Practice Tests Collection Number 1 - 2019 - Trên Lơp CK Đã S A

High School Graduation Test
PRACTICE TESTS TEST 01- FOR CLASSES AT SCHOOL

COLLECTION - NUMBER 1 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. considerate B. photographer C. community D. circumstance
Question 2. A. apply B. anthem C. appear D. attend
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. meat B. team C. sea. D. clear
Question 4. A. laid B. fair C. repair D. pair
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 5. Educated in the UK (A), his qualifications are (B) widely recognized (C) in the world of
professionals. (D)
A. the UK B. his qualifications are C. recognized D. world of professionals
Question 6. Many successful (A) film directions (B) are former (C) actors who desire to expand (D) their
experience in the film industry.
A. successful B. film directions C. former D. expand
Question 7. We admire Lucy for (A) her intelligence (B), cheerful disposition (C) and she is honest. (D)
A. for B. intelligence C. disposition D. she is honest
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8. If she ______ sick, she would have gone out with me to the party.
A. hasn’t been B. wasn’t C. weren’t D. hadn’t been
Question 9. Prizes are awarded ______ the number of points scored.
A. according to B. because of C. adding up D. resulting in
Question 10. While southern California is densely populated, ______ live in the northern part of the state.
A. a number people B. many people C. few people D. a few of people
Question 11. The building has a smoke detector ______ any fires can be detected immediately.
A. so that B. if C. such as D. as if
Question 12. It was announced that neither the passengers nor the driver ______ in the crash.
A. were injured B. are injured C. was injured D. have been injured
Question 13. The two countries have reached an agreement through dialogues described as ________.
A. counterproductive B. unproductive C. productivity D. productive
Question 14. Anne persisted ______ her search for the truth about what had happened.
A. at B. about C. in D. on
Question 15. Ensure there is at least a 3cm space ______ allow adequate ventilation.
A. so as to B. so that C. in view of D. with a view to
Question 16. Why don’t you ask the man where ______ to stay?
A. he would rather B. he feels like C. would he like D. he would like
Question 17. My car is getting unreliable; I think I'll trade it ______ for a new one.
A. off B. away C. in D. up
Question 18. The old houses were ______ down to make way for a block of flats.
A. banged B. hit C. knocked D. put
Question 19. _______ that she burst into tears.
A. Her anger was such B. So angry she was C. She was so anger D. Such her anger was
Question 20. Governments should _____ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring up B. bring about C. bring in D. bring back
Question 21. He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as _____.
A. a bell B. a mirror C. a waterfall D. a lake
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 22. Anne: “Thanks for the nice gift!”
John: “______” B. You’re welcomed.
A. In fact, I myself don’t like it. B. You’re welcomed.
PRACTICE TESTS COLLECTION - NUMBER 1…… Prepared by: Nguyen Huong (0983755587)
C. I’m glad you like it. D. But do you know how much it costs?
Question 23. “Would you like something to eat?” –
“______.I’m not hungry now”
A. Yes, I would B. No, no problem C. No, thanks D. Yes, it is
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
ones.
Question 24. She had no qualms about lying to the police
A. distress B. impunity C. persevere D. scruple
Question 25. We admired the expertise with which he prepared the meal
A. activity B. courage C. mastery D. effort
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
ones.
Question 26. These investments have remained dormant for several years
A. clever B. active C. energetic D. invisible
Question 27. It was not for his friend to abate the confidence
A. free B. augment C. provoke D. wane
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions.
Question 28. David drove so fast; it was very dangerous.
A. David drove so fast, which was very dangerous. B. David drove so fast and was very dangerous.
C. David drove so fast, then was very dangerous. D. David drove so fast that was very dangerous.
Question 29. The captain to his men: “Abandon the ship immediately!”
A. The captain invited his men to abandon the ship immediately.
B. The captain suggested his men abandon the ship immediately.
C. The captain ordered his men to abandon the ship immediately.
D. The captain requested his men to abandon the ship immediately.
Question 30. The critics undervalued his new book.
A. The critics rejected his new book. B. The critics were fed up with his new book.
C. The critics had a low opinion of his new book. D. The critics turned down his new book.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31. “Shall I make you a coffee?” the girl said to the lady.
A. The girl wanted to make a coffee for the lady. B. The girl offered to make a coffee for the lady.
C. The girl refused to make a coffee for the lady. D. The girl promised to make a coffee for the lady.
Question 32. No sooner had she put the telephone down than her boss rang back.
A. As soon as her boss rang back, she put down the telephone.
B. Scarcely had she put the telephone down when her boss rang back.
C. Hardly she had hung up, she rang her boss immediately.
D. She had hardly put the telephone down without her boss rang back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The wind controls our planet's weather and climate. But how much do we understand about this complex
force (33)______ can kill and spread fear? On the night of October 15, 1987, the south of England was struck
by strong winds. Gusts of over 130 km/h (34)______ through the region. Nineteen people were killed, £1.5-
billion worth of damage was (35) ______ and 19 million trees were blown down in just a few hours.
Although people thought of this as a hurricane, the winds of 1987 were only a (36)______ 7 storm. They
remain far better known than the much more serious storms of January 25, 1990, when most of Britain was
hit by daytime winds of up to 173 km/h. On this occasion, 47 people were killed, even though, (37)______ in
1987, the weather forecasters issued accurate warnings.
Question 33. A. what B. which C. when D. where
Question 34. A. ran B. blew C. flew D. spread
Question 35. A. paid B. created C. resulted D. caused
Question 36. A. strength B. length C. power D. force
Question 37. A. when B. like C. unlike D. such as
Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use
one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more
than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your
health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk
on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His
family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can
detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is
some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use
your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it.
Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones
may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile
phone too often.
Question 38. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with young people because
______.
A. they are indispensable in everyday communications
B. they make them look more stylish
C. they keep the users alert all the time
D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
Question 39. The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brain D. the resident memory
Question 40. The changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly concerned with ______.
A. the mobility of the mind and the body B. the smallest units of the brain
C. the arteries of the brainD. the resident memory
Question 41. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cellphones may ________.
A. damage their users’ emotions B. cause some mental malfunction
C. change their users’ temperament D. change their users’ social behaviours
Question 42. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cellphone too often, ______.
A. suffered serious loss of mental ability B. could no longer think lucidly
C. abandoned his family D. had a problem with memory
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50
Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local governments. Arriving
immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late
19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a
movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the
ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a
job.
Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the
programs - Social Security - has become an American institution. Paid for by deductions from the paychecks
of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also
provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social
Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are
slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money
to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase
dramatically. Policy makers have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term
solution is still being debated.
In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include
Medicaid and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing
which is built at federal expense and made available to persons on low incomes.
Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than the government for help. A broad spectrum of private
charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially
among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work,
and nearly 75 percent of U.S. households contribute money to charity.
Question 43. The passage mainly discusses ______.
A. public assistance in America. B. immigration into America.
C. funding agencies in America. D. ways of fund-raising in America. Question 44. New
immigrants to the U.S. could seek help from ______.
A. the people who came earlier B. the US government agencies
C. only charity organizations D. volunteer organizations
Question 45. It took welfare programs a long time to gain a foothold in the U.S. due to the fast growth
of______.
A. industrialization B. modernization C. urbanization D. population
Question 46. The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. “executed” B. “studied” C. “introduced” D. “enforced”
Question 47. Most of the public assistance programs ______ after the severe economic crisis.
A. were introduced into institutions B. did not become institutionalized
C. functioned fruitfully in institutions D. did not work in institutions
Question 48. That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ______.
A. elderly people ask for more money B. the program discourages working people
C. the number of elderly people is growing D. younger people do not want to work
Question 49. Americans on low incomes can seek help from ______.
A. federal government B. government agencies
C. state governments D. non-government agencies
Question 50. Public assistance has become more and more popular due to the ______.
A. young people’s voluntarism only B. volunteer organizations
C. people’s growing commitment to charity D. innovations in the tax system
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. merchant B. sergeant C. commercial D. term
Question 2: A. obstacle B. obscure C. obsession D. oblivious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. determine B. develop C. applicant D. substantial
Question 4: A. compulsory B. certificate C. category D. curriculum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 5: All of (A) the mammals, dolphins are undoubtedly (B) among (C) the friendly (D) to human.
Question 6: Chicago’s Sears Tower, now (A) the tallest building in the world, rises (B) 1,522 feet (C) from
the ground to the top of it (D) antenna.
Question 7: It was suggested that Pedro studies (A) the material more (B) thoroughly before attempting (C)
to pass (D) the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: “What is it?” – “We don’t know until _____ at it under a microscope.”
A. we’re going to look B. we’ll have looked C. we’ll be looking D. we’ve looked
Question 9: Reports are coming in of a major oil spill in _____ Mediterranean.
