1.

If a router has four interfaces and each interface is connected to four switches, how many
broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer – C

2. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are no turning orange or green.
What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose
three)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulation match on the interconnected router and switch
ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are Straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices
F. Reset all cables.

Answer- B, D, F
3.Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process?
(Choose two)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow
control information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the
segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulation a frame with source and
destination host addresses an protocol-related control information.
D. Packet are created when the network layer adds layer 3 addresses and control information
to a segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical
link.
Answer – A, D

4. What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three)

A. It uses a single SYN-ACK messages to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Answer – B, C, F

5. Which two statements about IP4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two)
A. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
B. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
C. It is bandwidth-intensive.
D. It simultaneously delivers multiple stream of data.
E. It is the most efficient way to delivery data to multiple receivers.
Answer – D, E

6.What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two)

A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP address.
C. They can be assigned to devices without internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Answer – B, C

7. Which two statements about wireless LAN controllers are true? (Choose two)
A. They can simplify the management and deployment of wireless LANs.
B. They reply on external firewalls for WLAN security.
C. They are best suited to smaller wireless networks.
D. They must be configured through a GUI over HTTP or HTTPS.
E. They can manage mobility policies at a systemwide level.
Answer – A, E

8. What is true about Ethernet? (Choose Two)

A. 802.2 Protocol
B. 802.3 Protocol
C. 10 Base T half duplex
D. CSMA/CD stops transmitting when congestion occurs
E. CSMA/CA stops transmitting when congestion occurs
Answer – B, D

9. What feature uses a random time to re-sent a frame?

A. CSMA/CA
B. CSU/DSU
C. CSMA/CD
D. FCS/CRC
Answer – C

10. Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about
the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain,
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Answer – B
11. Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of
the receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. Transport
B. network
C. Presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer – E

12. What are two benefits of Private IPv4 Addresses? (Choose two)
A. they can be implemented without requiring admin to coordinate with IANA.
B. they are managed by IANA.
C. increase the flexibility of network design.
D. provide network isolation from the internet.
E. They are routable over internet.
Answer – A, D

13. If you want multiple hosts on a network, where do you configure the setting.
A. in the IP protocol
B. in the multicast interface
C. in the serial interface
D. in the global configuration
Answer – A

14. In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
A. when they receive a special token.
B. when there is a carrier.
C. when they detect no other devices are sending.
D. when the server grants access.
E. when the medium is idle.
Answer – C, E
15. Which networking Technology is currently recognized as the standard for computer
networking?
A. System network architecture
B. Transmission control protocol/ Internet protocol
C. Open system interconnect
D. Open network architecture
Answer – B

16. Which two statement about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to from routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Answer – A, B

17. Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?

A. IPv6 local
B. IPv6 host
C. IPv6 unicast-routing
D. IPv6 neighbor
Answer – C

18. What are types of IPv6 static routes? (Choose Three)

A. Recursive routes
B. Directly connected routes
C. Fully Specified routes
D. Advertised routes
E. Virtual Links
F. Redistributed routes
Answer – A, B, C
19. What are three of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose Three)
A. an interface ID that is used to identify the local host on the network.
B. an interface ID that is used to identify the local network for a particular host.
C. a subnet ID that is used to identify networks inside of the local enterprise site.
D. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the network portion of the address that has
been provided by an ISP
E. a global routing prefix that is used to identify the portion of the network address provided
by a local administrator.
Answer – A, C, D

20. What is known as_____ one-to-nearest addressing in IPv6?

A. global unicast
B. anycast
C. multicast
D. unspecified address
Answer – B

21. Which command can you enter to configure an IPv6 floating static router?
A. Router(config)#ipv6 route static resolve default
B. Router(config)#ipv6 route::/0 serial0/1
C. Router(config)#ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 201
D. Router(config)#ipv6 route FE80:0202::/32 serial 0/1 1
Answer – C

22. Which command can you enter to verity that 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. Traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. ping ipv6
Answer – C
23. Which IPv6 header field is equivalent to the TTL?
A. Scan Timer
B. TTD
C. Flow label
D. Hop limit
E. Hop Count
Answer – D

24. Which header field is new in IPv6?

A. Hop Limit
B. Flow Label
C. Version
D. Traffic Class
Answer – B

25. Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
A. NAT
B. 6to4 tunneling
C.L2TPv3
D. dual-stack
Answer – B

26. Which statement about IPv6 link-local addresses is true?

A. They must be configured on all IPv6 interface.
B. They must be globally unique.
C. They must be manually configured.
D. They are advertised globally on the network.
Answer – A

27. What fields are consisting of 6 bytes in the field identification frame in IEEE 802.1Q?
A. SA
B. DA
C. FCS
D. HDL
Answer – A,B
28.Refer to the exhibit. What is the most appropriate summarization for these routes?

