Match A

1. _____Convert IP Address to network access A.switch

2. _____Automatically assign IP address B.Router
3. _____Resolve IP address C.RAM
4. _____Optical Driver D.Cache Memory
5. _____Secondary storage Device E.ARP
6. _____Multiport bridge F.Defragment
7. ___P__Nonvolatile G.DHCP
8. _____used to modulate & demodulate H.Monitor
9. ___K__created when memory full I.ROM
10. _____Speed memory J.Modem
11. _____BIOS level Configuration K.Virtual memory
12. __M___Centrally administrator access .Boot sequence
13. ___F__Preventive maintenance M.Server based network
14. __N___Coaxial cable connector N.BNC
15. _____Filtering packet O.DNS
16. P.Hard Disk
Q.Hub
R.CD-ROM

Match B
1.Open source NOS A. Wireless transvier
2.Designed to guide origin of strategy policy B. Firmware
3.Media used in10base Ethernet C. Hybrid topology
4.Media susceptible for EMI D. Hub
5.Convert digital signal to radio waves E.UTP
6.software written to ROM F. switch
7.Use many cables G.DNS Server
8.Resolve Domain name to IP address H. Router
9.Give IP address automatically I.DHCP Server
10.Analays signal with multiple frequency J. Optical Server
11.Do not forward broadcast by default K. Policy
12.Used to share public resource L. Procedure
13.Ports on the same collision M. Broadband
14.The same ports on different collision N. Multiband
15.Displays one IP address for multiple users O.server2008
16.Policy accomplished how to do something P. Application server
17.xml sites Q. Proxy server
18.Media transmit light R. Coaxial cable
19.Out going mail S. Fiber optic cable
20.Known as contention T.SMTP
21.Ad hoc topology U.CSMA/CD
22.Fast Ethernet V. wireless topology
23.Gigabit Ethernet W.100mbps
24.send video output over pure digital signal X.1000mbps
25. the process that allow a network to self repair network Y.HDMI/DVI
problem
Z. Beacon

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 Choosing parts
1. Which Topology connects to a central point via point to point channel?
A. Star B. Bus C. Mesh D. Ring
2. Which topology incorporates a physical closed loop?
A. Star B. Bus C. Mesh D. Ring
3. Typically, which of the following would require the most cable?
A. Star B. Bus C. Mesh D. Ring
4. Which of the following is the best protected from EMI?
A.UTP B.STP C. Coaxial D. Fiber optic
5. Which of the following is topology the most difficult to troubleshoot?
A. Star B. Ring C. Bus D. Point to point
6. Which of the following is not the main purpose of computer network?
A. sharing hardware B. sharing information/data C.sharing software D.None of this
7. Internet is an example of Which type of network?
A.LAN B.WAN C.WLAN D.MAN
8. All are advantages of computer networking except__________.
A. speed B. File transfer
C. Increase the cost of business that uses network D. Internet connection sharing
9. The type of that is confined to cover smaller geographic area?
A.LAN B.MAN C.WAN D.CAN
10. The worst disadvantages of computer networking is_________
A. server failure B. File sharing C. File transferring D. Hardware failure
11. The network hardware that is used to connect a computer to a network and put data on the network cable
from the source of computer and receive data from cable on the destination computer
A. Network cable B. Network toolkit C. Connectivity device D.NIC
12. Disadvantages of star topology is__________________
A. cable break can affect the whole network B.Easy to move computer from network
C. Failure of central device can affect whole network D.A&C
13. The device plugged at both ends of coaxial cable used to protect signal bounce in bus topology.
A.T-connector B.BNC connector C.Terminator D.A&B
14. A network operating system:
A. controls all devices attached to the network and registers them with the operating system
B. Controls the packets of information centred around the computer system, ensuring that they are constructed
within the rules of the network protocol used
C. Does not allow the transmission of information that identifies individual hardware items found on the network
D. Used to control all Internet traffic
15. The peripheral devices attached to a computer system:
A. are able to communicate with each other using the instructions available to the device drivers
B. need to be registered with the operating system, as the operating system must be able to recognise and
interact with the devices on the system
C. Can never be accessed by software other than the operating system
D. Interact directly with the stream of commands the user of the device assigns via the keyboard
16. Low-level computer languages are rarely used in the modern software development environment because:
A. computer programmers do not write code in these languages as they may conflict with operating system
commands.