A. a B. the C. an D. Ø
Question 10: Many people feel there’s _____ point in voting, even in a general election.
A. few B. a few C. little D. a little
Question 11: It was _____ a victory that even Smith’s fans couldn’t believe it.
A. such surprising B. so surprising C. too surprising D. surprising enough
Question 12: I _____ at the exam paper lying on Mr. Gregson’s desk, but I didn’t want to risk it.
A. could look B. can have looked C. can look D. could have looked
Question 13: Everyone expects Johnson to _____ Smith in today’s final.
A. beat B. win C. score D. champion
Question 14: Many lives were saved _____ the introduction of antibiotics.
A. into B. at C. with D. in
Question 15: Thanks to an effective advertising _____ in the 1880s, cigarette smoking became widespread.
A. policy B. campaign C. struggle D. promotion
Question 16: Luckily the police decided not to _____ charges, but let him off with a warning.
A. address B. record C. file D. apply
Question 17: If you can lend me your car today, I will _____ the favor next week.
A. return B. pay C. send D. do
Question 18: Tom doesn’t talk much to his father but he opens _____ his mother.
A. out of B. up to C. out for D. up with
Question 19: My boss is always _____ at me for unreasonable reasons.
A. putting B. taking C. getting D. talking
Question 20: The City Planning Department proposed that the new highway ___ in the fiscal year 2015.'
A. would be built B. be built C. is to be built D. will be built
Question 21: It’s no use getting _____ him. He won’t change his mind.'
A. on B. across C. off D. around
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each
of the following exchanges.
Question 22: – “Good morning, could I speak to Mr. David, please?”
– “ _____”
A. He’s in a meeting. Can I take a message? B. Probably by Monday next week.
C. I’ll have to ask the person you want to ring first. D. Certainly. Would two o’clock be OK?
Question 23: – “That’s our bus!”; “_____”
A. How much is a ticket? B. Run fast and we might catch it.
C. What time does it come? D. Wait for me one minute, please.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The Yugo was considered one of the safest and most dependable cars on the road in Slovakia,
until people started importing cars from abroad.
A. swift B. enjoyable C. reliable D. exciting
Question 25: He was able to incorporate a multimedia slideshow into the lesson plan despite the school’s
lack of equipment because his friend lent him a multimedia projector.
A. propose B. determine C. bestow D. include
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 26: The hotel was incredible with breathtaking view and excellent cuisine.
A. unspoilt B. unimpressive C. unadorned D. untouched
Question 27: Based on the clues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few days after the
banks robbery.
A. question B. release C. capture D. sentence
Question 28: The money is not to be paid under any circumstances.
A. Under no circumstances is the money not to be paid
B. Under any circumstances isn’t the money to be paid
C. In any circumstances is the money not to be paid
D. In no circumstances is the money to be paid
Question 29: Unlike a high school education, a university education includes the application of knowledge.
A. While in high schools students have the chance to apply their knowledge, in universities they don’t.
B. High school students lack opportunity to apply their knowledge that university students have.
C. High school education and university education are similar in that both include the application of
knowledge.
D. A university education is more useful than a high school education since it allows the students to apply
knowledge.
Question 30: Had I realized what you intended to do, I would have backed you up.
A. Even if I had realized what you wanted to do, I wouldn’t have supported you.
B. In order to back you up, it is essential that I know what you intend to do.
C. I didn’t support you as I had no idea about what your plans were.
D. No sooner did I back you up than I realized what you intended to do.
Question 31: The team leader allowed members to make important decisions. He fostered their spirit of
commitment.
A. Allowing members to make important decisions, the team leader fostered their spirit of commitment.
B. On the behalf of the team, the leader made important decisions to foster their spirit of commitment.
C. Although the team leader wanted to foster the spirit of commitment among members, he made important
decisions on his own.
D. All members could make important decisions, so that the spirit of commitment would be discouraged.
Question 32: Winston Churchill was a great politician and statesman. He also won the Nobel Prize for
literature.
A. Winston Churchill won the Nobel Prize for literature so he was a great politician and statesman.
B. Winston Churchill, a great politician and statesman, also won the Nobel Prize for literature.
C. Winston Churchill was a great politician rather than a statesman although he won the Nobel Prize for
literature.
D. Winning the Nobel Prize for literature, Winston Churchill became a great politician and statesman.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
There is usually one important (33) _____ missing from most school. Very few students are taught how to
organize their learning, and how to (34) _____ the best use of their time. Let’s take some simple examples.
Do you know how to look up words in a dictionary, and do you understand all the information the dictionary
contains? Can you (35) _____ notes quickly, and can you understand them afterwards? For some reasons,
many schools give learners no (36) _____ with these matters. Teachers ask students to memorize pages from
books, or tell them to write ten pages, but don’t explain (37) _____ to do it.
Learning by heart can be useful, but it is important to have genuine understanding of a subject. You can
waste a lot of time memorizing books, without understanding anything about the subject.
Question 33: A. them B. books C. subject D. marks
Question 34: A. take B. give C. get D. make
Question 35: A. do B. send C. make D. revise
Question 36: A. teaching B. ability C. instruction D. help
Question 37: A. how B. what C. why D. it
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42.
(1) A small but growing group of scholars, evolutionary psychologists, are beginning to sketch the contours
of the human mind as designed by natural selection. Some of them even anticipate the coming of a field
called “mismatch theory”, which would study maladies resulting from contrasts between the modern
environment and the “ancestral environment”. The one we were designed for.
(2) There is no shortage of such maladies to study. Rates of depression have been doubling in some industrial
countries roughly every 10 years. Suicide is the third most common cause of death among young adults, after
car wrecks and homicides.
(3) Evolutionary psychology is a long way from explaining all this with precision, but it is already shedding
enough light to challenge some conventional wisdom. It suggests, for example, that the nostalgia for the
nuclear family of the 1950s is in some way misguided that the model family of husband at work and wife at
home is hardly a “natural” and the healthful living arrangement, especially for the wives. Moreover, the by
gone lifestyles that do look fairly by commercialism. Perhaps the biggest surprise from evolutionary
psychology is it depiction of the “animal” is us. Freud, and various thinkers since, saw “civilization” as an
oppressive force that thwarts basic animal instincts and urges and transmutes them into psychopathology.
However, evolutionary psychology suggests that a large threat to mental health may be the way civilization
thwarts civility. There is a gentler, kinder side of human nature, and it seems increasingly to be a victim of
repression in modern society.
Question 38: Which of the following is the theory that evolutionary psychologists forecast about its
appearance?
A. Ancestral environment theory B. Modern environment theory
C. Civilization theory D. Mismatch theory
Question 39: The word “contour” in line 1 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. outlines B. limits C. structures D. actions
Question 40: According to the passage, the death of many young people in industrial countries is mainly
caused by _____.
A. murder B. traffic accidents C. suicide D. depression
Question 41: The word “one” in line 4 refers to the _____.
A. mismatch theory B. field C. modern environment D. ancestral environment
Question 42: It can be inferred from the passage that evolutionary psychologists dislike nostalgia for the
1950s because _____.
A. it was an unhealthy time to live
B. the nuclear family provides an unsatisfactory lifestyle
C. women who wished to go out to work were misguided
D. family life was seen to be unnatural
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
(1) Footracing is a popular activity in the United States. It is seen not only as a competitive sport but also as a
way to exercise, to enjoy the camaraderie of like–minded people, and to donate money to a good cause.
Though serious runners may spend months training to compete, other runners and walkers might not train at
all. Those not competing to win might run in an effort to beat their own time or simply to enjoy the fun an
exercise. People of all ages. From those of less than one year (who may be pushed in strollers) to those in
their eighties, enter into this sport. The races are held on city streets, on college campuses, through parks, and
in suburban areas, and they are commonly 5 to 10 kilometers in length.
(2) The largest footrace in the world is the 12 kilometer Bay to Breakers race that is held in San Francisco
every spring. This race begins on the east side of the city near San Francisco Bay and ends on the west side at
the Pacific Ocean. There may be 80,000 or more people running in this race through the streets and hills of
San Francisco. In the front of are the serious runners who compete to win and who might finish in a little as
34 minutes. Behind them are the thousands who take several hours to finish. In the back of the race are those
who dress in costumes and come just for fun. One year there was a group of men who dresses like Elvis
Presley, and another group consisted of the firefighters who were tired together in a long line and who were
carrying a firehose. There was even a bridal party, in which the bride was dressed in a long white gown and
the groom wore a tuxedo. The bride and groom threw flowers to bystanders, and they were actually married
at some point along the route.
Question 43: The main purpose of this passage is to _____.
