Grade 8 Pti SM 2022-23

VYDEHI SCHOOL OF EXCELLENCE
ACADEMIC YEAR (2022-23)

STUDY MATERIAL
PERIODIC TEST 1
CLASS VIII
ENGLISH
I. NOTEBOOK WORK:
UNIT 1 - SECTION I: FOOTLOOSE IN AGRA
CHAPTER AT A GLANCE:
A travelogue is a piece of writing about travel. This present extract is a prose piece written by Ruskin Bond,
where he describes his visit to the historically famed city of Agra. It is an excerpt from a journal that Bond
maintained in the mid-1960s, when he travelled extensively across north India.
KEYWORDS:
1. freewheels: rides (the cycle rickshaw) freely without worrying about traffic.
2. averted eyes: turning one’s way away to avoid something you don’t want to see.
3. jade: a hard stone that is usually green and is used in jewellery and decorative objects.
4. jasper: a hard, reddish–brown semi-precious stone.
5. lapis-lazuli: a bright blue stone, used in making jewellery.
6. shimmering: shining with a soft light that seems to move slightly.
7. musty: smelling damp and unpleasant because of the lack of fresh air.
8. placid: calm and peaceful, with little movement.
9. antiquity: the ancient past.
10. grove: a small group of trees.
11. wrought: the past tense of work-an old form.
12. itinerant: travelling from place to place.
TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS:
1. The pace of life in Agra is Hectic
2. Match the following
a. Cold and blue - Foothills of Kalsi
b. Generally calm - Flat plains of Uttar Pradesh.
c. muddy banks - Delhi
d. alive with huge turtles- Mathura
3. Give reasons
a. The cycle rickshaw is the best way of getting about in Agra.
Its smooth gliding motion and leisurely rate of progress are in keeping with the pace of life in this old-world
city.
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b. The subject of kite makers and kite-fliers bores the rickshaw boy.
It is an everyday sight to him
c. The writer stands with averted eyes in front of the Taj.
He is awe-struck by the formal gardens, the surrounding walls of red sandstone, the winding river.
d. The gardener ‘s son come to the Taj every day.
His father was the head gardener and to eat fruits
e. Bernier, in his description of Taj, said: ‗Nothing offends the eye.
‘No part can be found that is not skillfully wrought or that it has no peculiar beauty.
4. Answer briefly.
a. What does Bond learn about kite-flying in Agra?
Kite flying is a usual sight in Agra. There are kite-flying competitions every Sunday and heavy bets are
sometimes placed on the outcome.
b. What is it that the gardener ‘s son finds interesting when he sees the Taj every day?
He wonders what magic it possess to attract people from all corners of the earth, to bring them walking
through his father ‘s well-kept garden so that he can have something new and fresh to look at each day.
c. Describe the Taj, based on the text you have just read.
Taj has formal gardens, and surrounded by red sandstone, the winding river. Ver solid and real, perfectly
preserved, with every jade, jasper or lapis lazuli playing its part in the overall design.
5. When you see something every day, even if it is something remarkable, you don‘t feel excited about it.
Can you identify two instances of this fact in the text?
Two instances are:
a) If you see it once, or a hundred times, it is the same. It does not change.
b) You can see kites every day, you had better see the Taj today, sahib.
6. Ruskin Bond was certainly impressed by the magnificent Taj. But he was also struck by some other things
during his trip. What were they? What do you learn about the writer from them?
Ruskin Bond was impressed by the passage of the river and the sharp flavor of the Ashoke fruit. In this
work, Ruskin Bond explores that Agra is not actually about Taj and historical monuments, it is much more
than that, he explores the laid-back Agra of 1960s in the shadow of everlasting ling mesmerizing Taj Mahal.
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UNIT I - SECTION II: ADVENTURES IN ANTARCTICA
CHAPTER AT A GLANCE: This extract is a firsthand account of two young Indians of their journey to
what has been called the ‘end of the earth,’ i. e., Antarctica. The first excerpt tells us about how it came
about that they undertook this incredible journey.
KEYWORDS:
1. buntings: coloured flags or papers used for decoration.

2. hallucinating: seeing or hearing things that are really not there.
3. expedition: a long journey for a special purpose.
4. cocky: (informal) too confident about yourself in a way that annoys other people.
5. ice-breaker: a strong ship designed to break a way through ice.
6. taut: showing that they were tense.
7. mantle: to cloak and envelop something.
8. shrouds: things that cover, surround or hide something.
9. churn: (here) make water move around violently.
10. lurching: making sudden, unsteady movements forwards or sideways.
11. bow: the front part of a ship or boat.
12. stern: the back end of a ship or boat.
13. knots: unit for measuring the speed of boats and aircraft (1 knot = 1.85 km/h).
14. albatross: a very large white bird with long and narrow wings that lives in the Pacific and Southern
Oceans.
15. taken a shine: begin to like (us) very much.
TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS:
1. It was a most unusual December for the two children because
(a) Being in the southern hemisphere, it was hot in December
2. Answer the following questions
a. What was the super surprise that greeted them on Christmas day?
An invitation, for the entire family, to travel to Antarctica as part of an expedition led by the Chilean Navy.
b. Pick out the expressions in the text which tell us that the children could not believe their eyes.
‘Are we hallucinating?’, ‘Are they kidding us?’
c. The narrators refer to Antarctica as the ‘fabled continent’. What are the fables that the children had heard
and read about before they got the invitation?
An unknown, frozen, faraway place (Terra Incognito) with cocky little penguins and gigantic icebergs.
d. Why do you think Antarctica was named Terra Incognita?
Being frozen and faraway, it remained unknown for a long time.
e. Fill in the names of the remaining places
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1. Punta Arenas
4. Wollaston Island
6. Drake Passage
f. The Drake passage is said to be the main reason why Antarctica was not discovered for a long time. What
were the difficulties that seafarers faced?
Impossible to travel through ice, snow, and mists of the region. Waters savage and treacherous. Severe and
relentless storm could leave ships stranded. 4
g. Why is the Antarctica Convergence so called?
Because the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans converge here.
h. Was this the first attempt made by their ship to enter the Drake passage? How can you tell?
No, they refer to ‘our previous brief encounter with the Drake’.
i. What were the effects of the ‘Big Drake Shake’ on the narrators and their parents?
The ship rocked violently making them seasick and not inclined to eat; they had to cling to their berths;
moved around by crawling; had skin burns and strained muscles; father almost fractured his head.
j. When they reached Antarctica, their first emotions were of relief and gratitude. Explain why.
Gratitude because they had successfully crossed the Drake Passage; relief because the violent shaking was
over, and the weather had eased.
3.Adventure has elements of surprise, excitement and danger. In pairs, discuss how the children‘s journey to
Antarctica had all these elements.
(a) Surprise—they didn‘t really expect many of the happenings in the
journey.
(b) Excitement—they were going where few children had been before.
(c) Danger—the Drake Passage experience
UNIT I - SECTION III: THE BROOK
CHAPTER AT A GLANCE: This poem is written by Lord Alfred Tennyson, an English poet of Victorian
period and the poet Laureate from 1850 until his death. In this poem, a running brook narrates its journey
with such a wealth of detail that we can see it, hear it and partake of its experience.
KEYWORDS:
1. haunts: places for spending time.

2. coot and hern: types of water birds.
3. sally: set out from a place to do something.
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4. bicker: argue.
5. thorpes: villages.
6. sharps and trebles: musical terms denoting different types of note and pitch.
7. eddying bays: wide curves along the riverside in which the water moves in circles.
8. fret: wear away or corrode.
9. fallow: cultivable land left for a while to restore itself.
10. foreland: an area of land bothering on another.
11. mallow: A herbaceous plant with hairy stems and pink or purple flowers.
12. lusty: healthy and strong.
13. trout and grayling: types of freshwater fish.
14. shingly: covered with a mass of small, smooth stones.
15. cresses: plants of the mustard family cultivated for their edible seedings and leaves.
TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS:
1. In the first three stanzas of the poem, the brook narrates its story……where it originates, the
forests, hills and open spaces through which it flows before it joins the brimming river.
Complete the following sentences which trace the different stages of the brook’s journey:
a- The brook has its origin in a place where birds called coot and heron often gather.
b-it then flows through hilly regions followed by valley.
c- it finally passes a farm that belongs to a man named Philip before joining the river.
Q2. As the brook winds its way to join the river, it passes many types of terrain. List all the
sights that the brook sees on its bank. For instance, there are fields in cultivation and fields which
are left fallow. Can you name the other places that the brook passes in the course of its journey?
Ans. The brook curves around the stream bank and passes many meadows and plots of
farmland, both in use and left to rest, as it travels through the countryside. It also flows alongside
land that seems to belong to fairies, its landscape dotted with green leafy plants and delicate
blossoms. The brook meanders through the countryside, zig zagging across the landscape. It
points out a flower drifting along with its waters, a few particularly hearty trout, and some
freshwater fish called graylings.
Q3. Study how the different sounds that the brook makes as it flows are conveyed through the
words used
a- Make a list of the words used in stanzas 7-13 to bring out this movement
Ans- murmur, shingly
b-Does the brook move slowly or at a great speed?
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Ans- slowly
c- Is the movement always of the same pace?
Ans- No, the movement of the brook changes according to various turns and obstacles.
d-What is the mood of the brook as it goes on this journey?
Ans- The brook is very happy, as it passes through various hurdles and crosses many fields to
reach its destination.
Q4. Did you notice that the poet uses a variety of words to describe the speech and music of the
brook in stanza 4? What are the words used for this purpose?
Ans- Figure of speech= I – personification, ‘I babble on the pebbles’ – Onomatopoeia
Music-= i-chatter, ii- bubble and iii-babble on the pebbles
Q6. Alliteration is a poetic device used in the poem. It is the repetition of a particular sound in the
first syllable of a series of words or phrases: field and fallow and I slip; I slide are two examples.
Can you find more instances of the use of alliteration in the poem?
Ans:
1. sudden sally
2.twenty thorps
3. Fairy foreland
4.foamy flake
5. golden gravel
6. sandy shallows
Q7. Now look at the following lines from the poem of Edgar Allan Poe, and identify the
alliteration in it.
“Deep into that darkness peering
Long I stood there wondering, fearing,
Doubting, dreaming dreams no mortal
Ever dared to dream before.”
Ans6. a- Deep into that darkness
b-Doubting, dreaming dreams
Q8. A refrain is a line or lines that are repeated in a poem. It usually comes at the end of a
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stanza. What is the refrain in this poem? What is the idea conveyed in the refrain?
Ans. The refrain in the poem The Brook is:
“For men may come and men may go,
But I go on forever.”
The poem is about a swiftly flowing perennial stream. It has been flowing since time
immemorial and would continue to do so till eternity. Though many obstacles stand in its way to
thwart its progress, it never stops. It moves on incessantly overcoming every hurdle until it “joins
the brimming river.”
LONG READING
THE HOUND OF BASKERVILLES
1. Write the Summary of “The Hound of Baskervilles” by Arthur Conan Doyle?
“The Hound of Baskervilles” is a full-length novel and the longest detective created by Sir Arthur Conan
Doyle. The story takes place both in London and the depressing Devon Moors. The novel traces the story of
a young Canadian, Sir Henry Baskervilles, who inherits a large estate after the death of his uncle, Sir Charles
Baskervilles. Dr. Mortimer requests Sherlock Holms and his assistance Dr. Watson to investigate the
mysterious death of his friend Sir Charles. The local people are convinced that Sir Charles’ death was not an
accident. There is a West Country legend about the 200 years old family course – a huge monstrous demon
dog with dripping jaws and glowing eyes roaming the moors seeking vengeance against the Baskervilles.
Holms and Watson along with the other characters in the novel – the Barrymores and their mysterious
relatives, the etymology Stapleton and his beautiful sister, Beryl – are all drawn into an adventure of
superstition and revenge on the barren, gloomy moors.
2. Write the Character Analysis of Sherlock Holmes?
Sherlock Holmes is the ever-observant, world-renowned detective of 221b Baker Street. For all his assumed
genius and intuition, he is virtually omniscient in these stories, and Holmes becomes more accessible in the
context of his constant posturing and pretension. Holmes lets down his guard and admits of a fragile ego.
When challenged at the beginning of the book—Mortimer calls him the second-best crime solver in Europe
and Holmes lets down his guard and asks who could possibly be the first. By and large, however, Holmes' ego
is kept in check by a constant dose of adulation from Watson. Holmes regularly announces some absurd and
unsubstantiated conclusion only to mock Watson by revealing the most obvious of clues. In the end, Holmes
toys with his associates (and particularly Watson) at least as much as he flouts his enemies, equivocating,
misleading, and making fools out of them only to up his own crime-solving cachet.
3. Write the Character Analysis of Dr. Watson?
The good doctor plays the sidekick to Holmes' self-obsessed hero figure. Watson is a lowly apprentice and
live-in friend, who spends most of the book trying to solve a difficult case in his master's stead. Always on
hand to stroke Holmes' ego, Watson is nonetheless intent on proving his own mettle by applying Holmes'
techniques. Watson's never-ending adulation, which is presumably meant to mirror our own understanding of
the legendary detective, comes through most forcefully at the end of the novel, when Holmes arrives at
Devonshire. Holmes announces that he meant for Watson to think he was in London, and a pouty Watson
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reacts: "Then you use me, and yet you do not trust me!" Co-dependent throughout, Holmes and Watson fill
each other's needs. Watson provides Holmes with an ego boost, and Holmes needs Watson's eyes and ears to
inconspicuously gather clues. Watson is awestruck by Holmes' power of observation, and Watson feels more
powerful by association.
CREATIVE WRITING
NOTICE WRITING
Def: Notice is a formal, written, or printed announcement for a group of people. It is written in a very
precise language avoiding any extra details. Basically, notices are a tool for disseminating information
regarding any occasion or issue. They reach a large number of people in less time, that is why they are
precise and brief in nature.
Format of a Notice:
Name of the Organization - It refers to the name of the institution of which the person writing a notice is
a part. It is written on the top of the page; it helps the readers identify who issued the notice.
Title - ‘Notice’- This title says” notice’, It lets the readers know that they are going to read the notice.
Date - The date is written on the left corner of the notice after leaving a tile. As the notices are formal
communication, the date of issuing a notice is very important. The date should be written in a proper
format, which is clear and easily understandable.
Heading - Heading explains what the notice is about in brief. Heading should reflect the content of the
meeting. It is just like a ‘subject’ of an email, which gives a synopsis or purpose of the communication
Body - The body of the notice includes the main content for which the notice was issued. The body should
contain all the necessary information required in the notice like the time of an event, venue of the event, and
a date and it should be written in a passive voice without the use of first-person.
Model
22nd June, 2022 NOTICE
HEADING
Body: *
*
*
Issuing Authority/ Name

Designation
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1. You are Deepak, School captain of Vydehi School of Excellence, Bengaluru. Write a notice to inform to
the students about a debate competition to be held on 25th of June.
Ans:

30th June, 2022 NOTICE
GEAR UP FOR THE DEBATE COMPETITION
A debate competition will be held on 25th of June, 2022 in Delhi Public School – East
Bengaluru. Interested students are requested to submit their names to the undersigned by 10th
July, 2022.
Deepak
School Captain.
POSTER MAKING
Poster Writing is one of the most fun and creative pieces of English Writing. Making a poster allows the
students to answer a question by using their imagination and creativity. A poster is a powerful piece of
writing that speaks to viewers more than words. It comprises of both pictorial representation of the topic as
well as written content on the topic. It is prepared keeping in mind the target audience. Following are the
types of posters:
▪ Invitations like posters for carnivals, fests, exhibitions etc.

▪ Social cause, warning, prevention
▪ Workshops or Seminars
FORMAT:
▪ Issuing Authority: Here you have to write the name of the organising body of the particular event.
▪ Title: This is the point where you can make the deal. Make a catchy title which is basically the gist
of your announcement or issue.
▪ A sketch: After the title, you have to draw a picture depicting your issue.
▪ Date, Time and Venue: Here you have to mention the date and time of the event which has to take
place. Do not forget to mention the venue of the event.
▪ Contact Information: This is an important part of your poster. Remember to add the details of the
concerned authorities as the people reading the poster must have contact numbers of the event
coordinator in case any query arises on the day of the event.
THINGS TO REMEMBER WHILE WRITING A POSTER:

▪ Your poster must not exceed the word limit of 50 words.
▪ The poster should be in a box.
▪ Make the content inside the poster to the point and crisp.
▪ Make sure your answer to a poster must fit in one page only. It should not be continued to the next
page.
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GRAMMAR
VERBS AND TENSES
VERBS
A verb is a "doing" word.
A verb can express:
A physical action (e.g., to swim, to write, to climb).
A mental action (e.g., to think, to guess, to consider).
A state of being (e.g., to be, to exist, to appear).
Verb is the heart of a sentence. Without a verb, a sentence cannot exist.
TRANSITIVE VERBS
A transitive verb is one that acts on something (i.e., it has a direct object). For example:
✔ I saw the dog. (Here, the direct object is the dog.)

✔ Lee ate the pie. (Here, the direct object is the pie.)
INTRANSITIVE VERBS
An intransitive verb is one that does not act on something (i.e., there is no direct object). For example: The
rain fell.
✔ My throat hurts.
✔ The cat sneezed.
SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT:
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Subject-verb agreement just means using the right version of the verb to agree with the subject. It is also
called as ‘Verb Conjugation.’
For example:
A dog is on the table. (agrees – correct statement)
Dogs are on the table. (agrees – correct statement)
The children is going out to play. (disagrees- incorrect statement)

She are eating her food. (disagrees- incorrect statement)
TENSES
The tense of a verb is determined by when the action took place. The three main tenses are as follows:
✔ The Past Tense (e.g., I walked.)

✔ The Present Tense (e.g., I walk.)
✔ The Present Tense (e.g., I will walk.)
✔
The tense of a verb can also tell us things like whether the action is habitual, ongoing, or completed. This is
called the aspect of the verb, which is part of tense.
Primarily, there are three types of tenses:
Past Tense– Include verbs that indicate that the event has occurred in the past.
Present Tense- Include verbs that indicate an ongoing event or an event that is currently occurring in the
present.
Future Tense- Include verbs that indicate an event that is likely to occur in the future.
There are 4 aspects of each type of tense giving us a total of 12 types of tenses in English grammar.
The Full List of Tenses

The table below shows the full list of the tenses:
*Progressive tense is also called as continuous tense.
The 4 Past Tenses Example 1 Example 2

simple past tense I went I laughed
past progressive tense I was going I was laughing
past perfect tense I had gone I had laughed

past perfect progressive tense I had been going I had been laughing
The 4 Present Tenses Example 1 Example 2

simple present tense I go I laugh
present progressive tense I am going I am laughing
present perfect tense I have gone I have laughed
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present perfect progressive I have been going I have been laughing
tense
The 4 Future Tenses Example 1 Example 2

simple future tense I will go I will laugh
future progressive tense I will be going I will be laughing
future perfect tense I will have gone I will have laughed
future perfect progressive I will have been going I will have been laughing
tense
Simple Past: The simple past tense is used to indicate or describe something that happened or existed in the
past.
FORMULA:
For regular verbs, add -ed to the root form of the verb (or just -d if the root form already ends in an e).
Play→ Played
For irregular verbs, things get more complicated. The simple past tense of some irregular verbs looks exactly
like the root form: Put→ Put
For other irregular verbs, including the verb to be, the simple past forms are more erratic (not even or
regular): See→ Saw
Examples:
He worked at the Cheesecake Factory.
I often brought my lunch to school.
Past continuous Tense:

The past continuous tense, also known as the past progressive tense, refers to a continuing action or state
that was happening at some point in the past.
FORMULA:
The past continuous tense is formed by combining the past tense of to be (i.e., was/were) with the verb’s
present participle (-ing word).
Examples:
The audience was applauding until he fell off the stage.
As I spoke, the children were laughing at my cleverness.
Past Perfect Tense:

It is a verb tense used to talk about actions that were completed before some point in the past.
FORMULA:
For the past perfect tense is had + [past participle]. It doesn’t matter if the subject is singular or plural; the
formula doesn’t change.
Example:
After Sofie had finished her work, she went to lunch.
Past perfect continuous Tense:

The past perfect continuous tense (also known as the past perfect progressive tense) shows that an action
that started in the past continued up until another time in the past.
FORMULA:
The past perfect continuous tense is constructed using had been + the verb’s present participle (root + -
ing).
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Example:
I had been working at the company for five years when I got the promotion.
Simple Present Tense:

The simple present is a verb tense with two main uses. We use the simple present tense when an action is
happening right now, or when it happens regularly.
FORMULA:
Depending on the person, the simple present tense is formed by using the root form or by adding -s or -es to
the end.
Examples:
I feel great! Pauline loves pie.
The Sun rises in the east.
Present Continuous Tense:

The present continuous verb tense indicates that an action or condition is happening now, frequently, and
may continue into the future.
FORMULA:
The Present Continuous Formula: to be [am, is, are] + verb [present participle]
Example:
They are eating at Scott’s favorite restaurant today.
Present Perfect Tense:

The present perfect tense refers to an action or state that either occurred at an indefinite time in the past (e.g.,
we have talked before) or began in the past and continued to the present time (e.g., he has grown impatient
over the last hour).
FORMULA:
This tense is formed by have/has + the past participle.
Example:
I have walked on this path before.
Present Perfect Continuous Tense:

The present perfect continuous tense (also known as the present perfect progressive tense) shows that
something started in the past and is continuing at the present time.
FORMULA:
The present perfect continuous is formed using the construction has/have been + the present participle
(root + -ing).
Example:
I have been reading War and Peace for a month now.
Simple Future Tense:

The simple future is a verb tense that’s used to talk about things that haven’t happened yet. Use the simple
future to talk about an action or condition that will begin and end in the future.
FORMULA:
The formula for the simple future is will + [root form of verb].
Example:
I will learn a new language.
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Future Continuous Tense:
The future continuous tense, sometimes also referred to as the future progressive tense, is a verb tense that
indicates that something will occur in the future and continue for an expected length of time. The simple
future tense is a verb tense that is used when an action is expected to occur in the future and be completed.
FORMULA:
It is formed using the construction will + be + the present participle (the root verb + -ing).
Example:
I will be watching Michael and Eric race.
Future Perfect Tense:

The future perfect is a verb tense used for actions that will be completed before some other point in the
future.
FORMULA:
The formula for the future perfect tense is pretty simple: will have + [past participle]. It doesn’t matter if
the subject of your sentence is singular or plural. The formula doesn’t change.
Example:
The parade will have ended by the time Rahul gets out of bed.
Future Perfect Continuous Tense:

The future perfect continuous, also sometimes called the future perfect progressive, is a verb tense that
describes actions that will continue up until a point in the future.
FORMULA:
The future perfect continuous consists of will + have + been + the verb’s present participle (verb root + -
ing).
Example:
When I turn thirty, I will have been playing piano for twenty-one years.
II. WORKSHEET:
UNIT I - CHAPTER 1: FOOTLOOSE IN AGRA
I. Read the extracts and answer the following:
a. He does not even bother to look up. ‘You can see kites every day, sahib.’
i. Name the lesson and writer
ii. Who is the speaker of the above line?
iii. Whom does ‘you’ refer in the above line?
iv. Why doesn’t he even bother to look up?
b. “I like looking at the people who come here. They are always different. In the evening there will be
many people”
i. Name the lesson and the writer
ii. Who is the speaker of the above line?
iii. What kind of people come in the evening?
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iv. Why will there be many in the evening?
a. “Its ancient name was Terra Incognita.”
i. Name the lesson and the writer.
ii. Which is called as Terra Incognita?
iii. According to the context, what is the other name given to Terra Incognita?
b. “Our ship bobbed up and down like a cork in the heaving, raging waters.”
i. Whose ship is mentioned in the above line?
ii. What is the name of the ship?
iii. What is the meaning of heaving?
iv. Mention the particular place with reference to the context.
I. Read the extracts and answer the following:
a. By thirty hills I hurry down,
Or slip between the ridges,
By twenty thorpes, a little town,
And half a hundred bridges.
i. How does the brook flow through the hills?
ii. What are the things which come in its way?
iii. What is the brook’s destination?
b. I slip, I slide, I gloom, I glance,
Among my skimming swallows,
I make the netted sunbeam dance,
Against my sandy shallows.
i. Why does the poet repeatedly use ‘I’ in the above stanza? What poetic purpose does it serve?
ii. What are the various movements that the brook makes?
iii. Give the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
c. And out again I curve and flow,
To join the brimming river,

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For men may come and men may go,
But I go on forever.
i. What is the final destination of the brook?
ii. Explain ‘brimming river’.
iii. What is the message of the poet?
CREATIVE WRITING
NOTICE WRITING
1. You are Sham, the Cultural Secretary of your school. You have been asked to inform students of Classes
VI to VIII about an Inter School Dramatics Competition. Draft a notice in about 80 words to be put up on
the school notice board, with all necessary details.
POSTER MAKING
1. You are a fitness trainer in a health club. Design a poster in not more than 50 words, to emphasize the
importance of exercise in maintaining mental and physical fitness. You are Prem/Priya.
VERBS & TENSES
1. Choose the correct form of the verb:
a. What ... your name?
i. is
ii. are
iii. am
iv. be
b. How old ... you?
i. am
ii. are
iii. is
iv. do
c. Where do you ...?
i. lives
ii. living
iii. live
iv. lived
d. He ... for an international company.
i. work
ii. don't work
iii. is working
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iv. works
e. She ... from London.
i. isn't
ii. doesn't
iii. don't
iv. aren't
f. We ... like chocolate.
i. do
ii. are
iii. don't
iv. aren't
g. ... do you have breakfast?
i. Who
ii. What
iii. What time
iv. Which
h. Have they got a new car? No, they ...
i. have
ii. haven't
iii. has
iv. hasn't
i. Sheila gets up at (6.45) every morning.
i. quarter to seven
ii. quarter past six
iii. quarter past seven
iv. quarter to six
j. I can't ... skiing next week.
i. going
ii. goes
iii. to go
iv. go
k. She doesn't often have ...
i. a breakfast
ii. the breakfast
iii. breakfast
l. Darwin ... a British scientist.
i. was
ii. were
17
iii. wasn't
iv. weren't
m. We ... at the party last Saturday.
i. was
ii. weren't
iii. wasn't
iv. aren't
n. I ... tennis three times last week.
i. plays
ii. played
iii. plays
iv. have played
o. When ... you last go on holiday?
i. did
ii. were
iii. was
iv. do
p. He ... a letter to his mother yesterday.
i. wrote
ii. write
iii. written
iv. writes
q. What are you ... at the moment?
i. do
ii. does
iii. doing
iv. did
r. Look at that man! He ... to fall in that hole.
i. 's
ii. 's going
iii. 're going
iv. Going
s. February is ... month.
i. the two
ii. the third
iii. the second
iv. two
t. Would you like ... apple?
18
i. an
ii. a
iii. the
iv. 0
II. Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the present tense.
1.Janet ______ karate class every Saturday. (attend)
2.The market ______ usually noisy in the morning. (to be)
3.The delivery man ______ the parcel already. (delivery)
4.The athletes ______ for Canada tomorrow. (leave)
5.Aida ______ her room for the past hour. (paint)
6.The breadman ______ to our housing estate every evening. (come)
7.Warren ______ badminton since primary school. (play)
8.The meeting ______ due to lack of quorum. (postpone)
9.You are late. The bus ______ already. (leave)
10.Everyone ______ about Lin Dan's achievement in the Beijing Olympics. (talk)
11.When in season, we ______ durians almost every other day. (eat)
12.Be patient. The circus ______ in a few minutes' time. (start)
13.Jessie is not in. She ______ a seminar in Kansas City. (attend)
14. I ______ the orphan a number of times since I first met him. (help)
15.The eldest brother _______ the family since his father passed away. (support).
III. HOMEWORK:
UNIT 1 - SECTION I: FOOTLOOSE IN AGRA
1. Life in big cities is very busy and rushed. The leisurely pace of smaller towns provides opportunities
for simpler joys. Can you think of some hobbies or interests that you would like to pursue if you had
the time and space for it?
2. We have all undertaken trips to places for sightseeing. When we visit such places, we often have
interesting experiences with people whom we chance to meet there. Share one such experience that
19
you had.
1. Suravi and Rishi received a most wonderful and unusual gift for Christmas. Think of less privileged
children in your neighbourhood. Suggest what you can give them for Christmas that would bring joy
into their lives.
2. The two children remark that after the terrible ordeal of crossing the Drake Shake, they were grateful
to be alive. When we are in danger of losing something, it makes us value it and count it as a
blessing. Can you identify two things in your life that you feel grateful for and which you do not take
for granted?
1. Write the summary of the poem ‘The Brook’.
2. ‘The Brook’ proceeds like a travelogue. Discuss the importance of the various places that
the brook encounters on its journey.
CREATIVE WRITING
NOTICE WRITING
1. Virat of Class VIII A has lost his library book in the playground. He wants to put up a notice on the
School Notice Board. Write his notice in not more than 80 words. Put the notice in a box.
POSTER MAKING
1. Draw a poster on the importance of cleanliness in our life.
GRAMMAR
VERBS & TENSES:
II. Complete the following sentences using an appropriate simple present or simple past tense form.
1. He --------------------- he is above playing with us. (think)
2. She ----------------------- two pounds an hour. (earn)
3. The plants --------------------- in the absence of water. (die)
4. He --------------------- English with an Irish accent. (speak)
5. The cold weather ---------------------- my health. (affect)
6. They ----------------------; they always agree. (not quarrel)
20
7. Fatty foods ---------------------- with me. (not agree)
8. The teacher ------------------------ them an hour for their painting. (allow)
9. Smoking -------------------- (not allow)
10. The twins -------------------- alike. (look)
11. You alone --------------------- my secrets. (know)
12. He ----------------------- his fortune amongst his three children. (divide)
MATHEMATICS
CH-1: RATIONAL NUMBERS
I CHAPTER AT A GLANCE:
RATIONAL NUMBERS
3
The word rational arises from the term ratio. We know that 3:2 can also be written as 2. Here 3 and 2 are
natural numbers.
𝒑
A rational number is defined as a number that can be expressed in the form 𝒒, where p and q are
integers and q≠0.
𝟐 −𝟒
Ex- 𝟑 , 𝟓
Hence rational numbers include integers and fractions.
EQUIVALENT RATIONAL NUMBERS