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 B. assembly language is too complex and varies for each different computer
C. only operating systems are written in low-level languages
D. digital commands make little sense to programmers, unless they have experience in using digital instructions
17. An IDE is an:
A. Integrated Development Environment B. Internal Development Environment
C. Integrated Digital Environment D. Internal Digital Entity
18. Operating system security:
A is purely related to the type of operating system used
B may be compromised by unregistered software
C is dependent on an effective anti-virus utility
D depends on the system administrator applying system patches in a timely manner
19. Many system security breaches or intrusions are not reported because:
A. they are not discovered
B. business managers believe that reporting security breaches is bad for business
C. there may be a serious customer backlash D. all of the above
20. Which of the following devices do you need to be able to communicate with other computers using the
telephone network?
a) LAN card b) microphone c) modem d) telephone
21. What is an Intranet?
a) A private company network. b) A private company network that includes external specified users.
c) A network operating system. d) A network filing system.
22. The computers in your office building are connected together so staff can share files and printers. What is this
system called?
a) WWW b) Internet c) LAN d) WAN
23. Which of the following is a good password policy for an organisation?
a) Passwords are changed occasionally so they are not forgotten.
b) Passwords are based on user names so they are easy to remember.
c) Passwords are made up of only numbers.
d) All passwords are changed regularly.
24. 24. Which of the following statements describes a good approach to information security for an organisation?
a) Staff passwords are shared between user groups.
b) Security lapses are not reported except in an emergency situation.
c) Sensitive data is available to as many employees as possible.
d) Computer systems are backed up on a regular basis.
25. Which of the following is the best way to avoid RSI?
a) Use an operator chair without arms.
b) Place your monitor at the correct height.
c) Work with your wrists level with the keyboard.
d) Ensure your computer is in a well-lit area.
26. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Central Processing Unit? 
a) Ensuring program instructions are executed in the correct sequence.
b) Sending an e-mail.
c) Carrying out calculations.
d) Executing program instructions.
27. Which of the following would improve computer performance?

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 a) Installing a scanner.
b) Using a larger monitor.
c) Increasing the memory (RAM) size.
d) Using a faster printer.
28. Which of the following would be considered a portable computer?
a) Workstation b) Laptop c) Desktop computer d) Personal data player
29. What type of application would be best used in a hospital to maintain patient medical details?
a) Spreadsheet b) Accounting package c) Drawing tool d) Database
30. What is meant by the digital telecommunications term ISDN?
a) Integrated Services Digital Network
b) Integrated Standard Digital Networks
c) Interactive Standard Dynamic Networks
d) Internet Services Data Network
31. Which of the following statements about the Internet is TRUE?
a) The Internet is a network operating system.
b) The Internet is a visual representation of linked documents.
c) The Internet is a private company network.
d) The Internet is a global network that links many computer networks together.
32. Which of the following devices is suitable for backing up all the data from a large file server?
a) Tape drive b) Digital modem c) Plotter d) USB stick
33. Which of the following is an advantage of electronic documents?
a) They cannot be changed easily.
b) They cannot be lost.
c) They can reduce the usage of paper.
d) They can increase the usage of paper.
34. Why is it necessary for an organisation to adopt a good password policy?
a) To make it easier for the computer to controlled by a network operating system.
b) To allow easy sharing of files across networks.
c) To protect data against unauthorized use.
d) To prevent loss of data.
35. Which of the following activities is normally carried out at the end of a Systems Development process?
a) analysis b) design c) testing d) programming
36. The speed of a computer's CPU can be measured in:
a) Megahertz (MHz) b) Watts (W) c) CPUs per second (CPS) d) Terabytes (TB)
37. Which of the following describes the essential components of Information Technology?
a) Hardware and shareware.
b) Hardware, software and communications technologies.
c) RAM and ROM.
d) Primary, secondary and cache memory.
38. Which type of computer is used to operate large corporate systems and databases?
a) Mainframe b) Personal Digital Assistant (PDA)
c) RAID d) Desktop computer
39. What is meant by the term Graphical User Interface (GUI)?
a) A text based operating system using text based prompts.
b) A graphics application used for creating 3D drawings.

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 c) A computer system that uses a mouse.
d) A pictorial based operating system using icons, drop-down menus and windows.
40. Which one of the following is the standard paper size used in an Ink jet or Laser printer?
a) B4 b) A2 c) A5 d) A4
41. Which one of the following is an input device?
a) speaker b) printer c) monitor d) mouse
42. Which one of the following media has the slowest data processing speed?
a) 3 ½ floppy disk b) hard disk c) CD ROM d) RAM
43. Which type of software would you normally use to store personal records?
a) spreadsheet b) database c) word processor d) presentation
44. What type of application is Microsoft Access?
a) spreadsheet b) database c) presentation d) word processor
45. Which one of the following is operating system software?
a) Windows XP b) word processor c) database d) desk top publishing 
46. Which of the following is an output device? 
a) plotter b) track ball c) light pen d) Joystick
47. Which one of the following is NOT a form of data storage media?
a) a database b) Zip disk c) CD RW d) floppy disk
48. Which of these applications are you MOST likely to find on the Programs menu?
a) word processor b) Windows c) spell checker d) task bar
49. The Start button is located on the
a) title bar b) desktop c) programs menu d) task bar
50. Anti virus software can help to protect a computer system from:
a) Speech viruses transmitted through the sound system.
b) Remote access via a network connection.
c) Viruses sent over the internet as email attachments.
d) Worm viruses that can access a computer via the earth connection.
51. Which one of the following is NOT suitable as a network operating system?
a) Microsoft Projects b) Windows NT  c) Linux d) Novell
52. To produce a letter you would normally write it using a:
a) spreadsheet b) mail merge tool c) word processor d) spelling checker
53. Which one of the following is an example of Browser software?
a) Windows Explorer b) Microsoft Publisher
c) Internet Explorer d) Microsoft Explorer
54. Passwords are best used to?
a) Stop enemy agents from stealing computers.
b) Annoy users who do not access their system on a regular basis. 
c) Prevent unauthorized access to a computer system. d) Prevent loss of data.
55. To connect to the internet a computer needs the following additional components:
a) Modem, speed dialer, telephone.
b) Modem, browser software, telephone connection.
c) Modem, word processor, telephone connection.
d) Modem, telephone connection, email software.
56. The speed of a computer's processor can be measured in:
a) Giggerhertz b) Bits per second c) Megahertz d) MPH