A. encourage people to exercise B. describe a popular activity
C. make fun of runners in costume D. give reasons for the popularity of footraces
Question 44: The phrase “a good cause” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. or an award B. to reward the winner
C. for a good purpose D. to protect a wise investment
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT implied by the author?
A. Footraces appeal to a variety of people.
B. Walkers can compete for prizes.
C. Entering is a good way to give support to an organization.
D. Running is a good way to strengthen the heart.
Question 46: As used in paragraph 1, the word “strollers” refer to _____.
A. cribs B. wheelchairs C. wagons D. carriages
Question 47: In what lines does the author give reasons for why people enter footraces?
A. Footracing ... and exercise B. People off all ages ... in length
C. The largest ... 34 minutes D. Behind them ... a firehose
Question 48: The word “costumes” as used in paragraph 2 most likely refers to _____.
A. outfits B. uniforms C. cloaks D. suits
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in this passage?
A. Some runners looked like Elvis Presley.
B. Some runners were ready to put out a fire.
C. Some runners were participating in a wedding.
D. Some runners serious about winning.
Question 50: Which of the following best describes the organization of this passage?
A. chronological order B. specific to general
C. cause and result D. statement and example

COLLECTION 1 - NUMBER 1 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Question 1: A. finished B. developed C. defeated D. looked
Question 2: A. hesitate B. reserve C. physics D. basic
Question 3: A. bamboo B. forget C. deserve D. channel
Question 4: A. endanger B. furniture C. determine D. departure
Question 5: The number of students attending English courses at our university are increasing.
A. students B. attending C. at D. are
Question 6: Scuba diving is usually carried out in the ocean in that people can explore the underwater world.
A. is B. out C. that D. explore
Question 7: To be successful in an interview, you should control the feeling of pressure and making a good
impression on the interviewer.
A. successful B. control C. making D. on
questions.
Question 8: For the last 20 years, we _______ significant changes in the world of science and technology.
A. witness B. have witnessed C. witnessed D. are witnessing
Question 9: Housewives find it easier to do domestic chores thanks to _____ invention of labour–aving
devices.
A. the B. a C. an D. some
Question 10: Air pollution is getting _______ serious in big cities in the world.
A. more and more B. the more and the more C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 11: Ms Brown asked me _______ in my class.
A. there were how many students B. how many students there were
C. were there how many students D. how many students were there
Question 12: Her fiancé is said _______ from Harvard University five years ago.
A. having graduated B. to have graduated C. being graduated D. to be graduated
Question 13: Many rare and precious species are now _______ the verge of extinction.
A. in B. from C. on D. by
Question 14: They are always _______ of what their children do.
A. support B. supporting C. supportive D. supportively
Question 15: Women in some parts of the world are still struggling for _______ job opportunities to men.
A. equal B. various C. suitable D. legal
Question 16: The manager _______ his temper with the employees and shouted at them.
A. had B. lost C. took D. kept
Question 17: All nations should _______ hands to work out a plan to solve the problem of global warming.
A. join B. hold C. shake D. lend
Question 18: Garvin is _______ a new computer application to see whether it works.
A. looking after B. putting on C. trying out D. turning up
Question 19: Terry is a very imaginative boy. He always comes _______ interesting ideas.
A. out of B. down on C. up with D. in for
Question 20: The accident ________ while he was driving to the office.'
A. was occurred B. occurred C. has occurred D. was being occurred
Question 21: This city has four million ________.'
A. residents B. inhabitants C. dwellers D. settlers
Question 22: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise’s foot.
– Susan: “Oops! I’m sorry, Denise.”
– Denise: “_____________”
A. You shouldn’t do that. B. It’s alright. C. You are welcome. D. It’s nonsense.
Question 23: Hana and Jenifer are talking about a book they have just read.
– Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.” – Jenifer: “_____________________ ”
A. I’d love it. B. That’s nice of you to say so.
C. I couldn’t agree more. D. Don’t mention it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to
theunderlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 24: The student service centre will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part–time
job.
A. help B. allow C. make D. employ
Question 25: My sister is a very diligent student. She works very hard at every subject.
A. clever B. practical C. studious D. helpful
Question 26: Sorry, I can’t come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. free from C. relaxed about D. interested in
Question 27: Basically, everything is the same; however, there may be some minor changes to the schedule.
A. big B. sudden C. gradual D. small
Question 28: I really believe my letter came as a great surprise to John.
A. John might be very surprised to receive my letter.
B. John might have been very surprised to receive my letter.
C. John must be very surprised to receive my letter.
D. John must have been very surprised to receive my letter.
Question 29: “Why don’t we go out for dinner tonight?” said Jim.
A. Jim suggested going out for dinner that night. B. Jim refused to go out for dinner that night.
C. Jim denied going out for dinner that night. D. Jim promised to go out for dinner that night.
Question 30: The candidate was offered the job because of his excellent answers.
A. The job was offered to the candidate although he couldn’t answer the questions.
B. If it hadn’t been for the candidate’s excellent answers, he couldn’t have got the job.
C. The candidate answered the questions so excellently that he might get the job.
D. Because it was such a good job, the candidate tried to answer the questions excellently.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: Our flight was delayed. We decided to spend time at the duty–free shops.
A. As our flight was delayed, we decided to spend time at the duty–free shops.
B. We have been spending time at the duty–free shops since our flight was delayed.
C. We decided to spend time at the duty–free shops in case our flight was delayed.
D. Although our flight was delayed, we decided to spend time at the duty–free shops.
Question 32: I didn’t pay attention to the teacher. I failed to understand the lesson.
A. Although I paid attention to the teacher, I failed to understand the lesson.
B. I would have understood the lesson if I had failed to pay attention to the teacher.
C. I would have understood the lesson if I had paid attention to the teacher.
D. Unless I failed to understand the lesson, I would pay attention to the teacher.
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37.
The Internet has truly transformed how students do their homework. (33)_______ homework today still
means spending time in the library, it’s for a different reason. Rather than using books for research, students
today are (34) _____ to the Internet to download enormous amounts of data available online.
In the past, students were limited to their school’s (35)_______ of books. In many cases, they got to the
school library and found out that someone had already taken the books they needed.
Nowadays, such inconvenience can be avoided since the Internet never runs out of information. Students,
however, do have to (36)_______ sure that the information they find online is true. Teachers have also
benefited from the homework which is done on the Internet. They do not need to carry students’ papers
around with them any more. This is because online (37)_______ allow students to electronically upload their
homework for their teachers to read and mark. Of course, this also means that students can no longer use the
excuse that the dog ate their homework!
(Adapted from “Gold Pre–first Exam Maximizer,” by H. Chilton & L. Edwards, 2013, Harlow: Pearson)
Question 33: A. But B. For C. While D. Because
Question 34: A. connecting B. linking C. searching D. looking
Question 35: A. select B. selective C. selectively D. selection
Question 36: A. do B. get C. make D. come
Question 37: A. materials B. systems C. structures D. sources
Whales are the largest animals in the world, and the gentlest creatures we know. Although the whale is very
huge, it is not hindered at all by its size when it is in the water. Whales have tails that end like flippers. With
just a gentle flick, it can propel itself forward. The skin of a whale is so smooth that it does not create any
friction that can slow the whale down. A whale’s breathing hole is located on the top of its head, so it can
breathe without having to completely push its head out of the water. Whales are protected from the cold
seawater by body fat that is called blubber.
Whales live in the ocean but, in terms of behaviours, they are more similar to humans than fish. They live
in family groups and they even travel in groups when they have to migrate from cooler to warmer waters.
The young stay with their parents for as long as fifteen years. Whales are known not to desert the ill or
injured members; instead, they cradle them.
When whales are in danger, there are people who go to great lengths to help them. One such case occurred in
1988, when three young whales were trapped in the sea. It was close to winter and the sea had begun to
freeze over. Whales are mammals that require oxygen from the air, so the frozen ice was a great danger to
them. All they had then was a tiny hole in the ice for them to breathe through. Volunteers from all over soon
turned up to help these creatures. They cut holes in the ice to provide more breathing holes for the whales.
These holes would also serve as guides for the whales so that they could swim to warmer waters.
(Adapted from http://www.englishdaily626.com?reading_comprehension)
Question 38: Which of the following best describes the main idea of this passage?
A. Successful attempts to rescue whales all over the world
B. Some remarkable similarities of whales to humans
C. Whales as the largest, gentlest but vulnerable creatures
D. Whales as the only animals to live in warm water
Question 39: Whales can move easily in water thanks to their ________.
A. tail and blubber B. size and head C. tail and skin D. skin and head
Question 40: Where is the whale’s breathing hole located?
A. On its head B. On its back C. On its face D. On its tail
Question 41: According to paragraph 2, the author mentions all of the following to show that whales “are
more similar to humans” EXCEPT_______ .
