Assignment 1: Introduction to health research

1) A researcher conducted a study to know the efficacy of a new chemotherapeutic agent among mice with
renal cell carcinoma. What type of research is this?
a) Translational research
b) Bench side research
c) Bed side research
d) Implementation research

2) What is the type of research that takes evidence-based interventions in tobacco cessation for taking
informed policy decisions?
a) Bench side research
b) Bed side research
c) Implementation research
d) Translational research

3) A researcher proposed a novel research question. ‘What are the differences in full genome structure of
Sars-CoV-2 variants?’ Which of the following is a scope of this research?
a) Getting new information
b) Verifying available information
c) Confirming available information
d) Explaining cause and effect relationship

4) What is the scope of a research in which the occurrence of one event is followed by the occurrence of a
subsequent event?
a) Getting new information
b) Verifying available information
c) Confirming available information
d) Explaining cause and effect relationship

5) What is the type of study that uses only the information recorded in the past?
a) Retrospective
b) Prospective
c) Randomised clinical trial
d) Ambispective

6) What is another term used for random error?

a) Bias
b) Chance
c) Instrumental error
d) Systematic error

7) How can systematic errors be minimized?

a) By increasing sample size
b) By increasing precision
c) By calibrating the instrument
d) By stratification
8) What is the term used to denote ‘a small-scale study with minimal study participants which examines the
feasibility of procedures intended to be performed in the main study’?
a) Pilot study
b) Pre-testing
c) Case study
d) Cohort study

9) Choose whether the following statement is true or false. ‘Inclusion and Exclusion criteria should be
mutually exclusive”.
a) True
b) False

10) What is the term used to denote ‘a variable that can alter the relationship between the study variable and
outcome by independently affecting outcome’ called?
a) Confounder
b) Effect modifier
c) Intervening variable
d) Outcome variable
Assignment 2: Formulating Research Question
1) A postgraduate researcher wishes to estimate the prevalence of autism and the co-morbidities among
children referred to the outpatient clinics for neurodevelopmental disorders. Which of the following study
designs should be used by the researcher?
a) Descriptive study
b) Analytical study
c) Literature review
d) Experimental study

2) A postgraduate researcher proposes to investigate the association between childhood trauma and psychosis
in a particular area. Identify the type of research study.
a) Descriptive study
b) Analytical study
c) Experimental study
d) Systematic Review

3) All the following are components of 'FINER ' criteria for a research question EXCEPT:
a) Feasible
b) Novel
c) Ethical
d) Reliable

4) State whether true or false: A single research study can be designed to answer both descriptive and
analytical questions.
a) True
b) False

5) All are source(s) of research question EXCEPT:

a) Published literature
b) Being alert to new ideas
c) Careful observation and teaching
d) Personal experiences

6) What is the first step in the life cycle of research?

a) Spelling out the research question
b) Identifying the data needs
c) Formulating the objective of the study
d) Choosing the study design

7) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding a good research question?

a) A good research question should be Feasible, Interesting, Novel, Ethical and Relevant
b) A good research question facilitates the choice of optimal study design
c) A good research question should focus on one issue
d) A good research question should be in epidemiological terms
8) Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.Each research study uses a specific participant or patient
population (P), an intervention or issue of interest (I), a ______ (C) and an outcome of interest (O) or ‘PICO’.
a) Condition of interest
b) Comparison of interest
c) Consequence of interest
d) Correlation of interest

9) State whether true or false. The null hypothesis states that there is no difference between the experimental
and controlgroups.
a) True
b) False

10) When we are formulating a research question we should consider the following points EXCEPT:
a) Use specific terms to describe the problem
b) Preferably focus on multiple issues
c) Write in everyday language
d) Use more than one operational verb, if needed
Assignment 3: Literature review
1) State whether true or false. Literature review helps us to understand the gaps in the existing knowledge
about the concerned subject.
a) True
b) False

2) All of the following about literature review are correct EXCEPT:

a) Literature review saves lot of time in your research
b) Critical appraisal is an important step in the process of literature review
c) Literature review is the identification a subset of document which are most relevant to the
research question
d) Literature review helps to develop new research questions

3) The process of identifying relevant documents from a large database by a set of queries refers to
_______________.
a) Citation
b) Critical appraisal
c) Information retrieval
d) Indexing

4) All of the following are steps in performing a literature review EXCEPT:

a) Selecting the studies reported in the last 5 years
b) Comparing methods of identified studies
c) Tabulation of findings from each study
d) Scholarly critical appraisal of studies

5) Which among the following is not generally reported in the table of literature review?
a) Study design
b) Study population
c) Primary outcomes
d) Impact factor

6) Which among the following is NOT a search engine for retrieving published medical literature?
a) PubMed
b) Ovid
c) Google Scholar
d) Mendeley
7) An investigator is interested to find literature on the effectiveness of COVID vaccination for reducing
severe COVID-19 illness that requires ICU care. Which of the following search strategy will yield the most
appropriate results?
a) “COVID-19 Vaccine” AND (“Severe COVID-19” OR “Intensive Care Units”)
b) (“COVID-19 Vaccine” OR “Severe COVID-19”) AND “Intensive Care Units”
c) “COVID-19 Vaccine” AND “Severe COVID-19” AND “Intensive Care Units”
d) “COVID-19 Vaccine” OR “Severe COVID-19” OR “Intensive Care Units”
8) Which of the following Boolean operators is used for connecting two keywords, the latter of which needs
to be excluded from searches?
a) AND
b) OR
c) NOT
d) BUT

9) Which of the following pose an ethical challenge in performing a literature review?

a) Contents from individual studies are presented without distortion
b) Scholarly appraisal of the weakness of the studies without being too critical
c) Studies supporting our proposed hypothesis are selectively reported and highlighted
d) Documenting the source accurately