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 The capacity of disk drives is usually measured in?
a) Megahertz b) Mega or Giga Bytes
c) Mega or Giga Bits d) Bits per second
57. Which one of the following parts of your body is most likely to suffer injury as a result of working incorrectly with
computers?
a) legs b) neck c) knees d) bottom
58. OHS is short for what?
a) Occupation Health & Safety Experts b) Occupation Health System Executive
c) Operating Health & Safety Executive d) Occupation Humanistic & Social Executive
59. Which of the following are types of network cabling? (Select all that apply.)
A. Twisted pair B. Token ring C. Fiber optic D. Coaxial
60. For which one of the following situations would a crossover cable be effective?
A. Between a modem and a computer C. Between a hub and a computer
B. Between two computers D. Between a switch and a router
61. Which of the following is a type of coax cabling transmission method? (Select all that apply.)
A. Baseband B. Broadband C. CSMA/CD D. CSMA/CA
62. Which of the following is the greatest advantage of coax cabling?
A. High security C. Physical dimensions
B. Long distances D. Easily tapped
63. Which one of the following types of coax cabling has two outer conductors, or shields, and offers greater
resistance and decreased attenuation?
A. STP coax B. Multi-shielded coax C. Dual-shielded coax D. Bi-coax
64. Which of the following can transmit data at speeds of up to 16 Mbps?
A. Category 1 UTP C. Category 2 UTP
B. Category 3 UTP D. Category 4 UTP
65. Which of the following is not a property of twisted-pair cabling?
A. Twisted-pair cabling is a relatively low-speed transmission B. The wires can be shielded
C. The wires can be unshielded D. Twisted-pair cable carries signals as light waves
66. What is the media standard for most local network installations?
A. Fiber B. CAT 3 C. CAT 5 D. Thinnet
67. Which of the following is not a property of fiber optic cabling?
A. Transmits at faster speeds than copper cabling B. Easier to capture a signal from than copper cabling
C. Very resistant to interference D. Carries signals as light waves
68. What does fiber use to transmit data?
A. Vibrations B. Sound C. Electrical current D. Light
69. Which of the following network cabling would you choose to install around a noisy room where machines were
constantly running?
A. Fiber B. STP C. Coax D. UTP
70. You've been told about radio frequency eavesdropping and want to protect your network from this threat. Which
of the following media types would you choose in this situation?
A. UTP B. STP C. Coax D. Fiber
71. Which of the following is most resistant to electrical and noise interference?
A. STP B. UDP C. Coax D. Fiber
72. Which of the following is capable of conducting modulated light transmissions?
A. Category 3 UTP B. Category 5 UTP C. Fiber D. Coax

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73. Which of the following is the most expensive to install and terminate?
A. Fiber optic B. Category 4 UTP C. Coaxial cable D. Category 5 UTP
74. What is the best way to avoid a catastrophic loss of computer data?
A. Make backup copies of data C. Save all data to floppy disks
B. Encrypt the data and backup to CD-R D. Check for viruses and worms
75. Which of the following are examples of magnetic storage media? (Select all that apply.)
A. Zip disk B. CD-ROM C. Floppy disk D. DVD
76. Which of the following has the largest storage capacity for removable media?
A. Floppy disk B. CD-ROM C. DVD D. Partitioned space
77. Your company has decided to dispose of a few of the older computers that once stored critical data. What should
you do first?
A. Use Western Digital Clear (wdclear) to low-level format the hard disk
B. Use FIPS to overwrite all data on the hard disk with zeroes
C. Use a demagnetizer to demagnetize the hard disk
D. Remove all the files and folders on the hard disk
78. Which of the following media is used for fault tolerant RAID arrays?
Magnetic tape B. Laptops C. Hard drives D. CDR
79. Which of the following is one of the greatest sources of viruses, which are also a small type of media that are
frequently carried from one computer to another?
Hard drives B. Smartcards C. Flashcards D. Diskettes
80. Which of the following devices are also known as memory sticks?
Flashcards B. Hard drives C. CDR D. Diskettes
81. Which of the following security zones is considered to be a private company network?
A. Forward lookup zone B. Intranet C. Internal lookup zone D. Internet
82. Which of the following characteristics of an intranet are true? (Select all that apply.)
A. An intranet can be a part of a Local Area Network (LAN) B. An intranet is designed to be publicly available
C. An intranet can work with Wide Area Networks (WAN)D. An intranet may be restricted to a community of users
83. When you think of Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs), how are workstations connected? (Select all that apply.)
A. Same functional department C. Same group of users
B. Same LAN geographic location D. Same application
84. Which one of the following is software used to logically connect workgroups, thereby improving network
performance for group members in different physical locations?
A. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)
B. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) D. Network Address Translation (NAT)
85. You are in charge of a large network and have been using many devices. You finally want to subnet your network
and allow users from the sales department in one office to communicate with sales representatives in another
city. Which device should you use to improve connectivity?
A. Router B. VLAN C. Brouter D. Bridge
86. A company desires to use a private addressing scheme for their LAN users. What solution should they
implement?
A. NAT B. Honey pot C. IDS D. Proxy server
87. Which of the following is relatively more secure than proxy, because it assigns private IP addresses to the clients
on your LAN, acting as a firewall?
A. RADIUS B. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
C. Network Address Translation (NAT) D. ICMP Router Discovery Protocol (IRDP)