A. they do not desert the ill or injured members B. they do not migrate from cooler to warmer waters
C. they live in family groups and travel in groupsD. the young stay with their parents for almost fifteen years
Question 42: The word “tiny” in paragraph 3 probably means_______.
A. very small B. very deep C. very fat D. very ugly
It's called 42 – the name taken from the answer to the meaning of life, from the science fiction series The
Hitchhiker's Guide to the Galaxy. 42 was founded by French technology billionaire Xavier Niel, whose
backing means there are no tuition fees and accommodation is free. Mr Niel and his co–founders come from
the world of technology and start–ups, and they are trying to do to education what Facebook did to
communication and Airbnb to accommodation.
Students at 42 are given a choice of projects that they might be set in a job as a software engineer – perhaps
to design a website or a computer game. They complete a project using resources freely available on the
Internet and by seeking help from their fellow students, who work alongside them in a large open–plan room
full of computers. Another student will then be randomly assigned to mark their work.
The founders claim this method of learning makes up for shortcomings in the traditional education system,
which they say encourages students to be passive recipients of knowledge. "Peer–to–peer learning develops
students with the confidence to search for solutions by themselves, often in quite creative and ingenious
ways."
Like in computer games, the students are asked to design and they go up a level by completing a project.
They graduate when they reach level 21, which usually takes three to five years. And at the end, there is a
certificate but no formal degree. Recent graduates are now working at companies including IBM, Amazon,
and Tesla, as well as starting their own firms.
"The feedback we have had from employers is that our graduates are more apt to go off and find out
information for themselves, rather than asking their supervisors what to do next," says Brittany Bir, chief
operating officer of 42 in California and a graduate of its sister school in Paris. Ms Bir says 42's graduates
will be better able to work with others and discuss and defend their ideas – an important skill in the “real
world” of work. "This is particularly important in computer programming, where individuals are notorious
for lacking certain human skills," she says.
But could 42's model of teacherless learning work in mainstream universities? Brittany Bir admits 42's
methods do not suit all students. "It suits individuals who are very disciplined and self–motivated, and who
are not scared by having the freedom to work at their own pace," she says.
(Adapted from http://www.bbc.com/news/business–37694248)
Question 43: According to the passage, 42 is _______.
A. a kind of school B. a type of accommodation
C. an innovation in technology D. a tool of virtual communication
Question 44: The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. students at 42 B. projects C. resources D. software engineers
Question 45: The author mentions “to design a website or a computer game” in paragraph 2 to
illustrate_________.
A. a job that a French software engineer always does
B. a choice of assignment that students at 42 have to complete
C. a free resource available on the Internet
D. a help that students at 42 get for their work
Question 46: What do 42’s graduates receive on completion of their course?
A. a certificate B. a degree C. a project D. a design
Question 47: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The founders of 42 share the idea of providing free service on Facebook.
B. It normally takes 42’s students at least five years to complete their course.
C. The students of 42 are required to play computer games during their course.
D. 42’s peer–to–peer approach promotes active learning and working.
Question 48: According to Ms Bir, 42’s graduates will be able to improve _______.
A. the skills of giving feedback B. the skills of searching for information
C. the skills of teamwork and debating D. the skills of software programming
Question 49: The word “notorious” in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by _______.
A. respectable B. incompetent C. infamous D. memorable
Question 50: It can be inferred from the passage that _______.
A. 42 is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities
B. all 42’s graduates are employed by world leading technology companies
C. 42’s students have to handle the task assigned without any assistance
D. 42 adopts project–based and problem–solving learning methods
Question 1: Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have
realized that the second was better as the first.
A. more carefully B. Had the committee members
C. second was D. as the first
Question 2: The news of the decision to invade with armed forces were not well received by the citizens.
A. were B. to C. received D. The
Question 3: While this is not the most popular course offered at the university, just like many others classes
that have low attendance in spite of their importance, at least several classes are always available.
A. others B. offered C. have D. importance
Lunch is for sharing
Mimi Ito carefully puts together her children's packed lunches each morning. She then photographs
them on her cameraphone and (4) _______ the pictures on her online blog. In this way, Mimi is able to keep
a record of meals that she is proud of, and hungry websurfers get the chance to look at her mouth-watering
creations. For these are no ordinary lunches, Mimi prepares what are (5) _______ as bento meals for her
children.
A bento is a single-portion Japanese takeaway meal that traditionally consists of rice, fish or meat, with
vegetables on the side. In Japan, they are normally served in distinctive trays divided into sections for the
different parts of the meal. Mimi thinks that children in (6) _______ enjoy having small compartments with
little bits of food that are (7) _______ to their small appetites. However, if we think of the excitement that
many of us feel when our airline meal arrives, it's easy to understand the fascination.
Mimi was born in Japan and currently lives in the USA. She is fairly health (8) _______, but believes
that having wide tastes and finding pleasure in food is important. She thinks that it's possible to focus on that
whilst at the same time also eating healthily.
Question 4: A. mails B. posts C. sends D. delivers
Question 5: A. called B. titled C. named D. known
Question 6: A. precise B. specific C. special D. particular
Question 7: A. created B. fitted C. suited D. designed
Question 8: A. conscious B. sensible C. informed D. knowledge
Scientists have experimented with a new procedure for alleviating the damage caused by strokes.
Strokes are frequently caused by a blood clot lodging in the tree of arteries in the head, choking the flow of
blood. Some brain cells die as a direct result of the stroke, but others also die over several hours because the
proteins spilling out of the first cells that die trigger a chemical chain reaction that kills the neighboring cells.
The current method of reducing the amount of damage is to give a clot dissolver, known as TPA, as
soon as possible. But generally TPA is not given to the patient until he or she reaches the hospital, and it still
does not immediately stop the damage.
The new technology, still in the research stage, involves chilling the area or the entire patient. It is
already known that when an organ is cooled, damage is slowed. This is why sometimes a person who has
fallen into an icy pond is not significantly harmed after being warmed up again. The biggest issue is the
method of cooling. It is not feasible to chill the head alone. Doctors have chilled the entire body by wrapping
the patient in cold materials, but extreme shivering was a problem.
The new idea is to cool the patient from the inside out. Several companies are studying the use of cold-
tipped catheters, inserted into the artery in the groin and threaded up to the inferior vena cava, which is a
large vein that supplies blood to the abdomen. The catheter is expected to cool the blood that flows over it,
thus allowing cooler blood to reach the area of the stroke damage.
It is not expected that the cooling will be substantial, but even a slight decrease in temperature is
thought to be helpful. In effect, the patient is given a kind of forced hypothermia. And doctors believe it is
important to keep the patient awake so that they can converse with the patient in order to ascertain mental
condition.
Studies continue to determine the most effective and least damaging means of cooling the patient in
order to reduce this damage.
Question 9: The word “alleviating” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to _____.
A. causing B. devastating C. reducing D. increasing
Question 10: According to the passage, the method of chilling from the inside out is being considered for all
of the following reasons except _____.
A. it is not possible to chill the head alone B. cold dissolves blood clots
C. chilling from the inside out avoids shaking D. drugs are not helpful in stopping the chain reaction.
Question 11: According to the passage, what causes a stroke?
A. Low blood flow B. A blood clot sticking in an area of the brain
C. Hot blood D. A patient choking on food
Question 12: According to the passage, all of the following are true except that _____.
A. some cells die immediately when a person has a stroke, and others die later
B. the protein from dead cells kills other cells
C. cells die only as a direct result of the stroke
D. TPA is effective in removing blood clots
Question 13: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The dangers of cooling the body.
B. New pharmaceutical methods for reducing stroke damage that are being researched.
C. Causes and effects of strokes.
D. A new method of cooling the body to reduce stroke damage that is being researched.
questions.
Question 14: She’s more interested in job _______ than in making a lot of money.
A. pleasure B. contentment C. satisfaction D. enjoyment
Question 15: _____ she’s got a job that she likes, she’s a lot happier.
A. Since when B. Just now C. Just as D. Now that
Question 16: The professor instructed the students _____ the essay without preparing an outline first.
A. to no write B. not to write C. to not write D. do not write
Question 17: The manager _____ the men to return to work immediately.
A. suggested B. insisted C. ordered D. demanded
Question 18: As a result of the additional rain with so much flooding already having occurred, residents were
seeking shelter _____ than in previous years.
A. more numerously B. in more numbers C. greater in numbers D. in greater numbers
Question 19: It’s a pity you missed the party. If you _____, you _____ my friends from Hungary.
A. would have come; had met B. came; would meet
C. had come; would meet D. had come; would have met
Question 20: Whereas many people visit Internet sites where products are sold, a great number of them still
hesitate _____ purchases online.
A. to actually make B. actually making C. making actual D. actually to make
Question 21: Michael put his mistake_____ to lack of concentration.