By multiplying or dividing the numerator and denominator with a same non zero integer, we can obtain
equivalent rational numbers.
POSITIVE AND NEGATIVE RATIONAL NUMBERS
𝟐 𝟕
Examples of positive rational numbers are ,
𝟑 𝟗
−𝟐 𝟓
Examples of negative rational numbers are ,
𝟑 −𝟗
21
RATIONAL NUMBBER ON A NUMBER LINE
All the positive rational numbers are marked on the right side of the zero and all negative rational numbers
are marked on the left side of the zero in a number line.
RATIONAL NUMBER IN STANDARD FORM

A rational number is said to be in standard form if its denominator is a positive integer and the numerator
and the denominator have no common factor other than 1.
5 1
For example, Standard form of is
−15 −3
−3 1
Standard form of is
−15 5
COMPARISON OF RATIONAL NUMBERS
To compare two rational numbers, first we need to convert them to equivalent rational numbers and then
compare.
If the equivalent rational numbers are
a. Both positive, then number with greater numerator is the greater number.
b. Both negative, then number with lesser numerator is the greater number.
c. One negative and one positive, then positive number is the greater number.
II TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
EXERCISE 1(A)
Question 1. Express as rational numbers.

a) 12 b) -83 c) -91
Solution:
12 24
a)12 = or etc.
1 2
−83 −116
b) -83 = or etc.
1 2
−91 −182
c) -91 = 1
or 2
etc.
Question 2. Express the following numbers in standard form.

8 −28 63 −22
a) 24 b) 72 c) −140 d) −99
Solution:
8 4×2 1
a) = =
24 4×2×3 3
−28 −7×4 −7
b) = =
72 18×4 18
63 7×9 −9
c) = =
−140 −7×20 20
−22 −2×11 2
d) = =
−99 −9×11 9
Question 3. Express the following as a rational number with given denominator:

−3
a) 7 with denominator 49
22
−5
b) 12 with denominator 60
Solution:
−3 −3×7 −21
a) = =
7 7×7 49
−5 −5×5 −25
b) = =
12 12×5 60
Question 4. Fill in the blanks.

−14 ? −18
a) = =
63 9 ?
−5 ? −35
b) = =
−12 60 ?
Solution:
−14 −2 −18
a) = =
63 9 81
−5 25 −35
b) = =
−12 60 −84
Question 5. Check which of the following are equivalent:

−9 81 −12 36 −5 −15
a) , b) , c) ,
11 −99 15 −60 11 −33
Solution:
−9 −9
a) =
11 11
81 −9×9 −9
= =
−99 11×9 11
Therefore, these are equivalent rational numbers.
−12 −3×4 −4
b) = =
15 3×5 5
36 −3×3×4 −3
= =
−60 5×3×4 5
Therefore, these are not equivalent rational numbers.
−5 −5
c) =
11 11
−15 −3×5 5
= =
−33 −3×11 11
Therefore, these are not equivalent rational numbers.
Question 6. Which of the two rational numbers is greater in the given pair?
9 −3 −3 1
a) 14 or 0 b) 11 or 0 c) 4 or 4
23
−1 −9 −6 5 6
d) or -1 e) or f) 6 or
2 7 7 9
Solution:
9
a) 14 is a proper fraction whose value lies between 0 and 1.
9
Therefore, 14 is greater than 0.
−3
b) 0 is greater than , as all the negative numbers are less than 0.
11
1 −3
c) is greater than as all positive numbers are greater than negative numbers.
4 4
−1 −1 −1
d) lies between -0 and -1. So is to the right of -1. Therefore is greater than -1.
2 2 2
9 6 −9 −6 −6
e) We know that is greater than 7, and therefore is less than . So is the greater number.
7 7 7 7
f) LCM of 6 and 9 is 18.

5 15 6 12
= and 9 = 18.
6 18
15 12 5 6
is greater than 18. Therefore 6 is greater than 9.
18
Question 7. Fill in the blanks with the correct symbol out of >, < and =.
−11 33 −12 60
a) 8 ______ −24 b) 9 ______ 45
75 −150 3 −8
c) −100 ______ d) −8 ______
250 12
Solution:
a) LCM of 8 and 24 is 24.
−11 −33
= 24
8
33 −33
=
−24 24
−11 33
Therefore, = −24
8
−12 60
b) is negative and 45 is positive.
9
All negative numbers are less than positive numbers.

−12 60
Therefore, < 45
9
75 −750
c) −100 = 1000
−150 −600
250
= 1000
24
75 −150
We know that -750 < -600. Therefore, −100 < 250
d) LCM of 8 and 12 is 24.

3 −9
=
−8 24
−8 −16
=
12 24
−3 −8
We know that -9 > -16. Therefore, > 12
8
Question 8. Arrange the following rational numbers in ascending order.

2 −2 4 5
a) 9 , 9 , −7 , 63
2 −3 −1 7
b) −5 , , ,
7 −9 −10
−3 7 −5
c) , −10,
5 8
−3 7 −11 17
d) 10 , −15, , −30
20
Solution:
2 −2 4 5
a) 9 , 9 , −7 , 63
LCM of 9,7 and 63 is 63. So converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers, we get
14 −14 − 36 5
, , , 63.
63 63 63
− 36 −14 5 14
We know that < < 63 < 63
63 63
4 −2 5 2
Therefore, the rational numbers in ascending order = −7 < 9
< 63 < 9
2 −3 −1 7
b) −5 , , −9 , −10
7
LCM of 5, 7, 9 and 10 is 630. So converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers, we
get
−252 −270 70 −441
, , , .
630 630 630 630
−441 −270 −252 70

We know that < < < 630.
630 630 630
7 −3 2 −1
Therefore, the rational numbers in ascending order = −10 < < −5 < −9
7
−3 7 −5
c) , −10,
5 8
LCM of 5, 8 and 10 is 40. So, converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers, we
get
25
−24 −28 −25
, ,
40 40 40
−28 −25 −24

We know that < < .
40 40 40
7 −5 −3
Therefore, the rational numbers in ascending order = −10 < <
8 5
−3 7 −11 17
d) 10 , −15, , −30
20
LCM of 10, 15, 20 and 30 is 60. So converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers,
we get
−18 −28 −33 −34
, , , .
60 60 60 60
−34 −33 −28 −18

We know that < < < .
60 60 60 60
17 −11 7 −3
Therefore, the rational numbers in ascending order = −30 < < −15 <
20 10
Question 9. Arrange the following rational numbers in descending order.

−4 −9 13 −23
a) 7 , 14 , −28 , 42
−3 5 −7 9
b) , −12, , −24
4 16
4 −5 7 −2
c) , , ,
−9 12 −18 3
4 −2 −1 −4
d) 5 , , ,
3 2 7
Solution:
−4 −9 13 −23
a) 7 , 14 , −28 , 42
LCM of 7,14, 28 and 42 is 84. So, converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers,
we get
−48 −54 − 39 −46
, , , .
84 84 84 84
− 39 −46 −48 −54

We know that > > >
84 84 84 84
13 −23 −4 −9
Therefore, the rational numbers in descending order = −28 > > > 14
42 7
−3 5 −7 9
b) , , ,
4 −12 16 −24
LCM of 4, 12, 16 and 24 is 48. So, converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers,
we get
−36 −20 − 21 −18
, , , .
48 48 48 48
−18 −20 − 21 −36

We know that > > >
48 48 48 48
26
9 5 −7 −3
Therefore, the rational numbers in descending order = −24 > > 16 >
−12 4
4 −5 7 −2
c) , , ,
−9 12 −18 3
LCM of 9, 12, 18 and 3 is 36. So, converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers,
we get
−16 −15 − 14 −24
, , , .
36 36 36 36
− 14 −15 −16 −24

We know that > > >
36 36 36 36
7 −5 4 −2
Therefore, the rational numbers in descending order = −18 > > −9 >
12 3
4 −2 −1 −4
d) 5 , , ,
3 2 7
LCM of 5, 3, 2 and 7 is 210. So, converting each of the rational numbers to equivalent rational numbers, we
get
168 −140 − 105 −120
, , , .
210 210 210 210
168 − 105 −120 −140

We know that > > 210 >
210 210 210
4 −1 −4 −2
Therefore, the rational numbers in descending order = 5 > > > .
2 7 3
Question 10. Say, True or False.

a) Every rational number is a whole number.
b) 0 is a rational number.
c) There exists a largest rational number.
0
d) 0 is a rational number.
e) Every integer is a rational number.
f) Every rational number is a fraction.
Solution:
1
a) False. For example, rational number, 2 is not a whole number.
0
b) True. 0 can be written as 1.
c) False, there is no largest rational number.
d) False, any number divided by 0 is not defined.
𝑎
e) True. Every integer, “a” can be written as 1.
−1
f) False. For example, rational number is not a fraction.
2
EXERCISE 1(B)
Question 1.Represent each of the following numbers on the number line.

2 3 2 1
a) 7 b) 24 c)-35 d)62
27
Solution:
2
(a) 7
3
b) 24
2
c) -35
1
d) 62
Question 2: State whether True or False.

9
(a) − 13 lies to the left of 0 on the number line.
−15
(b) −13 lies to the left of 0 on the number line.
−8 3
c) The rational numbers −5 and 5 lie on the opposite sides of zero on the number line.
Solution:
a) True
b) False
c) False
III WORKSHEET
1. Fill in the blanks using <, > or =.

𝟐 𝟐
a. - 𝟗 ________ - 𝟑
𝟐 𝟗
b. - 𝟓 _____ - 𝟓
28
𝟐 −𝟐
c. _____
𝟓 −𝟓
−3 5 −9 7
2. Arrange the following rational numbers in ascending order. , , ,
4 −12 16 −24
3. Write two equivalent rational numbers for the following.

𝟗 −𝟑
a. 𝟓 b. 𝟓
4. Rewrite the following rational numbers in the standard form
−𝟐𝟕 −𝟑
a. 𝟑𝟔 b. −𝟏𝟓
𝟗
5. Draw the number line and represent 𝟒 on it.
IV HOMEWORK
3 −4 −2 1
6. Identify the rational number which is different from the other three : 9, 5 , −6, 3. Explain your
reasoning.
4 𝑥
7. Find the value of x for which the two rational numbers 9 and 54 are equivalent.
WORKSHEET ANSWERS
1. a) >
b) >
c) =
−3 −9 5 7
2. , , ,
4 16 −12 −24
𝟏𝟖 𝟐𝟕 −𝟗 −𝟏.𝟓
3. a. 𝟏𝟎, 𝟏𝟓 b. 𝟏𝟓 , 𝟐.𝟓
−𝟑 𝟏
4. a. b. 𝟓
𝟒
5.
−𝟒
6. , as all other rational numbers are equivalent rational numbers.
𝟓
7. x=24.
CHAPTER-2: OPERATIONS ON RATIONAL NUMBERS
I. CHAPTER AT A GLANCE:
OPERATION ON RATIONAL NUMBERS
Addition and Subtraction
29
• If the denominators are same, add/subtract the numerators and keep the denominator same.
• If denominators are different, then find the equivalent numbers with same denominator and then
add/subtract.
Multiplication
• To multiply a rational number with another number, multiply the numerators and multiply the
denominators.
Division
• To divide a rational number with another rational number, multiply the number with the reciprocal of
the divisor.
Properties of Rational Numbers

1. Closure Property
This shows that the operation of any two same types of numbers is also the same type or not.
If p and q are two rational numbers then
2. Commutative Property
This shows that the position of numbers does not matter i.e. if you swap the positions of the numbers then
also the result will be the same.
If p and q are two rational numbers then
3. Associative Property
This shows that the grouping of numbers does not matter i.e. we can use operations on any two numbers first
and the result will be the same.
30
The Role of Zero in Numbers (Additive Identity)
Zero is the additive identity for whole numbers, integers and rational numbers.
31
The Role of one in Numbers (Multiplicative Identity)
One is the multiplicative identity for whole numbers, integers and rational numbers.
a × 1 = 1 × a = a for any rational number a.
Negative of a Number (Additive Inverse)
Reciprocal (Multiplicative Inverse)

The multiplicative inverse of any rational number
Distributivity of Multiplication over Addition and Subtraction for Rational Numbers

This shows that for all rational numbers p, q and r
1. p(q + r) = pq + pr
2. p(q – r) = pq – pr
RATIONAL NUMBERS BETWEEN TWO RATIONAL NUMBERS

To find rational numbers between two rational numbers, we need to find their equivalent rational
numbers with same denominator.
3 1
For example- Consider and
5 3
9 5
Finding the equivalent rational numbers with same denominator, we get and
15 15
6 7 8
Therefore, the rational numbers between them are , , .
15 15 15
We have infinite number of equivalent rational numbers for a particular rational number. Therefore, we
can have infinite number of rational numbers between two rational numbers.
EXERCISE 2(A)

−12 2 −12
a) + 7 = _____ +
5 5
32
−21
b) -7 + = _____ + (-7)
8
−2 −3 −9 −2 −3
c) +{ +( )} = ( + ) + ______
9 7 14 9 7
−2 −3 −3
d) -1 + ( 3 + ) = ( _____ + _____ ) +
5 5
−15 −15 −15

e) + ____ = _____ + =
7 7 7
3 3
f) −8 + _____ = 0 = 8 + _____.
Solution:
−12 2 2 −12
a) +7 = +
5 7 5
−21 −21
b) -7 + = + (-7)
8 8
−2 −3 −9 −2 −3 −9
c) +{ + ( 14 ) } = ( + ) + 14
9 7 9 7
−2 −3 −2 −3
d) -1 + ( 3 + ) = ( -1 + )+
5 3 5
−15 −15 −15

e) +0 = 0+ =
7 7 7
3 3 3 −3
f) −8 + 8 = 0 = 8 + −8
Question 2. Add the following rational numbers.

−7 2 −9 −8 3 −2 2 4 −4
a) 5 and 7 b) 13 and 5 c) 4 and 5 d) −7 and −21 e) 0 and 5
Solution:
−7 2
a) 5 + 7
LCM of 5 and 7 is 35.

−7 2 −49 10 −49+10 −39
Therefore 5 + 7 = 35 + = =
35 35 35
−9 −8
b) 13 + 5

−9 −8 −45 −104 −45 + −104 −149
Therefore 13 + 5 = 65 + = =
65 65 65
3 −2
c) 4 + 5

3 −2 15 −8 15+ −8 7
Therefore 4 + 5 = 20 + = =
20 20 20
33
2 4
d) −7 + −21

2 4 −6 −4 −6+ −4 −10
Therefore, −7 + −21 = + = =
21 21 21 21
−4 −4
e) 0 + =
5 5
Question 3. Verify that a + b = b + a, taking

3 2 −3
a) a=6 and b= 5 b) a = and b =
3 7
−3 −4 −7
c) a = and b = d) a = -3 and b =
11 7 12
Solution:
3
a) a=6 and b= 5
3 6 3 30 3 30+3 33
a+b=6+5= +5 = + = =
1 5 5 5 5
3 3 6 3 30 3+30 33
b+ a = 5 + 6 = + = + = =
5 1 5 5 5 5
Therefore a + b = b + a.
2 −3
b) a = and b =
3 7
2 −3 14 −9 14−9 5
a+b=3+ = + 21 = =
7 21 21 21
−3 2 −9 14 −9+14 5
b+ a = +3= + = =
7 21 21 21 21
−3 −4
c) a = and b =
11 7
−3 −4 −21 −44 −21+ −44 −65

a+b= + = + = =
11 7 77 77 77 77
−4 −3 −44 −21 −44 + −21 −65

b+ a = + = + = =
7 11 77 77 77 77
−7
d) a = -3 and b = 12
−7 −3 −7 −36 −7 −36 + −7 −43

a + b = -3 + = + = + = =
12 1 12 12 12 12 12
34
−7 −7 −3 −7 −36 −7+ −36 −43
b+ a = + -3 = + = + = =
12 12 1 12 12 12 12
Question 4. Verify that (a + b) + c = a+ (b + c) by taking
−2 5 −5
a) a = , b= and c=
3 6 8
−9 3 −9
b) a = , b= and c =
11 −5 22
−2 −3
c) a = -1, b = and c =
3 4
Solution:
−2 5 −5
a) a = , b= and c=
3 6 8
−2 5 −5 −4 5 −5 −4+5 −5 1 −5 4 −15 −11

(a + b) + c = ( + )+ =( + )+ = ( )+ = + = + =
3 6 8 6 6 8 6 8 6 8 24 24 24
−2 5 −5 −2 20 −15 −2 5 −16 5 −11

a + (b + c) = +( + )= +( + )= +( )= + =
3 6 8 3 24 24 3 24 24 24 24
Therefore, (a + b) + c = a+ (b + c).
−9 3 −9
b) a = , b= and c =
11 −5 22
−9 3 −9 −45 −33 −9
(a + b) + c = ( + )+ =( + )+
11 −5 22 55 55 22
−45 + −33 −9 −78 −9 −156 −45 −201

= ( )+ = + = + =
55 22 55 22 110 110 110
−9 3 −9 −9 −66 −45 −9 −111 −90 −111 −201

a + (b + c) = +( + )= +( + )= +( )= + =
11 −5 22 11 110 110 11 110 110 110 110
−2 −3
c) a = -1, b = and c =
3 4
−2 −3 −3 −2 −3 −3+ −2 −3
(a + b) + c = (-1 + )+ =( + )+ = ( )+
3 4 3 3 4 3 4
−5 −3 −20 −9 −29
= + = + =
3 4 12 12 12
−2 −3 −8 −9 −17 −12 −17 −29

a + (b + c) = -1 + ( + ) = -1 + ( + ) = -1 + ( )= + =
3 4 12 12 12 12 12 12
35
Question 5. Find the additive inverse of each of the following:

−1 −23 17 15
a) b) c) 18 d) e)
3 9 8 4
−3 −3 −42 5
f) g) h) i) -8 j)
−5 8 −7 26
Solution:
−1 1
a) Additive inverse of is .
3 3
−23 23
b) Additive inverse of is .
9 9
c) Additive inverse of 18 is -18.
17 −17
d) Additive inverse of is .
8 8
15 −15
e) Additive inverse of is .
4 4
−3 −3
f) Additive inverse of is .
−5 5
−3 3
g) Additive inverse of is .
8 8
−42 −42
h) Additive inverse of is .
−7 7
i) Additive inverse of -8 is 8.
5 −5
j) Additive inverse of is .
26 26
Question 6. Subtract:
3 2 3 −4 −3
a) from b) 6 from c) from
7 3 5 7 11
Solution:
2 3
a) -
3 7
2 3 14 9 5
- = - =
3 7 21 21 21
3 3 6
b) –6= -
5 5 1
36
3 6 3 30 −27
- = - =
5 1 5 5 5
−3 −4
c) -
11 7
LCM of 11 and 7 is 77
−3 −4 −21 −44 −21+44 23

- = - = =
11 7 77 77 77 77
Question 7. Subtract:
4 4
a) 0 from b) from 0. Are the two results same?
7 7
Solution:
4 4 4
a) 0 from = –0 =
7 7 7
4 4 −4
b) from 0 = 0 - =
7 7 7
4 −4
is not equal to .
7 7
Therefore, they are not equal.
Question 8. Add the following using rearrangement property.

2 −4 −2 −11
a) + + +1+
3 5 3 15
5 −8 −13 17
b) 8 + +0+ + 24
9 3
−13 11 −5
c) + 14 + +1
20 7
4 −8 −5 1
d) 7 + + +3
9 21
Solution:
2 −4 −2 −11
a) + + + 1 +
3 5 3 15
Using rearrangement property, we have

2 −2 −11 −4 15 −11 −12 −8
+ +1+ + = 0 + 15 + + =
3 3 15 5 15 15 15
5 −8 −13 17
b) 8 + +0+ + 24
9 3
37
5 −8 −13 17 −13 −8 5 17
+ +0+ + 24 = + +0+8 +
8 9 3 3 9 24
−39 −8 15 17
= + + 0 + 24 +
9 9 24
−47 32
= +0+
9 24
−376 96
= +
72 72
−280
= 72
−35
= 9
(This is an exceptional case in which the calculation becomes lengthy, when we rearrange it. So we can do
without rearrangement also, only in this question)
5 −8 −13 17 45 −64 −104 17
+ +0+ + 24 = + +0+ +
8 9 3 72 72 24 24
−19 −87
= +
72 24
−19 −261
= +
72 72
−280
= 72
−35
= 9
−13 11 −5
c) + 14 + +1
20 7

−13 11 −5 11 −5 −13
+ 14 + +1 = + + +1
20 7 14 7 20
11 −10 −13 20
= 14 + + +
14 20 20
1 7
= +
14 20
10 49
= +
140 140
59
= 140
4 −8 −5 1
d) 7 + + +3
9 21

4 −8 −5 1 1 −8 −5 4
+ + +3 =3+ + +7
7 9 21 9 21
38
3 −8 −5 12
=9 + + +
9 21 21
−5 7
= +
9 21
−35 21
= +
63 63
−14 −2
= =
63 9
2 −1
Question 9. The sum of two rational numbers is 3. If one of the numbers is , find the other.
6
Solution:
Let the other number be x.

−1 2
+x=3
6
2 −1
x= -
3 6
4 −1 4 1 5
=6- =6+6 =6
6
5
Hence, the other number is 6.
3 3
Question 10. The sum of two rational numbers is 20. If one of the numbers is 4, find the other.
Solution:

3 3
+ x = 20
4
3 3
x= -
20 4
3 15 −12 −3
= - = =
20 20 20 5
−3
Hence, the other number is .
5
−7 1
Question 11. What number should be added to to get .
12 24
Solution:
Let the number to be added is x.

−7 1
+ x=
12 24
1 −7
x= -
24 12
1 −14 1+14 15 5
= - = = =
24 24 24 24 8
39
5 −7 1
Therefore, should be added to to get .
8 12 24
3 −1
Question 12. What number should be added to 4 to get .
4
Solution:
Let the number to be added is x

3 −1
+x= 4
4
−1 3
x= -
4 4
−4
= = -1
4
3 −1
Hence, -1 should be added to 4 to get .
4
3 3
Question 13. What number should be subtracted from 20 to get .
4
Solution:
Let the number to be subtracted is x.

3 3
– x =
20 4
3 3
x = -
20 4
3 15 −12 −3
= - = =
20 20 20 5
−3 3 3
Hence, should be subtracted from to get 4.
5 20
Question 14.
Say, Yes or No.

a) Is the sum of any two rational number also a rational number?
b) Is addition of rational number associative?
c) Is addition of rational number commutative?
d) Is negative of a negative rational number positive?
e) Is subtraction of rational numbers commutative?
f) Is rational number 0 its own additive inverse?
g) Is rational number 0 the additive identity of rational numbers?
h) Is the difference of 0 and a rational number, the rational number itself?
Solution:
a) Yes
b) Yes
c) Yes
d) Yes
e) No
f) Yes
40
g) Yes
h) No
EXERCISE 2(B)
Question 1.Find each of the following products.

1 3 2 −7 −2 −3 −3 4
a) 2 × 4 b) 3 × c) × 11 d) ×9
9 5 7
−5 7 −15 −18 −14 9 3 −5

e) × 11 f) × g) × 16 h) 2 × −7
7 12 25 15
Solution:
1 3 1×3 3
(a) × = =
2 4 2×4 8
2 −7 2×−7 −14
b) × = =
3 9 3×9 27
−2 −3 −2×−3 6
c) × = =
5 11 5×11 55
−3 4 −3×4 −4
d) × = = (by cancelling the common factor 3 from both numerator and denominator)
7 9 7×9 21
−5 7 −5×7 −5
e) × = cancelling 7 from numerator and denominator, it will be
7 11 7×11 11
−15 −18 −15×−18 9

f) × = cancelling HCF 30 from numerator and denominator, it will be
12 25 12 × 25 10
−14 9 −14 × 9 −21

g) × = cancelling HCF 6 from numerator and denominator, it will be
15 16 15 × 16 40
3 −5 3 × −5 15
h) × = =
2 −7 2 × −7 14
Question 2: Verify each of the following .

