implementing immunization
campaign

39. When giving measles vaccine it is ideally to:

A. Clean the skin with cotton balls moistened with water and let the skin dry
B. Clean the skin with cotton balls moistened with alcohol and let the skin dry
C. Clean the skin with cotton balls moistened with acetone and let the skin dry
D. Clean the skin with cotton balls moistened with betadine and let the skin dry

SITUATION: Child Health programs (Newborn, Infants and Children) are created mainly to
reduce morbidity and mortality rates for children 0-9 years.

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40. The strategy calls for promotion of exclusive breastfeeding for the first 6 months.
Exclusive breast feeding means that:
A. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids, not even water, vitamins and mineral
supplements not permitted
B. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids, not even water. Vitamins and mineral
supplements permitted
C. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids but water can be given; vitamins and
mineral supplements not permitted
D. Giving only breast milk no other liquids, solids but water can be given; vitamins and
mineral supplements permitted

SITUATION: There is global evidence that good nutrition in the early months and years of life
plays very significant role on the health survival of infants and children.

41. After six months of age, all babies require other foods to complement breastmilk.
Complementary food should be;
A. Timely
B. Adequate
C. Safe
D. Properly fed
E. 1,3,4 C. 2,3,4
F. 1,2,3 D. All of these

42. Complementary food should be given consistent with the child’s signal of hunger and that
meal frequency and feeding methods are suitable for the child’s age:
A. Timely C. Properly fed
B. Adequate D. Appropriate

43. Aling Simang asked you why teas and coffees are not ideally to be given to her young
child. You correctly respond:
A. Teas and coffee could stain his growing teeth
B. Teas and coffee reduce the iron that is absorbed from foods
C. Teas and coffee have no caloric value
D. Teas and coffee prevents absorption of vitamins and minerals in the stomach

44. You would emphasize that breastfeeding to infants is beneficial for it:
A. Provides complete food
B. Strengthens the immune system
C. Safely rehydrates sick child
D. Reduces exposure to infection
E. Increase IQ points
F. 1,2,3,4 C. 2,3,4,5
G. 1,2,4,5 D. All of these

SITUATION: Malnutrition is one of the common health problems public health nurses should
watch out for among infants in the Philippine setting; the most common types of malnutrition
include protein energy malnutrition and micronutrient deficiency.

45. According to the Universal Supplementation of Vitamin A, the dose required for children
is:

21
 A. 10,000 IU C. 200, 000 IU
B. 100,000 IU D. 300, 000 IU

SITUATION: Epidemiology

46. The following are 4 components of Field Health Services and Information System (FHSIS):
A. Family treatment record
B. Target Client List
C. Output reforms
D. Community Health plan
E. Reporting Forms
F. 1,2,3,4 C. 2,3,4,5
G. 1,3,4,5 D. 1,2,3,5

47. After the epidemiological investigation produced final conclusions, which of the following
is your initial step in your operational procedure during disease outbreak?
A. Coordinate personnel from Municipal to the National level
B. Collect pertinent laboratory specimen to confirm disease causation
C. Immunize nearby communities with Measles
D. Educate the community in future prevention of similar outbreaks

48. In order to control a disease effectively, which of the following must first be known?
1. The conditions surrounding its occurrence
2. Factors that do not favor its development
3. The condition that do not surround its occurrence
4. Factors that favors its development
A. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 4 D. 2 and 4

SITUATION: Nurse has a participation in the continuous study on disease occurrences.

49. Another known disease in the country is caused by a bite a rabid dog. Rabies according to
occurrence and distribution is classified under:
A. Endemic
B. Pandemic
C. Sporadic
D. Epidemic

SITUATION: In the municipality where you work as a Public Health Nurse, Diarrhea is a
common health problem. For the prevention and control of diarrhea one of your strategies is
to conduct a series of health education sessions for mothers where you will discuss the
following among others.