A. down B. over C. through D. up
Question 22: It was not until the students were seated ___ the proctor realized he had the wrong test
booklets.
A. as soon as B. that C. and D. when
Question 23: Hardly _____ the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet.
A. he had entered B. had entered C. had he entered D. entered
Question 24: To master the art of fiction writing _____ discipline and practice, as well as studying the works
of other great authors.
A. require B. requiring C. that requires D. requires
Question 25: I couldn’t believe it when Sylvia turned up in the same _____ hat that she wore last time.
A. horrible yellow wide B. horrible wide yellow C. wide yellow horrible D. wide horrible yellow
Question 26: The polar bear’s _____ depends on its ability to catch fish.
A. survival B. survive C. surviving D. survivor
Question 27: She went _____ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 28: There are substantial differences between the two groups.
A. effective B. inconsiderable C. considerable D. slight
Question 29: The existing law there is nor entirely satisfactory.
A. satisfying B. pleasant C. effective D. acceptable
Question 30: A. amount B. career C. private D. submit
Question 31: A. enthusiasm B. economic C. considerable D. psychology
Question 32: - Hello, Elena. What are you looking for? + __________
A. I’m sorry. I can’t. B. No, I’m just looking.
C. I need some information for a sports project. D. I can’t find anything.
Question 33: - I can’t stop worrying about my exam tomorrow. + __________
A. I’m sure you’ll do well. B. That’s all right, never mind.
C. OK. It doesn’t matter. D. Of course. So am I.
Question 36: New materials for gauze that doesn’t adhere to a wound have recently been developed.
A. allow B. come off C. infect D. stick to
Question 35: It seemed incredible that she had been there a week already.
A. imaginable B. clear C. believable D. unimaginative
Question 36: A man answered the phone. He said Tom was out.
A. A man who said Tom was out answered the phone.
B. The man who answered the phone said Tom was out.
C. The man answered the phone who said Tom was out.
D. Tom is said to be out by a man who answered the phone.
Question 37: “Look where you are going,” she said to me; “the road is full of holes and very badly lit.”
A. She said to me to look where you were going, and the road was full of holes and very badly lit.
B. She asked me to look where she was going as the road was full of holes and very badly lit.
C. She told me to look where I was going as the road is full of holes and very badly lit.
D. She told me to look where I was going as the road was full of holes and very badly lit.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that pf the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 38: A. receives B. brushes C. matches D. advantages
Question 39: A. double B. town C. south D. allow
correct answer to each of the questions from 40 to 47.
Hobbit-like Species of Humans
On the tiny island of Flores, east of Bali and midway between Asia and Australia, the scientists have
discovered the remains of a small, hobbit-like species of humans. These people grew no larger than the
modern three-year-old child. They lived about 18,000 years ago and are completely different species of
human.This discovery has taught scientists a lot about the human species. This remarkable discovery shows
that the human species is more varied and flexible in its ability to adapt than previously thought. These
hobbit-like people join a short list of other type of humans that lived with modern humans.
The researchers believe that these hobbits evolved from a normal size, human population that reached
Flores around 840,000 years ago. One likely explanation is that, over thousands of years, the species became
smaller because the environmental conditions favored a smaller body size. The dwarfing of mammals on
islands occurs frequently. Islands limit food supply and predators and species compete for the same
environmental space. Survival would depend on minimizing energy requirements.
Question 40: Which is the main topic of this passage?
A. The reasons for the dwarfing of mammals
B. Detailed information about the features of a different species of human
C. The discovery of a hobbit-like species of human and its significance
D. A fictitious character in world history
Question 41: What makes this discovery so significant?
A. It shows that hobbits may have existed.
B. This shows that small islands are good place for smaller species.
C. It shows that humans do not need a lot of different foods.
D. It shows that human can change a great deal according to the demands of the environment.
Question 42: The word “remains” in the passage is closest in meaning to _____.
A. pictures B. descendants C. fossils D. records
Question 43: Which of the following best favors a smaller body size?
A. a mainland where there is a little competition for survival
B. a small, isolated area where there is a limited food supply
C. an island that has a large and varied food supply
D. an environment where there are many predators
Question 44: According to the passage, all of the following can dwarf a species of animal or human except
_____.
A. little food B. a deeply forested area with little sunshine
C. few predators D. limited land
Question 45: Which of the following is true of the newly discovered species?
A. They are the only human species to live with modern man.
B. They moved from island to island.
C. They needed less food than modern human.
D. They were only as intelligent as a three-year-old child.
Question 46: We learn from the passage that dwarfing has occurred _____.
A. on every continent B. only on the island discussed in the passage
C. on their islands as well D. none of the above
Question 47: According to the passage, why does a smaller size help species survive under certain
condition?
A. It makes them more difficult for predators to see. B. It allows them to move more quickly.
C. It allows them to consume less food. D. All of the above
Question 48: The man was not able to take part in the expedition because of his age.
A. Taking part in the expedition was what the man was able to do.
B. The man was too old to take part in the expedition.
C. His age hardly prevented the man from taking part in the expedition.
D. The man was old enough to take part in the expedition.
Question 49: We offer good-quality products and we will have many customers.
A. The better-quality products we offer, the more customers we will have.
B. We offer more good-quality products and will have many customers.
C. The more customers we will have, the better products we offer.
D. The more products we offer, the more customers we will have.
Question 50: There is a rumor that the chairman was planning to retire early at the time.
A. The chairman is rumored that he was planning to retire early at the time.
B. It is rumored that retiring early was what the chairman had planned at the time.
C. People rumored that the chairman planned to retire early.
D. The chairman is rumored to have been planning to retire early at the time.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 1: A. university B. understand C. discussion D. industrial
Question 2: A. sort B. seem C. sun D. sure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 3: A. mysterious B. historical C. particular D. heritage
Question 4: A. scenery B. festival C. atmosphere D. location
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
Question 5: The skin receives nearly A. the B. third of the blood pumped
out C. by D. the heart.
Question 6: Salt was once A. too B. scare and C. precious that it was used
as money. D.
Question 7: There being A. no evidence B. against himself C. , Slade was released.
D.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 8: Are there any household chores for _________ men are better _________ than women?
A. whose/suited B. which/suit C. that/suit D. which/suited
Question 9: Too many factories dispose _________ their waste by pumping it into rivers and the sea.
A. out B. of C. away D. off
Question 10: Why did Berth ask you _________ a bicycle?
A. that if you had B. do you have C. that you had D. if you had
Question 11: She wondered if they _________ her jeweler and rather hoped that they had.
A. find B. have found C. had found D. would find
Question 12: I cannot bear the noise of my brother’s radio; it _________ me from my work.
A. distracts B. perturbs C. interrupts D. disturbs
Question 13: -“Is swimming under water very difficult?”
-“No, it’s just a matter _________ able to control your breathing.”
A. to be B. of being C. that you are D. being
Question 14: I am going to the dentist’s tomorrow. I hope I don’t need to _________
A. have anything done B. have nothing done
C. be done anything D. get him do anything
Question 15: A young girl came on to the stage with a bouquet _________ to the conductor.
A. Presented B. and presented C. for presenting D. to present
Question 16: _________ I love you, I can’t let you do whatever you like.
A. Whatever B. Whether C. Despite D. Much as
Question 17: He _________ alone a month ago, and _________ of since.
A. set off/hasn’t been heard B. setted off/hasn’t heard
C. set on/hasn’t heard D. setted on/hadn’t been heard
Question 18: His _________ of the school regulations really can’t be ignored any longer.
A. carelessness B. inattention C. unfamiliarity D. disregard
Question 19: Beaches were _________ as police searched for canisters of toxic waste from the damaged
ship.
A. sealed off B. cut off C. washed up D. kept out
Question 20: The fall of the dictatorship of Miguel Primode Riverra _____ the establishment of the
Second Spanish Republic.'
A. brought around B. set down C. set up D. brought about
Question 21: You have to _____ your revision tonight. Or it’s too late.'
A. get over B. give out C. give away D. get through
Question 22: Peter: “___________________________”
Tim: “What happened?”
A. What did you do today? B. I had a bad day.
C. How was your day? D. Have a nice day.
Question 23: “Don’t fail to look after yourself, Mary!” – “___________________________”
A. Of course, you’re an adult. B. Oh, I knew about that.
C. Thanks, me too. D. Thanks, I will.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined ones.
Question 24: When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
A. Look for B. watch out for C. search for D. watch for
Question 25: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime
A. complain B. exchange C. explain D. arrange
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined ones.
Question 26: Because Jack defaulted on his loan, the bank took him to court
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 27: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
B. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that is similar in meaning to
the given one
Question 28 "If I were you, I would take the job," said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate was thinking about taking the job.
B. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
C. My room-mate introduced the idea of taking the job to me.
D. My room-mate insisted on taking the job for me.
Question 29: "It's too stuffy in this room, isn't it?" said the guest.
A. The guest suggested that the room should be aired.
B. The guest remarked that the room should be aired.
C. The guest said that the room was too crowded.
D. The guest said that there was too much stuff in the room.
Question 30: "Cigarette?" he asked. "No, thanks." I said.
A. He asked for a cigarette, and I immediately refused.
B. He mentioned a cigarette, so I thanked him.
C. He offered me a cigarette, but I promptly declined.
D. He asked if I was smoking, and I denied at once.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions
Question 31: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
Question 32: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the correct
How men first learnt to (33) ........ words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a mystery. All
we really know is that men, unlike animals, (34) ............ invented certain sounds to express thoughts and
feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed (35)
........... certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which could be
written down. These sounds, (36) .......... spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great writers are those
who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that apeal powerfully to our minds
and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literary (37) ........... Above all, the real
poet is a master of words.
Question 33: A. invent B. create C. make D. discover
Question 34: A. somehow B.however C. somewhat D. whatever
Question 35: A. at B. upon C. with D. to
Question 36: A.if B. however C. whether D. though
Question 37: A. prose B. work C. form D. style
(1) The protozoans, minute, aquatic creatures each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm,
constitute a classification of the most primitive forms of animal life. They are fantastically diverse, but three
major groups may be identified on the basis of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails,
which they use to project themselves forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as
the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row
themselves about on their crusted bodies.
(2) In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups of
protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large
nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the
genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus.
(3) Protozoans are considered animals because, unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are
otherwise almost identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the
major characteristics of the cells of higher animals.
(4) Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to each other and responding
uniformly to outside stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon, along with investigations carried out
with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even calling into
question the basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data available, almost
40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as the technology improves our methods of
observation, better models of classification will be proposed.
Question 38: With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. Colonies of protozoans B. Mastigophora
C. Motility in protozoans D. Characteristics of protozoans
Question 39: The word “minute” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. Very common B. Very fast C. Very old D. Very small
Question 40: Where do protozoans probably live?
A. Water B. Sand C. Grass D. Wood
Question 41: What is protoplasm?
A. A class of protozoan
B. The substance that forms the cell of a protozoan
C. A primitive animal similar to a protozoan
D. An animal that developed from a protozoan
Question 42: The word “uniformly” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. in the same way B. once in a while C. all of a sudden D. in the long run
1) It was the first photograph that I had ever seen, and it fascinated me. I can remember holding it at every
angle in order to catch the flickering light from the oil lamp on the dresser. The man in the photograph was
unsmiling, but his eyes were kind. I had never met him, but I felt that I knew him. One evening when I was
looking at the photograph, as I always did before I went to sleep, I noticed a shadow across the man’s thin
face. I moved the photograph so that the shadow lay perfectly around his hollow cheecks. How different he
looked!
(2) That night I could not sleep, thinking about the letter that I would write. First, I would tell him that I was
eleven years old, and that if he had a little girl my age, she could write to me instead of him. I knew that he
was a very busy man. Then I would explain to him the real purpose of my letter. I would tell him how
wonderful he looked with the shadow that I had seen across his photograph, and I would most carefully
suggest that he grow whiskers.
(3) Four months later when I met him at the train station near my home in Westfield, New York, he was
wearing a full beard. He was so much taller than I had imagined from my tiny photograph.
(4) “Ladies and gentlemen,” he said, “I have no speech to make and no time to make it in. I appear before
you that I may see you and that you may see me.” Then he picked me right up and kissed me on both cheeks.
The whiskers scratched. “Do you think I look better, my little friend?” he asked me.
(5) My name is Grace Bedell, and the man in the photograph was Abraham Lincoln.
Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in the passage?
A. To explain how Grace Bedell took a photograph of Abraham Lincoln
B. To explain why Abraham Lincoln wore a beard
C. To explain why the first photographs were significant in American life
D. To explain why Westfield is an important city
Question 44: The word “fascinated” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by
A. Interested B. frightened C. confused D. disgusted
Question 45: The man in the photograph
A. was smiling B. had a beard C. had a round, fat face D. looked kind
Question 46: What did Grace Bedell do every night before she went to sleep?
A. She wrote letters. B. She looked at the photograph.
B. She made shadow figures on the wall. D. She read stories.
Question 47: The little girl could not sleep because she was
A. Sick B. excited C. lonely D. sad
Question 48: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to
A. Time B. Speech C. Photograph D. Station
Question 49: From this passage, it may be inferred that
A. Grace Bedell was the only one at the train station when Lincoln stopped at Westfield
B. There were many people waiting for Lincoln to arrive on the train
C. Lincoln made a long speech at the station in Westfield
D. Lincoln was offended by the letter
Question 50: Why did the author wait until the last line to reveal the identity of the man in the
photograph?
A. The author did not know it.
B. The author wanted to make the reader fell foolish.
C. The author wanted to build the interest and curiosity of the reader.
D. The author was just a little girl.

Question 1: A. needed B. eradicated C. developed D. contributed
Question 2: A. breathe B. threaten C. healthy D. earth
Question 3: A. cigarette B. engineer C. magazine D. preference
Question 4: A. literature B. business C. mosquito D. document
Question 5: She intended to quit her job to stay at home and look into her sick mother.
A. to quit B. to C. at D. into
Question 6: Building thousands of years ago, the ancient palace is popular with modern tourists.
A. Building B. ago C. the ancient D. popular with
Question 7: Engineering is a profession who puts scientific knowledge to practical use.
A. Engineering B. who C. scientific D. to
questions.
Question 8: My father has to work _____ a night shift once a week.
A. in B. on C. at D. under
Question 9: My mother advised me _____ an apple every day to stay healthy.
A. eat B. ate C. eating D. to eat
Question 10: The computer’s memory is the place where information _____ and calculations are done.
A. are kept B. is kept C. kept D. keep
Question 11: _____ the weather forecast, it will rain heavily later in the morning.
A. On account of B. Due to C. According to D. Because of
Question 12: My brother has no _____ in football.
A. interesting B. interestingly C. interested D. interest
Question 13: Last year Matt earned _____ his brother, who had a better position.
A. twice as much as B. twice as many as C. twice more than D. twice as more as
Question 14: Internet _____ has helped bloggers share their experiences and opinions easily and quickly.
A. connector B. connection C. connectively D. connecting
Question 15: Emails are _____ among young people than the elders.
A. more used widely B. more widely C. more widely used D. widely more used
Question 16: Mary, _____ mother is a doctor, intends to choose medical career.
A. who B. that C. whose D. whom
Question 17: It is raining hard. We had better _____ at home tonight.
A. staying B. stay C. to stay D. to be staying
Question 18: We expected him at eight but he finally _____ at midnight.
A. turned out B. came to C. came off D. turned up
Question 19: _____ classical dance for five years, Akiko finally felt ready _____ in public.
A. Being studied/ having performed B. Having studied/ to perform
C. Studying/ to be performed D. To study/ performed
Question 20: Ken asked Barbara _____ she would like to go to the cinema.'
A. unless B. in case C. regarding D. whether
Question 21: The old manager has just retired, so Tom takes_____ his position.'
A. in B. on C. up D. out
Question 22: Hung: “Congratulations! You did great.”
Nam: “_____.”
A. It’s my pleasure B. You’re welcome
C. It’s nice of you to say so D. That’s okay
Question 23: Cindy: “Your hairstyle is terrific, Mary!
Mary: “_____.”
A. Yes, all right B. Thanks, but I’m afraid
C. Thanks, Cindy. I had it done yesterday D. Never mention it
Question 24: You should be well-advised to have the appropriate vaccinations before you go abroad.
A. suitable B. compulsory C. healthy D. preventive
Question 25: My cousin tends to look on the bright side in any circumstance.
A. be confident B. be pessimistic C. be smart D. be optimistic
Question 26: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can't understand the problems we are facing.
A. wealthy B. broke C. kind D. poor
Question 27: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. put in charge of B. got in touch with C. lost control of D. made room for
Question 28: The weather was so terrible that we spent the whole day indoors.
A. It was such terrible weather that we spent the whole day indoors.
B. The weather wasn't terrible enough for us to spend the whole day indoors.
C. The weather was too terrible that we spent the whole day indoors.
D. The weather was too terrible for us to spend the whole day indoors.
Question 29: I have never read such a romantic story like this before.
A. This is the most romantic story that I've ever read.
B. I have never read many romantic stories like this before.
C. The story is so romantic that I have read it many times.
D. This story is not as romantic as those I had read before.
Question 30: Emily couldn't move the table even though she tried hard.