A. 10.0.0.0/21
B. 10.0.0.0/22
C. 10.0.0.0/23
D. 10.0.0.0/24
Answer - B

29. Refer to the exhibit, you determine that Computer A cannot ping to Computer B. What
reason for the problem is most likely true?

A. The Subnet mask for Computer A is incorrect.

B. The default gateway address for Computer A is incorrect.
C. The subnet mask for Computer B is incorrect.
D. The default gateway address for Computer B is incorrect.
Answer - A
30. How does a router handle an incoming packet whose destination network is missing from
the Routing table?
A. it discards the packet.
B. it broadcasts the packet to each network on the router.
C. it routes the packet to the default route.
D. it broadcasts the packet to each interface on the router.
Answer – A

31. When is the most appropriate time to escalate an issue that you troubleshooting?
A. When you lack the proper to resolve the issue.
B. When a more urgent issue that requires your intervention is detected.
C. When you have gathered all information about an issue.
D. When you have been unable to resolve the issue after 30 min.
Answer – C

32. Refer to the exhibit A. A technician has installed Switch B and need to configure it for
remote access from the management workstation connected to Switch A. Which set of
commands is required to accomplish this task?

A. SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1

SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
B. SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
C. SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
D. SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
E. SwitchB(config)#ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
Answer- C

33. Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose Three)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increase the number of Broadcast domains
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both
Layer2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Micro segmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network which redundant switch paths, each switch segment
will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in
that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the
address.

Answer – B, D, E
34. The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from
host A. However, Host A is unavailable. The administrator’s attempt to Telnet to the switch
from host fails. Pings to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue?

A. The switch interfaces need the appropriate IP address assigned.

B. Host and switch need to be in same subnet.
C. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
D. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
E. Host needs to be assigned an IP address in VLAN 1.
Answer - C

35. Which condition does the err-disabled status indicate on an Ethernet interface?
A. There is a duplex mismatch.
B. The device at the other end of the connection is powered off.
C. The serial interface is disabled.
D. The interface is configured with the shutdown command.
E. Port security has disabled the interface.
F. The interface is fully functioning.
Answer – E
36. The network administrator cannot connect to Switch 1 over a Telnet Session. Although th
e hosts attached to Switch 1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information
in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch 2 are configured properly, Which of
the following commands should be issued on Switch 1 to connect to correct this problem?

A. Switch1(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1

B. Switch 1(config)#interface fa0/1
Switch1(config)#switchport mode trunk
C. Switch 1 (config)#line con0
Switch 1(config-line) #password cisco
Switch 1(config-line) #login
D. Switch 1 (config)#interface fa0/1
Switch (config-if)#ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
E. Switch 1(config)#interface fa0/1
Switch 1(config-if)#duplex full
Switch 1(config-if)#speed 100
Answer - A
37. What are contained in layer 2 ethernet frame? (Choose Three)
A. Preamble
B. TTL
C. Type/Length
D. Frame check sequence
E. version
F. PayLoad
Answer – A, C, D

38. Which statement about unknown unicast frame forwarding on a switch is true?
A. The TCAM table stores destination MAC addresses
B. If the destination MAC address is unknown the frame is flooded to every port that is
configured in the same VLAN except on the port that it was received on.
C. The CAM table is used to determine whether traffic is permitted or denied on a switch.
D. The source address is used to determine the switch port to which a frame is forwarded.
Answer – B

39. Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?

A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcast only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
Answer – C

40. Which two types of information are held in the MAC address table? (Choose Two)
A. MAC address
B. source IP address
C. destination IP address
D. Protocols
E. Port numbers
Answer – A,E
41. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected via their serial interfaces as
illustrated, but they are unable to communicate. The Atlanta router is known to have the
correct configuration.

Given the partial configuration, identify the fault on the Brevard router that is causing the
lack of connectivity.
A. incompatible IP address
B. insufficient bandwidth
C. incorrect subnet mask
D. incompatible encapsulation
E. link reliability too low

Answer -D

42. Which layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and Asynchronous
circuits and has built-in security mechanism?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay

Answer – B
43. What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an
ISP?
A. Addresses in a private range will not be routed on the internet backbone.
B. Only the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
C. The NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
D. A conflict of IP addresses happens because other public routers can use the same range.