50. You made a home visit to Mr. Bautista who consulted for an on and off diarrhea.
Meanwhile that bacteriological examination of water has not been done yet, the best advice
you can give the family is:
A. Let the water stand for one hour before pouring into the drinking container.
B. Go on with the usual procedure, anyway the patient can tolerate diarrhea.
C. Aeration of water
D. Boil water for drinking

22
51. Which of the following health measures need to be taught to the people in order to
reduce the incidence of the disease?
A. Washing all fruits and Vegetables that are eaten raw.
B. See to it that meat bought had been inspected by health inspector and is cooked very
well.
C. Practiced personal hygiene
D. All these measures

SITUATION: A PHN plays a very important role in NON COMMUNICABLE DISEASE Prevention
and Control.

52. Breast Cancer is no w one of the leading cause of death among Filipinas. When providing
instruction on Breast self examination (BSE) it is must be taught to observe:
1. Dimpling or inflammation
2. Abnormal contour
3. Orange peel skin
4. Nipple retractions
5. Darker areola
A. All of the above
B. All except 5
C. All except 4
D. All except 3

53. Public Health Nurses have the responsibility of promoting healthy nutrition because
nowadays, nutrition related problems are often the cause of NCD. This include the following
1. Obesity
2. Increase fat intake
3. Increase fiber intake
4. Increased salt intake
A. All of the above
B. All except 1
C. All except 3
D. None of the above

54. The WHO has simplified recommendation strategies in Helping smokers to quit. They
formulated the 4 As which stands for:
A. “Ask, Advice, Assist and Arrange”
B. “Ask, Advice, Apply, Away”
C. “Ask, Allow, Adjust, Away”
D. “Ask, Adjust, Advice, Away”

SITUATION: The Department of Health embarked on the Quality Assurance Program (QAP)
with the goal of making DOH and LGUs active partners in providing quality health services
thus lead to Sentrong Sigla Movement (SSM).

55. Nena, a newly registered nurse wants to know if the health center in Barangay supports
the SSM. Probably it is when she see a logo of SSM which is:
A. Sun with 8 sunrays
B. 3 Stars

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 C. A pink triangle with SSM logo
D. A blue circle with SSM logo

56. Nurse Nena wants to go further and ask what the 4 core public health programs are. The
Public Health Nurse is correct when she said that these are:
A. Safe motherhood and family planning
B. Child care
C. Prevention and control of infectious diseases
D. Environmental health
E. Promotion of healthy lifestyle
A. 1,2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,5
B. 1,3,4,5 D. 2,3,4,5

SITUATION: The following questions are in relation to policies and strategies on the health
programs that are implemented by public health nurses.

57. The strategy adopted by the department of health for the prevention of neonatal tetanus
is/are:
A. Educating the public on the benefits of immunizing women of child bearing age with
tetanus toxoid
B. Training and retraining of “hilots”
C. Utilizing “hilots” in identifying mothers for tetanus toxoid immunization.
D. All of these

58. These are implemented in relation to the national anti-smoking campaign of the
department of health except:
A. Sale of cigarettes is prohibited
B. Notice of hazards of smoking on pack.
C. Non-smoking in enclosed and public places
D. Prohibition of smoking in public transportation

59. Regarding measles control, which of these statements is incorrect?

A. Treating measles patient high dose of vitamin A significantly reduces mortality rate
B. All cases of measles should be reported
C. As a routine, measles vaccine is given to all infants between 9 to 12 months of age
D. There are evident contradictions for giving measles vaccines.

SITUATION: Environmental Health is a branch of public health that deals with the study if
preventing illnesses by managing the environment and changing the people’s behavior to
reduce the exposure to biological and non biological agents of disease and injury.
60. Which of the following program address the nutrition needs of children?
A. Operation Timbang
B. Tubig Kubeta Oresol
C. Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy (ASAP)
D. Growth Monitoring and promotion

61. Food sanitation can be promoted and maintained through:

A. Home visitation
B. Health education
C. Health prevention

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 D. Health illness

62. Upon inspection of the water supply facility, most of the community people use the
communal faucet system. The nurse knows that it is an approved type of water facility
category:
A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4

63. Food sanitation Program emphasizes the four rights Food Safety which includes:
1. Right source
2. Right preparation
3. Right cooking
4. Right storage
5. Right temperature
A. All except 1
B. All except2
C. All except 4
D. All except 5

SITUATION: Reproductive health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well being
and not merely the absence of disease in all matters to the reproductive system and its
functions and processes.