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88. What is the primary purpose for Network Address Translation (NAT)?
A. Multiple users sharing one IP address for Instant Messenger (IM)
B. Hiding the IP addresses of the internal network from those outside of the network
C. Showing the IP addresses of the external network to clients on the internal network
D. Single users gaining access to multiple email accounts
89. Which of the following are true statements about Network Address Translation (NAT)? (Select all that apply.)
A. Provides for private addressing ranges for internal network
B. Hides the true IP addresses of internal computer systems
C. Ensures that private addresses can be globally routable
D. Translates private IP addresses into registered Internet IP addresses
90. Which of the following is an example of a Class D private IP address, which is not to be used on the Internet?
A. 10.13.40.15 B. 131.10.42.5 C. 129.101.22.15 D. 193.10.143.105
91. Which of the following is an example of a Class B private IP address, which is not to be used on the Internet?
A. 172.111.12.15 B. 192.168.141.15 C. 192.165.142.15 D. 19.176.134.15
92. What are the three levels of technical support?

Level 1 is to provide local support by assigning a knowledgeable person onsite to address minor problems.
Level 2 is to provide telephone support.
Level 3 is to provide on-site support.
93. What are the four stages to follow when you receive a service call?
The four stages of a service call are the greeting, the description, the interview, and the closing.
94. How long is an IPv6 address?
A. 32 bits B. 128 bytes C. 64 bits D. 128 bits
95. What flavor of Network Address Translation can be used to have one IP address allow many users to connect
to the global Internet?
A. NAT B. Static C. Dynamic D. PAT
Answer: Port Address Translation (PAT) allows a one-to-many approach to network address translation.
96. You have 10 users plugged into a hub running 10Mbps half-duplex. There is a server connected to the switch
running 10Mbps half-duplex as well. How much bandwidth does each host have to the server?
A. 100 kbps B. 1 Mbps C. 2 Mbps D. 10 Mbps
Answer: Each device has 10 Mbps to the server.
97. Which WLAN IEEE specification allows up to 54Mbps at 2.4GHz?
A. A B. B C. G D. N
Answer: IEEE 802.11B is 2.4GHz, but with a maximum of only 11Mbps. IEEE 802.11G is in the 2.4GHz range, with a
top speed of 54Mbps.
98. Which of the following is the valid host range for the subnet on which the IP address 192.168.168.188
255.255.255.192 resides?
A. 192.168.168.129-190 B. 192.168.168.129-191 C. 192.168.168.128-190 D. 192.168.168.128-192
Answer: 256 - 192 = 64. 64 + 64 = 128. 128 + 64 = 192. The subnet is 128, the broadcast address is 191, and the
valid host range is the numbers in between, or 129-190.
99. What protocol does PPP use to identify the Network layer protocol?
A. NCP B. ISDN C. HDLC D. LCP
Answer: Network Control Protocol is used to help identify the Network layer protocol used in the packet.
100. Which protocol does DHCP use at the Transport layer?
A. IP B. TCP C. UDP D. ARP
Answer: User Datagram Protocol is a connection network service at the Transport layer, and DHCP uses this
connectionless service.
101. Where is a hub specified in the OSI model?
A. Session layerB. Physical layer C. Data Link layer D. Application layer
102. Which protocol is used to send a destination network unknown message back to originating hosts?

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 A. TCP B. ARP C. ICMP D. BootP
103. How many broadcast domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12
Answer: By default, switches break up collision domains but are one large broadcast domain.
104. Which class of IP address has the most host addresses available by default?
A. A B. B C. C D. A and B
Answer: Class A addressing provides 24 bits for host addressing.
105. In a network with dozens of switches, how many root bridges would you have?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12
Answer: You should have only one root bridge per network.
106. What PPP protocol provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink?
A. NCP B. HDLC C. LCP D. X.25
Answer: Link Control Protocol in the PPP stack provides dynamic addressing, authentication, and multilink.
107. What is a stub network?
A. A network with more than one exit point. B. A network with more than one exit and entry point.
C. A network with only one entry and no exit point. D. A network that has only one entry and exit point.
108. What does a VLAN do?
A. Acts as the fastest port to all servers.
B. Provides multiple collision domains on one switch port.
C. Breaks up broadcast domains in a layer 2 switch internetwork.
D. Provides multiple broadcast domains within a single collision domain.
Answer: VLANs break up broadcast domains at layer 2.
109. What is the main reason the OSI model was created?
A. To create a layered model larger than the DoD model.
B. So application developers can change only one layer's protocols at a time.
C. So different networks could communicate. D. So Cisco could use the model.
Answer: The primary reason the OSI model was created was so that different networks could inter-operate.
110. How many collision domains are created when you segment a network with a 12-port switch?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 12
Answer: Layer 2 switching creates individual collision domains.
111. Which protocol does Ping use?
A. TCP B. ARP C. ICMP D. BootP
Answer:  ICMP is the protocol at the Network layer that is used to send echo requests and replies.
112. Which of the following services use TCP?
1. DHCP
2. SMTP
3. HTTP
4. TFTP
5. FTP
A. 1 and 2 B. 2, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4
Answer:  B
113. What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access
Answer: The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host,
Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.
114. Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message?
1. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a layer 2 broadcast.
2. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
3. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol.