Answer – A

44. In which byte of an IP packet can traffic be marked?

A. the QoS byte
B. the CoS byte
C. the ToS byte
D. the DSCP byte

Answer – C

45. What happens when an 802.11a node broadcasts within the range of an 802.11g access
point?
A. The access point transmits, but the node is unable to receive.
B. A connection occurs.
C. Both the node and the access point are unable to transmit.
D. The node transmits, but the access point is unable to receive.

Answer – D

46. CIDR notation (255.255.255.252)/ notation?

A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33

Answer – A
47. If three devices are plugged into one port on a switch and two devices are plugged into a
different port, how many collision domains are on the switch?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5.
D. 6

Answer – A

48. Which RFC was crated to alleviate the depletion of IPv4 public addresses?
A. RFC 4193
B. RFC 1519
C. RFC 1518
D. RFC 1918

Answer – D

49. Which IPv6 function serves the same purpose as ARP entry verification on an IP4
network?
A. Interface IP address verification
B. MAC address table verification
C. Neighbor discovery verification
D. Routing table entry verification

Answer – C

50. Which troubleshooting Ethernet connectivity issues, how can you verify that an IP
address is known to a router?
A. Check whether the IP address is in the routing table.
B. Check whether an ACL is blocking the IP address.
C. Check whether the IP address is in the CAM table.
D. Check whether the IP address is in the ARP table.

Answer – D
1. Which command can you execute to set the user inactivity timer to 10 seconds?
A. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 0 10
B. SW1(config-line)#exec-timeout 10
C. SW1(config-line)#absolute -timeout 0 10
D. SW1(config-line)# absolute-timeout 10

Answer: A

2. Which command is used to show the interface status of a router?

A. show interface status
B. show ip interface brief
C. show ip route
D. show interface

Answer: B

3. Which utility can you use to determine whether a switch can send echo requests and
replies?
A. ping
B. traceroute
C. ssh
D. telnet

Answer: A
4. Refer to exhibit. Which command can you enter to verify link speed and duplex setting on
the interface?
Router (config) #interface gigabitEthernet0/1
Router (config) #ip address 19.2168.1.1. 255.255.255.0
Router (config) #speed 100
Router (config) #duplex full
A. router#show ip protocols
B. router#show startup-config
C. router#show line
D. router#show interface gig0/1

Answer: D

5. Which command you enter on a switch to display the ip address associated with connected
devices?
A. Show cdp neighbor detail
B. Show cdp neighbor
C. Show cdp neighbor
D. Show cdp traffic

Answer: A

6. Which three command can you use to set a router boot image ?(Choose three.)
A. Router(config)#boot system flash:c4500-p-mz12120.bin
B. Router(config)#boot system tftp c7300=js-mz 122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz 124-24.T4.bin
D. Router>boot flash :c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6t.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprise9-mz-124-6T.bin.
F. Router(config)#boot bootdr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz12223f.bin

Answer: ABC
7. If router R1 knows a static route to destination network and then learns about the same
Destination network through a dynamic routing protocol, how does R1 respond?
A. It refuses to advertise the dynamic route to other neighbors
B. It sends a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
C. It disables the routing protocol
D. It prefers the static route

Answer: D

8. Which two statement about floating static routers are true?(Choose two)
A. They are routes to the exact /32 destination address.
B. They are used when a route to the destination network is missing.
C. They have a higher administrative distance than the default static route AD.
D. They are used as back-up routes when the primary route goes down

Answer: CD

9. Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for a small-scale deployment
C. Routing is disrupted when links fials.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods
E. It is best used for large-scale deployment.
F. Router can use update messages to reroute when link fail.

Answer: ABC
10. Router R1 has a static router that is configured to a destination network .A directly
connected interface is configured with an ip address in the same destination network.
Which statement about R1 is true?
A. It refuses to advertise the dynamic
B. It send a withdrawal signal to the neighboring router
C. It disables the routing protocol
D. It prefers the static route

Answer: D

11.What is the purpose of the POST operation on a route?

A.determine whether additional hardware has been added.
B.locate an IOS image for booting
C.enable a TFTP server.
D.set the configuration register

Answer: A

12. What happens if the first packet of a TFTP Transfer is lost?

A. The client will wait indefinitely for the reply
B. The TFTP application will retry the request if a reply is not received.
C. The next-hop router or the default gateway will provide a reply with an error code
D. The transport layer will retry the query if a reply is not received.