A. Try as hard as she might, Emily shouldn't move the table.
B. Emily tried hard, and she shouldn't move the table.
C. Emily couldn't move the table as she didn't try hard.
D. Emily couldn't move the table despite her effort.
Question 31: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn't pass it.
B. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
C. Although she didn't try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
D. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
Question 32: He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me.
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
C. Not only did he spend all his money but also borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me.
Some years ago, my daughter was studying English at a university on the south coast. One evening she
phoned to tell me that what she really wanted to do was looking (33) _____ the world, so she was looking
into the possibility of working in another country. She had seen several (34) _____ in the newspaper for
student teachers of English abroad, and she was interested in one in Italy, which she was desperate to visit.
She decided that this would be a good way to achieve her ambition, so she was writing to apply for the job.
The reply took a long time to arrive, but eventually she received a letter asking if she would go for an
interview in London the following week. She was so excited that she immediately got in touch with the
school owner and agreed to attend the interview. She was determined that nothing would prevent her (35)
_____ doing what she had set out to do. A few days before the interview she had a very strange dream in
which she gave birth to a beautiful baby. She was a little nervous and (36) _____ about the dream and
phoned to ask me what I thought it might mean. As I knew something about dreams, I was able to assure her
that it only symbolized her (37) _____ to do well in the interview.
Question 33: A. over B. into C. round D. up
Question 34: A. posters B. notices C. advertisements D. announcements
Question 35: A. in B. from C. about D. of
Question 36: A. worried B. offended C. annoyed D. bored
Question 37: A. desire B. want C. demand D. request
(1) Colors are one of the most exciting experiences in life. I love them, and they are just as important to
me as emotions are. Have you ever wondered how the two are so intimately related?
(2) Color directly affects your emotions. Color both reflects the current state of your emotions, and is
something that you can use to improve or change your emotions. The color that you choose to wear either
reflects your current state of being, or reflects the color or emotion that you need.
(3) The colors that you wear affect you much more than they affect the people around you. Of course
they also affect anyone who comes in contract with you, but you are the one saturated with the color all
day! I even choose items around me based on their color. In the morning, I choose my clothes based on the
color or emotion that I need for the day. So you can consciously use color to control the emotions that you
are exposed to, which can help you to feel better.
(4) Color, sound, and emotions are all vibrations. Emotions are literally energy in motion; they are
meant to move and flow. This is the reason that real feelings are the fastest way to get your energy in motion.
Also, flowing energy is exactly what creates healthy cells in your body. So, the fastest want to be healthy is
to be open to your real feelings. Alternately, the fastest way to create disease is to inhibit your emotions.
Question 38: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Colors are one of the most exciting.
B. Colors can help you become healthy.
C. Emotions and colors are closely related to each other.
D. Colorful clothes can change your mood.
Question 39: Which of the following can be affected by color?
A. your appetite B. your mood
C. your friend's feelings D. Your need for thrills
Question 40: According to the passage, what do color, sound, and emotion all have in common?
A. They are all vibrations. B. They all affect the cells of the body.
C. They are all related to health. D. They are all forms of motion.
Question 41: According to this passage, what creates disease?
A. Being open to your emotions B. Wearing the color black
C. Exposing yourself to bright colors D. Ignoring your emotions
Question 42: The term "intimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. clearly B. obviously C. closely D. simply
(1) In the West, cartoons are used chiefly to make people laugh. The important feature of all these
cartoons is the joke and the element of surprise which is contained. Even though it is very funny, a good
cartoon is always based on close observation of a particular feature of life and usually has a serious purpose.
(2) Cartoons in the West have been associated with political and social matters for many years. In
wartime, for example, they proved to be an excellent way of spreading propaganda. Nowadays cartoons are
often used to make short, sharp comments on politics and governments as well as on a variety of social
matters. In this way, the modern cartoon has become a very powerful force in influencing people in Europe
and the United States.
(3) Unlike most American and European cartoons, however, many Chinese cartoon drawings in the
past have also attempted to educate people, especially those who could not read and write. Such cartoons
about the lives and sayings of great men in China have proved extremely useful in bringing education to
illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China. Confucius, Mencius and Laozi have all appeared in very
interesting stories presented in the form of cartoons. The cartoons themselves have thus served to illustrate
the teachings of the Chinese sages in a very attractive way.
(4) In this sense, many Chinese cartoons are different from Western cartoons in so far as they do not
depend chiefly on telling jokes. Often, there is nothing to laugh at when you see Chinese cartoons. This is not
their primary aim. In addition to commenting on serious political and social matters, Chinese cartoons have
aimed at spreading the traditional Chinese thoughts and culture as widely as possible among the people.
(5) Today, however, Chinese cartoons have an added part to play in spreading knowledge. They offer a
very attractive and useful way of reaching people throughout the world, regardless of the particular country
in which they live. Thus, through cartoons, the thoughts and teachings of the old Chinese philosophers and
sages can now reach people who live in such countries as Britain, France, America, Japan, Malaysia or
Australia and who are unfamiliar with the Chinese culture.
(6) Until recently, the transfer of knowledge and culture has been overwhelmingly from the West to the
East and not vice versa. By means of cartoons, however, publishing companies in Taiwan, Hong Kong and
Singapore are now having success in correcting this imbalance between the East and the West.
(7) Cartoons can overcome language barriers in all foreign countries. The vast increase in the
popularity of these cartoons serves to illustrate the truth of Confucius’s famous saying “One picture is worth
a thousand words.”
Question 43: Which of the following clearly characterizes Western cartoons?
A. Humor, unexpectedness, and criticism. B. Seriousness, propaganda, and attractiveness.
C. Enjoyment, liveliness, and carefulness. D. Originality, freshness, and astonishment.
Question 44: Chinese cartoons have been useful as an important means of ______.
A. political propaganda in wartime B. spreading Western ideas
C. amusing people all the time D. educating ordinary people
Question 45: The major differences between Chinese cartoons and Western cartoons come from their __.
A. purposes B. styles C. values D. nationalities
Question 46: The pronoun “this” in paragraph 4 mostly refers to ______.
A. a piece of art B. an educational purpose C. a funny element D. a propaganda campaign
Question 47: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. A Very Powerful Force in Influencing People
B. Chinese Cartoons and Western Cartoons
C. Cartoons as a Way of Educating People
D.An Excellent Way of Spreading Propaganda
Question 48: The word “imbalance” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. the dominant cultural influence of the West over the East
B. the discrimination between the West culture and the East culture
C. the influence of the East cartoons over the West cartoons
D. the mismatch between the East cartoons and the West cartoons
Question 49: Which of the following is most likely the traditional subject of Chinese cartoons?
A. The stories and features of the lives of great men the world over.
B. The illiterate and semi-literate people throughout China.
C. Jokes and other kinds of humor in political and social matters.
D. The philosophies and sayings of ancient Chinese thinkers.
Question 50: According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. Cartoons will replace other forms of writing. B. Western cartoons always have a serious purpose.
C. Cartoons can serve various purposes. D. Language barriers restricted cartoons.
Question 1: A. stopped B. washed C. walked D. warned
Question 2: A. future B. refuse C. abuse D. fuss
Question 3: A. employment B. assimilate C. relative D. tomorrow
Question 4: A. memory B. weather C. criticize D. potential
Question 5: Food prices have raised (A) so rapidly (B) in the past new months that (C) some families
have been forced to alter their eating habits (D).
Question 6: So far this term, the students (A) in the writing class have learned (B) how to write (C) thesis
statements, organize their material, and summarizing (D) their conclusion.
Question 7: At least three-quarters (A) of that book on famous (B) Americans are (C) about people who
lived (D) in the nineteenth century.
questions.
Question 8: Frankly, I’d rather you _____ anything about it for the time being.
A. don’t do B. hadn’t done C. didn’t do D. haven’t done
Question 9: _____ I’d like to help you out, I’m afraid I just haven’t got any spare money at the moment.
A. Even B. Despite C. Much as D. Try as
Question 10: Hardly _____ of the paintings at the gallery were for sale.
A. none B. few C. some D. any
Question 11: You are 27 years old so it’s high time you _____ responsibility for your deeds.
A. took B. have taken C. had taken D. take
Question 12: Only in the Civil War _____ killed or wounded.
A. soldiers in America were B. so many American soldiers were
C. many soldiers in America were D. were so many American soldiers
Question 13: I was angry when you saw me because I _____ with my sister.
A. have been arguing B. had been arguing C. argued D. would argue
Question 14: The book would have been prefect _____ the ending.
A. had it not been for B. it had not been for C. it hadn’t been for D. hadn’t it been for
Question 15: Jane’s very modest, always _____ her success.
A. playing down B. turning around C. keeping down D.pushing back
Question 16: Check the bottles carefully to make sure they have not been _____.