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 4. It does not use a layer 2 destination address.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 4 only
Answer:  A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast
at both layer 2 and layer 3. The layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or  FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The layer 3 broadcast
is 255.255.255.255, which means all networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User
Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.
115. You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask,
default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
A. SMTP B. SNMP C. DHCP D. ARP
Answer: Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on your network.
DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and
DNS information.
116. Which of the following allows a router to respond to an ARP request that is intended for a remote host?
A. Gateway DP B. Reverse ARP (RARP) C. Proxy ARP D. Inverse ARP (IARP)
Answer:  Proxy ARP can help machines on a subnet reach remote subnets without configuring routing or a default
gateway.
117. The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of the DoD model is equivalent to the
Network layer of the OSI model?
A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access
Answer:  The four layers of the DoD model are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access.
The Internet layer is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model.
118. Which of the following services use UDP?
1. DHCP 3. SNMP 5. HTTP
2. SMTP 4. FTP 6. TFTP
A. 1, 3 and 6 B. 2 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. All of the above
Answer: DHCP, SNMP, and TFTP use UDP.
119. Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D
A Class C network address has only 8 bits for defining hosts: 28 - 2 = 254.
120. If you use either Telnet or FTP, which is the highest layer you are using to transmit data?
A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport
Answer: Both FTP and Telnet use TCP at the Transport layer; however, they both are Application layer protocols,
so the Application layer is the best answer.
121. Which of the following is the decimal and hexadecimal equivalents of the binary number 10011101?
A. 155, 0x9B B. 157, 0x9D C. 159, 0x9F D. 185, 0xB9
Answer: To turn a binary number into decimal, you just have to add the values of each bit that is a 1. The values
of 10011101 are 128, 16, 8, 4, and 1. 128 + 16 + 8 + 4 + 1 = 157.
Hexadecimal is a base-16 number system. if 1001 in binary is 9, then the hexadecimal equivalent is 9. Since we
then have 1101, which is 13 in binary, the hexadecimal answer is D and the complete hexadecimal answer is
0x9D.
122. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?
1. They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment.
2. They guarantee datagram delivery.
3. They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
4. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4
Answer: C Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send error messages through the network, but
they do not work alone. Every segment or ICMP payload must be encapsulated within an IP datagram (or packet).
123. Which of the following are layers in the TCP/IP model?
1. Application 3. Transport
2. Session 4. Internet

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 5. Data Link 6. Physical
A. 1 and 2 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5
Answer: Option B This seems like a hard question at first because it doesn't make sense. The listed answers
are from the OSI model and the question asked about the TCP/IP protocol stack (DoD model). However, let's just
look for what is wrong. First, the Session layer is not in the TCP/IP model; neither are the Data Link and Physical
layers. This leaves us with the Transport layer (Host-to-Host in the DoD model), Internet layer (Network layer in
the OSI), and Application layer (Application/Process in the DoD).

124. Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?

A. IP B. TCP C. TCP/IP D. UDP
Answer: B Although Telnet does use TCP and IP (TCP/IP), the question specifically asks about layer 4, and IP
works at layer 3. Telnet uses TCP at layer 4.
125. Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets?
1. ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
2. ICMP can provide hosts with information about network problems.
3. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams. 4. ICMP is encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 4 D. All of the above

Answer: B ICMP is used for diagnostics and destination unreachable messages. ICMP is encapsulated within
IP datagrams, and because it is used for diagnostics, it will provide hosts with information about network
problems.
126. Which of the following are TCP/IP protocols used at the Application layer of the OSI model?
1. IP
2. TCP
3. Telnet
4. FTP
5. TFTP
A. 1 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 3, 4 and 5 D. All of the above
Answer: C Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer protocols. IP is a
Network layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.
127. What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device?
A. RARP B. ARP C. IP D. ICMP
Answer: Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.
128. Which of the following protocols uses both TCP and UDP?
A. FTP B. SMTP C. Telnet D. DNS
Answer: D DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a
hostname to an IP address.
129. What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
A. 01xxxxxx B. 0xxxxxxx C. 10xxxxxx D. 110xxxxx
Answer: The range of a Class B network address is 128-191. This makes our binary range10xxxxxx.

