Science Mock Exam (All summative tests done over the whole semester)

1. The particle theory was your favourite thing in grade 7! Think back as you answer these questions: Give real life examples of the following: (1 mark each) a. A pure Substance b. A mechanical mixture c. A solution that tastes good 2.The physical and chemical properties of substances determine how we use them. Use the examples of diaper crystals to answer the following: a. Describe a physical property of the chemical in diaper crystals that makes it useful, be specific. (2marks)

b. Describe a chemical property of the crystals that make them useful, be specific (2 marks)

3. Some metals are used for some things, and some are used for other things. In your everyday life, you likely see iron and copper and you may remember some experiments we did with magnesium. Describe how the uses of the three metals in our everyday life is dependent on some of their physical and chemical properties - be specific for each one. (3 marks)

4. a) Why is road salt in winter impractical in many Northern Communities? (1 mark)

b) What other substances could be used to improve road safety? (1 mark)

Part 2: Thinking and Inquiry (30 marks) Use the partical theory to explain the ``crush the can`` demo (3 marks -use key terms)

2. State 3 lab safety procedures or precuations that you learned and describe the lab activity that you used it in. (3 marks)

3. Three different solids A, B, and C, each with a metallic luster, were combined individually with water and with an acid. The following observations were made: Solid A B C Reaction with Water No change No change Bubbled slightly Reaction With Acid Bubbled slightly No change Bubbled vigorously

a) which solid was the most reactive? Which was the least? (2 marks)

b) If these solids belong to the same chemical family, which solid would you place highest in the column? Which would you place lowest? Give a reason. (3 marks)

c) Imagine another solid, X, which is correctly placed between the two top solids in your answer to (b). Predict how solid X would react with water and with acid. (2 marks)

4. Iron pyrite is a lustrous yellow mineral that consists of iron and sulfur. Its common name is fool's gold. Design a procedure to measure one of its characteristic physical properties so that you can distinguish it from real gold. (2 marks).

5. Draw the Bohr diagrams for the following atoms: (6 marks) a. Potassium

b. Chlorine

6. For potassium and chlorine: a. What are the two ions that would form when the elements gain or lose electrons to become stable (indicate how many electrons are gained or lost). (2 marks)

b. What is the ratio for the compound they would form (eg. For every one potassium ion, how many chlorine ions are needed) (1 marks)

7. The alkali metals are reactive, while the noble gases are not - explain. (2 marks)

8. Three flasks contain colorless gases. You know that one flask contains pure oxygen, one contains carbon dioxide, and one contains air, but you don't know which is which. a) Describe a test you could perform to identify the gases. (1 mark)

b) Explain what you would observe when you performed the test on each gas. (3 marks)

Part 3: Knowledge and Understanding (20 marks) 1. Circle the correct answer 1. Another word used to describe elements found along a row on the periodic table is: a. Period c. family b. group d. B & C 2. Another word used to describe elements found in a column on the periodic table is: a. Period c. family b. group d. B & C 3. The elements that make up the alkali earth metals have how many electrons in their outer (valence) shell? a. 2 c. 1 b. 3 d. 0 4. What is the name of the group of elements that have 7 electrons in their valence shell a. Alkali Metals c. family b. Halogens d. Alkali Earth Metals

5. Generally, a stable element has what amount of electrons in its first three rings? a. 2, 1, 4 c. 2, 0, 8 b. 2, 1 ,8 d. 2, 8, 8 6. Chlorine has 17 protons and 18 neutrons; the atomic number of chlorine is a. 15 c. 17 b. 16 d. 18 7. If you spill a chemical in your eyes you should a. Continue your experiment b. Wash them immediately 8. A piece of window glass can be classified as a. opaque b. translucent

c. Rub them with your hands d. wait until class ends, then tell teacher

c. Transparent d. dutility

9. Magnesium metal is a shiny solid. This physical property refers to the metal's a. taste c. clarity b. lustre d. ductility 10. Rutherford's gold foil experiment showed that a. the atom was mostly empty space b. Bohr's model was incorrect

c. Dalton's model was correct d. gold released radioactivity

11. Glucose, a type of sugar, has the formula C6H12O6. What is the total number of atoms in one molecule of glucose? a. 3 c. 12 b. 6 d. 24 12. Which of the following are chemical changes. Put a check beside them. (5 marks) a) Crushing a piece of chalk_____ b) Burning lithium salt_____ c) Chopping wood_____ d) Burning wood____ e) Melting ice ____ 13. Sketch any 2 models of the atom - state the name of the model and who the scientist is that proposed it. (4 marks) Model 1 Model 2

End of Chemistry Section

SND 1D Physics The Nature of Electricity ! ! 1. For the following terms, describe how they related to our study of electricity. Your answers should include an example if appropriate. (8 marks) a. ground

b. Induction

c. Conductors and Insulators

d. Fuses

2. You have a friend that loves to make electric circuits! She asks you to draw the following circuits: a. A 2 cell battery with 3 lights in parallel. (4 marks)

b. A 2 cell battery with 2 lights in series, an ammeter measures the current leaving the second bulb and a voltmeter measures the potential difference across the battery. (4 marks)