10) An investigator is interested to summarise the prevalence of hookworm infections among children. Which
among the following search strategy would yield the appropriate result?
a) “Hookworm infections” AND “Child”
b) “Hookworm infections” OR “Child”
c) “Hookworm infections” NOT “Child”
d) “Hookworm infections” BUT “Child”
Assignment 4: Measures of disease frequency
1) All of the following are measures of morbidity EXCEPT:
a) Incidence
b) Probability of experiencing a disease condition
c) Population at risk of a disease
d) Period prevalence

2) The ratio of the number of new cases to the total time the population is at risk of disease refers
to___________.
a) Cumulative incidence
b) Incidence density
c) Risk
d) Incidence proportion

3) A cross sectional survey was undertaken to estimate the prevalence of refractive errors among adults in a
village with a population of 10,000. During the survey, about 400 reported spectacle use for refractive error
and another 800 individuals were identified with refractive error during the survey. What is the prevalence of
refractive error?
a) 8.0%
b) 8.3%
c) 12.0%
d) 12.3%

4) Which of the following is FALSE about disease prevalence?

a) It is the ratio of existing cases to the total population at risk during a specified time point
b) Total mid-year population is used as an approximation for population at risk wherever at
risk population is not available
c) The multiplier is chosen depending upon how rare or common the disease being studied is.
d) Prevalence is the appropriate for measuring burden of diseases with high fatality

5) Which of the following can decrease the prevalence of a disease?

a) Increase in the incidence of the disease
b) Improved detection of diseased individuals
c) High case fatality
d) Immigration of persons with the disease into study area

6) Which of the following statement is FALSE about incidence of disease?

a) It measures the rapidity with which new cases are occurring in a population
b) It is the number of all existing cases (new and old) during a given period in a specified population
c) It can be expressed as cumulative incidence or incidence density
d) Cumulative incidence is also referred to as attack rate
7) A cohort of women who smoked cigarettes was followed-up to study the incidence of cleft lip among the
children born to these women. Of the total 9,500 children born to these women, 228 children had cleft clip.
What is the risk of cleft lip among women who smoke cigarettes?
a) 2.4 per 100 persons
b) 0.24 per 100 persons
c) 0.24 per lakh persons
d) 0.024 per 1000 persons

8) Which of the following is TRUE about case fatality?

a) It reflects the severity of the disease
b) It can be expressed as a rate
c) It cannot be expressed as a proportion
d) It expresses a relation between the number of deaths due to a disease to the total number of deaths

9) About 1000 prison inmates were followed up for one year to study the occurrence of Tuberculosis (TB)
among them. Of the total, 10 had TB at the beginning and another 25 persons developed TB during one year
of follow-up. What is the period prevalence for that year?
a) 2.5%
b) 3.0%
c) 3.5%
d) 4.0%

10) State whether true or false. Change in prevalence from one time period to another may be the result of
changes in incidence rates, changes in the duration of disease, or both.
a) True
b) False
Assignment 5: Descriptive study designs
1) Which of the following study designs is most appropriate to disseminate information on rare clinical
manifestation of a particular disease?
a) Case series
b) Cross sectional study
c) Ecological study
d) Case control study

2) State whether True or False: Population is the unit of observation in an ecological study.
a) True
b) False

3) State whether True or False. All analytical studies are interventional in nature.
a) True
b) False

4) Population level information is required in which of the following study designs?

a) Case control study
b) Ecological study
c) Randomized control trial
d) Cohort study

5) Which of the following is used to provide information on a patient’s response to an innovative

intervention?
a) Case study
b) Cross sectional study
c) Case control study
d) Ecological study

6) Findings from which of the following study designs is LEAST generalizable to the population?
a) Case series
b) Cross sectional study
c) Case control study
d) Cohort study

7) Which of the following statement is (are) referring an ecological study?

a) Individual is the unit of study
b) Relate the exposure and outcome at the population level
c) It is a detail description of a rare clinical condition of a specific disease
d) It is an interventional study

8) Population census can be classified under which of the following study design?
a) Cohort study
b) Case control study
c) Cross sectional study
d) Ecological study
9) Estimating the disease burden will be helpful in which of the following activity?
a) To develop the treatment protocol
b) To know the causal relationship between an exposure and an outcome
c) To plan health care service delivery
d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’

10) Which of the following is a major limitation of a cross-sectional study compared to a cohort study?
a) Exposure and outcome are examined at the same time
b) High attrition rate
c) Expensive to conduct
d) It takes a long time to complete
Assignment 6: Analytical study designs
1) The following are true about a case-control study EXCEPT:
a) It is suitable for examining rare exposures
b) It can be completed in a shorter duration
c) It is relatively inexpensive to conduct
d) It is prone to information bias due to problems in recall

2) A researcher is following up a group of workers employed in aniline dye industry for 20 years to assess
development of skin cancers. The comparison group consisted of workers employed in clerical job. The
incidence of skin cancers was compared between the study groups. This is an example of
_________________.
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-control study
d) Ecological study

3) A relative risk of one would denote that ______________.

a) The incidence among non-exposed is higher than the incidence among exposed
b) The exposure is positively associated with the disease
c) The incidence among exposed is same as the incidence among the unexposed
d) The incidence among exposed is higher than the incidence among non-exposed

4) Which of the following information about cohort study is INCORRECT?

a) Study population can be selected from the general population or subgroups
b) Exposure status of the participants is collected at the baseline
c) Individuals who had outcome of interest at the baseline will form the cohort
d) Follow-up and outcome ascertainment in the exposed and the unexposed groups should be uniform

5) In a cohort study, 29 out of 1530 individuals who received COVID-19 vaccine and 217 out of 1880
individuals who did not get COVID-19 vaccine developed severe COVID-19. The suitable measure of
association in the above study is_________________.
a) Relative risk of 0.16
b) Odds ratio of 0.14
c) Prevalence ratio of 0.14
d) Relative risk of 0.14