1. How many FireWire devices can a single FireWire port support?

A. 12 B. 25 C. 32 D. 54 E. 63 F. 127
2. Which type of memory transfers data twice as fast as SDRAM and increases performance by transferring data twice per
cycle?
A. DDR-SDRAM B. DRAM2 C. D-SDRAM D. ROM
3. Which type of video connector has a 24-pin or 29-pin female connector and provides compressed digital output to a
monitor?
A. AAV B. DVI C. HDMI D. RCA E. VGA
4. How many universal serial bus (USB) devices can be connected to a USB port?
A. 256 B. 127 C. 64 D. 128

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5. What is the maximum data speed of high-speed USB 2.0?
A. 1.5 Mbps B. 12 Mbps C. 380 Mbps D. 480 Mbps E. 480 Gbps F. 840 Gbps
6. Which IEEE standard defines the FireWire technology?
A. 1284 B. 1394 C. 1451 D. 1539
7. What is the maximum data rate supported by the IEEE 1394a standard?
A. 200 Mbps B. 380 Mbps C. 400 Mbps D. 800 Mbps E. 900 Mbps
8. What is the purpose of a heat sink installed on a processor?
A. To set the processor voltage B. To cool the processor
C. To set the processor speed D. To ground the processor
Answers 1. E 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. B
1. What class of fire extinguisher is used to extinguish electrical equipment fires?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D
2. Which of the following is a fact sheet that summarizes information about material identification, including hazardous
ingredients that can affect personal health, fire hazards, and first aid requirements?
A. ESD B. MSDS C. OSHA D. UPS
3. Which of the following can cause permanent damage to electrical components if you
do not use proper tools and safety procedures?
A. ESD B. UPS C. MSDS D. OSHA
4. What is the minimum level of electrostatic discharge that a person can normally feel?
A. 5 volts B. 1000 volts C. 3000 volts D. 10,000 volts
5. Which recommendation should be followed first when a fire in the workplace is out of
control?
A. Try to use the elevators to get to the lowest floor faster.
B. Get out of the room or building and contact emergency services for help.
C. Use the company water system to stop the fire from extending to other areas.
D. Try to control the fire with proper extinguishers.
6. Which of the following tools are recommended for cleaning a PC? (Choose two.)
A. Antibacterial spray B. Compressed air C. Mild abrasive detergent
D. Nylon brush E. Rubbing alcohol F. Soft cloth
7. How does a technician discharge static buildup?
A. Touching the painted part of the computer case
B. Touching an unpainted part of the computer case
C. Touching an antistatic wrist strap before touching any computer equipment
D. Touching an antistatic mat before touching any computer equipment
8. Which device is designed specifically to protect computers and electrical devices from
excess electrical voltage?
A. Power strip B. Standby power supply C. Surge protector D. Uninterruptible power supply
9. Which of the following effects can be observed on computer components as a result of climate? (Choose three.)
A. Components overheat if it is too hot. B. Moisture damages computer parts if it is too humid.
C. Components work too slowly if it is too cold. D. The risk of ESD increases if the humidity is too low.
E. The risk of ESD increases if the temperature is too high. F. Components overheat if the humidity is too low.
10. Which condition refers to a sudden and dramatic increase in voltage, which is usually caused by lighting?
A. Brownout B. Sag C. Spike D. Surge
Answers
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. B, F 7. B 8. C 9. A, B, D 10. C

1. A technician is installing a new power supply in a computer. Which type of power connector should be used to connect to a
CD-ROM?
A. Berg B. Mini-Molex C. Molex D. 20-pin ATX connector
2. A technician is installing a new power supply in a computer. Which type of power connector should be used to connect to
an ATX motherboard?
A. Berg B. Mini-Molex C. Molex D. 20-pin connector
3. When a technician installs a new CPU, what will help maintain even contact and heat distribution between the CPU and heat
sink?
A. Silicon spray B. Graphite paste C. Glue D. Thermal compound
4. When installing a CPU in a ZIF socket, how should the technician align the pins to avoid damage?
A. Pin 1 is always aligned with the corner opposite the base of the lever.
B. Pin 1 on the CPU is aligned with Pin 1 on the ZIF socket.
C. Pin 1 is aligned with the corner closest to the memory.
D. The removed corner of the CPU is always aligned with the corner opposite Pin 1.

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5. A technician is installing additional memory in a computer. How can the technician guarantee that the memory is correctly
aligned?
A. The label on the memory module should always face the CPU.
B. A notch in the memory module should be aligned with a notch in the memory slot.
C. The arrows on the memory module should be aligned with the arrows on the motherboard slot.
D. All memory and motherboard slots are color-coded, with one red end and one blue end.
6. When mounting a motherboard in a computer case, what does the technician use to prevent the motherboard from touching
the bottom of the case?
A. Standoffs B. Ground-fault isolators C. Silicon spray D. Grounding straps
7. When installing adapter cards in a computer, how should a technician properly secure the card?
A. Install the card, and attach it to the expansion slot using thermal paste.
B. Install the card, and attach it to the motherboard using thermal pads.
C. Install the card, and secure it using metal retaining clips located on the expansion slot.
D. Install the card, and secure it to the case with a screw.
8. Which two connectors are used to connect external peripherals?
A. EIDE B. Molex C. PATA D. PS/2 E. USB
Answers
1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. D 8. D, E