SNCID

3. For the following circuits, fill in the unknown information using your knowledge. a. First Circuit (3 marks) 1 V1 = 25v /\/\/\/\/\/\/\ _ __ __ ___ I1 = 3 2 R1 = P1 =

v2 = i2=2.0A R2 = P2 =

Vt=75v It = Rt = P2 =

b. Second Circuit (4 marks)

4. You wake in the morning. You turn on the blender to make a smoothie, then the toaster to make some toast, then the microwave to heat up some old coffee. Suddenly, the power in the kitchen goes out! Oh no! What were you doing wrong?! (besides drinking coffee you are too young). Use your knowledge of electricity to explain why the power suddenly went out use key terms. (3 marks)

5. With aide of a diagram, explain how a lightening rod protects a home.

6. Draw a diagram or fill in the existing diagrams to show what happens in the following situations. Use words if they help. a. A negative charged rod is brought close to a neutral ball. (fill in the pic and state what will happen (3 marks)

b. The negative rod touches the ball happens. (2 marks)

redraw the rod and the ball after and state what

c. A positive charged rod is brought close to a neutral ball the ball is connected to the ground by a wire as shown (draw the protons and electrons as the rod is brought close). (3 marks)

List 3 Laws of Electric Charges (3 marks).

8. Draw a pathway to show the energy conversions in the production of either hydroelectric or ethanol generated power - list the type of energy if you are able (ex. The last type is 'electrical energy') you may not need to use all arrows (4 marks).

9. A light bulb has a resistance of 200 ohms. What current flows through the bulb when it is connected to a 120.V power source? Show your work. (3 marks)

10. A microwave oven has a power rating of 1500 W. a. If it is connected to an outlet supplying a potential difference of 120 V, what current does it draw? (2 marks)

b. If the microwave is on for 2 hours each day, how many Kw-h of energy is it consuming? (2 marks)

c. If electricity costs 6 cents per Kw-h; how much does it cost to run the microwave for a day? (2 marks)

11. Trucks that transport gasoline often acquire a static charge. Why is this a problem, and how can it be overcome? (3 marks)

12. Briefly describe how the technology of a "turbine" would work. (3 marks)

Ecology Unit Test

/50

Multiple Choice. Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The area around Earth that can sustain life is called the a. biosphere b. hydrosphere c. atmosphere d. lithosphere 2. All the following are abiotic factors, except a. water b. moss c. air d. temperature What is the name of the process by which the Sun's energy is converted into chemical energy? a. photosynthesis b. cellular respiration c. solar metabolism d. none of the above 3. Which of the following are considered consumers? a. scavengers b. omnivores c. herbivores d. all of the above Which Canadian biome is where the caribou is most a. tundra b. grasslands c. temperate deciduous forest d. boreal forest Estuaries are partially enclosed bodies of water where a. fish are hatched b. fresh water and salt water meet c. there are saltwater inlets d. there are observation towers in the ocean 7. The majority of known living species are a. animals b. insects c. fish d. birds likely to be found?

8. A species that no longer exists in the wild in a specific area but still lives elsewhere is called a. threatened b. endangered c. extirpated d.. extinct 9. Which predatory bird has lost most of its nesting habitat in Ontario over the last 50 years? a. eagle b. robin c. hawk d. loggerhead shrike 10. Which of the following is a negative result of an invasive species? a. caused the extinction of other species b. become a nuisance due to no natural predators c. bring new diseases for which native species have no defense against d. all of the above 11. The cultivation of a single crop in an area is called a. mega-farming b. monoculture c. agriculture d. agroecosystem 12. A farming strategy to control pests that uses a combination of physical, chemical, and biological controls is called a. organic farming b. integrated pest management c. integrated farming d. organic pest management 13. The product of cellular respiration are: a. oxygen and carbon dioxide b. carbon dioxide and water c. oxygen and water d. glucose and oxygen 13. The maximum population size that an ecosystem can sustain is called: a. community b. optimal range c. carrying capacity d. biotic number

15. Bioaccumulation is: a. the expansion of a species in an ecosystem b. an important part of the carbon cycle c. how fossil fuels are created d. the buildup of certain toxins like DDT in an organism 16. Which of the following would you expect to have the greatest biodiversity? a. Tundra b. Rainforest c. Boreal Forest d. Desert Match the given biomes with the biotic factors that most likely live in that biome. a. grassland b. tundra c. mountain forest d. temperate deciduous forest ______ deer ______ large coniferous trees ______ snakes ______ rapid-flowering plants Short Answer 21. Why is nitrogen usually the nutrient that is hardest to obtain in an ecosystem? IN your answer be sure to state HOW nitrogen is obtained by producers (2 ways). (3 marks)

22. Explain why there are fewer of the species at the top of the food chain than there are at the bottom. Use key term(s) and illustrate your answer with a food chain AND a pyramid of energy (4marks)