6) All of the following are true regarding selection of participants in a case control study EXCEPT:
a) Controls should represent the distribution of exposure in the source population
b) Controls are selected from the same source population that gave rise to the cases
c) Controls are selected depending on their exposure status
d) Controls can be selected from population or health care facility or from the neighbourhood of cases
7) A researcher wants to determine the risk factors for Mucormycosis among patients who had COVID-19.
Steroid usage was compared between patients who developed and those who did not develop Mucormycosis.
This is an example of a ______________
a) Cohort study
b) Case-control study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Retrospective study

8) Persons diagnosed with COVID-19 disease in a hospital were asked for COVID-19 vaccination status. An
equal number of patients without COVID-19 disease were asked for COVID-19 vaccination status, and the
responses in the two groups were compared. The appropriate measure of association in this study would be:
a) Risk ratio
b) Incidence density
c) Odds ratio
d) Prevalence ratio

9) A researcher intends to determine the association between salt intake and hypertension. 100 out of the 600
hypertension patients and 40 out of 600 patients without hypertension had high salt intake. Calculate the odds
ratio for the association between salt intake and hypertension.
a) 2.2
b) 2.5
c) 3.3
d) 3.8

10) Which among the following is an advantage of cohort study compared to a case-control study?
a) Incidence of the disease can be calculated
b) Less prone to loss to follow-up of participants
c) Less costly and less time consuming
d) They are suitable for studying rare disease
Assignment 7: Experimental study designs: Clinical trials
1) State whether true or false. In a randomized controlled trial, the investigator is unaware of the sequence of
allocation of the participants to one of the study arms before and until the assignment is complete. This
process is known as ‘Blinding’.
a) True
b) False

2) The following are a feature of randomized controlled trials EXCEPT

a) Randomization
b) Simple random sampling
c) Allocation concealment
d) Blinding

3) State whether true or false. Randomized controlled trials are prospective in nature.
a) True
b) False

4) A research group from a medical college in Chandigarh conducted a study to assess the efficacy of a new
vaccine for the prevention of COVID-19 among children. What type of randomized controlled trial is this
study?
a) ScreeningRCT
b) Diagnostic RCT
c) Therapeutic RCT
d) Prophylactic RCT

5) In a clinical trial of an investigational new drug, the participants were blinded to their treatment allocation.
However, the investigators and data analysts were aware about the treatment allocation. Therefore, this
randomized controlled trial would be considered as __________.
a) Double blinded
b) Triple blinded
c) Single blinded
d) None of the above

6) State whether true or false. Participants are randomized in a randomized controlled trial to ensure that the
groups are similar apart from the intervention.
a) True
b) False

7) In a randomized controlled trial, overly restrictive exclusion criteria may result in which of the following?
a) Decreased external validity
b) Decreased internal validity
c) Problems with recruitment
d) Both ‘Decreased external validity’ and ‘Problems with recruitment’
8) A pharmacologically inactive agent that investigators administer to participants in the control group of a
randomized controlled trial is called as:
a) Comparator drug
b) Conjugate
c) Placebo
d) Drug under investigation

9) External validity of an experiment refers to which of the following?

a) Results have been obtained from cross cultural studies
b) Results are generalizable to the general population
c) Experiments were performed in the laboratory
d) Results are replicable

10) In a clinical trial, the study investigators compared a new analgesic with placebo for the control of pain in
arthritis. The investigators and patients were not aware about the treatment assignment. What best describes
this study design?
a) Open-label RCT
b) Single blind RCT
c) Double blind RCT
d) Triple blind RCT
Assignment 8: Validity of epidemiological studies
1) What is the term used to denote generalizability of the study results to target population?
a) Internal validity
b) External validity
c) Precision
d) Credibility

2) A researcher measures blood pressure using a sphygmomanometer on three different occasions. The values
were found to be close to one another. What is the term used to denote this phenomenon?
a) Reliable
b) Valid
c) Precision
d) Accuracy

3) The estimates that researchers produce are based on samples, and samples may not accurately reflect what
is really going on in the population. Which of the following threats to validity does it results in?
a) Random error
b) Systematic error
c) Confounding
d) Effect modification

4) A researcher planned a prospective study on healthy eating habits among adolescents. If the people who
have healthy lifestyles and healthy behaviours were more likely to participate in the study, due to the proposed
study method, what bias is likely to occur?
a) Information bias
b) Selection bias
c) Measurement bias
d) Confounding bias

5) Missing data can result in which of the following?

a) Selection bias
b) Loss to follow up bias
c) Information bias
d) Volunteer bias

6) What is the term used to denote ‘Association between exposure and outcome among the study participants
differs from the causal association in the population’?
a) Errors in estimation
b) Effect modification
c) Precision
d) Causal association
7) Which of the following method can be used to control confounding at the analysis stage?
a) Restriction
b) Matching
c) Stratification
d) Randomization

8) Which of the following is a method to deal with information bias?

a) Repeated measurements on key variables
b) Minimize non-response
c) Comparison of baseline variables
d) Sensitivity analysis

9) Which of the following is a method to deal with selection bias?

a) Precise operation definition of variables
b) Detailed measurement protocols
c) Training data collectors
d) Apply same eligibility criteria across groups

10) A researcher wanted to know if treating index osteoporotic vertebral fractures with vertebroplasty
increased the risk of subsequent vertebral fractures. A total of 500 patients were included of whom, 250
underwent vertebroplasty while the remaining underwent the conventional standard of care. The study
population was stratified to check whether the significant association (RR=2) found in the study was true or
not. On comparison, the participants had similar age and gender characteristics. The researchers conducted a
stratified analysis based on smoking. The estimate (RR=1) was same in both groups. What does this indicate?
a) Effect modification
b) Interaction
c) Confounding
d) Random error
Assignment 9: Qualitative research- an overview
1) Choose the correct option. The point of view captured in qualitative research is ________________
a) Participant’s
b) Investigator’s
c) Investigator’s reflections on participants point of view
d) Participant’s reflections on investigators point of view

2) Which of the following is an action verb commonly used while framing a qualitative objective?
a) To estimate
b) To determine
c) To explore
d) To predict