3 5 5 3
(a) × = ×
4 7 7 4
−3 −3
(b) 2 × = ×2
5 5
−5 −5
c) 0 × = × 0.
9 9
−12 7 7 −12
d) × = ×
5 −36 −36 5
−16 −16
e) -9 × = × -9
12 12
Solution:
3 5 3×5 15
a) × = =
4 7 4×7 28
41
5 3 5×3 15
× = =
7 4 7×4 28
3 5 5 3 15
Therefore, it is verified that × = × =
4 7 7 4 28
−3 2×−3 −6
b) 2 × = =
5 5 5
−3 −3×2 −6
×2 = =
5 5 5
−3 −3 −6
Therefore, it is verified that 2 × = ×2=
5 5 5
−5
c) 0 × =0
9
−5
×0=0
9
−5 −5
Therefore, it is verified that 0 × = ×0=0
9 9
−12 7 −12 × 7 7
d) × = =
5 −36 5 × −36 15
7 −12 7 × −12 7
× = =
−36 5 −36 × 5 15
−12 7 7 −12 7
Therefore, it is verified that × = × =
5 −36 −36 5 15
−16 −9 × −16 −9 × −4
e) -9 × = = = -3 × -4 = 12
12 12 3
−16 −16 × −9 −4 × −9
× -9 = = = -4 × -3 = 12
12 12 3
−16 −16
Therefore, it is verified that -9 × = × -9 = 12.
12 12
Question 3: Verify each of the following .
7 −9 1 7 −9 1
(a) ( × )× = ×( × )
5 4 2 5 4 2
3 −5 −1 3 −5 −1
b) ( × )× = ×( × )
2 7 3 2 7 3
−5 16 −5 16
c) ( × ) × (-1) = ×( × -1)
2 3 2 3
−12 4 25 −12 4 25
d) ×( × )=( × )×
5 15 −16 5 15 −16
42
Solution:
7 −9 1 7 × −9 1 −63 1 −63
a) ( × )× = × = × =
5 4 2 5 ×4 2 20 2 40
7 −9 1 7 −9 × 1 7 −9 −63
×( × )= × = × =
5 4 2 5 4 ×2 5 8 40
7 −9 1 7 −9 1 −63
Therefore, it is verified that ( × )× = ×( × )=
5 4 2 5 4 2 40
3 −5 −1 3 × −5 −1 −15 −1 5
b) ( × )× = × = × =
2 7 3 2×7 3 14 3 14
3 −5 −1 3 −5 × −1 3 5 5
×( × )= × = × =
2 7 3 2 7 ×3 2 21 14
3 −5 −1 3 −5 −1 5
Therefore, it is verified that ( × )× = ×( × )=
2 7 3 2 7 3 14
−5 16 −5 × 16 −40 40
c) ( × ) × (-1) = × (-1) = × (-1) =
2 3 2×3 3 3
−5 16 −5 −16 −5 × −8 40
×( × -1) = ×( )= =
2 3 2 3 3 3
−5 16 −5 16 40
Therefore, it is verified that ( × ) × (-1) = ×( × -1) =
2 3 2 3 3
−12 4 25 −12 1×5 −12 5

d) ×( × )= ×( ) = × =1
5 15 −16 5 3 × −4 5 −12
−12 4 25 −4 × 4 25 −16 25
( × )× =( )× = × =1
5 15 −16 5×5 −16 25 −16
−12 4 25 −12 4 25
Therefore, it is verified that ×( × )=( × )× =1
5 15 −16 5 15 −16
Question 4: Find the multiplicative inverse (reciprocal ) of :

0 −7 8 −1 −4
(a) b) c) d) e) -18 f)
9 11 −19 7 −5
Solution:
0 9
a) Multiplicative inverse of is , which does not exist.
9 0
−7 −11
b) Multiplicative inverse of is .
11 7
8 −19
c) Multiplicative inverse of is
−19 8
−1 −7
d) Multiplicative inverse of is = -7.
7 1
43
−1
e) Multiplicative inverse of -18 is .
18
−4 5
f) Multiplicative inverse of is .
−5 4
Question 5: Verify the following .
−15 3 −12 −15 3 −15 −12

(a) ×( + )=( × ) +( × )
4 7 5 4 7 4 5
−3 2 −5 −3 2 −3 −5
b) ×( + )= ×( ) + ( )
4 3 6 4 3 4 6
1 −7 1 1 −7
c) × (0 + )= ×( 0 ) + × ( )
3 6 3 3 6
−5 11 −5 −5 11
d) × (-2+ )= ×(-2) + ×( )
2 3 2 2 3
Solution:
−15 3 −12 −15 15 −84 −15 −69 −3 −69 207
a) LHS= ×( + )= ×( + )= ×( )= ×( )=
4 7 5 4 35 35 4 35 4 7 28
−15 3 −15 −12 −45 9 −45 252 207
RHS = ( × ) +( × ) = + = + =
4 7 4 5 28 1 28 28 28
−15 3 −12 −15 3 −15 −12
Therefore, it is verified that ×( + )=( × ) +( × )
4 7 5 4 7 4 5
−3 2 −5 −3 4 −5 −3 −1 −1 −1 1
b) LHS= ×( + ) = ×( + )= ×( )= ×( )=
4 3 6 4 6 6 4 6 4 2 8
−3 2 −3 −5 −1 5 −4 5 1
RHS = ×( ) + ( ) = + = + =
4 3 4 6 2 8 8 8 8
−3 2 −5 −3 2 −3 −5
Therefore, it is verified that ×( + )= ×( ) + ( )
4 3 6 4 3 4 6
1 −7 1 −7 −7
c) LHS= × (0 + ) = ×( )=
3 6 3 6 18
1 1 −7 −7 −7
RHS = ×( 0 ) + × ( ) = 0 + =
3 3 6 18 18
1 −7 1 1 −7
Therefore, it is verified that × (0 + )= ×( 0 ) + × ( )
3 6 3 3 6
−5 11 −5 −6 11 −5 5 −25
d) LHS= × (-2+ ) = ×( + )= × =
2 3 2 3 3 2 3 6
−5 −5 11 −55 30 −55 −25
RHS = ×(-2) + ×( ) = 5 + = + =
2 2 3 6 6 6 6
−5 11 −5 −5 11
Therefore, it is verified that × (-2+ )= ×(-2) + ×( )
2 3 2 2 3
Question 6: Simplify:
44
13 7 −50 −1
(a) × × ×
5 26 7 5
2 5 7
b) (-3)× × ×
−14 12 15
Solution:
13 7 −50 −1
a) × × × =
5 26 7 5
−10×−1 10
= = =1
5×2 10
2 5 7
b) (-3) × × ×
−14 12 15
−1
=
12
Question 7: Fill in the blanks and also mention the property used in parts (a) to (e).
−23 −23
(a) × 0 = _____ × = _____ .
45 45
−45
b) × 1 = 1 × ____ = ____
101
−5 3 −5
c) × = _____ ×
9 7 9
−13 −12 35 −12 35

d) ( × )× = _____ × ( × )
24 5 36 5 36
−9 −10 21 −9 −10
e) ×( × )= ( × ) × ____
5 3 −4 5 3
f) The product of a rational number and it’s ____ is 1.
g) _____ and _______ are the only two rational numbers, which are their own reciprocals.
h) Rational number ____ has no reciprocal.
i) Product of two negative rational numbers is _____.

45
j) Product of a positive and a negative rational number is ____.
k) _____ is the multiplicative identity for rational numbers.
l) The product of two rational numbers is always ______.
Solution:
−23 −23
a) (a) ×0=0× = 0. Property of 0 for multiplication.
45 45
−45 −45 −45

b) ×1=1× = . Multiplicative identity.
101 101 101
−5 3 3 −5
c) × = × . Commutative Property of multiplication.
9 7 7 9
−13 −12 35 −13 −12 35

d) ( × )× = ×( × ). Associative Property of multiplication.
24 5 36 24 5 36
−9 −10 21 −9 −10 21
e) ×( × )= ( × )× . Associative Property of multiplication.
5 3 −4 5 3 −4
f) reciprocal
g) 1 and -1.
h) 0
i) positive
j) negative
k) 1
l) rational number
EXERCISE 2(C)
Question 1. Simplify:
−4 5 −16 15 3 5
a) ÷ b) ÷ c) ÷
5 12 35 14 4 9
7 3 5 5 −3 3
d) ÷ e) ÷ f) ÷
9 7 6 6 4 4
Solution:
−4 5 −4 12 −48
a) ÷ = × =
5 12 5 5 25
−16 15 −16 14 −16 2 −32

b) ÷ = × = × =
35 14 35 15 5 15 75
46
3 5 3 9 27
c) ÷ = × =
4 9 4 5 20
7 3 7 7 49
d) ÷ = × =
9 7 9 3 27
5 5 5 6
e) ÷ = × =1
6 6 6 5
−3 3 −3 4
f) ÷ = × = -1
4 4 4 3
Question 2. Verify whether the given statements are true or false.
2 3 3 2 3 5 5 3
a) ÷ = ÷ b) ÷ = ÷
5 8 8 5 4 9 9 4
2 3 −3 2 3 −3 7 3 −3 7 3 −3
c) ( ÷ ) ÷ = ÷( ÷ ) d) ( ÷ ) ÷ = ÷( ÷ )
5 8 5 5 8 5 9 7 7 9 7 7
Solution:
2 3 2 8 16
a) LHS= ÷ = ×( )=
5 8 5 3 15
3 2 3 5 15
RHS = ÷ = ×( )=
8 5 8 2 16
LHS ≠ RHS. Therefore, it is false.
3 5 3 9 27
b) LHS= ÷ = ×( )=
4 9 4 5 20
5 3 5 4 20
RHS = ÷ = ×( )=
9 4 9 3 27
2 3 −3 2 8 −3 16 −3 16 −5 −16
c) LHS = ( ÷ ) ÷ =( × )÷ =( )÷ =( )× =
5 8 5 5 3 5 15 5 15 3 9
2 3 −3 2 3 −5 2 −5 2 −8 −16
RHS = ÷( ÷ ) = ÷( × ) = ÷ =( )× =
5 8 5 5 8 3 5 8 5 5 25
7 3 −3 7 7 −3 49 −3 49 −7 −343
d) LHS = ( ÷ ) ÷ =( × )÷ =( )÷ =( )× =
9 7 7 9 3 7 27 7 27 3 81
7 3 −3 7 3 −7 7 7 −1 −7
RHS = ÷( ÷ ) = ÷( × ) = ÷ -1 =( )× =
9 7 7 9 7 3 9 9 1 9
47
Question 3. The product of two rational numbers is -6. If one of the numbers is -8, find the other.
Solution:
Given that -8 × x = -6
−6 6 3
Therefore, x= = =
−8 8 4
3
Hence, the other number is
4
−40 −5
Question 4. The product of two rational numbers is . If one of the numbers is , find the other.
3 2
Solution:

−5 −40
Given that ×x=
2 3
−40 −5 −40 −2 16
Therefore, x= ÷ = × =
3 2 3 5 3
16
Hence, the other number is
3
11 −33
Question 5. By what rational number should we multiply to get ?
5 25
Solution:
11 −33
Given that × a number =
5 25
−33 11 −33 5 −3
Therefore, the number = ÷ = × =
25 5 25 11 5
−3 6
Question 6. By what rational number should we multiply to get ?
7 49
Solution:
−3 6
Given that × a number =
7 49
6 −3 6 −7 −2
49 7 49 3 7
−10 −2
Question 7. By what number should we divide to get ?
21 3
Solution:
48
−10 −2
Given that ÷ a number =
21 3
−10 −2 −10 −3 5
21 3 21 2 7
5 5
Question 8. By what number should be divided to get ?
9 3
Solution:
5 5
Given that ÷ a number =
9 3
5 5 5 3 1
9 3 9 5 3
−3 5
Question 9. Divide the sum of and by their product.
4 6
Solution:
−3 5 −3 5 −18 20 2 1
Sum of and = + = + = =
4 6 4 6 24 24 24 12
−3 5 −3 5 −5
Product of and = × =
4 6 4 6 8
1 −5 1 −8
Now, sum divided by product = ÷ = ×
12 8 12 5
−2
=
15
5 −6
Question 10. Divide the product of and by their difference.
9 5
Solution:
5 −6 5 −6 −2
Product of and = × =
9 5 9 5 3
5 −6 5 −6 25 −54 79
Difference between and = - = - =
9 5 9 5 45 45 45
−2 79 −2 45 −30
Product divided by difference = ÷ = × =
3 45 3 79 79
7 −9 −9 7
a) ÷ ______ ÷
5 7 7 5
7 7
b) ÷ ______ =
9 9
−8 8
c) ÷ ______ =
11 11
49
5
d) ÷ ______ = 1
7
4 4
e) ÷ = ______
11 11
5 −5
f) ÷ = ______
21 21
0 8
g) ÷ = ______
9 11
5 1 5 5 1 5
h) ( ÷ ) ÷ ______ ÷( ÷ )
9 3 2 9 3 2
Solution:
7 −9 −9 7
a) ÷ ≠ ÷
5 7 7 5
7 7
b) ÷1 =
9 9
−8 8
c) ÷ -1 =
11 11
5 5
d) ÷ =1
7 7
4 4
e) ÷ =1
11 11
5 −5
f) ÷ = -1
21 21
0 8
g) ÷ =0
9 11
5 1 5 5 1 5
h) ( ÷ )÷ ≠ ÷( ÷ )
9 3 2 9 3 2
Question 12. State whether the following statements are true or false.
a) The quotient of two rational numbers is always a rational number.
b) We can divide 1 by 0.
c) In case of division of rational numbers: Commutative and associative properties are applicable.
Solution:
a) True.
b) False.
c) False.
EXERCISE 2(D)
50
Question 1. Find a rational number between the following
−1 2
a) and b) 4 and 5 c) -2 and -1
3 5
1 1 1 1
d) and e) and
2 4 4 3
Solution:
−1 2 −1 2
a) To find a rational number between and , we can find the rational number in the middle of and .
3 5 3 5
−1 2 1 −1 2
Hence rational number between and = ( + )
3 5 2 3 5
1 −5 6 1 1 1
= ( + ) = ( ) =
2 15 15 2 15 30
b) To find a rational number between 4 and 5, we can find the rational number in the middle of 4 and 5.
1 9
Hence rational number between 4 and 5 = (4 + 5) =
2 2
c) To find a rational number between -2 and -1, we can find the rational number in the middle of -2 and -1.
1 −3
Hence rational number between -2 and -1 = (-2 + -1) =
2 2
1 1 1 1
d) To find a rational number between and , we can find the rational number in the middle of and .
2 4 2 4
1 1 1 1 1
2 4 2 2 4
1 2 1 1 3 3
= ( + ) = ( ) =
2 4 4 2 4 8
1 1 1 1
e) To find a rational number between and , we can find the rational number in the middle of and .
4 3 4 3
1 1 1 1 1
4 3 2 4 3
1 3 4 1 7 7
= ( + ) = ( ) =
2 12 12 2 12 24
Question 2. Find three rational numbers between:
2 3 1 1
a) and b) and c) 3 and 4
3 4 3 2
Solution:
51
2 3 1 2 3 1 8 9 1 17 17
a) A rational number between and = ( + ) = ( + ) = ( ) =
3 4 2 3 4 2 12 12 2 12 24
2 17 1 2 17 1 16 17 1 33 33
A rational number between and = ( + )= ( + ) = ( ) =
3 24 2 3 24 2 24 24 2 24 48
17 3 1 17 3 1 17 18 1 35 35
24 4 2 24 4 2 24 24 2 24 48
33 17 35 2 3
Therefore, , , are three rational numbers between and .
48 24 48 3 4
1 1 1 1 1 1 2 3 1 5 5
b) A rational number between and = ( + ) = ( + ) = ( ) =
3 2 2 3 2 2 6 6 2 6 12
1 5 1 1 5 1 4 5 1 9 9 3
A rational number between and = ( + )= ( + ) = ( )= =
3 12 2 3 12 2 12 12 2 12 24 8
5 1 1 5 1 1 5 6 1 11 11
12 2 2 12 2 2 12 12 2 12 24
3 5 11 1 1
Therefore, , , are three rational numbers between and .
8 12 24 3 2
1 7
c) A rational number between 3 and 4 = ( 3 + 4) =
2 2
7 1 7 1 6 7 1 13 13
A rational number between 3 and = (3+ ) = ( + ) = ( ) =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4
7 1 7 1 7 8 1 15 15
A rational number between and 4 = ( +4 ) = ( + ) = ( ) =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 4
13 7 15
Therefore, , , are three rational numbers between 3 and 4.
4 2 4
−4 2
Question 3. Find rational numbers between and :
9 9
a) 5 b) 50 c) 599
Solution:
−4 2 −3 −2 −1 1
a) 5 rational numbers between and are , , , 0 and .
9 9 9 9 9 9
−4 −4×10 −40 2 2×10 20

b) We can write as = and as =
9 9×10 90 9 9×10 90
−4 2 −39 −38 −37 8 9 10

Hence, 50 rational numbers between and are , , , --------- , ,
9 9 90 90 90 90 90 90
−4 −4×100 −400 2 2×100 200

c) We can write as = and as =
9 9×100 900 9 9×100 900
−4 2 −399 −398 −397 198 199

Hence, 599 rational numbers between and are , , , --------- ,
9 9 900 900 900 900 900
52
Question 4.
a) How many integers are there between:
i) -4 and -3. ii) 7 and 8
b) How many rational numbers can you find between:

i) -4 and -3. ii) 7 and 8
c) How many rational numbers can you find between any two rational numbers?
Solution:
a) i) There are no integers between -4 and -3
ii) There are no integers between 7 and 8.
b) i) There are infinite rational numbers between -4 and -3

ii) There are infinite rational numbers between 7 and 8.
c) There are infinite rational numbers between any two rational numbers.
Question 5. Write
a) five rational numbers greater than -2.

b) five rational numbers less than 2.
Solution:
−1 1
a) five rational numbers greater than -2 are -1, , 0, , 1----(answer can vary)
2 2
1 −1
b) five rational numbers less than 2 are 1, , 0, , -1----(answer can vary)
2 2
EXERCISE 2(E)
Question 1. Give the absolute value of each of the following.
5 −17
a) b) c) -1
13 12
−18 8
d) 0 e) f)
19 −5
Solution:
5 5 5
a) Absolute value of ,| |=
13 13 13
−17 −17 17
b) Absolute value of ,| |=
12 12 12
c) Absolute value of -1, | − 1| = 1
d) Absolute value of 0, |0| = 0
53
−18 −18 18
e) Absolute value of ,| |=
19 19 19
8 8 8
f) Absolute value of ,| |=
−5 −5 5
Question 2. Verify that |-x| = |x| for the following values of x.
−2 5 4
a) b) c)
5 −11 7
−19 0
d) e)
−25 −8
Solution:
−2 −2 2
a) Let x be , then |x| = | 5 | =
5 5
−2 2 2 2
Now, -x= -( )= then |x| = | 5 | =
5 5 5
Hence it is verified that |-x| = |x|.
5 5 5
b) Let x be , then |x| = | −11 | =
−11 11
5 5 5 5
Now, -x= -( )= then |x| = | 11 | =
−11 11 11
4 4 4
c) Let x be , then |x|= | 7 | =
7 7
4 −4 −4 4
Now, -x= -( ) = then |x|= | 7 | =
7 7 7
−19 −19 19
d) Let x be , then |x| = | −25 | =
−25 25
−19 −19 −19 19

Now, -x= - ( )= then |x| = | 25 | =
−25 25 25
0 0 0
e) Let x be , then |x| = | −8 | = =0
−8 −8
0 0 0 0
Now, -x= - ( )= then |x| = | 8 | = =0
−8 8 8

Question 3. Verify that | x+y | is either less than or equal to |x| + |y| for the following values of x and y:
54
2 −1 −2 5 −7 −3
a) x= ;y= b) x= ;y= c) x= ;y=
5 3 3 6 8 5
Solution:
2 −1
a) x= ;y=
5 3
2 −1 6 −5 1 1 1
x+y = + = + = ; | x+y | = | 15 | =
5 3 15 15 15 15
2 2 −1 1 2 1 6 5 11
|x| = | 5 | = ; |y| = | 3 | = ; |x| + |y| = + = + =
5 3 5 3 15 15 15
Hence, | x+y | is less than |x| + |y|.
−2 5
b) x= ;y=
3 6
−2 5 −4 5 1 1 1
x+y = + = + = ; | x+y | = | 6 | =
3 6 6 6 6 6
−2 2 5 5 2 5 4 5 9
|x| = | 3 | = ; |y| = | 6 | = ; |x| + |y| = + = + =
3 6 3 6 6 6 6
Hence, | x+y | is less than |x| + |y|.
−7 −3
c) x= ;y=
8 5
−7 −3 −35 −24 −59 −59 59

x+y = + = + = ; | x+y | = | 40 | =
8 5 40 40 40 40
−7 7 −3 3 7 3 35 24 59
|x| = | 8 | = ; |y| = | 5 | = ; |x| + |y| = + = + =
8 5 8 5 40 40 40
Hence, | x+y | is equal to |x| + |y|.
Question 4. Verify that | x × y | = |x| × |y| for the following values of x and y:
−1 1 −1 −3 5 2
a) x= ;y= b) x= ;y= c) x= ;y=
7 5 9 4 9 3
Solution:
−1 1
a) x= ;y=
7 5
−1 1 −1 −1 1
x×y= × = ; | x×y | = | 35 | =
7 5 35 35
−1 1 1 1 1 1 1
|x| = | 7 | = ; |y| = | 5 | = ; |x| × |y| = × =
7 5 7 5 35
55
Hence, | x×y | = |x| × |y|.
−1 −3
b) x= ;y=
9 4
−1 −3 1 1 1
x×y= × = ; | x×y | = | 12 | =
9 4 12 12
−1 1 −3 3 1 3 1
|x| = | 9 | = ; |y| = | 4 | = ; |x| × |y| = × =
9 4 9 4 12
Hence, | x×y | = |x| × |y|.
5 2
c) x= ;y=
9 3
5 2 10 10 10
x×y= × = ; | x×y | = | 27 | =
9 3 27 27
5 5 2 2 5 2 10
|x| = | 9 | = ; |y| = | 3 | = ; |x| × |y| = × =
9 3 9 3 27
Hence, | x×y | = |x| × |y|.
Question 5. Which rational numbers have the following absolute values:
4 3 9
a) b) c) d) 0
7 8 17
Solution:
4 −4 4
a) The rational numbers and have absolute value as .
7 7 7
3 −3 3
b) The rational numbers and have absolute value as .
8 8 8
9 −9 9
c) The rational numbers and have absolute value as
17 17 17
d) The rational number 0 has absolute value as 0.
Question 6. Find the value of:
3 2 −4 1 −7 8
a) | 5 – | b) | 5 – | c) | 5 – |
3 4 13
−5 10
d) | 7 + 1| e) | − 4 + |
21
Solution:
56
3 2 9 10 −1 1
a) | 5 – | = | 15 – | = | 15 | =
3 15 15
−4 1 −16 5 −21 21
b) | 5 – | =| – | =| | =
4 20 20 20 20
−7 8 −91 40 −131 131

c) | 5 – | =| – | =| | =
13 65 65 65 65
−5 −5 7 2 2
d) | 7 + 1| =| + 7| = |7 | =
7 7
10 −84 10 −74 74
e) | − 4 + | =| 21
+ 21 | =| 21
| =
21 21
EXERCISE 2(F)
1 2
Question 1. From a ribbon which is 22m long, two pieces of lengths 5 m and 3 m are cut off. What is
5 10
the length of the remaining ribbon?
Solution:
Length of ribbon = 22 m
1 2
Length of pieces which are cut = 5 m and 3 m
5 10
1 2
Length of remaining piece of ribbon = 22 – (5 + 3 )
5 10
26 32 52 32
= 22 – ( + ) = 22 – ( + )
5 10 10 10
84 220−84 136 68 3
= 22 – ( ) = = = = 13 m
10 10 10 5 5
3
Hence the length of the remaining ribbon is 13 m.
5
1
Question 2. If lengths of the parallel sides of a trapezium are 8 cm, 6 cm and height is 5 cm, find the area
2
of the trapezium.
Solution:
Given,
Height of trapezium, h = 5cm
1
Parallel sides, a and b = 8 cm, 6 cm
2
1 1 1
Area of trapezium = (a+b)h = (8 + 6) × 5
2 2 2
1 17 1 17 12
= ( + 6) × 5 = ( + )×5
2 2 2 2 2
29 145 1
= ×5 = =36 cm2
4 4 4
1
Hence the area of trapezium is 36 cm2.
4
57
3 1
Question 3. If base and the corresponding altitude of a parallelogram are 9 cm and 12 cm respectively,
4 4
then find the area of the parallelogram.
Solution:
Given,
1
Height of parallelogram, h = 12 cm
4
3
Base of parallelogram, b = 9 cm
4
49 39
Area of parallelogram = base × height = ×
4 4
1911 7
= = 119 cm2
16 16
7
Hence the area of parallelogram is 119 cm2.
16
1
Question 4. A jet covers 2040 km in an hour. How much distance will it cover in 5 hours?
6
Solution:
Given,
The distance covered by jet in 1 hour = 2040 km
1 1 31
The distance covered by jet in 5 hours = 2040 × 5 = 2040 ×
6 6 6
= 10540 km
1
Hence the jet will cover 10540 km in 5 hours.
6
2 3
Question 5. Find the cost of 4 metres of lace at the rate of ₹15 per metre.
5 4
Solution:
3
Price of 1 metre of lace = ₹15
4
2 3 2 63 22
Price of 4 metre of lace = ₹15 × 4 = ×
5 4 5 4 5
693 3
= = ₹69
10 10
2 3
Hence the cost of 4 metres of lace is ₹69 .
5 10
3 2
Question 6. If of a number exceeds its by 44, find the number.
5 7
58
Solution:
Let the number be x.

3 2
Given that 𝑥 is 44 more than 𝑥
5 7
2 3 3 2
Therefore, 𝑥 + 44 = 𝑥 => 𝑥– 𝑥 = 44
7 5 5 7
3 2
=> ( – ) x = 44
5 7
21 10
=> ( – ) x = 44
35 35
11
=> x = 44
35
11 44×35
=> x = 44 ÷ = = 140
35 11
Hence the number is 140.
3
Question 7. In a school, of the students are girls. If there are 240 boys, find the number of girls in the
7
school.
Solution:
Let the total number of students be N.
3
Given that of the students are girls.
7
4
Therefore, the fraction of boys =
7
Given that the number of boys = 240
4
That means N = 240
7
4 7
Therefore, N = 240 ÷ = 240 × = 60 × 7 = 420 students.
7 4
3 3
Number of girls = of 420 = × 420 = 3 × 60 = 180
7 7
There are 180 girls.
1 1 1
Question 8. A basket contains three types of fruits weighing 38 kg in all. If 7 kg of these are oranges, 8
3 9 5
kg are pineapples and the rest are melons. What is the weight of melons in the basket?
Solution:
1
Total weight of the fruits = 38 kg
3
1
Weight of oranges = 7 kg
9
1
Weight of pineapples = 8 kg
5
1 1 1 115 64 41
Weight of melons = 38 – ( 7 + 8 ) = –( + )
3 9 5 3 9 5
59
115 320 369 115 689
= –( + )= –( )
3 45 45 3 45
1725 689 1036 1

= –( ) = = 23 kg
45 45 45 45
1
Hence, there are 23 kg of melons in the basket.
45
1 3
Question 9. A drum full of wheat weighs 80 kg. If the empty drum weighs 15 kg, find the weight of wheat
6 4
in the drum.
Solution:
1
Weight of drum with wheat = 80 kg
6
3
Weight of empty drum = 15 kg
4
1 3 481 63
Weight of wheat = 80 – 15 = –
6 4 6 4
1924 378 1546 10 5

= – = = 64 = 64 kg
24 24 24 24 12
5
Weight of wheat is 64 kg
12
5
Question 10. In a football match, of the spectators were in covered place and 6000 were in open. Find the
7
total number of spectators.
Solution:
5
Fraction of spectators in covered place =
7
2
Fraction of spectators in open place =
7
Given that 6000 spectators were in open area.
Let N be the total number of spectators.
2
Then, of N = 6000
7
2 7
Therefore N = 6000 ÷ = 6000 = 3000 × 7 = 21000
7 2
There were 21,000 spectators in total.
III WORKSHEET
1
1. Find the value of 1+ 1 .
1+ 1
1+ 3
1 3
2. Anna earns Rs.16000 per month. She spends 4 of her income on food; 10 of the remainder on house
5
rent and 21 of the remainder on the education of children. How much money is still left with her?
261 87
3. The area of a room is m2. If its breadth is 16 meters, what is its length?
4
60
19 7
4. In a constituency, 25 of the voters had voted for candidate A whereas 50 had voted for candidate B.
Find the rational number of the voters who had voted for others.
4 2
5. Manoj buys a water jug of capacity 3 5 litres. If he buys another jug which is 2 3 times as large as the
smaller jug, how many litres can the larger one hold?
IV HOMEWORK
2
6. Beena volunteers to make cookies for her math class. Each batch of cookies requires 1 3 cups of
flour. If she has 12 cups of flour, how many batches of cookies can she make?
3
7. If 4 of a box of apples weighs 3 kg and 225 gm, how much does a full box of apples weigh?
WORKSHEET ANSWERS
4
1. 1
7
2. Rs. 6400
3. 12 m
1
4. 10
2
5. 105 litres.
CHAPTER-3: POWERS
INTRODUCTION TO EXPONENTS AND POWERS
When we multiply a number with itself several times, we can write the product in exponential form.
For example, 5×5×5×5×5×5×5×5×5 can be written as 59, where 5 is called the base and 9 is the power or
exponent.
POSITIVE INTEGRAL EXPONENT OF RATIONAL NUMBER

𝑎
Let be any rational number and m be any integer, Then
𝑏
61
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎×𝑎×𝑎×𝑎−−−𝑚 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑚
( )m = × × ×-----m times = =
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏 𝑏×𝑏×𝑏×𝑏−−−𝑚 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑠 𝑏𝑚
𝑎 𝑎𝑚
Thus ( )m = where m is a positive integer.
𝑏 𝑏𝑚
1 AS THE BASE AND EXPONENT
i) The rational number 1 raised to any exponent m is 1.