23. Describe or define 3 of the following-key terms - give an example to illustrate each: primary succession, ecological niche, albedo, oligotrophic lake, biodiversity (3 marks) -first term_____________

-second term____________

-third term______________

24. The trout population in a local pond has decreased over the past year. At the same time, the growth of algae in the pond has increased. Explain what may be causing these changes in the pond ecosystem. (3 marks)

25. Invasive species can be a problem. A. Using garlic mustard as an example, explain two problems associated with invasive species. (3 marks)

B. One method of controlling invasive species is using biological methods. Using the example of Garlic Mustard, explain how this method works (2 marks)

27. Explain how and why modern agroecosystems are reliant on fertilizer use. (2 marks)

26. Many cities are working to reduce their ecological footprint. Pick 3 categories from the 5 listed below and for each category, describe 1 example that cities could use that would be more sustainable, and thus decrease the footprint. Briefly state WHY the example would do so (6 marks) Category (pick 3) One thing that can be done Why it would reduce the footprint

Agriculture

Forestry

Construction

Business

Individual

27. Organize the following organisms in a food web: lynx, great horned owl, weasel, red squirrel, rabbit, pine tree, blueberry bush. Using your food web explain the possible effects of a disease that causes a decrease in the blueberry populations. (4 marks)

SNC 1D: Space Unit Test Multiple Choice (9 marks) Which would you expect to take longer to orbit the Sun? a. an asteroid that travels near Earth b. an asteroid in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter c. Mercury d. a moon of Venus 2. The change in temperature of Earth during the year is caused by a. Earth's distance from the Sun b. changes to Earth's magnetic field c. the tilt of Earth with respect to the Sun d. an increase in solar flares 3. An artificial satellite a. is designed to fall back to Earth and burn up` b. is human-made and sent into orbit around Earth c. is manned by human beings and maintained in orbit d. was part of the original matter of the Solar System 4. A polar orbit provides the best total coverage of Earth's surface because a. Earth orbits in a perpendicular direction to the satellite b. it centers on the major land masses c. it orbits Earth more frequently d. it travels less distance 5. If the black lines shown in this spectrum of a galaxy were detected moving to the left it would indicate that the galaxy is a. stationary b. moving towards Earth c. moving away from Earth d. a barred spiral 6. A light year is a. the distance light travels in a vacuum during a year b. the distance light travels on Earth c. all the light a star produces in a year d. the amount of time it takes light from a star to reach Earth

7. Supernovas are responsible for a. creating most of the elements in the periodic table b. creating hydrogen only c. solar wind d. galaxies 8. Which of these theories is the most accepted explanation for the beginning of the formation of the Solar System? a. Stars close to our Sun pulled matter from it through gravitational forces. b. The Sun captured passing planets through gravitational forces. c. Many collisions between celestial objects left behind debris. d. A massive cloud of dust and gas began to contract. 9. Based on this chart, in which decade did scientists send out the most planetary probes?

a. 1960-1970 b. 1970-1980 c. 1980-1990 d. 2000-2010

Draw all the moon phases, and list their name, and the date of the month. The moon cycle starts on Jan 1.

Match the objects to their descriptions. (8 marks) a. Comet e. asteroid b. Asteroid f. dwarf planet c. meteor shower g. meteorite d. meteoroid h. planet
_____ 18. an area between Mars and Jupiter where chunks of rocky matter orbit the Sun in a band _____ 19. a small piece of metal or rock in the Solar System, usually the size of a dust particles that burns up upon entry into Earth's atmosphere _____ 20. objects smaller than a planet but they still orbit the sun _____ 21. Dominates their orbital path and have cleared them of any other larger objects due to their gravity _____ 22. large chunks of ice, dust, and rock that orbit the Sun _____ 23. orbits a star and is large enough to be pulled into a spherical shape by it own gravity but does not dominate its orbit _____ 24. the remains of larger objects that do not burn up completely after passing through Earth's atmosphere

_____25. mainly occur when clouds of particles left behind by comets enter the atmosphere of a planet

Short Answer 36. Describe the 3 types of orbits that satellites are launched too, and give an example of why we would want satellites at each of those levels (3 marks)

37. A space probe has travelled approximately 2 250 000 000 000 km from Earth. What is this distance expressed in scientific notation? (1 mark)

38. Sketch a series of diagrams to show the evolution of a star like our sun. Label all parts of your diagrams and state in words what is occurring. (6 marks)

39. Imagine you had to explain the big bang theory to small children. How would you do it? Your answer should include a way to teach them WHAT the big bang theory is and how you will teach them about TWO LINES of EVIDENCE that support the theory.

40. Draw a sketch to show the difference between a solar eclipse and a lunar eclipse, explain briefly in word what is happening. (4 marks)

41. Is the money spent on space research worth it? Argue that YES, the money is worth the expense with reference to at least 2 specific benefits that have come as a result of the space program. Use complete sentences and key terms where possible. (4 marks)