3) Which of the following qualitative techniques requires homogenous participants?

a) Focus-group discussion
b) In-depth interview
c) Participant observation
d) Key informant interview

4) A researcher decided to conduct a study on domestic abuse among homemakers in a village during the
COVID 19 pandemic. Which of the following is an appropriate method to use for data collection?
a) Participant Observation
b) In-depth interview
c) Focus group discussion
d) Key informant interview

5) A researcher conducted a study to know the local terminologies and forms of tobacco used in a particular
community of tobacco users. Which of the following is an appropriate method for data collection?
a) Key informant interview
b) Grounded theory
c) In-depth interview
d) Focus group discussion

6) A researcher planned a study to know the reason for non-compliance to follow up in drug addiction
rehabilitation centres among adolescent intra-venous drug users. What is the appropriate method to use for
data collection?
a) Key informant interview
b) Participant Observation
c) In-depth interview
d) Focus group discussion

7) What is the logic of inquiry in qualitative research?

a) Deductive
b) Objective
c) Inductive
d) Statistical
8) Which of the following is a method of analysing qualitative data?
a) Regression analysis
b) Content analysis
c) Univariate analysis
d) Multivariable analysis

9) Which of the following is NOT a pre-requisite for conducting focus group discussion?
a) Homogenous participants
b) Group interaction
c) Personal topics
d) Flexible interview guide

10) A researcher wanted to conduct a prospective study on the dietary practices of toddlers admitted to a
nutritional rehabilitation centre. Which of the following is an appropriate method for data collection?
a) Focus group discussion
b) Document analysis
c) Participant observation
d) Ethnography
Assignment 10: Measurement of study variables
1) Square root of the average of the squared deviations of the observations from the arithmetic mean is known
as___________.
a) Variance
b) Inter-quartile range
c) Mean deviation
d) Standard deviation

2) The age of twelve pregnant women who visited an ANC clinic is given. 26, 31, 25, 26, 30, 27, 25, 32, 25,
33,34, 21 What is the mean age of this group?
a) 28 years
b) 27.9 years
c) 25 years
d) 30 years

3) Variance is always preferred to calculate deviations from____________.

a) Mode
b) Variance
c) Median
d) Mean

4) The following scores were obtained by nine medical students in a quiz: 7, 3, 6, 9, 4, 8, 10, 12, 11 What is
the median score of this group?
a) 3
b) 8
c) 8.5
d) 11

5) State whether true or false. ‘Height of a student in a particular class is 60 inches’ is an example of a
continuous variable.
a) True
b) False

6) Which one of the following measurements does not divide a set of observations into equal parts?
a) Quartiles
b) Standard deviation
c) Percentiles
d) Median

7) In the NCD clinic of a primary health centre, haemoglobin (in g/dL) of 15 patients was measured. The
following values were obtained:5,4,9,8,4,8,8,7,7,8, 10, 12, 6, 5, 4. What is the mean hemoglobin of this
group?
a) 5 g/dL
b) 6g/dL
c) 7 g/dL
d) 8g/dL
8) Which of the following about ‘Range’ is true?
a) It indicates the way in which values cluster about a particular point
b) It gives the number of observations bearing the same value
c) It is the difference between the minimum and maximum value
d) It shows the degree to which the mean value differs from its expected value.

9) If the mean is 25 and the standard deviation is 5 then coefficient of variation is____________
a) 100%
b) 25%
c) 20%
d) None of these

10) All the following are examples of a nominal variable EXCEPT

a) Gender
b) Age
c) Place of residence
d) Color of eyes
Assignment 11: Sampling methods
1) What is the term used to denote ‘the procedure by which only some members of the population are chosen
for a study’ due to feasibility?
a) Randomization
b) Allocation
c) Sampling
d) Complete enumeration

2) A researcher conducted a study and wants to extrapolate the findings of the study to which of the
population?
a) Target population
b) Accessible population
c) Sample
d) Universe

3) A sample is taken for which of the following reasons?

a) To obtain information from small populations
b) To ensure the efficiency of a study
c) To study all units in the population
d) To ensure internal validity

4) Which of the following is a type of probability sampling?

a) Simple random sampling
b) Consecutive sampling
c) Convenience sampling
d) Purposive sampling

5) Which of the following is a type of non-probability sampling?

a) Systematic sampling
b) Stratified sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Respondent driven sampling

6) A researcher wanted to study the hand hygiene practices among health care workers in a hospital. A list of
all 100 workers was readily available. The researcher wanted to ensure that each individual had an equal
chance of being chosen. Which of the following sampling methods would the researcher use?
a) Simple random sampling
b) Systematic sampling
c) Cluster sampling
d) Snow-ball sampling

7) What is the sampling technique used when researchers draw conclusions from different sub-groups within
the population?
 a) Systematic sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Subjective sampling
d) Stratified sampling

8) The sampling unit is a group of individuals rather than a single individual in which of the following
sampling types?
a) Stratified sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Simple random sampling
d) Systematic sampling

9) Which of the following sampling methods are used in qualitative research?

a) Stratified sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Simple random sampling
d) Purposive sampling

10) Which of the following statements is TRUE about multi-stage sampling?

a) Commonly done for small populations
b) Sampling error can be measured
c) Complete enumeration of the population is needed
d) Is often done when it is expensive to cover the entire population
Assignment 12: Calculating sample size and power
1) The sample size required for a study will depend on the following EXCEPT:
a) Type of estimate used to measure the outcome
b) Desired precision of the estimate
c) Study design
d) Blinding of participants

2) State whether true or false. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true is known as Type
II error.
a) True
b) False

3) Power of a study refers to ___________________.

a) The probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false
b) The probability of failing to reject a null hypothesis when it is false
c) The probability of rejecting null hypothesis when it is true
d) The probability of failing to reject a null hypothesis when it is true

4) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about sample size estimation for a study?
a) Precision is a measure of how close an estimate is to the true value of a population parameter
b) A smaller value of absolute precision yields a lower sample size
c) Alpha error is usually fixed at 5% for biomedical research
d) Beta error needs to be specified in comparative studies