1. Which of the following common tasks are performed during preventive maintenance? (Choose three.)
A. Check and secure loose cables. B. Update the RAM. C. Clean the mouse and keyboard.
D. Update drivers. E. Reinstall the operating system. F. Install additional peripherals.
2. In which of the following situations is it recommended to ask the customer to sign a liability release form before attempting
any kind of repair? (Choose two.)
A. The technician needs to share the responsibility with the customer. B. The information on the computer is critical.
C. The technician is unable to back up the customer information. D. The information in the backup is confidential.
E. The customer is unable to provide a backup.
3. What is the first step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Gather data from the computer. B. Gather data from the customer. C. Verify the obvious issues.
D. Evaluate the problem and implement the solution. E. Close with the customer. F. Try quick solutions.
4. Which type of question allows the customer to completely describe the problem?
A. Closed-ended B. Open-ended C. Specific D. Technical
5. What is the last step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Gather data from the computer. B. Gather data from the customer. C. Verify the obvious issues.
D. Evaluate the problem and implement the solution. E. Close with the customer. F. Try quick solutions.
Answers
1. B, C, D 2. C, E 3. B 4. B 5. E

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The following terms are used when referring to hard drive setup:
■ Primary partition: This partition is usually the first partition. A primary partition cannot be subdivided into smaller sections.
There can be up to four partitions per hard drive.
■Active partition: This partition is the partition used by the operating system to boot the computer. Only one primary partition
can be marked active.
■Extended partition: This partition normally uses the remaining free space on a hard drive or takes the place of a primary
partition. There can be only one extended partition per hard drive, and it can be subdivided into smaller sections called logical
drives.
■Logical drive: This drive is a section of an extended partition that can be used to separate information for administrative
purposes.
■Formatting: This process prepares a file system in a partition for files to be stored.
■Cluster: A cluster is also called a file allocation unit. It is the smallest unit of space used for storing data.
■Track: A track is one complete circle of data on one side of a hard drive platter. A track is broken into groups of 512 bytes,
called sectors.
■Cylinder: A cylinder is a stack of tracks lined up one on top of another to form a cylinder shape.
■Drive mapping: Drive mapping is a letter assigned to a physical or logical drive.
The boot sequence for Windows XP is as follows:
1. Power-on self test (POST) is run.
2. POST for each adapter card that has a BIOS is run.
3. BIOS reads the Master Boot Record (MBR).
4. MBR takes over control of the boot process and starts NT Loader (NTLDR).
5. NTLDR reads the boot.ini file to know which OS to load and where to find the OS on the boot partition.
6. NTLDR uses ntdetect.com to detect any installed hardware.
7. NTLDR loads the ntoskrnl.exe file and hal.dll. That make up the core of XP starts the login file called winlogon.exe and
displays the XP welcome screen.
Note If a SCSI drive will boot the computer, Windows will copy the ntbootdd.sys file during installation.
This file will not be copied if SCSI drives are not being used.
8. NTLDR reads the registry files and loads device drivers. Chooses a hardware profile, and loads device drivers
9. The ntoskrnl.exe file starts the winlogon.exe program and displays the Windows login screen.
Windows XP Boot Process
To begin the boot process, you first turn on the computer, which is called a cold boot. The computer performs the power-on
self test (POST). Because the video adapter has not yet been initialized, any errors that occur at this point in the boot process
will be reported by a series of audible tones, called beep codes.

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After the POST, the BIOS locates and reads the configuration settings that are stored in the CMOS. This configuration setting
is the order in which devices will be tried to see whether an operating system is located there. The BIOS boots the computer
using the first drive that contains an operating system.
When the drive with the operating system is located, the BIOS locates the Master Boot Record (MBR). The MBR locates the
operating system boot loader. For Windows XP, the boot loader is called NT Loader (NTLDR).
Startup Modes
You can boot Windows in one of many different modes. Pressing F8 during the boot process opens the Windows Advanced
Startup Options menu, which allows you to select how to boot Windows. The following startup options are commonly used:
■Safe Mode: Starts Windows but only loads drivers for basic components, such as the keyboard and display.
■Safe Mode with Networking Support: Starts Windows identically to Safe Mode and also loads the drivers for network
components.
■Safe Mode with Command Prompt: Starts Windows and loads the command prompt instead of the GUI.
■Last Known Good Configuration: Enables a user to load the configuration settings of Windows that were used the last time
that Windows successfully started. It does this by accessing a copy of the registry that is created for this purpose.
Note
The Last Known Good Configuration option is not useful unless it is applied immediately after a failure occurs. If the machine is restarted
and, despite its difficulties, manages to open Windows, the registry key for Last Known Good Configuration will probably be updated with
the faulty information.
4. Which file system is recommended for Windows XP for large file support and
enhanced security?
a. DirectX b. DOS c. FAT32 d. HPFS e. NTFS
5. What is the purpose of the Microsoft Hardware Compatibility List?
a. It lists all the hardware that runs Microsoft Office software.
b. It lists the Microsoft software that runs on the listed hardware.
c. It lists hardware that is supported by a Microsoft operating system.
d. It lists hardware that works together.
6. What should be done before upgrading from Windows 2000 to Windows XP?
a. Back up all the data files. b. Update all the device drivers.
c. Detach all the peripheral devices. d. Download a legitimate XP authentication key.
7. Which key or key sequence will enable a user to start Windows XP in Safe Mode?
a. Alt+B b. Alt+X c. Alt+Z d. F1 e. F8 f. The Windows key
8. What is a good example of an open-ended question that a technician can ask the user to learn more about conditions before
the failure?
a. What software has been installed recently on the computer? b. Does the computer boot into the operating system?
c. Are there any beeps when the computer boots? d. Has anybody else used the computer recently?
e. How many users were logged on to the network when the failure occurred?
9. What is a common cause of the error message “Invalid system disk”?
a. The Delete key was pressed during the system boot. b. There is a non bootable floppy disk or CD in the drive.
c. There is no floppy disk or CD in the drive. d. The BIOS has been changed to boot from the hard drive first.
Answers 4. E 5. C 6. A 7. E 8. A 9. B