64. The main objectives of Philippine Reproductive Health includes the following:
1. Reduce the maternal mortality rate
2. Reducing the child mortality
3. Halting and reversing the spread og HIV/AIDS
4. Increasing access to Reproductive health information services
5. Reduce paternal mortality to prostate cancer
A. All except 5
B. All except 4
C. All except 3
D. All of the above

SITUATION: The overall goal of Family Planning is to provide universal access to family
planning information and services wherever and whenever these are needed.

65. In the implementation of the national family planning program, the government assumes
the role of:
A. Regulator C. Dictator
B. Facilitator D. Decision-maker

SITUATION: Reproductive Health Bill is now one of the social issue and concern Filipinos are
confronting to. Nurses must know its salient points to make a stand in this very important
issue.
66. The Reproductive Health bill, popularly known as the RH bill, is a Philippine bill aiming to
guarantee universal access to methods and information on birth and maternal care. This is
now known as:

25
 A. House Bill 4244 C. House Bill 1456
B. House Bill 9288 D. House Bill 6788

67. The principal proponent of the RH Bill is:

A. Rep. Manuel Pacquiao
B. Pres. Benigno Aquino
C. Rep. Edcel Lagman
D. Rep. Sonny Belmonte

68. The following are covered by the Reproductive Health Bill:

1. Information and access to natural and modern family planning
2. Maternal, infant and child health and nutrition
3. Promotion of breast feeding
4. Prevention of abortion and management of post-abortion complications
5. Adolescent and youth health
6. Prevention and management of reproductive tract infections, HIV/AIDS and STDs
7. Elimination of violence against women
8. Counseling on sexuality and sexual and reproductive health
9. Treatment of breast and reproductive tract cancers
10. Male involvement and participation in RH;
11. Prevention and treatment of infertility and (12) RH education for the youth.
A. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 C. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,9,10
B. 1,2,3,5,6,7,8,9,10 D. All of these

69. According to the bill, the ideal family size would be having:
A. 2 children C. One child
B. 3 children D. Not stated on the bill

70. Mandatory Age-Appropriate Reproductive Health Education is also mentioned on the bill.
According to it, Reproductive Health Education in an age-appropriate manner shall be taught
by adequately trained teachers starting
A. From Grade 5 up to Fourth Year High School
B. From Grade 6 to Collegiate Level
C. From Grade 3 to Fourth Year High School level
D. From First Year High School to Fourth Year High School

71. You explain to your clients that family planning:

A. Provides benefits not only to the mother but also to the father
B. Contributes to the improvement of the health of children
C. Is a voluntary action of couples to decide number of children they desire
D. All of these

72. The following Family Planning methods work by suppressing ovulation and mainly thickens
the cervical mucus to inhibit sperm penetration except:
A. Low-dose combined oral contraceptives (COCs)
B. Progestin only injectables
C. Intrauterine Device (IUDs)
D. Subdermal implants

26
73. A family planning method that may be advised for women whose lives may be
endangered by another pregnancy is:
A. Vasectomy C. Pills
B. Intrauterine device D. Tubal ligation

74. With the use of diaphragm, after intercourse the diaphragm must be left in place for:
A. 12 to 20 hours C. 8 to 12 hours
B. 1 to 2 hours D. 6 to 8 hours

SITUATION: Community organizing plays an important role in building the capability of people
for future and empowerment.
75. The nurse decides to make an ocular survey in the said barangay. Upon entrance to a
barangay she should:
A. Conduct community assembly
B. Courtesy call to the Barangay Captain
C. Identify the presence of the community
D. Encourage community participation

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