5) An investigator is interested to study the prevalence of Hepatitis –B among patients attending Sexually
Transmitted Diseases Clinic. For calculation of the sample size for the study, the knowledge about the
expected proportion can come from all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Estimates from a preliminary/pilot study
b) Estimates from previous studies
c) Assuming ‘p’=0.5 to yield maximum value of sample size
d) Assuming highest possible value for ‘p’

6) Following are assumptions for calculating the sample size for a study EXCEPT
a) The sample is obtained by means of probability sampling technique
b) The population is sufficiently large to ignore finite population correction
c) The expected proportion ‘p’ is normally distributed
d) The sampling is done with replacement

7) An investigator is intending to estimate the prevalence of Anaemia in a selected district. The expected
prevalence is 28%. The required sample size to estimate the prevalence with a relative precision of 10% and
alpha error of 5% would be
a) 514
b) 806
c) 1029
d) 1526
8) The sample size estimation for a cohort study requires the following EXCEPT
a) Proportion of outcome in the exposed group
b) Proportion of outcome in the non-exposed group
c) Desired level of alpha and beta error
d) Desired precision of the outcome

9) In a study to estimate the mean haemoglobin levels (g/dL) among under-five children, the expected
standard deviation was found to be 2.5 g/dL. If the researcher wants to estimate the mean with a precision of
0.5 g/dL and 95% significance level, what is the minimum sample size required?
a) 100
b) 200
c) 300
d) 400

10) Which of the following requires inflation of the sample size using design effect?
a) Stratified random sampling
b) Cluster sampling
c) Block randomization in RCT
d) Adjustments for multiple confounders
Assignment 13: Selection of study population
1) All of the following are attributes of exclusion criteria for selecting study population EXCEPT
a) Loss to follow up
b) Quality of data
c) Specifying population relevant to research
d) Being at high risk of adverse effects

2) An investigator intends to estimate the incidence of long COVID among adult patients who recovered from
COVID-19 in Bengaluru. However, the researcher selects the participants from a tertiary care hospital XYZ in
the city. The accessible population in this case would be_________.
a) Adult individuals in the city
b) Adult COVID-19 patients in the city
c) Adult patients who were managed and recovered from COVID-19 in the tertiary care hospital XYZ
in the city
d) Adult COVID-19 patients managed in the tertiary care hospital XYZ in the city who developed
long COVID

3) Which among the following is INCORRECT about non-response while collecting data for a research
study?
a) It is generally higher in observational studies
b) It compromises the generalizability of the study
c) Can be minimized by study method that avoids discomfort to participants
d) It tends to change the objective of the study

4) All of the following participants can be considered as inclusion criteria for a trial evaluating the efficacy of
drug treatments for Polycystic Ovarian disease (PCOD) EXCEPT
a) Females in the reproductive age group
b) Females with mild PCOD
c) Female with severe PCOD
d) Females with PCOD and under treatment

5) An investigator wants to study the coverage of COVID-19 vaccination program in a selected district. A
representative sample can be obtained by all of the following steps EXCEPT:
a) Choosing the population and sampling methods wisely
b) Guarding against errors in applying the inclusion criteria
c) Monitoring adherence to the criteria as the study progresses
d) Number of vaccine vials supplied to that district

6) State whether true or false. External validity of a study refers to the extent to which the results of the study
can be generalised to the target population.
a) True
b) False
7) All of the following are guiding principles for selecting suitable study population EXCEPT
a) The selected study population should be representative of the target population
b) It is better to select the entire target population wherever feasible
c) The cost and time involved in selection should be reasonable
d) The number of participants selected should be sufficient to account for random error

8) Which of the following is true about study population?

a) Study sample is a subset of the accessible population
b) Target population is a subset of the accessible population
c) Accessible population is a subset of the study sample
d) Target population is a subset of the study sample

9) All of the following are important factors to be considered while choosing study sample and sampling
approach EXCEPT:
a) Feasibility
b) Representativeness of the target population
c) Sufficient numbers to test proposed hypothesis
d) Identification details of individuals of the target population

10) Which among the following is INCORRECT about selection of sample for conducting a research study?
a) Demographic and clinical criteria are applied to identify the target population
b) Exclusion criteria are applied to eliminate subset of accessible population who may not be
appropriate to be included
c) Random sampling is not possible for hospital-based selection of study participants
d) Non-responses in a study affects the generalizability of the study
Assignment 14: Study plan and project management
1) State whether True or False: The amount of funding is the factor which decides the study design to conduct
a health research.
a) True
b) False

2) Which of the following stage is most appropriate to define the responsibilities to conduct a health project?
a) During the planning
b) During initiation
c) During conducting
d) Any time of the study

3) Inadequate supervision of field activity will result in which of the following?

a) Forceful revision of study objectives
b) Generation of low-quality data
c) Saving in allocated fund
d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

4) All of the following are advantages of having an analysis plan EXCEPT.

a) Analyzable information is collected
b) Early dissemination of study results
c) Helps to avoid comparison not related to the objectives
d) Good quality data can be obtained

5) Gantt chart is useful in the following aspect (s) with respect to the study plan and project management.
a) Develop the initial project schedule
b) Report study progress
c) Demonstrate milestone
d) All of these

6) State whether True or False: ‘Ad hoc’ method is a best method in project implementation and management.
a) True
b) False

7) Which of the following is NOT TRUE about project implementation?

a) Having a standard operating procedures in not a prerequisite for multi-centric studies
b) Collecting analyzable information should be a prerequisite
c) Validated methods should be used for data collection
d) Conducting regular project review meetings improves project implementation

8) Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?

a) Time management
b) Resource allocation
c) Monitoring and supervision
d) Protocol development
9) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the project management?
a) The timeline for the project should not be too long or too short
b) Having high budget will always result in successful project completion
c) Lack of training to filed investigators is one of the reasons for study failure
d) Having vague objectives will result in project failure