Example- 13 = 114 = 120 = 1
ii) Any rational number raised to 1 is the number itself.
Example- 31 = 3; 551 = 55; 9871 = 987
When exponent is not mentioned, it means that the exponent is 1.
iii) The rational number -1, raised to any exponent,
gives 1, if the exponent is an even integer,
gives -1, if the exponent is an odd integer.
Example – (-1)4 = 1; (-1)7 = -1
NEGATIVE INTEGRAL EXPONENT OF RATIONAL NUMBER
𝑎
Let 𝑏 be any rational number and n be any positive integer, Then
𝑎 𝑎 𝑏
( )-n is defined as ( )-n = ( )n
𝑏 𝑏 𝑎
𝑎 𝑏
( )-1 = ( )
𝑏 𝑎
0 AS AN EXPONENT
𝑎 𝑎
If be any rational number, then ( )0 = 1.
𝑏 𝑏
Any rational number raised to zero is 1.
LAWS OF EXPONENTS
𝑎
Let be any rational number, and m and n be any integers. Then
𝑏
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
1. ( )m × ( )n = ( )m+n
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
2. ( )m ÷ ( )n =( )m-n
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
𝑎 𝑎
3. {( )m}n = ( )m n
𝑏 𝑏
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎 𝑐
4. [( ) × ( )]n = ( )n × ( )n
𝑏 𝑑 𝑏 𝑑
𝑎 𝑐 𝑎 𝑐
5. ( ÷ )n = ( )n ÷( )n
𝑏 𝑑 𝑏 𝑑
62
𝑎 𝑏
6. ( )-n = ( )n, where n is a positive integer.
𝑏 𝑎
𝑎
7. ( )0 =1
𝑏
𝑎 𝑎
8. ( )1 = ( )
𝑏 𝑏
EXERCISE 3
Question 1. Mention the base and exponent in each of the following show them in expanded form, as a
continued product.
1 3 −5 2 9
a) ( )3 b) ( )6 c) (-1)8 d) ( ) e) ( )4
4 5 11 −11
Solution:
1
a) Base is and exponent is 3.
4
1 1 1
Expanded form = × ×
4 4 4
3
b) Base is and exponent is 6.
5
3 3 3 3 3 3
Expanded form = × × × × ×
5 5 5 5 5 5
c) Base is (-1) and exponent is 8.

Expanded form = -1 ×-1 ×-1 ×-1 ×-1 ×-1 ×-1 ×-1
−5
d) Base is and exponent is 2.
11
−5 −5
Expanded form = ×
11 11
9
e) Base is and exponent is 4.
−11
9 9 9 9
Expanded form = × × ×
−11 −11 −11 −11
Question 2. Express the following in exponential notation.
25×25×25
a)
17×17×17
(−3) × (−3) × (−3) × (−3) × (−3)

b)
11×11×11×11×11
5×5×5×5
c)
(−9)×(−9)×(−9)×(−9)
d) (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7)
Solution:
63
25×25×25 25
a) = ( )3
17×17×17 17
(−3) × (−3) × (−3) × (−3) × (−3) −3

b) = ( )5
11×11×11×11×11 11
5×5×5×5 5
c) = ( )4
(−9)×(−9)×(−9)×(−9) −9
d) (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7) × (-7) = (-7)6
Question 3. Express the following rational numbers in exponential notation. Express the answer in lowest
terms.
216 625 −1 −196
a) 1000 b) 1296 c) 10000 d) 256
Solution:
216 6 3
a) in exponential form = ( )3 = ( )3
1000 10 5
625 5
b) in exponential form = ( )4
1296 6
−1 1
c) in exponential form = −(10)4
10000
−196 14 7
d) in exponential form = −(16)2 = −(8)2
256
Question 4. Evaluate:
6 −4 11 1
a) ( )2 b) ( )5 c) ( )3 d) ( )-5
8 3 12 2
2 9 3
e) ( )4 f) ( )0 g) ( )-1
−3 7 4
Solution:
6 6×6 3×3 9
a) ( )2 = = =
8 8×8 4×4 16
−4 5 −4×−4×−4×−4×−4 −1024
b) ( ) = =
3 3×3×3×3×3 243
11 11×11×11 1331
c) ( )3 = =
12 12×12×12 1728
1 2 𝑎 𝑏
d) ( )-5 = ( )5, using the law ( )-n = ( )n
2 1 𝑏 𝑎
= 2×2×2×2×2 = 32
64
2 4 2×2×2×2 16
e) ( ) = =
−3 −3×−3×−3×−3 81
9 𝑎
f) ( )0 = 1, using the law, ( )0 = 1
7 𝑏
3 4 𝑎 𝑏
g) ( )-1 = ( )1, using the law ( )-n = ( )n
4 3 𝑏 𝑎
4
=
3
1
a) 35 × 32 b) (2)-6 c) (-2)5 × (-2)2 d) (-3)6 ÷ (-3)
2 2
e) 34 ÷ 36 f) (-3) ÷ (-3)5 g) ( 5 )3 ÷ ( 5 )4
Solution:
a) 35 × 32 = 35+2 = 37 = 2187 [⸪ am an = am+n]
1 2 𝑎 𝑏
b) (2)-6 = (1)6 = 2×2×2×2×2×2 =64 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
𝑏 𝑎
c) (-2)5 × (-2)2 = (-2)5+2 [⸪ am an = am+n]

= (-2)7 = -128
(−3)6
d) (-3)6 ÷ (-3) = = (-3)6-1 [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]
−3
= (-3)5 = -243
(3)4
e) 34 ÷ 36 = = (3)4-6 [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]
36
1
= (3)-2 =
9
−3
f) (-3) ÷ (-3)5 = = (-3)1-5 [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]
(−3)5
1 1
= (-3)-4 = (−3)4 =
81
2 2 23 54
g) ( 5 )3 ÷ ( 5 )4 = × = (2)3-4 (5)4-3 [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]
53 24
5
= (2)-1 (5)1 =
2
65
5
9
3
a) ( )-2 × ( )-3 × ( )0
5
3
5
b) {(−23) } 3 2
−1 2 2 -1 5
c) [{( )}] d) {( )2}2
2 4
Solution:
5 3 3 9 5 3 𝑎 𝑏
a) ( )-2 × ( )-3 × ( )0 = ( )2 × ( )3 × ( )0 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
9 5 5 5 3 5 𝑏 𝑎
9 5 𝑎
= ( )2 × ( )3 × 1 [⸪ ( )0 = 1 ]
5 3 𝑏
92 × 53 (32 )2 × 53
= =
52 × 33 33 × 52
= 34-3 × 53-2 [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]
= 31 × 51 = 3×5 = 15
b) {(−23) }3 2 −2
= ( )6
3
𝑎
𝑏
𝑎
[⸪ {( )m}n = ( )m n ]
𝑏
−26 64
= =
36 729
−1 2 2 -1 −1 𝑎 𝑎
c) [{( )}] = [( )4]-1 [⸪ {( )m}n = ( )m n ]
2 2 𝑏 𝑏
(−1)4
= [( )]-1
24
1 𝑎 𝑏
= [ ]-1 = 16 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
16 𝑏 𝑎
5 5 𝑎 𝑎
d) {( )2}2 = ( )4 [⸪ {( )m}n = ( )m n ]
4 4 𝑏 𝑏
5×5×5×5 625
= =
4×4×4×4 256
Question 7. Evaluate {( ) 4 -1
3
–(
1 -1
4
) } -1
Solution:
{( ) 4 -1
3
–(
1 -1
4
) } -1 3
= [ – ]-1
4
4
1
𝑎 𝑏
[⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
𝑏 𝑎
66
3 16 -1
=[ – ]
4 4
−13 -1 −4 𝑎 𝑏
=( ) = [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
4 13 𝑏 𝑎
Question 8. {( ) 1 3
3
–(
1 3
3
)} ÷ (14)-3
Solution:
1 3 1 3
{( ) – ( ) }
1 3
3
1 3
{( ) – ( ) } ÷ ( )
3
1 -3
4
= 3 3
1 −3
( )
4
1 1
{ – } 0
9 9
= 1 −3
= =0
1 −3
(4) ( )
4
Question 9. Simplify:
7
a) ( 3-1 + 4-1 ) (12)-1
b) ( 6-1 + 8-1)-1 ( 3-1 + 2-1)-1

Solution:
7 1 1 12 𝑎 𝑏
a) ( 3-1 + 4-1 ) (12)-1 =(3+4)(7) [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
𝑏 𝑎
4 3 12
= ( 12 + 12 ) ( 7 )
7 12
= (7) =1
12
1 1 1 1 𝑎 𝑏
b) ( 6-1 + 8-1)-1 + ( 3-1 + 2-1)-1 = ( 6 + 8 )-1 + ( 3 + 2 )-1 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
𝑏 𝑎
4+3 3+2 -1
= ( 24 )-1 + ( )
6
7 5 24 6 𝑎 𝑏
= ( 24 )-1 + ( 6 )-1 = +5 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
7 𝑏 𝑎
120 42 162
= + =
35 35 35
Question 10. Correct the mistakes in the right-side expression if any in the following:
6 5
a) ( )-1 = ( )-1 b) (45)-1 = (-4)5
5 6
67
−2 -2 -1 −2
c) {( ) } = ( )-3 d) 50- 60 = (-1)0
3 3
Solution:
6 5
a) ( )-1 = ( )1
5 6
b) (45)-1 = (4)-5
−2 -2 -1 −2
c) {( ) } = ( )2
3 3
d) 50- 60 = 0
Question 11. Find the value of x in the following:

7 7 7
a) ( 3)-4 × (3)-5 = (3)3x
2 2 2
b) ( 5)-4 ÷ (5)-8 = (5)2x
c) 5x × 5-8 = 5-3
d) 60 ÷ 6-1 = 6x
Solution:
7 7 7
a) ( 3)-4 × (3)-5 = (3)3x
7 7 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
 (3)-4 + -5 = (3)3x [⸪ ( )m × ( )n = ( )m+n ]
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
7 7
 ( )-9
= ( )3x
3 3
Since the base are equal on both sides of equation, we can equate the exponents.
Hence, -9 = 3x
9
x = − 3 = -3.
2 2 2
b) ( 5)-4 ÷ (5)-8 = (5)2x
2 2 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
 (5)-4 – (-8) = (5)2x [⸪ ( )m ÷ ( )n = ( )m-n ]
𝑏 𝑏 𝑏
2 2
 (5)4 = (5)2x
Hence, 4 = 2x
4
x = = 2.
2
c) 5x × 5-8 = 5-3 => 5x-8 = 5-3 [⸪ am an = am+n]
Hence, x-8 = -3
x = -3+8 = 5.
d) 60 ÷ 6-1 = 6x => 60-(-1) = 6x [⸪ am ÷ an = am-n]

68
Hence, x = 1
−4 2 2
Question 12. Which number must be multiplied by ( ) to get ( )3 ?
5 3
Solution:
Let the number to be multiplied be x.
−4 2 2
Given that ( ) × x = ( )3
5 3
2 −4
⸫ x = ( )3 ÷ ( )2
3 5
23 52 8 52 25
= 3
× (−4)2 = 3
× =
3 3 16 54
−4 2 25 2
Hence ( ) is to be multiplied by to get ( )3.
5 54 3
−1 3 −3 4
Question 13. By what number should ( ) be multiplied to get ( ) ?
7 7
Solution:
Let the number to be multiplied be x.
−1 3 −3
Given that ( ) × x = ( )4
7 7
−3 −1
⸫ x = ( )4 ÷ ( )3
7 7
(−3)4 73 81 1 −81
= × (−1)3 = × =
74 7 −1 7
−1 3 −81 −3 4
Hence ( ) is to be multiplied by to get ( ).
7 7 7
−3 -3 9
Question 14. By what number should ( ) be divided so that the quotient may be ( )-2 ?
5 25
Solution:
Let the divisor be x.
−3 -3 9
Given that ( ) ÷ x = ( )-2
5 25
−3 9 −5 25 𝑎 𝑏
⸫ x = ( )-3 ÷ ( )-2 = ( )3 ÷ ( )2 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
5 25 3 9 𝑏 𝑎
(−5)3 92 −5 34 −3
= × (25)2 = × =
33 33 25 5
−3 -3 −3 9
Hence ( ) is to be divided by to get ( )-2.
5 5 25
Question 15. If 62x+1 ÷ 36 = 216; find the value of x.
69
Solution:
Given that 62x+1 ÷ 36 = 216
62x+1
= 63
62
62x+1-2 = 63
Hence, 2x+1-2 = 3
⸫ 2x – 1 = 3
2x = 3+1 = 4
4
x=2 =2
Hence, x=2.
𝑥 −1 -3 2
Question 16. If 𝑦 = ( ) ÷ ( )-4, find the value of
3 3
𝑥
a) (𝑦)-1
𝑥 𝑦
b) ( 𝑦 + 𝑥 )-1
Solution:
𝑥 −1 -3 2
Given that =( ) ÷ ( )-4
𝑦 3 3
−3 3 𝑎 𝑏
= ( )3 ÷ ( )4 [⸪ ( )-n = ( )n]
1 2 𝑏 𝑎
(−3)3 24 −1 × 16 −16
= × = =
1 34 3 3
𝑥 −16 −3
a) (𝑦)-1 = ( 3 )-1 =
16
𝑥 𝑦 −16 −3
b) ( 𝑦 + 𝑥 )-1 =( + 16 )-1
3
−256 −9 −265 -1 −48

=( + 48 )-1 =( ) = 265
48 48
III WORKSHEET
1. Find the value of
70
2. Simplify:
3. Find the value of x, if 4-5 × 412 = 43x-2.
4. Simplify:
5. By what number should (1/2)-1 be multiplied so that the product is (-5/4)-1?
IV HOMEWORK
6. If a = (2/5)2 ÷ (9/5)0 find the value of a-3. Ans: (5/2)6

7. Evaluate:
a) (-2/7)-4 × (-5/7)2
b) (-1/4)-3 × (-1/4)-2 Ans: a) 1225/16 b)-1024
WORKSHEET ANSWERS
17
1. 16
2𝑎𝑏
2. 9
3. x=3.
37
4. (56 44 )
5. -2/5
CH-6 PLAYING WITH NUMBERS
I. CHAPTER AT A GLANCE
INTRODUCTION:
NUMBERS IN GENERAL FORM
The general form of a number is obtained by adding the product of the digits with their place values.
1. The General Form of a Two Digit Number
ab = a × 10 + b = 10a + b
Example
93 = 10 × 9 + 3
71
= 90 + 3
2. The General Form of a Three Digit Number
abc = 100 × a + 10 × b + c = 100a + 10b + c
Example
256 = 100 × 2 + 10 × 5 + 6
= 200 + 50 + 6
Remark: ab doesn’t mean a × b as we generally use it like this.
TESTS OF DIVISIBILITY:
II. TEXTBOOK EXERCISES
EXERCISE 6 (A)
Question 1. Write the following number in generalised form.
(a)54 (b) 60 (c) 231 (d) 800 (e) 937
(f) 284 (g) 609 (h) 841 (i) 970 (j) 999
Solution:
(a) 54 = 5 × 10 + 4 × 1
(b)60 = 6 × 10 + 0 × 1
(c) 231 = 2 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 1 × 1
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(d)800 = 8 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 0 × 1
(e) 937 = 9 × 100 + 3 × 10 + 7 × 1
(f) 284 = 2 × 100 + 8 × 10 + 4 × 1
(g)609 = 6 × 100 + 0 × 10 + 9 × 1
(h)841 = 8 × 100 + 4 × 10 + 1 × 1
(i) 970 = 9 × 100 + 7 × 10 + 0 × 1
(j) 999 = 9 × 100 + 9 × 10 + 9 × 1
Question 2. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the
digits is greater than the original number by 54, find the original number.
Solution:
Let the units digit of the two-digit number be y and the tens digit be x.
Hence, the number will be 10x + y.
Given that the sum of digits is 12.
Hence, x + y =12.......(i)
It is also given that the new number formed by reversing the digits is greater than the original number by 54.
On reversing the digits, x becomes the units digit and y becomes the tens digit.
Hence, the new number will be 10y + x.
∴ 10y + x = 10x + y + 54
⇒ 9y − 9x = 54
⇒y–x=6
⇒ − x + y = 6.........(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get:
(x + y) + (−x + y) = 12 + 6
⇒ 2y = 18
18
∴ y= 2 = 9
Substituting y = 9 in (i), we get:

x + 9 = 12
∴ x = 12 – 9 = 3
The units digit is 3 and the tens digit is 9.
Hence, the number is 39.
Question 3. The sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 10. If 36 is subtracted from the number, the digits
interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the Unit digit be x and ten's digit be y

Original number is 10y + x
Interchanged number is10x + y
Given, sum of the digit is 10
x + y = 10
⇒ x = 10 - y ....... ( i )
73
If 36 is subtracted from the number the digit interchanged their place
⇒ 10 y + x - 36 = 10 x + y
⇒ 10y - y + x - 10x = 36
⇒ 9y - 9x = 36
( Dividing by 9 )
⇒y-x=4
⇒-x=4-y
⇒ x = -4 + y .... ( ii )
Equating ( i ) and ( ii )
⇒ 10 - y = - 4 + y
⇒ 10 + 4 = y + y
⇒ 14 = 2y
⇒7=y
Putting the value of y in eq ( i )
⇒ x = 10 - y
⇒ x = 10 - 7
⇒x=3
So , our required number is
10y + x
= 10 × 7 + 3
= 70 + 3
= 73
Therefore, original number is 73.
Question 4. A number consists of two digit whose sum is 9. If 9 is subtracted from the number the digits
interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the digits at ones place be x

Then the digits at tens place = 9 - x ......(sum of two digits is 9)
Therefore, the number = 10 (9 - x) + x = 90 - 10x + x = 90 - 9x
Now, number obtained by reversing the digits = 10x + 9 – x = 9x + 9
It is given if 9 is subtracted from the number, it's digits are interchanged.
⇒ 90 - 9x – 9 = 9x + 9
⇒ 81 - 9x = 9x + 9
⇒ 81- 9 = 9x + 9x
⇒ 18x = 72
72
⇒ x = 18
⇒x=4
digits at ones place is x = 4
tens place = 9 – x = 9 – 4 = 5
Therefore, the number is 54
74
Question 5. A number consists of two digit of which ten’s digit exceeds the units digit by 6. The number
itself is equal to ten times the sum of its digits. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the unit digit be x and tens digit be y then the number formed is 10y + x. Then by the given question,
As, ten’s digit exceeds the units digit by 6
So, y = x + 6
The number itself is equal to ten times the sum of its digits.
⇒ 10y + x = 10(x + y)
⇒ 10y + x = 10x + 10y
⇒ x − 10x = 0
⇒ -9x = 0
⇒x=0
⇒y=0+6
⇒y=6
The given number is 10y + x
Substituting the value of y = 6 and x = 0
⇒ 10 × 6 + 0 = 60
Therefore, the number is 60.
EXERCISE 6 (B)
Question 1. Which of the following numbers are divisible by 2?

17, 32, 21, 84, 76, 35, 38, 90, 102, 204, 306, 408, 700, 93, 735, 751, 621, 417, 541
Solution:
A number is divisible by 2 if its ones digit is either 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8.

Therefore, the number that are divisible by 2 are 32, 84, 76, 38, 90, 102, 204, 306, 408, 700.

417, 132, 621, 751, 840, 193, 486, 735, 528, 619.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 3 if sum of its digit is divisible by 3.

Therefore, the number that are divisible by 3 are 417, 132, 621, 840, 486, 735, 528.

164, 232, 162, 285, 735, 476, 184, 416, 800, 900
Solution:
A number is divisible by 4 if the number formed by its tens and ones digit is divisible by 4.

476, 235, 680, 500, 168, 505, 555, 784, 900, 28, 70, 35.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 5 if its ones digit is either 0 or 5.
Therefore, the number that are divisible by 5 are 235, 680, 500, 505, 555, 900,70, 35.

75
528, 680, 456, 168, 961, 555, 132, 62, 966, 74.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 6 if it is divisible by 2 and 3 both i.e if its ones digit is either 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8 and
sum of its digit is divisible by 3.
Therefore, the number that are divisible by 6 are 528, 456, 168, 132, 966.

217, 309, 511, 786, 486, 203, 651.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 7, if we double the ones digit subtracted from the remaining number is divisible by
7.
Therefore, the number that are divisible by 7 are 217, 511, 203, 651.

549, 671, 994, 459, 270, 81, 333, 225, 120, 999.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 9 if the sum of its digit is divisible by 9.

80, 65, 30, 45, 55, 400, 310, 205, 880, 505.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 10 if its unit digit is 0.
Therefore, the number that are divisible by 10 are 80, 30, 400, 310, 880.

352, 528, 735, 143, 737, 132, 407, 714, 505, 165.
Solution:
A number is divisible by 11 if the difference of the sums of the digit at the alternate places is either a number
divisible by 11 or is equal to zero.
Question 10. Place the numbers 3 to 8 in the blanks to form a six-digit number. Follow these rules
__________
(a) The first digit (starting from the left, is a lucky number).
(b)The first two digits (starting from the left) must be divisible by 2.
(c) The first three digits (starting from the left) an odd number divisible by 3.
(d)The first four digits starting from the left, are divisible by 4.
(e) Number formed by first 5 digits from the left should be divisible by 5.
(f) Number formed by first 6 digits from the left, should be divisible by 2 and 3 both.
Hint: Use divisibility rule to narrow down your choices.
Solution:
First few lucky numbers are 1,3,7,9 …….so on. So, according to the question here we can consider only 3
and 7 as the lucky numbers.
The required number is 783654
EXERCISE 6 (C)
Question1. Find the values of A B C D E F, G H I when A × B = 3, A × C = 5, D = 2A + C, F = 3B, B + E
=C
Solution:
Given, A × B = 3, A × C = 5
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So, A=1
Therefore, B = 3 , C = 5
Given, D = 2A + C
So, D = 2 × 1 + 5 = 7
D=7
Given, F = 3B = 3 × 3
So, F = 9
Therefore, B + E = C
⇒3+E=5
⇒E=2
Therefore, A = 1, B = 3, C = 5, D = 7, E = 2, F = 9, G = 8, H = 6, I = 4
Question 2. A × B = 30, C × D = 32, B × D = 48 and B × C = 24. What does A × B × C × D equal?

Solution:
As, A × B = 30 and C × D = 32
Therefore, A × B × C × D = 30 ×32 = 960
Question 3. Find the value of A, B and C when A × B = 5
Solution:
Given, A × B = 5
1×5=5
So, A = 1, B = 5 and C = 7
Question 4. Find the value of A, B, C, D, E, F if
Solution:
Given, D × 1 = 5
So, D = 5
From the question, A – 5 = 2
A=2+5=7
Therefore, A = 7
From the question, D × D = 25
As, 5 × 5 = 25
Therefore, C = 2
From the question, B - D = 4
B–5=4
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B=5+4=9
Therefore, B = 9
From the question, C – E = C
2–E=2
E=2–2=0
Therefore, E = 0
From the question, D × F = 4 E
5×F=40
40
F= 5 =8
Therefore, A = 7, B = 9, C = 2, D = 5 , E = 0, F = 8
III.WORKSHEET:
1. Find the values of the letters in the following and give reasons for the steps involved.
2. Sum of the digits of a two-digit number is 9. When we interchange the digits, it is found that the resulting
new number is greater than the original number by 27. What is the two-digit number?
3. One of the two digits of a two-digit number is three times the other digit. If you interchange the digits of
this two-digit number and add the resulting number to the original number, you get 88. What is the
original number?
4. Find the value of the letter in the following and give reasons for the steps involved.
5. Find the values of the letters in the following and give reasons for the steps involved.
6. If 21y5 is a multiple of 9, where y is a digit, what is the value of y?
7. Find the value of k where 31k 2 is divisible by 6.
8. If 42x5 is a multiple of 9 and x is a digit, then find the value of x.
WORKSHEET ANSWERS:
1. A=7 and B=6
2. 36
3. 62
4. A=6
5. A = 4 and B =7
78
6. Y = 1
7. 0 or 3, 6, 9
8. 7
IV.HOMEWORK
9. Find the values of the letters in the following and give reasons for the steps involved. (ANS: A=8
B=1)
10. 212 x 5 is a multiple of 3 and 11. Find the value of x. (ANS: 8)
SCIENCE
CHAPTER 1: CROP PRODUCTION AND MANAGEMENT
I.CHAPTER AT A GLANCE:
Why do we need food?
• We need food because it gives us energy, keeps us healthy, and helps us to grow as well as repair and
replace damaged and worn-out tissues.
• How do plants and animals get their food?
• Most plants make their own food through the process of Photosynthesis. Animals feed on plants or other
animals to get energy.
• When we cultivate same kind of plants on a large scale at one place, it called ‘Crop’.
Agricultural Practices
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Depending on the season, there are two major types of crops:
Basic Practices of Crop Production

Seven agricultural practices followed while growing a crop are:
1. Preparation of Soil: To loosen and turn the soil.
2. Sowing: Planting of seeds of a crop in soil.
3. Adding Manure and Fertilisers: Adding essential nutrients to soil for growth and development of plants.
4. Irrigation: Supplying water to plants at regular intervals.
5. Protection from Weeds: Removal of unwanted plants from the cultivated field to allow crops proper
access to lights, space, and nutrients.
6. Harvesting: Cutting mature crops from fields.
7. Storage: Keeping grains or produce safe from rats, insects, microorganisms and moisture.
1) Preparation of Soil
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Why do we loosen or turn the soil?
Loosening the soil is important because it:
• allows the toots to go deeper into the soil and yet, breathe easily (allowing air to reach the roots),
• helps in growth of microbes and earthworms that add humus to the soil and turn and loosen the soil
further, and
• nutrient-rich soil comes to the top and can be used by plants.
The process used to loosen and turn the soil is called Tilling or Ploughing. After tilling, Levelling is done
in which the big clumps of soil called crumbs are broken (and levelled). Levelling the field helps in the
process of sowing and irrigation.
Step-by-step Agricultural Process
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Agricultural Implements used for Ploughing
PLOUGH HOE CULTIVATOR
• It is usually derived from Hoe has been used since A plough attached to a tractor
wood ancient times is called a cultivator.
• and is pulled by two bulls. • for cultivation purposes. • This reduces labour and
saves time.
It has been used since ancient It consists of • It stirs the soil around the
times for: • a long rod of wood maturing crop to promote
• is pulled by the animals. growth and destroy weeds.
• Tiling,
• turning the soil It is used for
• and adding fertilizers. • loosening the soil
• removing weeds.
How does it work?
• It consists of a long How does it work?
wooden log called plough • It has a strong, broad, bent
shaft. plate of iron which works
• It has a strong triangular as a blade.
iron strip known as a
ploughshare.
• The other end is
connected to a beam that
is then placed on the bull’s
neck.
• However, the wooden
ploughs are now
substituted by iron ploughs
and it is drawn by tractors.
Why is levelling the field important?
Land levelling is typically done in mildly sloping lands where farmers use surface irrigation methods such as
furrows, borders, basins or floods. It ensures uniform distribution of irrigation water in the root zone of the
crop. It also helps in seeding and managing the crop better, which means that the yield and quality of the
crop is better.
Agricultural Implements used for Levelling
Traditionally, farmers used ox-drawn scrapers to level the land but today, laser land leveller is being used to
make sure that the surface of the field is even and flat. The laser-guided levellers save time, increases
productivity, and saves water (as it minimizes water-logging or run-off problems.
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Ox-drawn Scraper
Laser Land Leveller
2) Sowing
Which kind of seeds should farmers use?
Farmers should use good-quality seeds that are clean, healthy and give high yield. Selection of the right
variety of seeds depends on the soil, climate, irrigation method, and other regional factors.
The Ministry of Agriculture in India has set up a national-level organisation called the National Seeds
Corporation (NSCC) that tests the quality of seeds. State Seeds Corporations and Agricultural Universities
have also set up seed testing laboratories throughout India. These labs test seeds for their:
• purity,
• resistance to diseases and pests,
• germination and vigour,
• suitability to regional climatic conditions, and
• general seed health.
How to separate damaged seeds from healthy seeds?
Put the seeds in water. Damaged seeds are hollow and lighter and thus, float on water. Good and healthy
seeds sink in water and settle down.
Agricultural Implements used for Sowing
83
What
precautions should be taken while sowing?
While sowing seeds, it is essential to make sure that:
• Seeds are healthy and of high quality.