2. What is the suggested maximum number of PCs in a peer-to-peer network?

A. 10 B. 25 C. 50 D. 100
3. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?
A. Full duplex B. Half duplex C. Multiplex D. Simplex
4. Which dotted-decimal number is used to distinguish the network portion of the IP address from the host portion?
A. Default gateway B. MAC address C. Physical address D. Subnet mask
5. Which suite of protocols is used to transmit data across the Internet?
A. AppleTalk B. ARP C. DNS D. IPX/SPX E. TCP/IP
6. Which cable type is a common choice for use on Ethernet networks?
A. Thick coaxial B. Thin coaxial C. STP D. UTP
7. Which networking protocol translates a network name such as www.cisco.com into a unique IP address?
A. APIPA B. ARP C. DHCP D. DNS E. Proxy ARP
8. Which protocol maps known IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local network?
A. ARP B. DHCP C. FTP D. RARP
9. A technician wants to update the NIC driver for a computer. What is the best way to find new drivers for the NIC?
A. Installation media that came with the NIC B. Windows Update
C. The website for the manufacturer of the NIC D. The Microsoft website
10. What is the most commonly used DSL technology?
A. ADSL B. HDSL C. IDSL D. SDSL E. VDSL
Answers

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1. C 2. A 3. A 4. D 5. E 6. D 7. D 8. A 9. C 10. A

1. Which of the following is a software program that displays advertising on your computer?
A. Adware B. Spyware C. Grayware D. Virus
2. Which of the following uses the network to duplicate its code to the hosts on a network, often without any user intervention?
A. Adware B. Spyware C. Virus D. Worm
3. Which of the following is technically a worm and is a threat that is hidden in software that appears to do one thing, but does
another?
A. Virus B. Spyware C. Adware D. Trojan
4. Which of the following is a form of attack that prevents users from accessing normal services, such as e-mail or web server?
A. Ping of death B. Denial of service C. E-mail bomb D. Distributed denial of service
5. Which of the following is an encryption system that protects data as if it is on a private network, even though the data is
actually traveling over the Internet or other unsecured public networks?
A. Data encryption B. Port protection C. Virtual private network D. File system security
6. What characterizes a DDoS attack?
A. Many hosts participate in a coordinated attack. B. It takes only a short time to set up.
C. Home computers with Internet connections are not susceptible. D. It is easy to determine a packet’s intent.
7. Which two of the following threats are physical threats?
A. Laptops are stored in an unlocked cabinet. B. Antivirus software has outdated virus definitions.
C. All users use the same generic username and password to connect to the network.
D. The network server and network equipment are kept in the corner of the office for easy access.
E. The computers are secured to the desks of each user.
8. Which type of security threat installs to a computer without the user’s knowledge and then monitors all computer activity?
A. Adware B. Grayware C. Malware D. Spyware
9. Which type of security threat uses e-mail that appears to be from a legitimate sender and asks the e-mail recipient to visit a
website to enter confidential information?
A. Badware B. Phishing C. Stealth virus D. Worm
10. A technician is attempting to secure a wireless network. Which two options should be performed to secure access to the
network?
A. Change the default administrator password for all access points.
B. Install a security appliance to stop all wireless traffic.
C. Enable the broadcasting of the SSID for only one access point. D. Use MAC filtering.
E. Use the default SSID values for the access points.
11. A technician has configured a wireless network with WEP encryption. Several users who were able to use the wireless
network are now unable to connect to the access point. What is the probable cause of the connection problem?
A. WEP is a strong encryption technique that requires a successful handshake to establish connectivity.
B. The access point cannot broadcast SSIDs when WEP is enabled.
C. The users have not configured their computers for WEP encryption.
D. The access point uses 64-bit encryption, which is obsolete with newer wireless NICs.
Answers
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. A, D 8. D 9. B 10. A, D 11. C

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