10) In the ‘Research cycle’. which of the following step lies between formulating the study objectives and
preparing data collection instruments?
a) Data collection
b) Data cleaning
c) Data analysis plan
d) Data analysis
Assignment 15: Designing data collection tools
1) A researcher decided to use an abstract form for collection of data by review of records for a proposed
study. Which of the following can be a source of information?
a) Clinical registers
b) Checklist of items
c) Face to face interviews
d) Computer-assisted interviews

2) A questionnaire can be of the following types, EXCEPT?

a) Interviewer-administered
b) Self-administered
c) Checklist
d) Computer-assisted

3) Which of the following items are placed in the body of the study instrument?
a) Identifiers
b) Open questions
c) Instructions with prompts
d) Informed consent

4) Identify the type of question. ‘What disease can you acquire if you consume alcohol? _________________’
a) Closed question
b) Open question with closed ended answers
c) Open question
d) Semi-open question

5) Identify the type of question. ‘Did you have any of the symptoms following COVID disease?
1. None
2. Breathlessness
3. Fatigue
4. Chest pain
5. Cough
6. Other, specify:__________’

a) Closed question
b) Open question with closed-ended answers
c) Open question
d) Semi-open question

6) Identify the type of question. ‘How would you describe your pain on a scale of 1-10 where, 1 would be the
minimum and 10 would be the maximum?
a) Closed question
b) Open question with closed ended answers
c) Open question
d) Semi-open question
7) Identify the type of question.
‘What are the practices that may increase your risk of getting COVID infection (Instruction for data collector -
Do not propose any options for an answer and simply note the response as given by the participant)
1. Wearing a mask (Yes/ No/ Not sure)
2. Following social distancing (Yes/ No/ Not sure)
3. Coming in contact with a COVID positive patient (Yes/ No/ Not sure)
4. Socialising indoors (Yes/ No/ Not sure)

a) Closed question
b) Open question with closed-ended answers
c) Open question
d) Semi-open question

8) Which of the following characteristics is TRUE about formulating a question in a questionnaire?

a) Scientific language
b) Double negatives
c) Precise question
d) General question

9) Which of the following is the CORRECT order of questions in a study tool?

a) Simple to complicated
b) Specific to general
c) Intimate to casual
d) Different topics within a single group

10) The data collection tool can be finalised by all the following methods ‘EXCEPT’?
a) Checking instrument against objectives and analysis plan
b) Reviewing of the instrument by experts
c) Formulation in English for non-English speaking population
d) Pilot testing
Assignment 16: Principles of data collection
1) Consistency of information in health research is otherwise known as ----------.
a) Accuracy
b) Validity
c) Reproducibility
d) Sensitivity

2) State True or False: Ability of a measurement to give the same result with repeated measurements of the
same thing is known as accuracy.
a) True
b) False

3) Which of the following is an ideal situation in a health research with respect to the study results?
a) Not reliable, accurate
b) Not accurate, reliable
c) Not accurate, not reliable
d) Accurate, reliable

4) Which of the following is considered as a roadmap for good data collection?

a) Training
b) Monitoring
c) Question by question guide
d) Validation

5) When a researcher planning to conduct a field based study which is the foremost important criteria to be
satisfied with the field investigator?
a) Familiarity with the local language
b) Well qualified
c) Should know clinical terms
d) All of the above

6) Conducting a ----------------will be helpful for the field investigator to understand the complete process and
of data collection activity.
a) Training
b) Discussion
c) Pilot study
d) Review meeting

7) Which is the ideal time to check the completeness of data during the data collection activity?
a) At the end of data collection
b) Before the respondent leaves
c) During data cleaning
d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
8) All the following checks to be conducted in the data collection forms EXCEPT?
a) Consistency
b) Readability
c) Completeness
d) Significance

9) Which of the following statement is TRUE about validation of data collection process?
a) All the study participant should be interviewed
b) A subset of study participants can be interviewed on convenience
c) Randomly selected subset of study participants can be interviewed
d) Interview a different population with the same tool

10) State True or False: Question by question guide can be revised as and when the issues arise during the
data collection process.
a) True
b) False
Assignment 17: Data management
1) State whether true or false. Data entry can be viewed as a mechanism to clean up the data to some extent.
a) True
b) False

2) In a database management system, the dictionary contains information about the following EXCEPT
a) Questionnaire item
b) Variable name
c) Variable type
d) Number of records

3) A post graduate researcher is designing a data entry module for his thesis project. All the following are
essential for maintaining quality of data EXCEPT
a) Use of legal value and range checks
b) Pilot test of the data entry module before data collection
c) Use of sample size calculation software
d) Use of experienced data entry operators

4) State whether true or false. While entering the systolic blood pressure (expected value 60 to 200) value in a
database, coding the missing value as 99 may lead to an erroneous result.
a) True
b) False

5) Which of the following is a disadvantage of the statistical software ‘EpiInfo’?(O)

a) Enables questionnaire design
b) It is built for WINDOWS OS only
c) Useful for data entry and validation
d) Displays locationdata on map

6) While documenting the storage information of the database, we need to document which of the following?
a) Investigators information
b) Time, place, person information
c) Media, location and backup information
d) Hardware configuration

7) Which of the following is FALSE about data dictionary?

a) It is created after the data entry is started
b) It contains the values assigned to the variables
c) It gives a brief description of the variables
d) It links the variables in the database to the questionnaire

8) Identify the type of variable in this question. “Have you ever smoked cigarettes?
1. Yes
2. No”
a) Categorical
b) Ordinal
c) Continuous
d) Discrete

9) In a study on cancer, the ‘stage of cancer’ was recorded as Stage I, Stage II, Stage III and Stage IV. Which
of the following variable types best describes the ‘stage of cancer’?
a) Nominal
b) Ordinal
c) Categorical
d) Continuous