• They are planted at correct distance from each other so that they can get proper light, water and nutrients
from soil.
• They must be sown deep enough to protect them from animals and birds (which might eat them) and
wind (which might blow them away) but not so deep that they may not get enough air to germinate.
Why it is better to sow seeds uniformly?
Seeds should be planted at appropriate distance to avoid overcrowding of plants. It allows plants to get
proper sunlight as well as sufficient water and nutrients from the soil.
Why are plants kept in small bags in nursery?
Few plants (like paddy, forest plants, and flowering plants) are first grown in a nursery into seedlings and
then, transplanted to plants manually. Keeping the seedlings in bags makes it easier to transfer them to
another place.
3) Adding Manure and Fertilisers

Why are manure and fertilisers added to the soil?
When crop after crop is grown in the same field, the soil becomes poor in certain nutrients. Manure and
fertilisers are added to the soil to replenish it with nutrients to ensure healthy growth of plants.
What are different types of manure that farmers can use?
Manure can be of various types, such as:
Natural Organic Manure:
This includes raw manure, compost, and green manure:
• Raw manure is a mixture of cattle and domestic waste.

84
• Compost is well-rotted plant and animal residue.
• Green Manure are crops grown in the field as the pure crop or as an intercrop between the main crops -
and then, buried in the field to enrich the soil.
Biofertilizers: These are the nitrogen-fixing organisms that are widely used in organic farming and make
agriculture sustainable. These include Rhizobium, Azotobacter, blue-green algae, and Mycorrhizae (a type
of fungi that increases phosphorus uptake in fruit crops like papaya and citrus fruits).
Vermi-Compost: It is a type of compost which is made using earthworms.
What are the three methods of replenishing the soil with nutrients?
The three methods of replenishing the soil are:
• Adding organic manure to the soil,

• Adding chemical fertilizers to the soil,
• Leaving the field uncultivated (or fallow) between two crops, and Crop rotation, in which different crops
are grown alternately to allow the soil to replenish with different nutrients.
Difference between Manure and Fertilisers
S. No Fertiliser Manure
1. Fertiliser is a man-made inorganic salt. Manure is a natural substance
obtained by the decomposition
of cattle dung and plant
residues
2. Fertiliser is prepared in factors. Manure provides a lot of
humus to the soil.
3. Fertiliser does not provide any humus to the soil. Manure provides a lot of
humus to the soil.
4. Fertilisers are very rich in plant nutrients like nitrogen, Manure is relatively less rich in
phosphorus and potassium. plant nutrients.
85
Examples of Fertilisers
Pros and Cons of using Fertilisers
• Pros: They are chemicals, rich in particular nutrients and help farmers get better yield of crops like wheat,
paddy and maize.
• Cons: They make soil less fertile and also cause water pollution.
Why is Manure better than Fertilisers?
Organic Manure is better than Fertilisers because:
• It adds humus to the soil and increases its water holding capacity,
• Improves soil texture,
• Makes soil porous which makes exchange of gases easier, and
• Increases the number of friendly microbes.
State an example of Crop Rotation
In North India, farmers used to grow legumes in one season as fodder and wheat in the next season. This
helped the soil to get replenished with nitrogen.
Root nodules of leguminous plants have Rhizobium bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen and make it
usable by plants.
4) Irrigation
Why is Irrigation necessary?

Irrigation is essential because:
• Plants contain 90% water and need it for proper
Time and frequency of irrigation depends on: growth and development.
• the veriey of crop, • When roots absorb water, they also absorb minerals
and fertilizers.
• the type of soil and
• Germination of seeds does not take place in dry
• the season (In summers, watering has to be
conditions.
done more frequency but to the increased
rate of evaporation from the soil and • Nutrients dissolved in water get transport to
leaves). different parts of the plant.
• Water also protects crops from frost and hot air
currents.
Sources of Irrigation
86
Traditional Methods of Irrigation
Traditional irrigation methods can be of two types:
87
• Ones that use cattle and human labour: They are cheaper but less efficient. These include:
• Ones that use pumps: To lift water, pumps can be powered by:
Diesel, Biogas, Electricity, and Solar Energy.
Modern Methods of Irrigation
They are best for saving water. Two main irrigation methods in use today are:
• Sprinkler System
Best for places where:
• land is uneven, and

• sufficient water is not available.
How does it work?
• It has perpendicular pipes, with rotating nozzles on top, joined to the main pipeline at regular intervals.
88
• Water flows through the main pipeline under pressure (created with the help of a pump). It escapes from
rotating nozzles and sprinkles on the crop like rain
• Often used in watering Lawns, and Coffee plantations.
• Drip System
Best for places where:

• availability of water is poor.
• Water falls drop-by-drop directly near the roots of the crop. There is no wastage of water at all.
• Often used in watering: Fruit Plants, Gardens, and Trees
How does over-irrigation harmful for crop production?
Like irregular or under-irrigation, excessive water can also damage crops. In a waterlogged field:
• Seeds do not germinate properly as they do not get sufficient air to respire,
• Roots do not grow properly due to lack of proper soil aeration,
• Water evaporates more which leads to accumulation of salt which in turn damages soil fertility, and
• Roots do not go deep in soil and hence, plants are not able to get full nutrients from the soil. Roots are
also unable to anchor the plants properly and the crop can easily get damaged by strong winds.
5) Protection from Weeds
Undesirable plants that grow naturally along with the crop are called weeds. Removal of weeds is called
Weeding.
Why is weeding necessary?
Removal of weeds is essential because:
• Weeds compete with crops for space, light, water, and nutrients.
• They may interfere in harvesting and can be poisonous for animals and human beings.
How do farmers remove weeds?
• Farmers remove weeds by:
• Tilling before sowing of crops (to uproot and kill weeds),
• Manually removing them using khurpi to uproot them or cut them close to the ground,
• Spraying weedicides (chemicals that kill weeds but do not damage crops), such as 2, 4 Dichlorophenoxy
acetic acid (2, 4-D), Naphthalene acetic acid, and Atrazine.
What should farmers keep in mind while using weedicides?
• The best time to remove weeds is before they produce flowers and seeds.
• Weedicides are diluted with water and sprayed in the fields. Farmers should cover their nose and mouth
with a piece of cloth while spraying them.
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6) Harvesting
Cutting of crop after it matures is called Harvesting.
Cereal crops usually take 3-4 months to mature.
In India, many festivals are associated with harvesting, such as Pongal, Baisakhi, Holi, Diwali, Nabanya and
Bihu.
Harvesting can be done manually (using sickle) or by machine (called Harvester).
7) Storage
How are grains protected from pests, bacteria and fungi?
• Grains (seeds) are dried in the sun to reduce their moisture.

• At small scale, grains are stored in jute bags or metallic bins.
• At large scale, they are kept in silos and granaries.
• Dried neem leaves are used at home to protect food grains.
• In big go downs, chemical treatments are done to protect the large quantities of grain.
What precautions should be taken during storage of grains?
Precautions to be taken during storage of food grains are:
• Grains should be dried properly or they might rot easily.

• They should be stored in completely dry gunny bags.
• The bags should be kept in a place which is completely moisture-free.
• Storage areas should be well-ventilated.
Food from Animals
90
When animals are reared at a large scale to obtain food from them, it is called Animal Husbandry.
Animal husbandry includes taking care of animals, breeding them, and domesticating them for different
purposes such as meat, wool, milk, eggs, honey etc. Types of animal husbandry popular in India include:
• Beekeeping or Apiculture
• Cattle farming
• Dairy farming
• Fish Farming or Aquaculture
• Poultry farming
• Sheep farming
NITROGEN CYCLE
What is Nitrogen Cycle?
The nitrogen cycle is a biogeochemical process in which nitrogen, in various forms, is circulated from the
atmosphere to the living organisms and later back to the atmosphere.
Importance of Nitrogen Fixation
Living organisms require nitrogen for the synthesis of nucleic acid and proteins. The atmosphere contains
almost 78% of nitrogen present in an inert form (N2). This nitrogen cannot be used by living organisms
unless it is converted to ammonia, nitrates, and other usable compounds of nitrogen.
Nitrogen Cycle Steps

There are several steps of the nitrogen cycle as mentioned above, the complete process can be classified into
nitrogen fixation, assimilation, ammonification, nitrification, and denitrification steps.
Each of the steps is described below in the article.
1. Nitrogen Fixation
The first step involves the fixation (conversion) of atmospheric inert nitrogen into a usable form of nitrogen.
Here, the N2 form of nitrogen is converted into NH3 (Ammonia). This process is carried out by symbiotic
bacteria present in the soil called diazotrophs. These are bacteria, primarily known for their nitrogen fixation
in nature, e.g., rhizobium.
There are three ways nitrogen fixation can take place.
• Atmospheric Nitrogen Fixation: The inert nitrogen present in the atmosphere is converted to nitrous
oxide with the help of lightning due to the high -temperature present during lightning. The nitrogen is
broken down into nitrogen atoms which react with oxygen to form nitrous oxide, nitrogen peroxide, and
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nitric oxide. These compounds later dissolve in the rain to form dilute nitric acid. When the dilute nitric
acid reaches the Earth's surface, it reacts with the alkalies present to form nitrates that plants can easily
absorb.
• Biological Nitrogen Fixation: There exist nitrogen-fixing bacteria and blue-green algae that convert
nitrogen present in the atmosphere into nitrates. There are two types of nitrogen-fixing bacteria:
o Free-Living Bacteria: For example, Azotobacter, and Clostridium.
o Symbiotic Bacteria: For example, Rhizobium that is present in root nodules of individual
leguminous plants like Nostoc and Anabaena.
• Industrial Nitrogen Fixation: It is a human-made alternative where the atmospheric nitrogen is converted
into ammonia by Haber's process and later into nitrates in various fertilizers.
2. Ammonification
The dead remains of plants and animals are buried in the soil. They decay and create ammonia, carbon
dioxide, and water, with the help of fungi like actinomyces. This process of formation of ammonia is called
ammonification.
3. Nitrification
The process in which the ammonia is converted into nitrites and later into nitrates is called Nitrification.
This process takes place in two steps:
• Conversion of Ammonia into Nitrites: This takes place by the action of Nitrosomonas bacteria. They
oxidize the ammonia present in the soil and convert them to nitrites. The chemical equation to
represent the reaction is mentioned below.
2NH4+ + 3O2 → 2NO2– + 4H+ + 2H2O
• Conversion of Nitrites to Nitrates: This takes place by the action of Nitrobacter species, which
convert the nitrates in the soil into nitrates. The chemical equation of the reaction is mentioned
below.
2NO2– + O2 → 2NO3–
4. Assimilation
In this process, the formed nitrates in the soil get absorbed by the plants through their root system. The
plants contain nitrates that are consumed by the consumers and then later process through the food chain and
enter the food web. Assimilation is the absorption of nitrates and other nitrogen compounds. The nitrogen
compounds are essential for the formation of crucial biomolecules.
5. Denitrification
The plants do not absorb some nitrates. They are converted into atmospheric nitrogen with the help of
pseudomonas and clostridium. This process is the last step where the nitrogen compounds present in the soil
make their way back to the atmospheric nitrogen.
II.TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
A. Choose the correct answer.
1. Which of the following is grouped under pulses?
Answer: Gram
2. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
Answer: Soya bean.
3. Which of the following is not an example of a food crop?
Answer: Cotton.
4. Which of the following is a weedicide?
Answer: Butachlor.
5. What is the process of cutting and gathering of crop called?
Answer: Harvesting.
6. Which of the following tool or machine is used only for loosening the soil?
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Answer: plough.
7. What is the full form of DDT?
Answer: Dichloro diphenyl trichloroethane.
B. Fill in the blanks.

1. ______ should be removed from the crop before storing it.
Answer: Moisture.
2. ______ crops are harvested in October.
Answer: kharif.
3. A crop which is grown by a farmer to fulfil the needs of his family is called _______ crop.
Answer: Subsistence
4. _____ crops are grown in winter season.
Answer: Rabi
5. Excess use of fertilisers at a place lead to _____ and ____ pollution.
Answer: Soil and water
6. The practise of breeding and raising animals on a large scale is known as _______.
Answer: Animal husbandry.
C. Give reasons for the following:
1. Seeds should be sown at the right depth.
Answer:
If the seeds are sown too deep, they will not be able to germinate. And if grown at a shallow depth
they will be eaten up by the birds and animals. Keeping an appropriate distance is important to avoid
the overcrowding so that the seeds get sufficient sunlight, nutrient and water.
2. It is important to irrigate the fields.
Answer:
A good crop yield requires availability of the right amount of water. Minerals and fertilizers can only
be absorbed by the plants in presence of water. Seeds do not germinate in the absence or scarcity of
water. Hence, agricultural fields need to be irrigated or watered regularly.
3. Fruits, vegetables and grains should be thoroughly washed before use.
Answer:
Pesticides are sprayed on fruits, vegetables and grains to prevent the attack of insects and pests. If the
fruits or vegetables are consumed without washing, pesticides can enter the body, causing serious
health problems. Hence, it is strongly advised to wash the fruits and vegetables before consumption.
4. Farmers prefer to grow leguminous crops alternatively with cereal crops in their fields.
Answer:
The practice of continuous plantation of crops causes the soil in fields to become poor in essential
nutrients such as phosphorus, potassium, nitrogen and many more. The requirement of nutrients is
essential for the normal functioning and growth of plants.So the farmers prefer to grow leguminous
crops alternatively with cereal crops in their fields.
5. Manure is slowly absorbed by plants.
Answer:
Manure is not readily soluble in water. Thus, it is absorbed by the plants slowly.
D. Find the odd one. Give reason for your choice.
1. Paddy, barley, cotton, soyabean.
Answer:
Cotton. Cotton is a cash crop.
2. Wheat, maize, jute, millets.
Answer:
Jute. Jute is a fibre and not used as food.
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3. Urea, compost, potash, ammonium sulphate.
Answer:
Compost is a manure and others are fertilizers.
4. Silos, granaries, mines, go downs.
Answer:
Mines are not used for storing food grains.
5. 2,4-D, BHC, Warfarin, DDT.
Answer:
2,4-D is a pesticide and others are pesticides.
E. Match the following.
1. Broadcasting a. Scattering of seeds
2. Fish b. Rust of wheat
3. Weeding. c. Potash
4. Fungal disease d. Pisciculture.
5. Fertiliser e. Trowel
6. Viral disease f. Leaf curl of cotton.
ANSWER:
Broadcasting Scattering of seeds
Fish Pisciculture.
Weeding. Trowel
Fungal disease Rust of wheat
Fertiliser Potash
Viral disease Leaf curl of cotton.
F. State True or False.

1. Wilting prevents transportation of water in plants.
Answer: True.
2. 2,4-D is an example of a weedicide.
Answer: True.
3. Winnowing involves the separation of grain from crop.
Answer: False.
4. Crossing between two same varieties of crops is called hybridisation.
Answer: True.
5. Granaries are used to store small number of grains.
Answer: False.
G. Answer the following questions in brief.

1. Define agriculture. List basic agricultural practices in correct order.
Answer:
The practice of growing plants and rearing animals on a large scale for food, fibre and other useful
products is known as agriculture.
Soil preparation, sowing, manuring, irrigation, weeding, harvesting, and storage are the seven steps of
agriculture practices.
2. Differentiate between Kharif and Rabi crops with examples.

Answer:
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3. Why is the soil suitably levelled before sowing seeds?
Answer:
It helps in sowing the seeds uniformly, and thus helps the plants to grow uniformly too. It helps in
proper irrigation by allowing the water to get distributed uniformly throughout the soil.
4. In what way is the use of seed drill advantageous over broadcasting?
Answer:
A seed drill sows seeds at proper distances and proper depth from each other while broadcasting sows
them at unequal distances. This ensures that there is no competition between the plants for food,
water, sunlight, minerals etc.
5. If soil has all the nutrients, then why do we need to replenish it?
Answer:
It is necessary to replenish the nutrients into the soil because all the nutrients that soil has are used up
by the plants during their growth so for the continuous supply of nutrients to the plants it is necessary
to replenish the soil again and again.
6. What are weeds? Why should weeds be removed from a field?

Answer:
Weeds are unwanted plants in the cultivated field. They compete with the crop plants for food, space
and light. They take up the nutrients and reduce the growth of the crop.
7. Why is the prolonged use of DDT not desirable?
Answer:
DDT is a pesticide. A pesticide is used to destroy harmful insects of plants and animals. The use of
DDT is not advisable because once it enters the food chain its concentration keeps on increasing as it
passes to higher trophic levels and disturbs the organisms at those levels. It is also carcinogenic.
8. Which type of irrigation method will be best for dry regions such as desert? Give a suitable reason.
Answer:
Drip system will be the best for dry regions such as desert. It does not waste water at all and conserves
water greatly; hence it is the best irrigation system for places like Rajasthan.
9. Define the following:
a. Apiary.
Answer:
A place in which a colony or colonies of bees are kept, as a stand or shed for beehives or a bee house
containing a number of beehives.
b. Dairy animals.
Answer:
Animals that give us milk.
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c. Plant breeding.
Answer:
Plant breeding is the science of changing the traits of plants in order to produce desired
characteristics. It has been used to improve the quality of nutrition in products for humans and
animals.
10. Give any two examples of the following:
a. Weedicides.
Answer:
Weedicides:
• 2,4-D (2-4 D - Dichlorophenoxy Acetic Acid)
• MCPA (2 Methyl 4chloro Phenoxy acetic acid)
b. Pesticides.
Answer:
Pesticides:
• BHC (Benzene hexa chloride)
• Warfin.
H. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. How would you prepare a field before sowing seeds? Explain the process with the help of a flowchart?
Answer:
The preparation of soil is the first step before growing a crop. The soil is prepared for sowing the
seeds of crop by
• ploughing
• levelling
• manuring.
Ploughing: The process of loosening and turning the soil is called ploughing. It is done by using a tool
called plough. It is made up of wood or iron. One of the important tasks in agriculture is to turn the
soil and loosen it. It allows the roots to penetrate deep into the soil so that plants are held more firmly
to the soil.
Levelling: The ploughed field may have big pieces of soil called crumbs. It is necessary to break these
crumbs with a plank. The levelling of ploughed soil is done by using an implement called leveller.
Manuring: Sometimes, manure is added to the soil before tilling. This helps in proper
mixing of manure with soil. Once the soil is ploughed, levelled and manured, it is ready for sowing of
seeds.
2. Compare the advantages and disadvantages of using manure and fertilisers in the crop field.
Answer:
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3. Describe the various methods that can be employed to control the growth of weeds in a crop field.
Answer:
• Weeds can be controlled using weedicides. It is a chemical, which is sprayed in the fields to kill
all available weeds.
• Tilling before sowing of crops also helps in removing weeds. Tilling uproots the weeds.
• The manual method of removing weeds is with the help of a khurpi.
4. Why is ploughing an important practice in agricultural fields?
Answer:
Ploughing is a technique for loosening soil in preparation for agriculture. Ploughing is used to turn
over the top layer of soil. It aids in the transport of new nutrients to the surface. It also aids in the
burial of weeds and previous crop wastes.
Advantages of Ploughing
Loosening soil can increase air circulation.

The roots can go deeper into the dirt, securing the plant.
Ploughing improves soil water retention.
Ploughing uproots weeds and promotes microorganism growth.
5. Discuss some natural methods to prevent the growth of pests.
Answer:
Some natural methods to prevent the growth of pests are:
By Crop rotation: Crop rotation is an efficient way of preventing pests from getting used to the types
of plants that are being cultivated. The life cycle of pests gets interrupted by this change.
By introducing natural predators: Animals like Birds, Bats, Toads, and Turtles feed on insects which
destroy the crops.
6. Raghav is a friend of Sashank, who is a farmer. Raghav advises his friend to not to grow the same type
of crop (cash crop) in his field over several years to gain more money.
a. Is Raghav’s advice, correct? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes, his advice is correct. The same type of crop in a field will not give a good yield.
b. What can be the consequences of growing one type of crop in a field for a long period of time?
Answer:
The practice of continuous plantation of crops causes the soil in fields to become poor in essential
nutrients such as phosphorus, potassium, nitrogen and many more. The requirement of nutrients is
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essential for the normal functioning and growth of plants. So, the farmers prefer to grow leguminous
crops alternatively with cereal crops in their fields.
7. ‘Prolonged use of pesticides is undesirable’. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
Pesticides have the potential to contaminate soil, water, and other vegetation. Pesticides, in addition to
killing insects and weeds, can be toxic to a variety of other organisms such as birds, fish, beneficial
insects, and non-target plants.
8. Explain Nitrogen cycle with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Nitrogen is primary nutrient important for survival of all living organisms. It is an essential
component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll. Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains
about 78% nitrogen. Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen. They can use it only if it
is in the form of ammonia, amino acids or nitrates. Processes involved in nitrogen cycle are:
Nitrogen fixation: Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen, which is inert, into
reactive compounds available to living organisms. This conversion is done by a number of bacteria
and blue green algae (Cyanobacteria).
Nitrogen assimilation: Plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter like
proteins and nucleic acids.
Ammonification: The process of decomposition of nitrogenous waste by putrefying bacteria and fungi
into ammonium compounds is called ammonification.
Nitrification: The ammonium compounds formed by ammonification process are oxidised to soluble
nitrates. This process of nitrate formation is known as nitrification. The bacteria responsible for
nitrification are called as nitrifying bacteria.
Denitrification: Free living soil bacteria such as Pseudomonas sp. reduce nitrate ions of soil into
gaseous nitrogen which enters the atmosphere.
9. In what way is Pisciculture different from apiculture?
Answer:
The breeding, rearing and transplantation of fish is called pisciculture. It is also called fish farming.
Rearing of honeybees on a large scale is called apiculture.
10. Explain the process – harvesting, threshing and winnowing.
Answer:
Harvesting: It is the process of cutting and gathering the crops once they are mature. It can be done
manually by using a sickle or by a machine called harvester.
Threshing: The harvested grains will be covered by a husk which is loosened by threshing. It is done
manually by beating the crop stalk against a hard floor or by using a machine called thresher.
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Winnowing: This involves the separation of lighter chaff from the heavier grain. It is done by
dropping the grains from a height so the lighter chaff is carried away by the wind.
11. What is ‘field fallow’? What is the aim of this practice?
Answer:
Allowing a field to remain free of crops for one or more seasons is called field fallow. It allows the field
to regain nutrients.
III.WORKSHEET
1. Look at the picture and answer the following questions.
a) Identify the equipment shown in the picture.

b) Give the role of the above equipment in agriculture.
c) How often should one use the above tool on the agricultural field?
2. Look at the picture and answer the questions that follow.
a) Identify the machine shown in the picture.

b) Give the role of the above machine in agriculture.
c) How does this machine make the work simpler?
d) What is the next step aft er the above activity on the field?
3. Give two examples of each of the following.
a) Kharif crops.
b) Rabi crops.
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c) Weeds.
d) Fertilizers.
4. Name two substances which increase nutrition in the soil?
5. What is organic farming?
WORKSHEET ANSWERS.
a) Tractor-driven plough
b) Plough is used to loosen the soil.
c) Ploughing should be done before sowing seeds.
2. Look at the picture and answer the questions that follow.
a) Combine harvester
b) It is used for both harvesting and threshing.
c) This machine threshes the crop at the time of harvesting.
d) Storage of crop is the next step.
3. The two examples are:
a) Paddy, Maize
b) Wheat, Gram
c) Wild oat, Grass
d) Urea, Potash.
4. Manures, Fertilizers.
5. It is a form of agriculture that relies on techniques such as crop rotation, green manure, compost.
IV.HOMEWORK.
1. List the steps involved in crop production in a flow chart.
2. How are perishable items stored on a commercial scale?
3. Comment on some new agriculture technology in modern farming.
CHAPTER 3: SYNTHETIC FIBRES AND PLASTICS.
Fabrics are made by weaving fibres (or threads) obtained from natural or artificial sources. They can be of
two types:
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What are Synthetic Fibres?
What is a synthetic fibre made up of?
• A synthetic fibre, as well as plastic, is made up of a chain of small units (called Monomers) which
combine to form polymers.
• Monomers: A monomer is a single molecule that can bond with other identical molecules to form
polymers through a process called Polymerization.
• Polymers: Polymer is a Greek word in which 'poly' means 'many' and 'mer' means units. Hence,
polymers are large molecule made up of several molecules (or monomers) linked together.
Example of Polymers:
• All synthetic fibres, such as Rayon and Nylon, are polymers.