Answer: B
13. What value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding
interface?
A. The interface number
B. The port priority
C. The VLAN priority
D. The hello time

Answer: B

14. What can you change to select switch as Root Bridge?

A. make lower priority
B. make higher priority
C. make lower path cost
D. make higher path cost

Answer: A

15. Which three options are switch port config that can always avoid duplex mismatch error
Between the switches? (Choose Three)
A. set both side on auto-negotiation
B. set both sides on half-duplex
C. set one side auto and other side half-duplex
D. set both side of connection to full duplex
E. set one side auto and other side on full-duplex
F. set one side full-duplex and other side half-duplex

Answer: A, B, D
16. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domain are shown in the graphic assuming
only The default VLAN is configured on the switches?

A. One
B. Two
C. Six
D. Twelve
Answer: A

17. Which command sequence can you enter to create VLAN 20 and Assign it to and
interface on switch?
A. Switch (config) #vlan20
Switch (config)#interface gigx/y
Switch(config)#switchport access vlan 20
B. Switch(config)#interface gigx/y
Switch(config-if)#vlan 20
Switch(config-vlan)#switchport trunk access vlan 20
C. Switch (config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)#interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk native vlan 20
D. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch (config)#interface vlan 20
Switch(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20
E. Switch(config)#vlan 20
Switch(config)interface vlan 20
Switch(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 20
Answer: A
18. Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (choose three)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security
D. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
E. They increase the size of broadcast domain while decreasing the number of collision
domains
F. They simplify switch administration

Answer: BCD

19. What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic form
another network traffic.
B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use
the same network infrastructure.
C.A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use
the same network their size.
D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus
reducing their size.

Answer: ACD

20. Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?

A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you configure a VLAN.
B. The switch must be in config-vlan mode before you configure an extended VLAN
C. Dynamic inter-VLAN Routing is supported on VLAN2 through VLAN4094
D. A switch in VTP transparent mode save the VLAN database to the running configuration
only

Answer A
21.VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport
access VLAN 3 command in interface configuration mode?
A. The command is rejected.
B. The port turns amber.
C. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat
D. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.

Answer: C

22. Which DTP switch port mode allows the port to create a trunk link if the neighboring
Port is in trunk mode, dynamic desirable mode, or desirable or auto mode?
A. trunk
B. Access
C. dynamic desirable
D. dynamic auto

Answer C

23.Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operation in trunking
mode?
A. Show IP interface brief
B. Show Vlan
C. Show interface
D. Show interface switchport

Answer D

24. Which DTP switch port mode allow the port to create trunk port if the port is in trunk,
dynamic auto and dynamic desirable mode?
A. Dynamic Auto
B. Dynamic Desirable
C. Access
D. Trunk
Answer B
25. How to enable VLANs automatically across multiple switches?
A. Configure VLAN
B. Configure NTP
C. Configure each VLAN
D. Configure VTP

Answer – D

26. Which technology can enable multiple VLAN to communicate with one another?
A. Intra-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch
B. Inter-vlan routing using a layer 3 switch
C. Inter-vlan routing using a layer 2 switch
D. Intra-vlan routing using router on a stick
Answer -B

27. Which statement about a router on a stick is true?

A. Its data plane router traffic for a single VLAN over two or more switches
B. It uses multiple sub-interfaces of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs on the same subnet.
C. It requires the native VLAN to be disabled.
D. It uses multiple sub-interface of a single interface to encapsulate traffic for different
VLANs
Answer – D
28. Which two statements are true about inter-VLAN in the topology that is shown in the
exhibit? (Choose two)

A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address

B. Router 1 and Switch 2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Router 1 will not play a role in communication between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router 1 must be configured with Sub-interfaces
E. Router 1 needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the
exhibit.
F. The FastEthernet 0/0 interface on Router 1 and the fastethernet 0/1 interface on Switch2
trunk ports configured using the same encapsulation type.
G.
Answer – D, F

29. Which protocol is Cisco Proprietary implementation of STP?

A. CST
B. RSTP
C. MSTP
D. PVST+

Answer – D
30. Which two a spanning-tree port states does RSTP combines to allow faster convergence?
(Choose Two)
A. Blocking
B. Listening
C. Learning
D. Forwarding
E. Discarding

Answer – A, B

31. Refer to the exhibit. The output is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statement
are true? (Choose Three)

A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding

B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch/
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for Spanning Tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state,
F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

Answer – A, C, E