10) In a study with 100 participants, age was recorded as a continuous variable. During data entry, it was seen
that age was missing in the forms for 13 people. Which of the following is truein this situation?
a) Missing values can be coded as ‘999’
b) Age variable should be removed from the study
c) An arbitrary value can be assigned by the data entry operator
d) Participants with missing age should be removed from the study
Assignment 18: Data Analysis
1) The plan for data analysis depends on _____________.
a) Objective of the study
b) Study design
c) Type of outcome variable
d) All of these

2) Association between cervical cancer and use of Intra uterine contraceptive device is analysed separately
among persons with multiple sexual partners and persons with single sexual partner. This analysis is an
example of _______________.
a) Multivariable adjusted analysis
b) Stratified analysis
c) Regression analysis
d) Dose-response analysis

3) The first important step to be done before data analysis is to______________.

a) Identify main variables
b) Become familiar with the data
c) Identify the study design
d) Examine the outcome/exposure analysis

4) Analytical study is used for ___________.

a) Testing of hypothesis
b) Estimation of a parameter
c) Hypothesis formulation
d) Describing a population

5) Prevalence ratio is the preferred measure of association in _______________.

a) Analytical cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-control study
d) Descriptive cross-sectional study

6) What is the correct sequence of data analysis strategy?

i. Characterizing the study population
ii. Conducting stratified analysis
iii. Identifying study variables
iv. Creating additional two-way tables
v. Identifying study design
a) i, v, iii, iv, ii
b) v, iii, i, iv, ii
c) v, i, iii, ii, iv
d) iii, v, i, ii, iv
7) The following are true about data analysis EXCEPT
a) Data analysis plan should be prepared in advance
b) Post hoc analysis which was not part of the original plan should be avoided
c) Recoding of data is done following descriptive and analytical data analysis
d) Multivariable analysis is done to adjust for potential confounders

8) The preferred measure of association for a case-control study is _____________.

a) Risk ratio
b) Odds ratio
c) Prevalence ratio
d) Prevalence odds ratio

9) State whether true or false. Spreadsheets are preferred tools for data management and analysis of large
quantity of data.
a) True
b) False

10) In a cohort study to examine the association between use of Oral contraceptive pills (OCP) and
development of breast cancer, 35 out of 8,000 women who used OCP and 33 out of the 22,000 women who
did not use OCP had developed breast cancer over 10 years of follow-up. Calculate the measure of
association.
a) 1.3
b) 1.5
c) 1.8
d) 2.0
Assignment 19: Ethical framework for health research
1) State whether True or False: An interview-based research is exempted from ethics committee review.
a) True
b) False

2) Which of the following study primarily lead to the establishment of Belmont report?
a) Nuremberg trial
b) Tuskegee syphilis study
c) Doctors trial
d) Scopes monkey trial

3) Which of the following context will fall under the breach of ‘Justice’, one of the basic ethical principles?
a) Disclosing personal identity of the study participants
b) Conveying insufficient information about the study
c) Excluding a particular gender from participation in a study without any valid reason
d) Failing to provide the required ‘safety measures’ of the participant

4) ‘Do no harm’ implies to which of the following ethical principle?

a) Beneficence
b) Non maleficence
c) Autonomy
d) Justice

5) Which of the following ethical principle insists the voluntary decision of an individual to participate in a
research?
a) Beneficence
b) Non maleficence
c) Autonomy
d) Justice

6) Which of the following ethical principles suggests that the research plan should be fair and correct to
everyone irrespective of any socio, demographic, and cultural factors?
a) Justice
b) Autonomy
c) Beneficence
d) Non maleficence

7) Informed consent primarily deals with which of the following ethical principle?
a) Autonomy
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
d) Non maleficence

8) State whether True or False: It is not advisable to repeat the informed consent process during the study.
a) True
b) False
9) Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about informed consent?
a) Informed consent process can be repeated if required during the conduct of the study
b) Individual consent is not required in presence of a group consent is obtained from a study group
c) Informed consent must have the complete details of the proposed research
d) Contact information of the principal investigator is a must in the information sheet

10) Which of the following is recommended when a study participant is illiterate and cannot sign the informed
consent form?
a) Informed consent process can be skipped
b) Need to have an impartial witness
c) Exclude the individual from participation
d) Field investigator can sign the form
Assignment 20: Conducting Clinical Trials
1) State whether true or false. A clause regarding the collection, storage and use of biological samples for
research purposes should be mentioned in the participant information sheet.
a) True
b) False

2) Which of the following is CORRECT with regard to the process of informed consent for an illiterate
person?
a) Cannot be witnessed by members of the research team
b) Can be witnessed by illiterate family member
c) Can be witnessed by any literate person who is not part of the study
d) Illiterate persons cannot be included in the study

3) A study design that randomly assigns participants into an experimental group or a control group is called
_______________.
a) Cohort study
b) Randomized controlled trials
c) Case-control study
d) Cross-sectional study

4) Investigators are required to report adverse events occurring during a clinical trial to all the following
agencies EXCEPT?
a) Regulatory authority
b) Sponsor
c) Institutional Ethics Committee
d) Scientific Advisory Committee

5) A randomized controlled trial can be pre-maturely stopped if:

a) The investigators lose interest
b) A significant unanticipated risk is demonstrated
c) When results show no justification for exposing participants to additional potential risk
d) Both “b” and “c” are correct

6) A post graduate researcher conducted a clinical trial to compare the effect of a new drug over a standard
drug given for control of ‘Type-2 Diabetes Mellitus ’. During the trial, the participant and the investigators
were kept unaware of the group allocation. What level of blinding was adopted here?
a) Open labelled
b) Double blinding
c) Single blinding
d) Triple blinding

7) The primary function of the scientific review committee is_____________.

a) Checking if the safety and welfare of the research participants is adequately protected
b) Checking whether the research methods are appropriate
c) Confirming if the participants are available for the study
d) Identifying eligibility for funding
8) State whether true or false. Researchers who have no institutional affiliation can use the independent ethics
committees that function outside institutions.
a) True
b) False