• Polymers are also found in Nature. ‘Cotton’ is a polymer called ‘Cellulose’. ‘Cellulose’ is made up of a
number of single units (or monomers) called ‘Glucose’.
Polymerization Reaction: The process of linking small monomers together to form polymers is called
Polymerization.
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Types of Synthetic Fibres
1. Rayon
Rayon is a versatile fibre and can imitate the feel and texture of silk, wool, cotton and linen with drape and
slipperiness akin to nylon.
Why Rayon is called artificial silk?
• Rayon resembles silk in appearance, texture and shine. Hence, it is also known as Artificial Silk.
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• Silk fibre was discovered in China and made from silkworms. It had a beautiful texture and was very
costly.
• By the end of the 19th century, scientists managed to make an artificial silk-like fibre made by treating
wood pulp chemically.
Uses of Rayon
• This man-made fibre uses natural material (wood pulp) and can be woven like silk fibre. It is cheaper
than silk and can be dyed in a variety of colours. It can be:
• Make apparels like suits, slacks, jackets etc.
• Make automobile tyre cords (because of its strength)
• Mixed with cotton to make bedsheets and bedspreads
• Mixed with wool to make carpets and blankets
• Used to make other home furnishings, such as curtains and tablecloths
2. Nylon
Nylon is the first synthetic fibre to be prepared without using any natural raw materials (materials produced
by plants and animals).
Which properties make Nylon suitable for:
• Making Ropes used for Rock Climbing: Strong fibre, Lightweight, Weather Resistant
• Making Fishing Nets: Strong, Elastic, Water Resistant
• Making Tents: Strong, Light, Does Not Absorb Much Water, Dries Quickly
Uses of Nylon
Developed in 1931, this thermoplastic silky material is strong, elastic, light, lustrous and easy to wash. A
nylon thread is, in fact, stronger than a steel wire.
Hence, it is used to:
• Make clothes (including socks)
• Make parachutes as well as ropes for rock climbing
• Make ropes, toothbrushes, and car seat belts etc.
• Make tents, curtains, and sleeping bags
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3. Polyester
• Polyester fibre does not get wrinkled easily. Hence, a fabric made from this fibre is easy to wash and
does not need to be ironed - which makes it suitable for dress material.
• Polyester is made up of two words - 'poly' which means many, and 'ester' which is a chemical.
• Esters are chemicals which give fruits their smell.
Name some types of Polyester fibres.
Some popular polyester fibres are:
• Terylene (often known by brand name Dacron) which can be drawn into a very fine fibre and can be
woven like any other yarn.
• Polyethylene terephthalate (P.E.T.) is used for making wires, films, bottles, utensils and other products.
What are blended fibres? Give some examples.
• Blended fibres are formed by mixing natural and synthetic fibres. Polyester is often used in blended
fibres. For Example,
o Polywool is made by mixing polyester and wool.
o Polycot is made my mixing polyester and cotton.
o Terrycot is made by mixing Terylene and cotton.
Uses of Polyester
Since polyester is strong, wrinkle-resistant and water-resistant, it has several uses. It can be used to:
• Make a variety of textiles (including sarees, curtains, dress materials etc.) and can be blended with
natural fibres (like cotton and wool).
• Make films, magnetic recording tapes, etc (as Mylar).
• Make sails of sailboats.
• Make water hoses for firefighting purposes.
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4. Acrylic
• Acrylic is a strong, lightweight and warm synthetic fibre that resembles wool. It is available in a number
of colours and is more durable and affordable than natural wool.
• Acrylic fibre, fabric, plastic or paint are all made from acrylic acid. The word 'acrylic' means 'containing
acryl (or acrolein)' Acrolein is the sharp and bitter liquid in onions and has its roots in two Latin words -
'acer' which means 'sharp', and 'olere' which means 'to smell'.
Why storage of acrylic clothes is easier than woollen clothes?
Woollen clothes need naphthalene balls to protect them from attack by insects. Acrylic is synthetic wool and
is hence, resistant to the action of moths and insects.
Uses of Acrylic Fibre
• Acrylic can mimic wool as well as cotton at times and is hypoallergenic in nature. It means that people
who have sensitive skin can wear it easily. Some acrylic fibres are very resilient – more than other
natural or synthetic fibres. It can be used to:
• Make woollen clothes like hats, scarves, gloves, sweaters, blankets, and other home-furnishing fabrics.
• Make fake fur used for making toys and fur accessories.
• Make garments for babies (as the fabric is machine-washable).
Characteristics of Synthetic Fibres
What are synthetic fibres made up of?
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All the synthetic fibres are manufactured by processing raw materials of petroleum origin in a number of
ways. The raw materials of petroleum origin are called Petrochemicals.
Characteristics of Synthetic Fibres
Why should we not wear synthetic clothes in the kitchen?
Synthetic fibres melt on heating. If the clothes catch fire, the fabric made up of synthetic fibres will melt and
stick to one's body. Hence, it is recommended that one should not wear synthetic clothes while working in
the kitchen or laboratory.
5. Plastics
Plastic is a polymer (like the synthetic fibre) which can be moulded into different shapes. The word ‘plastic’
originates from the Greek word ‘plastikos’ which means ‘that can be moulded or shaped’. Plastic polymers
can have different types of arrangement of monomers:
Plastic can be recycled and used. It can also be melted, rolled into sheets, made into wires, and coloured.
Some popular types of plastics are:
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Types of Plastic
Plastics as Materials of Choice
Give Reasons Why:

• Buckets are made of plastic these days.
Plastic buckets are strong, lightweight, and do not rust.
• Bakelite plastic is used to make electrical switches.
Bakelite is a poor conductor of heat and electricity. Hence, they would not give anyone an
electric shock when someone touches the switch.
• Melamine is used to make crockery.
Melamine is unbreakable, fire resistant, and tolerates heat better than plastics. Hence, it can be used to make
crockery that can hold hot liquids or dishes served in it.
• Plastics are used in cars, aircraft and spacecraft.
Plastics are strong, durable, lightweight, and corrosion-resistant.
• Chemicals are stored in plastic bottles.
Plastic bottles are lightweight, unbreakable, corrosion-resistant, and are resistant to the action of chemicals.
Hence, they are suitable for storing chemicals.
• Which plastic is used to make?
➢ Non-stick coating on Cookware: Teflon
➢ Insulation covering on Wires: PVC
➢ Polythene Bags: Polythene
➢ Flame-resistant Uniforms: Melamine
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Special uses of Plastic
Besides being used in packaging for food and non-food items and several daily-used items (such as
furniture, electrical switches, slippers etc.), plastic also has special uses such as:
• Used in the healthcare industry for packaging of tablets, syringes, doctor's gloves, a number of medical
instruments, and threads for stitching wounds.
• Used to make cookware used in microwave ovens
• Used as a non-stick coating on cookware (made of a special plastic called Teflon is used on which oil
and water do not stick)
• Used to make the fire-resistant uniform for firefighters (made of Melamine)
Plastics and the Environment
• Plastic is a threat to the environment as it is non-biodegradable. Its disposal is a big problem.

• Biodegradable: Material which gets decomposed through natural processes (such as bacterial action) is
called Biodegradable.
• Non-biodegradable: Material which cannot be easily decomposed by natural processes is called Non-
biodegradable.
How do plastics cause environmental pollution?
Plastics cause pollution as they:
• are non-biodegradable, and
• release toxic fumes when burnt (and hence, cause air pollution).
5 Rs to Minimize the Environmental Damage caused by Plastic
5 Rs to Minimize the Environmental Damage caused by Plastic

• Refuse: Do not buy things we do not need.
• Reduce: Minimize the use of plastics in our daily lives.
• Reuse: Reuse the items we already instead of throwing them away.
• Repurpose: If we are not using something, alter or change to use it in a different way.
• Recycle: Some plastic waste can be sorted and made into other things in recycling factories. This helps
us to reduce our carbon footprint.
How can we minimize pollution caused by plastics at home?
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We should use jute, cotton, or paper bags instead of plastics. We also need to minimize the use of plastic in
our daily lives (such as using a steel lunch box instead of a plastic one). Also, we should not throw plastics
on the road or in the water bodies.
II.TEXT BOOK EXERCISES:

A. Choose the correct answer
1. Which of the following is a semisynthetic fibre?
Answer: Rayon.
2. Terry wool is an example of _______.
Answer: blended fibre.
3. Which of the following is not a blended fibre?

Answer: Terylene.
4. Which of these is a thermosetting plastic?
Answer: Bakelite.
5. Polyethylene is made of many _______.
Answer: ethene units.
6. Plastic is an example of _____.
Answer: non-biodegradable substance.
7. _____ fibre is known as artificial silk.
Answer: Rayon.
B. State True or False.
1. Synthetic fibres are acquired from petroleum products.
Answer: True.
2. The basic structural unit of a polymer is called monomer.
Answer: True.
3. Nylon is obtained from coal and petrol.
Answer: True.
4. PET is used for making containers that can be used in microwave ovens.
Answer: False.
5. Thermoplastics cannot be remoulded once set after heating.
Answer: False.
6. Fibre obtained by chemical treatment of wood pulp is called rayon.
Answer: True.
7. Plastics are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer: False.
C. Fill in the blanks.
1. The first artificially made fibre was __.
Answer: Rayon.
2. The non – stick coating on pans and other cooking utensils is made of ___________.
Answer: Teflon.
3. The full form of PVC is ___.
Answer: Polyvinyl chloride.
4. _________ is used to make plumbing pipes.
Answer: PVC.
5. Bakelite, a ________ plastic, is used for making _______ fittings.
Answer: thermosetting, electrical
6. _______ substances decay by the action of microorganisms through a natural process.
Answer: Biodegradable.
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D. Give reasons for the following:
1. Polythene bags should not be thrown along with garbage.
Answer:
Polythene bags are non-biodegradable and sometimes stray animals swallow plastic bags and choke
their respiratory system.
2. We wear cotton clothes during summer season.
Answer:
Cotton is a highly absorbent fabric and can easily absorb sweat from the skin during the summer.
3. Synthetic clothes should be avoided in the kitchen.
Answer:
Synthetic clothes can easily catch fire. When they catch fire, they melt and stick to the skin of the
person wearing it. Hence, it is advised not to wear synthetic clothes while working with flames or fire.
4. Pressure cooker handles are made of plastic.
Answer:
The handles of pressure cookers are made of plastic as they are bad insulators of heat. The handles
are made of Bakelite, which is a thermo-setting plastic. It has heat resistant properties and is also an
electrical insulator.
5. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be collected separately.
Answer:
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be discarded in two different dustbins so that
they can be collected separately. The biodegradable waste can be decomposed in a natural manner by
the process of composting. Non-biodegradable wastes can be sent for recycling. If the two wastes are
collected in a single bin, they would mix and may form toxic compounds which can cause pollution.
E. Answer in one word.
1. Synthetic polymers that can be moulded into different shapes.
Answer: Thermoplasts.
2. Long strands formed by joining small units.
Answer: Polymerisation.
3. A thermosetting plastic which is used in electrical fitting.
Answer: Bakelite.
F. Answer the following questions in brief.
1. State one difference between the following and give one example of each.
a. Natural and synthetic fibres.
Answer:
b. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable fibres.
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Answer:
2. What are natural fibres? How are they classified?

Answer:
Natural fibres: Fibres that are obtained from plants or animals are termed as natural fibres. They can
be easily spun into thread, filament, rope which in turn can be further be woven, matted, or knitted.
Classification:
3. What are the raw materials used to manufacture synthetic fibres?

Answer:
Synthetic fibres are synthesized from raw material called petrochemicals.
4. What is the purpose of creating blended fibres?
Answer:
Blended fibres are the fibres created by combining two different fibres so that they have the
advantages of both.
5. What is the full form of PVC? State its one use.
Answer:
The full form of PVC is Poly vinyl chloride. It is used for making plumbing pipes, flooring, upholstery
and furniture.
6. Is plastic a biodegradable or non – biodegradable substance? Explain.
Answer:
Plastic is a non-biodegradable substance.
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Plastics are considered environmental hazards because they are usually non-biodegradable. A non-
biodegradable material can be defined as a kind of substance which cannot be broken down by
natural organisms and acts as a source of pollution.
7. Fabric manufacturers are increasingly developing ‘eco-friendly’ or green fabrics. Comment.
Answer:
The eco-friendly fabric means which are not made by the materials that are harmful for the
environment. Agricultural waste from banana and pineapple can be used as alternative materials for
production of home textiles, apparels, non-woven and industrial fabrics.
G. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. How did plastics become the material of choice for so many varied applications?
Answer:
Plastic are strong, lightweight, electrical insulators and resistant to chemicals and they are generally
cheaper than metal so these properties make them highly versatile materials for making numerous
household and industrial goods.
For e.g.,
• Polythene, a thermoplastic is used widely as packaging material for liquid.
• Polystyrene is used for making electronic items.
2. Polythene bags are commonly used as carry bags but their use is being discouraged these days. Explain?
Answer:
Polythene bags are non-biodegradable and can mix with the soil but cannot decompose. These when
eaten by animals like cows can choke them leading to death. Also, as they do not decompose, they can
mix with the soil leading to soil pollution.
3. How is polyester made? State its two characteristics and uses.
Answer:
Polyester is a synthetic fiber derived from coal, air, water, and petroleum. In this process, ethylene is
the polymer, the chemical building block of polyester, and the chemical process that produces the
finished polyester is called polymerization.
Characteristics:
It is very strong.
It is very durable, resistant to chemicals. Polyester does not shrink.
It is hydrophobic in nature and dries up quickly as it does not absorb water.
It retains its shape.
It is easily washed and dried.
Uses:
It is used to make various types of clothes.
It is used to make ropes.
It is used to make PET bottles.
4. Differentiate between thermoplastic and thermosetting plastic. Give two examples of each.
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Answer:
5. Why Rayon is called a semisynthetic fiber? State any two characteristics and uses of rayon.
Answer:
Rayon is a man-made fibre prepared from a natural raw material called cellulose by chemical
treatment. Since the raw material comes from a natural source, rayon is said to be a semi-synthetic
fibre.
Characteristics:
It dyes easily, takes well to prints, has a good sheen, and it is comfortable to wear. In addition, rayon
does not shrink when washed and dries quickly.
Uses:
Rayon is mainly used in clothing, carpets and upholstery.
6. State four steps that we can take to protect our environment from plastic related pollution.
Answer:
• We should reduce the use of plastic articles by using articles made of other suitable material.
Carry cotton or jute bags for shopping.
• Biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes should be collected separately.
• We should recycle old and discarded plastic articles, if possible, reuse them.
• Always remember the five Rs. They include refuse, reduce, reuse, repurpose, and recycle.
7. What are synthetic fibres? State any two advantages and disadvantages of synthetic fibres.
Answer:
Synthetic fibres are man-made fibres.
The advantages of synthetic fibres are:
• Synthetic fibers are more durable as compared to natural fibers.
• They are wrinkle free and require less or no ironing.
The disadvantages of synthetic fibres are:
• They cannot absorb moisture.
• They can catch fire easily.
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8. Hitesh wants to learn swimming. He bought swimming costume and a cap. What kind of material should
these be made of and why?
Answer:
The cap can be made of rubber or Nylon and the swimming costume should be made of Nylon. Nylon
absorbs considerably less moisture than cotton. Less moisture means less gain of weight. Hence he will
be able to swim better.
III.WORKSHEET:
1. Name the materials used to prepare the following.
a) Raincoat
b) Parachute
c) Packing material
d) Containers for packing food
e) insulators for electrical wires.
a) Which principle does the picture depict?

b) What is the significance of this principle?
3. Give two examples of each of the following.
a) Synthetic fibre
b) Plastic
4. Define the following terms.
a) Polymers
b) Spandex
c) Acrylic
d) Bakelite
e) PET
WORKSHEET ANSWERS:
1. The materials used to prepare the following are:
a) Polyester
b) Nylon
c) Polystyrene
d) Polythene
e) Bakelite
2. The picture depicts the following:
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a) The picture depicts the principle of 4Rs- Refuse, Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
b) Significance of 4Rs principle in preventing plastic pollution:
• Reduce-Try to minimise the plastic goods or materials used as much as possible.
• Reuse-Try to reuse as much as possible the plastic items that can be reused. By doing this, you
can extend the use of items before they become waste.
• Recycle-Try to recycle all plastic items that can only be used once, and are recyclable.
• Refuse-Try to avoid buying plastic products that can harm you, your family and the environment.
3. The two examples are:
a) Rayon, Nylon
b) Polythene, Bakelite.
4. The following are defined as follows:
a) Polymers are the large units that are formed from a chain of small units.
b) Synthetic fibre that is used to make tight-fitting clothes.
c) Synthetic fibre that resembles wool.
d) A thermosetting plastic that is used to make electrical fittings.
e) Polyethylene terephthalate is a popular polyester.
IV.HOMEWORK:
1. Cotton clothes are recommended for workers in metal and chemical industries. Give reason.
2. Explain why storage of Acrylic needs no special care unlike woollen clothes.
3. Teflon finds its application in the Chemical Industry in various Laboratories all around the world. Give
reason.
CHAPTER 11: FORCE AND PRESSURE
What is a Force?
• When a push or pull is applied to an object it is called force.
• A force can change the state of an object from rest to motion or vice versa.
• To let a force come into play, two or more objects must interact with each other.
Figure 1 Examples of Force
Do magnets also exert a push or pull?
• We know that a magnet can attract a piece of iron. Hence, we can say that the magnet pulls the iron
piece towards itself due to its magnetic force. Similarly, when opposite poles of a magnet repel each
other, we can say that they are pushing each other away.
Characteristics of forces:
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• When two forces act in the same direction, the net resultant force on an object is the sum of these two
forces.
Figure 2 Resultant force is the sum of two forces
• When two forces act in opposite directions the net resultant force is the difference of these two forces.
The force has a magnitude which describes its strength.
Figure 3 Forces acting in opposite directions
• The force always has a direction in which it is applied and a measure of its strength or magnitude.
• The effects of a force may alter when the direction of the magnitude of the force is changed.
• The effect of more than one forces being applied on an object is calculated by evaluating the net force
acting on that object.
• If two forces are acting upon each other having equal magnitudes (strength) and in opposite directions
then the net force acting on the object will be zero.
• Force can bring different effects to an object’s position, size and shape.
Figure 4 Calculating the force acting upon an object
• The SI unit of force is Newton (N).

1. Force can change the state of motion of an object
• An object is said to be in motion if it is moving by a certain speed in a particular direction.
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• If the object is at rest, it means that it is not changing its position with respect to an observing point.
Hence it has zero speed.
• When the object starts moving it means that its position is being changed with respect to an observation
point.
• In order to move an object from one place to another, a force is required to bring that object in motion.
• Force can change the state of motion of an object.
• Not only this, a force applied on to an object can change its speed, bring it to rest or even change the
direction of its motion.
• It may bring a combination of these effects as well such as a change in direction of motion and change in
the speed of the motion altogether.
• Hence, we can say that force can change the state of motion of an object.
• Any object cannot move by itself or change its state of motion on its own without the application of a
force.
• However, it is not a case that this change of state of motion will take place every time with every kind of
object. For instance, if a person tries to push a very heavy object such as a wall, it would not at all.
2. Force can change the shape of an object
Figure 5 Force can change the shape of an object
• The shape of an object can be altered if some force is applied on to it. Depending upon the magnitude of
the force that is being applied and the rigidity of the object, the effect on its shape and size can be
observed.
Types of Forces: On the basis of the nature of the interaction between two or more objects, forces can be
classified as:
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Contact Forces
1. Muscular Force
The force that comes into play because of the action of muscles is called muscular force. For example:
• Human beings use muscular force in order to walk.
• The expansion and contraction of lungs is because of muscular force
• Movement of food along the food pipe
• Animals can also exit muscular forces; that's why they can move from one place to another
Figure 6 Muscular Force applied in Tug-of-War Figure 7 Muscular Force applied by Animals
2. Frictional Force
• It is the force that is exerted by the surface over an object whenever the object moves on the surface.
Force of friction has the following characteristics:
• The force of friction always acts in the opposite direction of the motion of the object.
• It leads to generation of heat as two surfaces come in contact with each other. For example, when we rub
our hands together, heat is produced as a result of friction between our hands.
• Frictional force also leads to wear and tear of the surfaces of objects that come in contact with each
other. For example, sole of shoes often gets worn-out due to friction force that acts between them and the
ground as we walk.
Figure 8 Force of Friction acting upon a moving object
3. Air Resistance
Whenever an object moves or flies in the air, it experiences a force called air resistance.
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Figure 9 Air Resistance Experienced by Airplane
Non-Contact Forces
1. Magnetic Force
• The force exerted by any magnetic object is called magnetic force.
• We know that like magnetic poles always repel each other, that is, they push each other away.
• Also, opposite magnetic poles always attract each other, that is, they pull each other towards themselves.
Figure 10 Magnetic Force
2. Electrostatic Force
• The force exerted by a charged particle is called electrostatic force.
• We know that like charges always repel or push each other away.
• Similarly, opposite charges always attract or pull each other towards themselves.
Figure 11 Electrostatic Forces
3. Gravitational force
• It is an attractive force that is applied by the earth on all the objects.
• It is also called the force of gravity or gravity that acts upon all the objects that are present on or near the
Earth's surface.
• Gravity is a property exhibited by every object present in the universe and not only the earth. Hence, all
the planets, the moons and even the sun have a gravitational force of their own.
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Figure 12 Gravitational Force
Pressure
• Not only the magnitude of the force but the area upon which it acts also affects the changes it may bring
upon an object.
• The force acting upon a unit area is called pressure.
• Hence, the pressure exerted by an object depends upon its surface area.
• If the surface is small, the amount of pressure applied is large, and vice-versa.
• The SI unit of Pressure is Pascal (Pa) or N/m2.
Figure 13 Relation between Force, Pressure and Area
Figure 14 Calculating pressure for Different Areas
Examples of relationship between the area and pressure:
1. A needle has a pointed end that has a very small surface area. Hence when a large force is exerted upon
the needle with a hammer the pressure on the needle increases and it easily moves inside the wall.
2. Shoulder bags always have broad straps rather than thin straps in order to minimize the pressure that
would be exerted on the shoulders of the career due to the gravitational force acting upon the bag.
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3. Tools that are used for cutting and piercing always have sharp edges because as a person would apply a
force on the tool, its sharp edges would exert more pressure due to less surface area and the object wood
cut down easily.
4. The two tyres of a tractor are wider because it minimizes the pressure exerted by the tractor on the
ground. As a result, it becomes easier to move the tractor on a muddy field.
5. Camel can walk easily over the sand because it has wide feet which allow them to walk on sand easily.
Human beings, on the other hand, cannot as walk easily on sand as their feet have less surface area and
therefore our feet sink in the sand.
The pressure exerted by liquids and gases
• Liquids exert a pressure on the walls of the container in which they are put in.
• The pressure that a liquid exerts on the bottom of the container is dependent upon the height of the liquid
in the container.
• The liquid exerts equal pressure on different points on the walls of the container having the same depth.
Figure 15 Pressure Exerted by Liquids
Similarly, gases also exert pressure on the walls of the container. The molecules of a gas of higher kinetic
energy collide with walls applying large force, and as a result these molecules apply pressure on the walls of
the container.
Figure 16 Pressure exerted by gases on the walls of a container
Atmospheric Pressure
• A layer of gases is present around the earth’s surface. The air present in the atmosphere exerts a pressure
on the earth which is called atmospheric pressure.
• The value of atmospheric pressure at the sea level is 101325 Pascal.
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• The atmospheric pressure keeps on increasing as we move towards the Earth’s surface.
Figure 17 Atmospheric Pressure Demonstration
• The amount of atmospheric pressure upon us is quite large due to the large surface area of the
atmosphere around the earth but we do not experience any of its effects.
• This is so because the pressure of the air inside our body is equal to the atmospheric pressure. There are
also fluids present in our body that exert a pressure inside our body. Hence, our bodies easily obtain a
balance with the atmospheric pressure.
• However sometimes at higher altitudes where the atmospheric pressure is low as compared to that
at the Earth’s surface (low altitudes), nose bleeding occurs.
• This is so because at that time the blood pressure in our body becomes higher than the atmospheric
pressure outside us.
Figure 18 Variation in Atmospheric Pressure
II.TEXT BOOK EXERCISE
A. Choose the correct answer

1. Which of the following force is a contact force?
Answer: Frictional force.
2. Two objects repel each other. The repulsion could be due to ________
Answer: Both (a) and (b).
3. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
Answer: kg/m2
4. In which direction is liquid pressure always directed?
Answer: all directions.
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5. What is the value of atmospheric pressure at sea level?
Answer: 76cm column of mercury.
6. For a given force, what will be the effect of an increase in area of contact on pressure?
Answer: pressure will decrease.
B. Fill in the blanks.
1. The gaseous envelope surrounding the earth is called ________
Answer: atmosphere.
2. A drinking straw works on the account of _____ pressure.
Answer: atmospheric pressure.
3. ______ is used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer: Barometer.
4. Two equal forces are said to be ______ when they act from opposite directions.
Answer: balanced.
5. Pressure _________ as we go deep inside sea.
Answer: increases.
6. ________ is a device used to measure the pressure exerted by liquid.
Answer: Manometer.
7. 1 atm = _______ N/m2.
Answer: 1.013X105N/m2
8. The sharp end of the knife has __________ surface area.
Answer: small
C. State True or False.

1. A boy riding a bicycle applies non – contact force.
Answer: False.
2. Gases exert pressure only in downward direction.
Answer: False.
3. A balanced force can change the state of motion.
Answer: False.
4. Force is specified only by its magnitude but not direction.
Answer: False.
5. Gravitational force is always attractive.
Answer: True.
6. To increase pressure, either force has to be increased or the area of contact has to be decreased.
Answer: True.
D. Give one word for the following.
1. The force that requires two bodies in a physical contact.
Answer: Magnetic force.
2. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.
Answer: Barometer.
3. The force that keeps the earth revolving around the sun.
Answer: Gravitational force.
4. Force acting per unit area.
Answer: pressure.
5. Force between two charged bodies.
Answer: Electrostatic force.
6. Force exerted by a machine.
Answer: mechanical force.
E. Match the following
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1. The motion of a football when kicked is due a. greater pressure
to
2. Falling of raindrop on the ground is caused by b. muscular force
3. Broad straps of school bags exert c. gravitational force
4. Liquids pressure increases with d. less pressure
5. Smaller surface area exerts e. increase in depth.
Answer:
1. The motion of a football when kicked is due to muscular force
2. Falling of raindrop on the ground is caused by gravitational force
3. Broad straps of school bags exert less pressure
4. Liquids pressure increases with increase in depth.
5. Smaller surface area exerts greater pressure
F. Answer the following questions in brief.

1. What is a contact force? Give two examples.
Answer:
Contact forces are forces that act between two objects that are physically touching each other.
Examples of contact forces include: a skydiver parachuting from an airplane to the ground or riding a
bicycle.
2. Write two characteristics of magnetic force and gravitational force.
Answer:
Gravitational force:
• It is an attractive universal force.
• It is non-contact and the weakest force in nature
Magnetic force:
A magnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive.
3. How much would you weigh on an imaginary planet that has no gravitational force.
Answer:
Weight of the body will be zero if there is no gravitational force acting on the body.
4. Define atmospheric pressure. How does it vary with altitude?
Answer:
Atmospheric pressure is the force exerted on the ground by the air above it when it is attracted to
earth by gravity.
The atmospheric pressure is high at lower altitudes, the density being higher. The atmospheric
pressure is low at higher altitudes, the density being lower.
5. Name the different effects that an applied force may have on a body.
Answer:
• Force can change the shape of an object.
• Force can change the direction of a moving body.
• Force can speed up a moving body.
• Force can stop a moving body.
• Force can move a stationary (at rest) object.
6. Why are board pins made sharp?
Answer:
When a given force is applied, a sharp tip pin covers lesser area and exerts more pressure as P=F/A.
7. Define pressure and its SI unit.
Answer:
Pressure is defined as force applied per unit area.
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Mathematically it is given by,
P=F/A
where F is the force acting perpendicular to the surface area A.
The standard unit of pressure is the pascal (Pa), equivalent to one newton per meter squared (N/m 2).
G. Answer the following questions in detail.
1. How is height of a liquid column affected by atmospheric pressure? Explain with the help of an activity.
Answer:
A height of a liquid column will get increased or decreased according to the force of the atmospheric
pressure.
2. Differentiate between:
a. Contact force and non-contact force.
Answer:
b. Force and pressure.