9) Which of the following is INCORRECT about the study participants of randomized controlled trials?
a) All trial participants are reimbursed irrespective of the damages
b) Verbal consent of trial participants is sufficient for conducting the trial
c) Compensation to the trial participants is given only if the damage has occurred
d) One copy of informed consent is given to the trial participants

10) In randomized controlled trials, matters related to reimbursement and compensation for research
participants are reviewed by the_____________.
a) Scientific committee
b) Ethics committee
c) Study Investigator
d) Research participants
Assignment 21: Preparing a concept paper for research projects
1) While writing the concept paper on a research topic, researcher should include all the following in the
background and justification section EXCEPT :
a) Why the research problem is important
b) What is known about the problem in relation to the local context
c) What is unknown in the literature
d) What could be the policy implications of the study

2) Ethics section of the concept paper has all the following components EXCEPT
a) Information about sample and data storage
b) Salary of the project staff
c) Key measures taken to protect the study participants
d) Name of ethics committee to which the study will be submitted for approval

3) ‘Agenda for further research’ is described in which of the following sections of the concept paper?
a) Methods
b) Results
c) Expected Benefits
d) Context of study

4) The ‘methods’ section of the concept paper outlines the following EXCEPT:
a) Key operational definitions
b) Sampling strategy
c) Context of study
d) Analysis plan
5) Which of the following are components of a concept paper?
a) Abstract
b) Objectives and Methods
c) Conclusion
d) Discussion

6) It is important to mention what is known and unknown about the problem to be addressed through the
proposed research. In which section of the concept paper is this described?
a) Background and justification
b) Objectives
c) Expected benefits, Key references and Budget
d) Methods

7) While writing the concept papers for intervention studies, the methods section must have the following
details:
a) Randomization
b) Sequence allocation
c) Allocation concealment
d) All of the these
8) State whether true or false. Reference section is usually an optional component in a concept paper.
a) True
b) False

9) The initial outline of the research protocol is also called______________.

a) Concept paper
b) Abstract
c) Poster presentation
d) Summary

10) All the followings are recommended while writing a concept paper EXCEPT :
a) Preparing a concise document
b) Presenting mostly in bullet forms
c) Discussion of the study finding
d) Restricting the number of objectives
Assignment 22: Elements of a protocol for research studies
1) Written plan for a research is known as -------------------
a) Manuscript
b) Protocol
c) Commentary
d) Critical appraisal

2) Which of the following section is NOT a section in a study protocol?

a) Introduction
b) Objectives
c) Expected benefits
d) Discussion

3) A researcher developed a protocol based on an experimental study. Which section of the protocol will have
the description of interventions?
a) Introduction
b) Objectives
c) Analysis plan
d) Methods

4) State whether True or False: Study population and the study sample are not same.
a) True
b) False

5) Randomization process of a proposed clinical trial is explained in which of the following section and
subsection of a study protocol?
a) Introduction-rationale
b) Methods – Sampling procedure
c) Methods –Sample size
d) Methods- Inclusion criteria

6) Which of the following factors decide the sample size of a study?

a) Study objective and sampling method
b) Study population and study design
c) Data analysis plan and expected outcome
d) Inclusion and exclusion criteria

7) State whether True or False: Detailed analysis plan is not required in a study protocol.
a) True
b) False
8) Which of the following subsection of ‘Methods’ will have the information on possible risk minimizing
measures in a research?
a) Methods-Informed consent
b) Methods- Human participant protection
c) Methods-Expected benefit
d) Methods-Data collection procedure

9) In a study protocol on an interventional study, adverse event management plan should be documented in
detail in which section of the study protocol?
a) Methods
b) Introduction
c) Objective
d) Results

10) Match the following:

(i) CONSORT – (A). Meta-analysis
(ii) STROBE – (B). Randomised trials
(iii) PRISMA – (C). Observational study
a) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-A
b) (i)-A, (ii)-B, (iii)-C
c) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-B
d) (i)-A, (ii)-C, (iii)-B
Assignment 23: Publication Ethics
1) During which of the following stage(s) the researcher can publish their scientific work?
a) Protocol
b) Methodology description
c) All of these
d) Conclusions and recommendations

2) Why publishing a research finding is considered as an important activity for a researcher?

a) Promotion of business, Fame
b) Marketing of drugs, Create awareness to public
c) Academic promotion, Change in practice
d) Promotion of business, Academic promotion

3) Which of the following is NOT an example of publication misconduct?

a) Plagiarism
b) Ghost authorship
c) Data fabrication
d) Conflict of interest

4) State whether True or False: During review of a research proposal the Ethics Committee does not review
the publication with the research plan.
a) True
b) False

5) A postgraduate student has conducted a research study and collected the data. But he/she found difficulty in
data analysis. Which of the following practice is NOT advised at this stage?
a) Seeking help from friends
b) Requesting guidance from the mentor
c) Sharing data with friends belong to a different institution for data analysis
d) Learning by themselves and attempting to complete

6) According to the National Ethical guidelines for Biomedical and Health research involving human
participants, 2017, how long a researcher should preserve the case report forms for an observational study?
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years

7) Which of the following is NOT a criterion for authorship as per International Committee of Medical
Journal Editors guidelines?
a) Substantial contributions to the conception or design of the work; or the acquisition, analysis, or
interpretation of data for the work
b) Drafting the work or revising it critically for important intellectual content
c) Final approval of the version to be published
d) Only by providing financial support to conduct the research
8) State whether True or False: To be eligible for authorship in a research publication, drafting manuscript is a
sufficient criterion.
a) True
b) False

9) Which of the following is recommended to avoid plagiarism in a research publication?

a) Give compensation to the original author
b) Cite the reference
c) Do not acknowledge an unpublished work
d) Rephrase the content without reference

10) When you read a research publication why it is important to check the conflict of interest section?
a) To know the list of authors
b) To have an idea about the methodology used
c) To determine the researcher-level factors that may influence the conclusion
d) To check the software used for data analysis