Answer:
3. How will the pressure vary if?

a. Force is doubled while keeping the area constant.
Answer:
We know that,
Force = Pressure x Area
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For the same pressure, if area is doubled, the force will get doubled.
b. Force and area both are tripled.
Answer:
Pressure remains the same.
c. Area is doubled while keeping the force constant.
Answer:
If area is doubled keeping the force constant, then pressure will be halved.
4. Give reasons:
a. Camels walk easily on the sand.
Answer:
Pressure is equal to force per unit area which means that pressure is inversely proportional to the
area. The area of camel’s foot is large so the pressure on the sand is less, therefore the sand does not
sink in and camel can easily walk.
b. Blood oozes out when there is slight cut in the body.
Answer:
Blood oozes out when there is a small cut on the body, because the pressure inside the blood vessel is
more than the atmospheric pressure. Liquids flow from high pressure to low pressure.
c. Astronauts wear special suit while going to the space.
Answer:
In space, there is no air and hence no air pressure. Hence, astronauts have to wear special protective
space suits filled with air. If they don't wear these suits, the counter pressure exerted by the body of
the astronauts would make the blood vessels burst.
5. A pointed end of a high heel sandal has a greater impact on the ground than a flat heel sandal. Why?
Answer:
Pressure is inversely proportional to the area. High heels have less area and thus greater pressure.
Flat shoes spread the force over a large area, reducing the pressure.
6. An inflated balloon bursts if you slightly push its surface with the pointed tip of a pencil. However, it
does not burst if you push it gently with your finger. Why?
Answer:
The needle tip has a smaller area than our finger, and we know that pressure imposed by a force is
inversely related to the area where it is applied, the needle tip will apply more pressure than the
finger.
The pressure exerted on an inflated balloon by the needle will be more as it has a smaller area of
contact compared to the finger.
This larger pressure pierces the surface of the balloon easily which will make the balloon burst.
7. Solve the following numerical problems.
a. Find the net force acting on the box and the direction in which the box will move.
Answer:
Net force = 8+2-6=4N.The box will move to the right.
b. Calculate pressure if 300N of force is acting on an area of 200cm2?
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Answer:
c. What will be the pressure exerted by the object if 5000N of force is acting on an area of 200cm2?
Answer:
d. Find out the area of a body which experiences a pressure of 500Pa by a force of 100N.
Answer:
e. What will be the force required to exert a pressure of 20,000 Pa on an area of 1cm2?
Answer:
WORKSHEET QUESTIONS:
1. Fill in the blanks.
2. Give examples of the following forces.

a) Muscular force
b) Magnetic force
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c) Frictional force
d) Electrostatic force
e) Gravitational force.
3. What is the force responsible for wearing out of bicycles tyres?

4.
WORKSHEET ANSWERS.
1.
2. The examples are:

a) Horse pulls a cart
b) Separate recyclable waste iron objects from garbage dumps
c) Writing on a paper
d) Electric air purifiers in factories to purify air in chimneys
e) Stand and walk on the earth surface.
3. Frictional force
IV.HOMEWORK
1. Two persons are applying forces on two opposite sides of a moving cart. The cart still moves with the
same speed in the same direction. What do you infer about the magnitudes and direction of the forces
applied?
SOCIAL SCIENCE
CHAPTER 1: MODERN PERIOD IN INDIAN HISTORY (HISTORY)
How important are dates:

“History is certainly about changes that occur over time”.
➢ History is synonymous with dates.
➢ We compare the past with present.
➢ We continue to associate history with a string of dates.
➢ We study dates to find out the sequence of events and significance of events.
Which Dates:
➢ Selection of date depends on the story of past.
➢ Focusing on a particular set of events is important.
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➢ By studying the dates reasons and consequences of events are understood in better way.
How do we Periodise:
➢ James Mill divided the Indian history into three periods: Hindu, Muslim and British.
➢ According to Mill, Only British rules, culture and laws could make Indians civilized.
➢ There are significant sources to study the periods of events and by studying different historical
evidences a string of time periods can be formed.
What is colonial?
➢ When the subjugation of one country by another country leads to change in social, culture, economic
and political sphere, it leads to colonization.
➢ British rule brought about changes in values and tastes, customs and practices.
How do we know Administration?
➢ One important source is the official records of the British administration.
➢ The British felt all important documents and letters needed to be preserved.
➢ Specialized institutions like archives and museums were established to preserve important records.
➢ Administrative source only represents half of the picture as they all were written and maintained by
British officials.
➢ Several other sources studied together give a better picture of administration.
Sources of Information:
➢ Official records, letters, memos, surveys, newspapers, magazines, autobiographies, reports,
experiences of travellers, novels and poems are some important sources of information of British rule
and atrocities.
➢ The practice of surveying became common under colonial administration.’
➢ Surveys like botanical zoological, archaeological, anthropological and forest surveys were in the list of
British administration.
➢ Sources kept and written by both Indians and British studied together represents several aspects of
British rule and their efforts to modernize or subjugate Indian population.
What do Official Records not Tell?
➢ The official records do not tell about the needs of people of India.
➢ Many official records hide the truth and only show one aspect of the event.
➢ The official records does not represent the fall outs of British administration and also do not represent
the reactions and situation of Indians of every sphere of society.
II. TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS: -

Q1. What is the Industrial Revolution?
Ans:-Industrial Revolution, in modern history, the process of change from an agrarian and handicraft
economy to one dominated by industry and machine manufacturing.
Q2. What is nationalism?
Ans:-The feeling of oneness and unity among the people of a nation or patriotic feeling, principles
and policy of national independence is termed as nationalism.
Q3. Why did Britain colonies India?
Ans:-Britain colonise the India because India had great variety of flora and fauna, spices and precious
metal. In cheap British could export the material from India to Britain and they can make product of
from the cheap raw materials and sell in high prices and earn more. Due to large variety of spices they
were attracted to India.
Q4. Why is it easier to reconstruct the history of the modern period than earlier times?
Ans:-It was easier to reconstruct the history of India during the colonial period in comparison to the
ancient period because there are ample literary sources pertaining to the colonial period. The British
government-maintained records of all correspondence related to land, land revenues, revolts, political
events etc.
Q5. What were the developments that were taking place in the world during the eighteenth century?
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Ans:-During the eighteenth century, components of Enlightenment thinking finished in the American,
French, and Haitian upsets. This was a period of brutal slave exchanging, and worldwide human
dealing.
➢ Europe in the eighteenth Century. In Europe, the eighteenth century was a time of scholarly, social,
and political age. Strategically, the thoughts of John Locke, Thomas Hobbes, and others would offer
ascent to an idea of majority rules system that would eventually displace the monarchical force
structure on the European landmass.
III. A) WORKSHEET:
1. The colonial government gave much importance to the practice of_____________
2. The first Governor-General of India was
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Mountbatten
C. Lord William Bentinck
D. Warren Hastings
3. The periodization of Indian history offered by James Mill was not at all accepted. (True/False)
4. Mention one important source used by historians in writing about the last 230 years of Indian history.
5. Why do we try and divide history into different periods?
6. Asian societies were at lower level of civilization was the view of ________________.
7. How did paintings project Governor- General?
8. What was the reason behind the use of dates in history?
9. What did the British do to preserve important official documents and letters?
B) WORKSHEET ANSWERS:
1.
Surveying
2.
D Warren Hastings
3.
False
4.
The official records of the British administration.
5.
We do so in order to capture the characteristics of a time, its central features as they appear to us.
6.
James Mill
7.
Paintings projected Governor-Generals as powerful figures.
8.
Dates are important, as they note when certain events happened. This is very important because
history is recorded chronologically.
➢ It helps to know that one event happened before another event so that one can examine the
relationship between events.
➢ Dates also serve to mark periods in history.
9. The British felt the need to preserve all the important official documents and letters.
▪ For this, they set up record rooms attached to all administrative institutions.
▪ The village tahsildar’s office, the collectorate, the commissioner’s office, the provincial
secretariats, the law courts—all had their record rooms.
▪ The British also established specialized institutions such as archives and museums to preserve
important records.
IV. HOMEWORK:
1. Imagine that you are a historian wanting to find out about how agriculture changed in a remote tribal
area after independence. List the different ways in which you would find information on this.
CHAPTER 2: COLONIAL RULE IN INDIA (HISTORY)

Aurangzeb was the last powerful Mughal ruler. After the death of Aurangzeb, the later rulers proved to
be inefficient and foreign powers got opportunity to establish their rule in India.
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East India Company comes east:
▪ In 1600 royal charter granted to East India Company granting the sole right to trade with the East.
▪ East India Company bought goods at a cheap price and sold them at higher price in Europe.
▪ Cotton and silk produced in India had a big market in Europe.
▪ Pepper, cloves, cardamom, and cinnamon were in great demand.
▪ East India Company and its officials accumulated wealth by the trade of India and caught attention
of other European powers.
▪ English east India Company had to compete with other European companies such as French,
Dutch, and Portuguese.
▪ Because of the powerful naval force, British won over other European powers and became the
champion of struggle of monotony of trade.
English East India Company begins Trade in Bengal:
▪ In 1651, the first English factory was set up on the banks of river Hugli and first English factory
was opened up at Surat in 1608.
▪ Aurangzeb issued a Farman granting the company the right to trade duty-free.
▪ The company tried to press for more concessions and manipulate existing privileges.
▪ For trading purpose, the passes were issued to company officials but they misused these passes for
private trade and accumulate wealth on the name of company.
▪ Soon because of private trade company suffered and went into loses. To cure this anomaly British
government made strict rules.
Trade Lead to Battles:
▪ After the death of Aurangzeb, the Bengal Nawabs asserted their power and autonomy.
▪ The Nawabs of Bengal refused to grant the company concessions as it was making the revenue
from Bengal trade less profitable.
▪ The British wanted the duties to be abolished but Bengal nawabs refused.
▪ British official knew the condition of administration in Bengal and tried their autonomy by use of
force.
The Battle of Plassey:
▪ As a result of denial of trading rights, on 23rd June 1757, Battle of Plassey was fought and it was
the first major victory of English in India.
▪ Alivardi Khan died in 1756 and Sirajuddaulah became the Nawab of Bengal.
▪ In 1757, Robert Clive led the Company’s army against Sirajuddaulah at Plassey.
▪ Main reason for defeat of the Nawab was that the forces led by Mir Jafar, one of Sirajuddaulah’s
commanders, betrayed Sirajuddaula and never fought the battle.
▪ Mir Jafar was promised by Clive to be made Nawab after crushing Sirajuddaulah.
▪ As par the deal Mir Jafar became the Nawab of Bengal after the defeat and death of Sirajuddaula.
But he was the nominal head of Bengal and actual power remained in the hands of British.
The Battle of Buxar:
▪ After the defeat at Plassey, Sirajuddaulah was assassinated and Mir Jafar was made the Nawab.
▪ Mir Jafar was just a puppet in the hands of Britishers.
▪ In 1764, the battle of Buxar was fought between Britishers and Mir Qasim, when Mir Qasim
denied the privileges’ given to Britishers.
▪ Mir Qasim abolished the trade duty for everyone and transferred his capital from Murshidabad to
Mungair. But this was against the interest of British and they declared war.
▪ In this battle Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal; Shujauddaula, the Nawab of Awadh and Shah
Alam the Mughal King fought against British and British forces were led by Hector Munro.
▪ In this battle British become victorious and they decided to control the territory by their own.
▪ In 1765, the Mughal emperor appointed the company as the Diwan of the provinces of Bengal and
they also got the Diwani rights of Bihar and Odisha.
Company Officials become ‘Nabobs’:
▪ In 1764, Robert Clive was appointed Governor of Bengal.
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▪ ‘Nabobs’-an Anglicized version of the Indian word Nawab as British were leading a lavish life
similar to nawabs and everyone was on the mercy of British.
Company expanded its rule
▪ The process of annexation of Indian states by the East India Company from 1757 to 1857 brought
forth some key aspects like the company rarely launched a direct military attack on as unknown
territory.
▪ After battle of Buxar, the company appointed residents in Indian states.
▪ The company forced the states into a ‘subsidiary alliance’ and the king had to put an army of
British.
▪ In the case of nonpayment to army the nawab or the king had to give some part of its territory.
▪ The Nawab of Awadh and the Nizam of Hyderabad were forced to cede territories and accept the
subsidiary alliances.
Tipu Sultan-‘The Tiger of Mysore’:
▪ Sultan was the son of Haidar Ali, ruler of Mysore.
▪ Tipu Sultan ruled Mysore from 1782 to 1799.
▪ Tipu Sultan took the help of French to modernize his army and sent foreign delegates to gathers the
foreign help against British.
▪ Four wars were fought between Britishers and Mysore and were known as the Anglo-Mysore wars
(1767-1769, 1780-84, 1790-92 and 1799).
▪ In 1799, the Britishers won the battle of Seringapatam against Mysore.
▪ Tipu Sultan was killed defending his capital Seringapatam.
Anglo – Maratha wars:
▪ After the defeat of Maratha in battle of Panipat in 1761, they get divided in various small dynastied
such as Sindhia, Holkars, Gaikwad and Bonsle.
▪ Three wars were fought between Marathas and British in 1782, 1803-05 and 1817-19. The third
war was the decisive war and after this peshwa was deposed and the sent to the Northern India on a
pension.
▪ Now the company had control over the south of Vindhya’s.
Claim to Paramountcy:
▪ As British were proving themselves as the best power across India, this enhanced their desire to
rule whole territories and they started direct conquest under lord Hastings (1813-23).
▪ British also wanted to secure North West front of their empire in India. For this they fought wars
with Afghanistan and Punjab and finally won over its territories in 1843 and 1849 respectively.
Doctrine of Lapse:
▪ Under the reign of Lord Dalhousie (1848-56), they adopted the policy of Lapse
▪ According to this policy, the rulers who does not have any legal heir could not pass on their
property to the adopted son and it would be taken over by British.
▪ Satara (1848), Sambhalpur (1850), Jhansi (1854) were annexed by this policy.
Administration under British rule:
▪ In 1773, Warren Hastings become the Governor General of Bengal and controlled the governors of
other presidencies of Madras and Bombay.
▪ Separate civil and criminal courts were set up under the supervision of collector.
▪ New set of laws were compiled by muftis and Brahmins for the religious interpretation.
II. TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS:
Q1. What was the cause behind the Anglo – Mysore Wars?
Ans: -The Anglo Mysore Wars War fought between 1766 to 1799.
The cause behind the Anglo Mysore Wars is because:-
▪ When Hyder Ali tried to expand his kingdom, he defeated the forces of the East India company
and besieged Madras in 1769.
▪ The British agreed to help Hyder Ali in case of an attack from the marathas but when the marathas
attacked Mysore in 1771, the British failed to come to Hyder Ali's help.
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▪ This angered Hyder Ali and he swore never to trust the British again.
▪ He died in 1782 leaving his son Tipu Sultan to carry on the fight with the British.
▪ In the third Anglo Mysore war Lord Cornwallis, governor general at that time enter an alliance
with marathas and the Nizam of Hyderabad their joint forces defeated Tipu Sultan and two of his
sons were taken Hostage by the British.
▪ In 1799 the British defeated Tipu at seringapatam in the fourth Anglo Mysore war Tipu died
fighting.with death of Tipu the British got rid of one of their most bitter Enemies. The British
annexed half of his Kingdom and gave Mysore back to the royal family there by ensuring the
loyalty. the victory over Mysore paved the way for the total control of India by the British.
Q2. How did the two farmans help British fortune in India?
Ans:-The British after eliminating rival companies established monopoly over trade in India and
were granted exclusive farman to trade in Indian. Through a series of Farman in 1651, 1656 and
1672 the British were, Mir Jafar was reinstated for the second time as the Nawab of Bengal. He
introduced a new administrative system in Bengal known as Dual government. Although he was
asked to remove corruption in Company Administration he himself amassed a fortune in India. On
his return to England, he was cross-examined by the British Parliament which was suspicious of his
vast wealth.
Q3.What happened during the Anglo-Maratha Wars that overturned the luck of the British?
Ans: -After the death of Nana Fadnavis, who led the first battle against the British, the Marathas
started fighting amongst each other for power. British took advantage of the situation.
Q4. Write what you know about the Carnatic Wars?
Ans: -In India, the conflict between the French and the British was focused around the Carnatic
region. The French and the British took advantage of their rivalry between the Indian rulers. They
allied themselves with rival groups and fought three wars between 1746and 1763, which came to be
known as Carnatic wars.
Q5. What were the areas of conflict between the Bengal nawabs and the East India Company?
Ans:-After the first British factory was set up in 1651 on the banks of the river Hooghly, East India
Company started allowing more of its merchants and traders to visit and settle down at the city of
Bengal.
The reasons that caused the conflicts between Bengal nawabs and East India Company were:
▪ Nawabs denied concessions to the East India Company on many occasions
▪ Nawabs also demanded large tributes from the company
▪ The company denied paying taxes.
▪ The company officials wrote insulting letters to the nawabs
Q6. What do you understand by Dual Government?
Ans:-Dual government was a type of government in which, the British were in charge of collecting
revenue meanwhile the Nawabs oversaw law and order. It was a very unsatisfactory way of
governing as neither the British nor the Nawabs had the complete responsibility.
Q7. How did the Indian rulers lose their independence by signing the Subsidiary Alliance with the
British?
Ans:-According to this alliance, Indian rulers were not allowed to have independent armed forces.
o They were to be protected by the company but had to pay for the 'subsidiary forces'.
o If the Indians rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory would be taken
as penalty.
o When Richard Wellesley was, he governor general, the nawab of Bengal was forced to give
half of his territory to the company as he failed to make the payment.
o Hyderabad was also forces to give the territories on similar grounds.
A) WORKSHEET:
1. Where was the first factory of British East India Company established and in which year?
2. The urge to secure markets led to fierce battles between the trading companies.(True/False)
3. ____________ began interfering in the internal affairs of Indian states.
A. Britishers
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B. Nawabs
C. Residents
D. None of these
1 First English factory was established on the banks of river Hugli in the year 1651.
2 True
3 C. Residents
4 The army of East India Company was known as Sepoy Army.
▪ The main participants of the army were the peasants of India, trained by the East India
Company to become professional soldiers.
▪ The major change in the East India Company army was the domination of infantry over cavalry
with the introduction of muskets, matchlocks to guard them.
▪ The company also introduced a uniform military culture where soldiers were given European
training through drills and other exercises
III. HOMEWORK:
1. Imagine that you are a nawab’s nephew and have been brought up thinking that you will one day
be king. Now you find that this will not be allowed by the British because of the new Doctrine of
Lapse. What will be your feelings? What will you plan to do so that you can inherit the crown?
CHAPTER 1: THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION (CIVICS)
The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution in the world. It is a set of rules by which the
government rules our country. It is the supreme law of the land. It came into effect on 26th January
1950. Our Constitution is based on the principles of democracy, socialism and secularism.
Dr. Bhīma Rao Ambedkar is known as ‘The Father of Indian Constitution‘.
Why Does a Country Need a Constitution?
➢ A Constitution lays out certain ideals that form the basis of the kind of country that we as citizens
aspire to live in.
➢ It tells us about the fundamental nature of our society.
➢ It helps serve as a set of rules and principles that all persons in a country can agree upon as the
basis of the way in which they want the country to be governed.
➢ This includes the type of government and also an agreement on certain ideals that they all believe
the country should uphold.
➢ When Nepal was a monarchy, it reflected the final authority of the king. After transition of Nepal
into a democracy, it started the process of writing a new constitution for the country.
➢ In a democracy, leaders exercise their power responsibly on the behalf of the people. It defines
country’s political system.
➢ In democratic societies, the constitution lays down the rules that guard against the misuse of
authority by our political leaders. It lays certain important guidelines that govern decision making
processes.
➢ A Constitution plays an important function in a democracy to ensure that a dominant group does
not use its power against any person, group, organization, etc.
➢ Constitution prevents tyranny or domination by the majority of a minority.
➢ The Indian Constitution guarantees the right to equality to all citizens and says that no citizen can
be discriminated on the basis of religion, caste, gender, race, etc.
The Indian Constitution Key Feature:
➢ The Indian National Movement had been active in the struggle for Independence from British rule
for several decades.
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➢ Nationalists devoted a great deal of time to imagining and planning what a free India would be
like.
➢ When the constitution was being written India was going through a turmoil because of partition of
India and Pakistan.
➢ The final document reflects a respect for maintaining diversity with preserving national unity,
along with eradication of poverty through socio-economic reforms.
Following are the key features of Indian constitution.
1. Federalism: It refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the country. These
are at the state and at the central levels. Citizens are governed by laws & policies made by each
of these levels of government.
2. Parliamentary Form of Government: The Constitution of Indian guarantees universal adult
suffrage for all citizens. This means every citizen of the country irrespective of his/her social
background has a direct role in electing their representatives. Representatives are thus
accountable to the people in a parliamentary form of government.
3. Separation of Powers: There are three organs of the State: (a) the Legislature (b) the Executive
and (c) the Judiciary.
➢ The legislature refers to our elected representative; those who makes laws.
➢ The executive is a smaller group of people who are responsible for implementing laws and running
the government.
➢ The judiciary refers to the system of courts in the country; that settles disputes and makes sure that
laws are obeyed.
Each organ acts as a check on the other organs of the State and this ensures the balance of power
between all three.
4. Fundamental Rights:
➢ The Fundamental Rights are referred to as the ‘conscience’ of Indian Constitution. Fundamental
Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.
➢ The Constitution guarantees the rights of individuals against the State as well as against other
individuals.
➢ There are six Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution, which are:
• Right to Equality;
• Right to Freedom;
• Right against Exploitation;
• Right to Freedom of Religion;
• Cultural and Educational Rights;
• Right to Constitution Remedies.
➢ In addition to Fundamental Rights, the Constitution has a section called Directive Principles of
State Policy. It ensures greater social and economic reforms and to serve as a guide to independent
Indian state to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.
5. Secularism: A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion
as the state religion.
➢ The Constitution plays a crucial role in laying out the ideals that we would like all citizens of the
country to adhere to, including the representatives that we elect to rule us.
➢ Constitution has been changed over the years to reflect new concerns of the polity that involves a
change in the fundamental nature of the country.
Q1. Define Constitution?

Ans:-A constitution serves as a collection of laws and standards that the citizens of a nation should
rely upon as the foundation for how the country should be ruled
Q2. Why do we celebrate Republic Day?
Ans:-It marks the day when India became truly independent and embraced democracy. In other
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words, it celebrates the day on which our constitution came into effect. On 26 January 1950, almost 3
years post-independence, we became a sovereign, secular, socialist, democratic republic.
Q3. What do you understand by social justice?
Ans: -Law and Social Justice focuses on the laws and regulations of justice set by the government to
protect people from various forms of exploitation.
Q4. Why was the Dowry Act of 1961 passed? What amendments were made to it?
Ans:-Dowry Prohibition Act, Indian law, enacted on May 1, 1961, intended to prevent the giving or
receiving of a dowry. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, dowry includes property, goods, or money
given by either party to the marriage, by the parents of either party, or by anyone else in connection
with the marriage.
One of the important recommendations of the Committee for dealing with cruelty to a married
woman by the husband or the relatives of the husband on the ground of non-receipt of dowry or
insufficient dowry has already been given effect to by the Criminal Law.
Q5. What do you understand by the concept of Rule of Law?
Ans:-The rule of law is a provision of the Indian Constitution that states that all people in
independent India are equal before the law. Every law is equal for every citizen in the country.
Neither the President nor any other high official is above the law.
Q6. Trace the formation of the Indian Constitution?
Ans:-The Constituent Assembly of India was a body consisting of indirectly elected representatives
tasked with drafting the Constitution of India. It was formed in 1946. It approved the draft of the
Constitution of India on 26th November, 1949. The Constitution came into effect on 26th January,
1950.
Q7. Why is the Preamble so important to the Constitution?
Ans:-The Preamble is important because: It contains the philosophy on which the entire
Constitution has been built. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of
government, to find out whether it is good or bad.
Q8. Write a short note on separation of powers.
Ans:-Separation of Powers means that the three branches of government are separated. The three
branches are. the Legislative- the part that makes laws. the Executive - the part that carries out
(executes) the laws, and. the Judicial Branch - the courts that decide if the law has been broken.
Q9. How has the Untouchability Act helped in reducing inequality in the society?
Ans:-Because in a society the members are of same equality. Subsequently, the inequality reduced in
society. Hence, the untouchability act helped in reducing inequality in society.
Q10. Discuss the importance of fraternity as an objective of the Constitution?
Ans:-Fraternity not only acts as the binding element between unity and equality, it gives birth to new
rights which facilitate the constitutional goal of an egalitarian society. The right to live with dignity
and respect, free from oppression and untouchability.
Q11. Discuss how federalism is practised in India.
Ans:-If no single party gets a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the major national parties can
alliance with many parties including several regional parties to form a government at the Centre.
This led to a new culture of power-sharing and respect for the autonomy of State Governments.
I. A) WORKSHEET:
1. The Indian national movement emerged in nineteenth century India and saw thousands of men and
women coming together to fight British rule. This culminated in India’s ___________ in 1947
2. The Constitution plays a crucial role in laying out the ideals that we would like all citizens of the
country to adhere to, including the representatives that we elect to rule us.(True/False)
3. Every person has the right to practice, profess and propagate the religion of their choice. (True/False)
4. The section on Fundamental Rights has often been referred to as the ___________ of the Indian
Constitution.
5. Why does a democratic country need a constitution?
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1. Independence
2. True
3. True
4. Conscience
5. A democratic country needs a constitution because
➢ In a democracy people choose their representatives and the leaders might misuse their
powers. Constitution provides safeguards against this.
➢ In a democracy, the constitution ensures that the dominant group does not use power against
less powerful groups.
➢ The constitution guarantees fundamental rights to the citizens for their social, economic, and
political welfare.
III. HOMEWORK:
1. The Constitution also mentions Fundamental Duties. Write down the fundamental Duties and why it
is important for citizens in a democracy to observe these.
CHAPTER 1: OUR RESOURCES (GEOGRAPHY )
RESOURCES-
➢ All materials available in our environment which satisfy our needs are called as Resources.
➢ All resources have some value. Value means worth. Some resources have economic value and some
do not, but both are important and satisfy human needs.
➢ Some resources can become economically valuable with time.
➢ Time and technology are the important factors that change substances into People themselves are the
most important resource. It is their ideas, knowledge, inventions and discoveries that lead to the
creation of more resources.
➢ Each discovery or invention leads to many others. For example-
➢ Discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking
➢ Invention of the wheel resulted in the development of newer modes of transport.
TYPES OF RESOURCES:
Resources are categorized into natural, human-made and human.
1. Natural resources
Natural Resources are those resources that are drawn from nature and are used without much
modification-air, water, soils, minerals are the natural resources.
➢ Natural resources are classified into different groups depending upon their level of development and
use, origin, renewability and distribution
➢ Natural resources also called as ‘gifts of nature’.
❖ On the basis of level of their development and use, natural resources can be classified into :-
ACTUAL RESOURCES POTENTIAL RESOURCES
Those resources whose quantity is Those resources whose quantity may
known not be known
These resources are being used in These are not being used at present
the present. and could be used in the future.
For e.g. Coal of Germany, For e.g. The Uranium in Ladakh
Petroleum in the West Asia
❖ On the basis of origin, the natural resources can be classified into :-
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BIOTIC RESOURCES ABIOTIC RESOURCES
It includes all the living things. It includes all the non-living things.
For example- Plants & animals For example- Soil, rocks, minerals
❖ On the basis of renewability, natural resources can be categorized into:-

RENEWABLE RESOURCES NON-RENEWABLE RESOURCES
Those which can get renewed or Those which have a limited stock. Once the
replenished quickly are called as stocks are exhausted it may take thousands
Renewable resources. They are also of years to be renewed or replenished are
called as Inexhaustible resources. called as Non-renewable resources. They
are also called as Exhaustible resources
For e.g. solar and wind energy. For e.g. such as coal, petroleum and natural
gas.
❖ On the basis of distribution, natural resources can be classified into-

UBIQUITOUS RESOURCES LOCALIZED RESOURCES
Ubiquitous resources are found Localized resources are found only in
everywhere on the earth. certain places,
For example- Land, water, air are For example- Copper and iron ore.
ubiquitous resources.
➢ The distribution of natural resources depends upon, number of physical factors like terrain, climate
and altitude(height).
➢ The distribution of resources is unequal across the earth.
2. Human Made Resources:
➢ Human resource refers to the number (quantity) and abilities (mental and physical) of the people.
➢ The resources which are created from the natural resources by the human resources by the human
beings to produce useful products are known as Human made resources. Like roads, machinery,
vehicles, etc.
➢ Technology is also a human made resources.
3. Human Resources:
➢ Human resources refer to the number and abilities of the people. People can make the best use of
nature to create more resources when they have the knowledge, skill and the technology.
➢ People are human resources.
➢ Improving the quality of people’s skills so that they are able to create more resources is known as
Human resource development.
CONSERVING RESOURCES:
➢ Conservation of resources refers to using natural resources carefully so that they could be renewed
and continue to be used in future.
➢ Sustainable use of resources refers to carefully utilizing resources and balancing the need to use
resources and also conserve them for the future generation.
➢ The diversity of life on the earth should be conserved.
➢ The damage to natural environmental system should be minimized.
➢ There are many ways of conserving resources. Each person can contribute by reducing consumption,
recycling and reusing things.
Q1. Classify resources based on their origin. Give examples.

Ans:-On the Basis of Origin, there are two resources: Biotic and Abiotic. Biotic Resources are obtained
from the biosphere that has life such as, human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock, etc. Abiotic
Resources are all those things that are composed of non-living things such as rocks and metals
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Q2. Distinguish between potential and actual resources.
Ans:-Differences between actual and potential resources
The differences between actual and potential resources are tabulated below.
Actual resources Potential resources
Those resources are identified Such resources which total quantity is not recognized.
in their total quantity.
At the current time, they are They are not actually being used.
being used.
In order to use these As technology grows it is possible to use it in the future.

resources, accessible
technology is used.
Examples: Trees, mines Example: Mineral oil can be used in major parts of India where
sedimentary rocks are present, but it cannot be used due to a
lack of technology.
Q3. Explain why humans are considered to be the most important resources?
Ans:-Human resources are important because the development of other resources solely depends
upon this resource as humans have knowledge, skill, and technology to develop other resources.
Q4. Classify resources on the basis of their renewability. Give examples.
Ans:-i Renewable resources: Resources which can be renewed or reproduced by mechanical.
Physical or chemical processes are known as renewable or replenishable resources e.g. solar and
wind energy water forests and wildlife etc.
ii non-renewable resources: These occurs over very long geological times. Minerals and fossil fuels are
examples of such resources. These resources take millions of years in their formation. Some of the
resources like metals are recyclable and some of them such as fossil fuels cannot be recycled and get
exhausted with their use.
Q5. What do you mean by sustainable development? What is its importance and how can we
achieve it?
Ans:-We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve
them for the future. This concept is called sustainable development.
This can be achieved by making the right balance between using the resources to meet our
present needs and conserving them for future.
I. A) WORKSHEET:
1. Rocks and minerals are ______ resources.
2. Iron ore was not a resource until people learnt to extract iron from it.(True/False)
3. Careful and timely use of resources are called ______.
4. _________ or _________ is what makes an object or substance a resource
5. All resources have economic value. (True/False)
6. Define Stock of Resource.
1. Abiotic.
2. True
3. Resource conservation
4. Utility or usability
5. False
6. It is the amount of resources available for use
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III. HOMEWORK:
1. Think and give an example (other than the text) to show that the importance and use f a resource
changes with time.
CHAPTER 1: SECULARISM AND THE INDIAN CONSTITUTION (CIVICS)
History has witnessed all the gruesome discrimination, persecution, exclusion, & the torture done to people
based on the religion which they follow. In the present civilized world, matters like this can be strictly
prevented to safeguard communities & protect a person's right. That's why the word secularism is inscribed
in the preamble of the constitution of India. Below is the vital information you'll need to learn about India,
and its secularism.
What Is Secularism: -
Secularism generally refers to the separation of religion from a State. It is very essential to separate religion
from the state for the country to practice its democracy. Most of the countries have people of more than one
religion who reside within the state. We ought to safeguard individuals' right to preach and practice the
religion of their choice.
What Is Indian Secularism: -

a. According to the Indian Constitution, a secular state ought to ensure that:
1. One religious community should not assert dominance over the other.
2. Members of the same religious community should not dominate each other.
3. The state would not enforce any specific religion or take away the freedom and support of the other
religions.
b. Government spaces in India like police stations, law courts, & government institutions are prohibited from
promoting any particular religion. The state can make exceptions for specific religions to respect the
sentiments of the religion. For example, Sikhs are generally permitted to wear a turban while riding a bike
instead of the helmet.
c. Secularism in India also prevents the dominance of one majority over the minority through various
strategic interventions. For example, the Indian Constitution bans untouchability in any form or kind.
Why Is It Generally Important To Separate The Religion From The State:-

For the functionality of a democracy, it's imperative to separate religion from state.
I. Most of the countries have mixed religious groups living amongst each other. If a majority group has state
powers, they can easily dominate the minority religious groups by misusing their power.
II. We need to safeguard individuals' freedom to embrace any other religion, exit from their religion &
comprehend religious teachings differently.
Indian Secularism Is Different from That Of Other Countries: -

I. Indian secularism very much varies from other democratic countries. For example, let’s take the case of
the United States of America- there is a strict separation b/w the state and religion in America. In contrast,
the state can practice strategic interventions in religious affairs in India from time to time.
II. Although in Indian secularism, the state does not entirely separate itself from religion, it does maintain a
principled distance. It means any action or intervention by the state will be based on constitutional
principles.
III. The Constitution warrants Fundamental Rights, which is based on secular principles.
Fundamental Rights:
➢ The Fundamental Rights are referred to as the ‘conscience’ of Indian Constitution. Fundamental
Rights protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.
➢ The Constitution guarantees the rights of individuals against the State as well as against other
individuals.
➢ There are six Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution, which are:
• Right to Equality;
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• Right to Freedom;
• Right against Exploitation;
• Cultural and Educational Rights;
• Right to Constitution Remedies.
➢ In addition to Fundamental Rights, the Constitution has a section called Directive Principles of
State Policy. It ensures greater social and economic reforms and to serve as a guide to independent
Indian state to institute laws and policies that help reduce the poverty of the masses.
6. Secularism: A secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion
as the state religion.
➢ The Constitution plays a crucial role in laying out the ideals that we would like all citizens of the
country to adhere to, including the representatives that we elect to rule us.
➢ Constitution has been changed over the years to reflect new concerns of the polity that involves a
change in the fundamental nature of the country.
II TEXTBOOK SOLUTIONS:
Q1.What is meant by a ‘Secular’ state?
Ans: - A secular state is a state in which all persons treat equally irrespective of their religion. A secular
state claims to avoid preferential treatment for a citizen based on their religious belief. A secular state
must be officially neutral in matters of religion, that means a secular state cannot support any religion.
Q2. Define Fundamental Right.
Ans: - Fundamental rights are the basic human rights enshrined in the Constitution of India which are
guaranteed to all citizens. They are applied without discrimination on the basis of race, religion, gender,
etc. Significantly, fundamental rights are enforceable by the courts, subject to certain conditions.
Q3. What is meant by Fundamental Duties?
Ans: - The Fundamental Duties are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens to help promote a
spirit of patriotism and to uphold the unity of India
Q4. What were the inspirations behind the Fundamental Rights adopted by India?
Ans: - The development of such constitutionally guaranteed fundamental human rights in India was
inspired by historical examples such as England's Bill of Rights, the United States Bill of Rights , final
ratification and France's Declaration of the Rights of Man.
Q5. Is Sri Lanka a secular state? Support your answer with arguments.
Ans: - Freedom of religion in Sri Lanka. Freedom of religion in Sri Lanka is a protected right under
Chapter II, Article 9 of the constitution of Sri Lanka. ... Buddhism was given the foremost place by
President J. R. Jayawardene in 1978, though Sri Lanka is regarded by its Supreme Court as being a
secular country.
Q6.List at least four features of Indian secularism.
Ans:- Features of Indian secularism are :
• Equal respect and recognition for all religions by the state.
• No discrimination by the state on the basis of religion.
• Non-interference in the functioning of any religion by the state.
• No official religion in India.
• An individual has the right to practice, propagate and profess any religion.
Q7. How has the Indian Constitution sought to enforce equality in India?
Ans: - The Constitution provides that all citizens are equal before the law. There can be no
discrimination based on a citizen's caste, sex, religious belief or place of birth etc.
Q9. Bring out the significance of Fundamental Duties.
Ans: - The Fundamental Duties are intended to serve as a constant reminder to every citizen that while
the Constitution specifically conferred on them certain fundamental rights. It also requires citizens to
observe basic norms of democratic conduct and democratic behaviour.
III A) WORKSHEET:
141
Q1. Which country passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or
political sign or symbols?
Answer: France passed this law.
Q2. When did the France face a shortage of workers?
Answer: In the 1960’s France had faced a shortage of worker
Q3. What can be the seen as the government policy of treating all religions equal regarding
government schools?
Answer: The celebration of religious festival within the school is prohibited.
Q4. What is secularism in Indian context?
Answer: India adopted a strategy separating the power of religion and the power of State, which
is called secularism
Q5. What type of strict separation exists in USA?
Answer: There is a strict separation between religion and state in the USA.
IV HOMEWORK:
1. Give reasons why India decided to adopt the policy of separation of religion and state. Is this a watertight
segregation? Elaborate.
142
INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
CHAPTER 1: OPERATING SYSTEM (OS) AND GRAPHICAL USER INTERFACE (GUI) –
ROLES AND FUNCTIONS
I. CHAPTER ATA GLANCE:
You will learn about:
✓ Introduction and functions of operating system.

✓ Evolution of operating systems.
✓ Difference between CUI and GUI
✓ Types of operating systems
✓ Introduction to GUI and its advantages.
Types of user interface:
✓ CUI
✓ GUI
Types of OS:
✓ Single user
✓ Multi-user
✓ Real-time
II. WORKSHEET:
1. List the basic tasks of an operating system.

2. Make a list of mobile OS used.
3. Make a list of desktop OS used.
III. HOMEWORK:
Make a list of uses for each of the DOS commands.
a) CLS
b) Copy
c) Exit
d) Print
e) Ren
IV. FILL IN THE BLANKS:
1. Operating system acts as an interface between the user and the hardware.
2. Operating system is the first program that is loaded into memory of the computer.
3. Android is an example of operating system for mobile phones.
4. Single user operating system is designed with a single user in mind, but it can performed many tasks
at a time.
5. A Real-time operating system accepts random enquires from remote locations and provides an
instantaneous response.
V. STATE TRUE OR FALSE:
143
1. Operating system does not recognize input from the keyboard – FALSE
2. Operating system is responsible for managing and coordinating different activities and sharing
resources of the computer – TRUE
3. Multi-user operating system is designed to support one user at a time and has capability to run more
than one program – FALSE
4. Operating system keeps track of files on the hard disk and also maintains security – TRUE
5. Windows 10 is an example of multi-user operating system – FALSE
VI. QUESTION AND ANSWERS:
1. Define operating system with an example from daily life.

Ans: Operating system is a system software that manages the software resources, hardware devices and
processes commands and controls the execution of programs.
Example – Windows operating system.
2. Why do you think an operating system is important?

Ans: The operating system is the most important software that runs on a computer. It manages the
computer's memory and processes, as well as all of its software and hardware. It also allows you to
communicate with the computer without knowing how to speak the computer's language. Without an
operating system, a computer is useless.
3. List the functions of an operating system.

Ans: The functions of an operating system are:
a) Boots the computer
b) Provides a user interface.
c) Recognizes input from the keyboard
d) Sends output to the monitor
e) Maintains security
f) Keeps track of files on the hard disk
g) Organizes file storage.
4. Compare CUI and GUI

Ans: Differences between these two interfaces are:
CUI GUI
1. In CUI, this user has to type commands 1. In GUI, the user uses a mouse instead of
using the keyboard to interact with computer. keyboard to interact with the computer.
2. It is difficult to use as the user has to 2. It is much easier to use and navigate.
remember all the commands.
3. There is only text in case of CUI. 3. There are graphics or visual clues for each
application.
4. Old computers used CUI. 4. Most modern computers use GUI.
5. Example : DOS 5. Example: Windows
5. Which is the most popular GUI operating system and why? Explain with the help of examples.
Ans: Windows − Windows is a GUI operating system first developed by Microsoft in 1985. The latest version of
Windows is Windows 10. Windows is used by almost 88% of PCs and laptops globally.
Reasons for it being the most popular:
144
a) Devices with Windows OS are comparatively cheaper to Mac OS or Linux.
b) Easy to use.
c) Available globe.
CHAPTER 2: FUNCTIONS AND CALCULATIONS IN SPREADSHEET
✓ Various formulas that can be carried out in spread sheets.

✓ Basic operations on cells and types of cell reference.
✓ Different error values and their meanings.
✓ Working with spread sheet functions.
Fill handle: The active cell on an Excel worksheet has a small square on its lower-right corner. Thatsquare
is called the fill handle. You can use that fill handle to copy and paste the cell's data in any direction.
Relative cell reference: Relative cell references that adjust and change when copied or when using
AutoFill.
Absolute reference: Absolute cell reference in Excel refers to a reference that is "locked" so that rowsand
columns won't change when copied.
II. WORKSHEET:
1. List the different categories of Function.

2. Make a list of error encountered by you while working in MS Excel sheet.
III. HOMEWORK:
Design an excel sheet and enter marks scored in 5 subjects – using functions, calculate average, maximum
and minimum marks.
1. A formula is a set of mathematical instructions used in Excel 2013 to perform calculations.

2. The method of clicking the cell instead of typing the cell address is called pointing
3. Fill handle is a small square used to copy cell contents to the adjacent cells.
4. A relative cell reference recognizes the change in location of a cell and updates the formula
accordingly.
5. Absolute cell referencing consists of column letters and row numbers for a cell, each preceded by a
‘$’ sign.
V. WRITE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Which of the following is the default option of AutoSum feature?

Ans: b) sum
145
2. What is the default cell reference in Excel 2013?
Ans: c) Relative
3. The SUM() function is present under the ________ function category.
Ans: c) Maths & Trig
4. The range of cells in an argument of a function should be separated by a:
Ans: a),
5. Which of the following is a string function?
Ans: b) LEN
VI. STATE TRUE OR FALSE:
1. Average function calculates the average value in a given range of cells. – TRUE
2. Min function shows the highest value in the given range of cells. – FALSE
3. To join two strings, use the dollar ($) character. – FALSE
4. Formula must start with ‘=’ sign. – TRUE
5. Cell reference ‘$E1’, is a valid mixed cell reference. – TRUE
VII. WHICH FUNCTION WILL YOU USE IN THE GIVEN SITUATIONS?
1. To add the numbers in a given range of cells – SUM

2. To calculate the average value – AVERAGE
3. To count the number of cells with values in it – COUNT
4. To show the current date. –TODAY
5. To calculate the number of characters in a text string – LEN
VIII. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS
1. Write the formula to add the cell values from C2 through C9.
Ans: Formula to add the cell values from C2 through C9 –
= Sum (C2:C9) OR
= (C1+C2+C3+C4+C5+C6+C7+C8+C9)
2. Do you think Autofill feature is useful? How?

Ans: AutoFill is a very useful Excel feature. It allows you to create entire columns or rows ofdata which
are based on the values from other cells. This option gives plenty of possibilities.
3. Explain Relative cell reference with example.

Ans: Relative cell references are basic cell references that adjust and change when copied or when using
AutoFill. Example: =SUM (B5:B8), as shown below, changesto =SUM (C5:C8) when copied across to
the next cell.
4. What is a function? Give two examples.

Ans: A function is a predefined formula that performs calculations using specific valuesin a particular
order. Examples are:
a) SUM will add in a given range of cells.
b) AVERAGE will calculate the average of given numbers.
5. Explain the AutoSum feature.
146
Ans: AutoSum command allows you to automatically show the results for a range of cells for common
functions. If the functions is logically placed, AutoSum will select your cells for you. Otherwise, you will
need to click the cells to choose the argument you want.
CHAPTER 3: ANALYZING DATA IN SPREADSHEET
✓ Sorting
✓ Filtering
✓ Conditional Formatting
Sort Function: The Excel SORT function sorts the contents of a column, columns range) or array in
ascending or descending order. The syntax is: =SORT (array, [sort_index], [sort_order], [by_col]) arrayis
147
the range or array containing the values you want sorted. sort index is optional and indicates the rowor
column to sort by.
Filter Function: FILTER function allows you to easily extract matching records from a larger set ofsource
data based on criteria you provide. The results from FILTER are dynamic. When values in thesource data
change, or the source data array is resized, the results from FILTER will update automatically.
Conditional Formatting: conditional formatting in Excel to quickly highlight cells that contain values
greater/less than a specified value. For example, highlighting all cells with sales value less than100 million,
or highlighting cells with marks less than the passing threshold.
II. WORKSHEET:
1. List the different categories of Sorting with description of steps.
2. Make a list of tables where you can apply Filter function of MS Excel.
III. HOMEWORK:
1. Make table of different house hold expenses and sort or filter based on cell color.
2. Practice the different method of sort and filter feature.
1. The rearrangement of data in ascending (A to Z) or descending (Z to A) order is called sorting.

2. In case you edit and wish to apply the same filter, click Reapply in the sort & filter group.
3. To clear conditional formatting, click the Conditional Formatting drop- down menu and select clear
rules from the sub-menu.
4. Filtering helps you to locate the data based on the specified criteria while hiding the rest.
5. Sort Z to A option will sort data in the descending order.
V. WRITE THE CORRECT ANSWER:
1. Which button will you click to sort data in the ascending order?
Ans: a)
2. To quickly sort a list based on one column, on the HOME tab, in the Editing group, click
Ans: c) Sort & Filter
3. To filter data, press:
Ans: a) Ctrl+Shift+L
4. Which button will you check to format cells based on a specified condition?
Ans: b)
5. Which option is selected in the sort dialog box, if the selected range consists of column headings?
Ans: b) My data has headers
VI. QUESTION AND ANSWERS:
1. What do you understand by sorting a range of cells?

Ans: Arranging range of cell in ascending (A-Z) or descending (Z-A) is called sorting or you can say
Sorting is the process of placing elements from a collection in some kind of order. For example, a list of
148
words could be sorted alphabetically or by length. A list of cities could be sorted by population, by area,
or by zip code.
2. What are the two types of sorting? Explain with an example.

Ans: The two types of sorting are:
a) Sorting on one column.
b) Sorting on more than one column.
Example: Suppose you have data as shown below
To sort ascending (A-Z) or descending (Z-A)
✓ Step 1: Select the column A or cell A2-A6

✓ Step 2: Click on Sort & Filter option on Editing group of HOME tab.
✓ Step 3: Select Sort A-Z to sort in ascending order or chose Sort Z-A to descending
order.
3. What is filtering of Data?

Ans: Filtering data in MS Excel refers to displaying only the rows that meet certainconditions. (The
other rows gets hidden.)
4. What is the difference between sorting and filtering?
149
SORTING DATA FILTERING DATA
1. This is used to arrange the data in 1. This is an efficient method where
excel. you can display only that data which
meets a given criteria.
2. It can sort numeric and alpha 2. It can sort numeric and alpha
numeric numbers. numeric numbers as well as colors.
3. Sorting complete data is visible but, 3. In filtering only specific data is
in a pattern, as defined by sorting visible as defined by filter rule.
method.
5. Explain the concept of formatting cells based on a condition with the help of an example.
Ans: Conditional formatting is used to format the cells based on the set of specified conditions. You may change
thefont, font color, border, highlighting and so on.
Example: Suppose you need to highlight number greater than 25.
Step 1: Select the range of cell.
Step 2: Under Home tab click on conditional formatting option.
Step 3: Click on highlight cell rules, Dialog box will appear give the condition and click on OK button.
All the numbers greater than 25 will be highlighted.
150
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS
ANSWERS: PAGE NO-7. 1. Youngest,age 2. Urjit Patel, 3. Odisha-the company was forced to suspend
plans to mine bauxite in the region, 4. Election, 5. Jharkhand, 6. Telengana, 7. Electricity, 8. Neerja, 9.
Lion, 10.a.Tamilnadu, b. Uttarakhand, c. Manipur, d. Kerala, e. Assam
151
152
ANSWERS: Page no- 8,9 A. 1. Paris, 2. Wrestling, 3. Leander Paes, 4. 2000, Weightlifting, 5. Athens, 6.
2008, Beijing, gold 7. 2008, boxing, 8. Bejing, wrestling, 9. London, shooting, 10. 2012, wrestliing, 11.
2012, London, silver 12. London, badminton, bronze, 13. 2012, shooting, bronze 14. M.C. Mary Kom,
London, 15. P.V. Sindhu, Rio de Janeiro, 16. Sakshi Malik, 2016
B. 1. Eight, silver, bronze 2. Michael Phelps 3. Usain Bolt, Jamaica, 100,200
C. 1. Elaine Thompson, 2. Mo Farah 3. David Rushida
D. 1. Argentina, Great Britain 2. Brazil, Germany 3. USA, USA
E. 1. Milkha Singh 2. P.T. Usha 3. Joydeep Karmakar 4. Dipa Karmakar
Find Out: Sergei Bubka- pole vault, Edwin Moses- 400m hurdles, Daley Thompson- Decathlon, Michael
Johnson- sprints, Dawn Fraser-swimming, Nikolai Andrianov- gymnastics, Larissa Ltynina-gymnastics
153
Page no-10. A. 1. Celts; 2. Sumerians; 3. Vikings; 4. Mayas; 5. Polynesians; 6. Aztecs;
154
ANSWERS: Page No-11 1. Nelson Mandela 2. Mao Tse-tung 3. Joseph Stalin 4. Muhammad Ali Jinnah
5. Adolf Hitler 6. Winston Churchill 7. Vladimir Ilyich Lenin 8. Ariel Sharon;
Find Out: Clement Attlee, president of the USA during World war I- Woodrow Wilson, World War II-
Franklin D. Roosevelt
155
156
ANSWERS: Page No- 12,13 A. 1. Odisha 2. Assam 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Kerala 5. Haryna 6. Madhya
Pradesh 7. Meghalaya 8. Mizoram 9. Punjab 10. Uttarakhand 11. Uttar Pradesh 12. Gujrat 13. Telengana
157
ANSWERS: Page No- 14; A. 1. Great Bustard 2. Kakapo 3. Red-billed Hornbill
B. 1. Penguin 2. Albatross 3. Andean Condor 4. Puffins 5. Frigatebird
158
ANSWERS: Page No- 15; 1. Hemlock 2. Foxglobe 3. Henbane 4. Acacia 5. Sundew 6. Passion flower
159
Page no- 16 . 1. Union Public Service Commission, Indian Administrative Service; 2. Chief Justice of
India; 3. Jammu And Kashmir 4. Australia 5. Edmund Hillary.
160
Page no- A. 1. b, 3. a, 4. b, 5. b, 6. a, 7. b, 8. b, 9. a .
161
Page no- 18. A. 1. F; 2. K; 3. d; 4. g; 5. n; 6. a; 7. c; 8. l; 9. h; 10. b; 11. m; 12. I; 13. j; 14. e;
B. 1. Adolf Hitler-Mein Kampf 2. Pandit Jawahrlal Nehru- Letters from a Father to his Daughter; 3.
Nelson Mandela. 4. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose. 5. Martin Luther King Jr
162
Page no- 19. A. 1. Luke 2. Queen of Hearts 3. Sauron 4. Jalbatorix 5. Mr Hyde 6. Sheriff of Nottinghan 7.
The White Witch 8. Professor Moriarty 9. Claudius 10. Mordred 11. Voldemort
163
Page no- 20. 1. Ladakh 2. Taj Mahal 3. Chipko 4. Ganga 5. Solar 6. Tiger
164
Page no- 21. A. Music-16, 18,19,21,25,26,27,34,36; Films- 8,15,17,22,24,31,40; IT/Computers-
1,10,12,29,38; Sports-3,4,5,6,9,11,13,20,28,33,35,37; Media-2,7,14,23,30,32,39; B.1.g, 2.f,3.a,
4.b,5.c,6.d,7.a
165

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VYDEHI SCHOOL OF EXCELLENCE

ACADEMIC YEAR (2022-23)

UNIT 1 - SECTION I: FOOTLOOSE IN AGRA

1. The pace of life in Agra is Hectic

2. Match the following

a. Cold and blue - Foothills of Kalsi

b. Generally calm - Flat plains of Uttar Pradesh.

c. muddy banks - Delhi

d. alive with huge turtles- Mathura

a. The cycle rickshaw is the best way of getting about in Agra.

It is an everyday sight to him

c. The writer stands with averted eyes in front of the Taj.

d. The gardener ‘s son come to the Taj every day.

His father was the head gardener and to eat fruits

e. Bernier, in his description of Taj, said: ‗Nothing offends the eye.

a. What does Bond learn about kite-flying in Agra?

Two instances are:

1. buntings: coloured flags or papers used for decoration.

1. It was a most unusual December for the two children because

(a) Being in the southern hemisphere, it was hot in December

2. Answer the following questions

‘Are we hallucinating?’, ‘Are they kidding us?’

and read about before they got the invitation?

d. Why do you think Antarctica was named Terra Incognita?

Being frozen and faraway, it remained unknown for a long time.

e. Fill in the names of the remaining places

were the difficulties that seafarers faced?

relentless storm could leave ships stranded. 4

g. Why is the Antarctica Convergence so called?

Because the Atlantic, Pacific, and Indian Oceans converge here.

over, and the weather had eased.

Antarctica had all these elements.

(a) Surprise—they didn‘t really expect many of the happenings in the

(c) Danger—the Drake Passage experience

UNIT I - SECTION III: THE BROOK

1. haunts: places for spending time.

b-it then flows through hilly regions followed by valley.

freshwater fish called graylings.

Ans- murmur, shingly

b-Does the brook move slowly or at a great speed?

c- Is the movement always of the same pace?

d-What is the mood of the brook as it goes on this journey?

reach its destination.

Ans- Figure of speech= I – personification, ‘I babble on the pebbles’ – Onomatopoeia

Music-= i-chatter, ii- bubble and iii-babble on the pebbles

“Deep into that darkness peering

Long I stood there wondering, fearing,

Doubting, dreaming dreams no mortal

Ever dared to dream before.”

Ans6. a- Deep into that darkness

b-Doubting, dreaming dreams

Ans. The refrain in the poem The Brook is:

“For men may come and men may go,

the brimming river.”

1. Write the Summary of “The Hound of Baskervilles” by Arthur Conan Doyle?