A. broken into B. taken out C. touched up D.tampered with
Question 17: All things _____, he is the best president we are likely to get.
A. considered B. thought C. taken D. added
Question 18: Suppose he _____ you stealing, what would you do?
A. has caught B. catches C. had caught D. caught
Question 19: I used a calculator so it’s impossible I made a mistake with the bill.
=> I _____ a mistake with the bill because I used a calculator.
A. couldn’t make B. shouldn’t have made C. mightn’t make D.can’t have made
Question 20: My brother asked me _____ of the football match.'
A. what do you think B. what I think C. what did I think D. what I thought
Question 21: The boy _____ is my cousin.'
A. talks to the lady over there B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there
Question 22: George: – “In my opinion, action films are exciting.”
Frankie: – “_____.”
A. Yes. Congratulations! B. There’s no doubt about it.
C. What an opinion! D. You shouldn’t have said that.
Question 23: Peter: – “I’ve been awarded a scholarship to study in America.”
Kate: – “Uh, really? _____!”
A. Take care of yourself B. Congratulations
C. You are always lucky D. Lucky as you are
Question 24: When their rent increased from $200 to $400 a month, they protested against such a
tremendous increase.
A. light B. huge C. tiring D. difficult
Question 25: The cotton gin was commonplace on many nineteenth century farms.
A. often required B. sorely needed C. frequently seen D.visibly absent
Question 26: Silk is considered a delicate fabric which is adversely affected by sunlight.
A. soft B. strong C. fragile D. refined
Question 27: It is anticipated that this contract will substantially increase sales for over the next three years.
A. apparently B. slightly C. considerably D. markedly
Question 28: The bad news completely disappointed him.
A. He found the bad news completely disappointed.
B. He found the bad news completely disappointing.
C. He found it disappointed to get the bad news.
D. What makes him disappointed was the bad news.
Question 29: Once the airline announced its ticket sale, the telephone in the main office would not stop
ringing
A. People kept calling the airline main office since its announcement of ticket sale
B. If the airline didn’t announce a ticket sale, its telephone would stop ringing
C. The airline telephone was ringing because they announced a ticket sale
D. Nobody called the airline until it announced its ticket sale.
Question 30: She got angry because he broken his promise.
A. If he didn’t break his promise, she wouldn’t get angry.
B. Had he not broken his promise, she wouldn’t have got angry.
C. If she hadn’t got angry, he wouldn’t have broken his promise.
D. Had it not been for her anger, he wouldn’t have broken his promise.
Question 31: The film was not interesting. However, he tried to watch the whole film.
A. Uninteresting as was the film, he tried to to watch the whole film.
B. Despite of the uninteresting film, he tried to to watch the whole film.
C. Uninteresting as the film was, he tried to to watch the whole film.
D. In spite of the film uninteresting, he tried to to watch the whole film.
Question 32: He was overconfident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was his overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
B. He was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
C. That he was overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
D. It was because his overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
What is meant by the term economic resources? In general, these are all the natural, man-made, and
human resources that go into the (33) __of goods and services. Economic resources can be broken down into
two general categories: property resource – land and capital, and human resources – labor and entrepreneurial
skills.
What do economists mean (34) __________land? Much more than the non-economist, land refers to all
the natural resources that are usable in the production process: arable land, forests, mineral and oil deposits,
and (35) __________ on. What about capital? Capital goods are all the man-made aids to producing, storing,
transporting, and distributing goods and services. Capital goods differ from consumer goods in that (36)
__________ satisfy wants directly, while the former do so indirectly by facilitating the production of
consumer goods. It should be noted that capital as defined here does not refer to money. Money, as such,
produces nothing.
The term labor refers to the physical and mental talents of humans used to produce goods and services
(with the exception of a certain set of human talents, entrepreneurial skills, which will be considered
separately because of their special significance). Thus the services of a factory worker or an office worker, a
ballet (37) ___________ or an astronaut all fall under the general heading of labor.
Question 33: A. production B. using C. plant D. doing
Question 34: A. calling B. with C. using D. by
Question 35 A. come B. such C. go D. so
Question 36: A. lately B. the latter C. the latest D. later
Question 37: A. writer B. performance C. director D. dancer
(1) The ocean bottom - a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth - is a vast
frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deepocean floor
was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light
and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth's surface, the deep-ocean
bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer
space.
(2) Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the
first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of
the National Science Foundation's Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP). Using techniques first developed for
the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP's drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady
position on the ocean's surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from
the ocean floor.
(3) The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in
November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core
samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger's core
samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundreds of millions of years ago
and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength
of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger's voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories
of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
(4) The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to
understanding the world's past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back
hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense
chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record
has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change - information that may be
used to predict future climates.
Question 38: The author refers to the ocean bottom as a "frontier" because it______.
A. is not a popular area for scientific research B. contains a wide variety of life forms
C. attracts courageous explorers D. is an unknown territory
Question 39: The word "inaccessible" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. unrecognizable B. unreachable C. unusable D. unsafe
Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine. B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on nearly 100 voyages. D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 41: The deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was______.
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists form all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Question 42: The word "strength" in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to______.
A. basis B. purpose C. discovery D. endurance
(1) After the Anasazi abandoned southwestern Colorado in the late 1200s or early 1300s, history’s
pages are blank. The Anasazi were masons and apartment builders who occupied the deserts, river valleys,
and mesas of this region for over a thousand years, building structures that have weathered the test of time.
(2) The first Europeans to visit southwestern Colorado were the ever-restless, ambitious Spanish, who
sought gold, pelts, and slaves. In 1765, under orders from the Spanish governor in Santa Fe, Juan Maria
Antonio Rivera led a prospecting and trading party into the region. Near the Dolores River in southwestern
Colorado, he found some insignificant silver-bearing rocks, and it is thought that it was he who named the
mountains nearby the Sierra de la Plata or the Silver Mountains. Rivera found little of commercial value that
would interest his superiors in Santa Fe, but he did open up a route that would soon lead to the establishment
of the Old Spanish Trail. This expedition and others to follow left names on the land which are only
reminders we have today that the Spanish once explored this region.
(3) In 1776, one of the men who had accompanied Rivera, Andre Muniz, acted as a guide for another
expedition. That party entered southwestern Colorado in search of a route west to California, traveling near
today’s towns of Durango and Dolores. Along the way, they camped at the base of a large green mesa which
today carries the name Mesa Verde. They were the first Europeans to record the discovery of an Anasazi
archeological site in southwestern Colorado.
(4) By the early 1800s, American mountain men and trappers were exploring the area in their quest for
beaver pelts. Men like Peg-leg Smith were outfitted with supplies in the crossroads trapping town of Taos,
New Mexico. These adventurous American trappers were a tough bunch. They, possibly more than any other
newcomers, penetrated deeply into the mountain fastness of southwestern Colorado, bringing back valuable
information about the area and discovering new routes through the mountains. One of the trappers, William
Becknell, the father of the Santa Fe Trail, camped in the area of Mesa Verde, where he found pottery shards,
stone houses, and other Anasazi remains.
Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The Spanish influence in Colorado. B. The history of the Anasazi in Colorado.
C. Early exploration of Colorado. D. Economic exploitation of Colorado.
Question 44: The phrase “the region” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. Sierra de la Plata B. Santa Fe
C. southwestern Colorado D. New Mexico
Question 45: It can be concluded from the lines 10-11 that ______.
A. many places have Spanish names.
B. Rivera’s expedition was unsuccessful.
C. not much is known of the Spanish exploration of the region.
D. the Spanish culture quickly overtook the native culture.
Question 46: The purpose of the expedition of 1776 was______.
A. to look for a way to reach California B. to study the archaeology of the region
C. to look for silver in the mountains D. to build the towns of Durango and Dolores
Question 47: In paragraph 4, the author suggests that______.
A. American trappers traded with the Spanish
B. mountain men and trappers survived in harsh conditions
C. Peg-leg Smith owned a trading post in New Mexico
D. beaver pelts were becoming scarce in Colorado in the 1800s
Question 48: Which of the following is most likely true about William Becknell?
A. He collected Anasazi pottery. B. He was well-educated about the Anasazi culture.
C. He built the Santa Fe Trail. D. He was wealthy from selling beaver pelts.
Question 49: Which of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
A. A comparison of Spanish and American expeditions.
B. A description of southwestern Colorado.
C. An illustration of archaeological discovery.
D. A historical account of southwestern Colorado.
Question 50: Which of the following sentences should NOT be included in a summary of this passage?
A. The discovery of gold and silver changed Colorado history.
B. The Anasazi were early inhabitants of Colorado.
C. The Spanish were the first Europeans to explore Colorado.
D. Economic interests influenced the exploration of Colorado.
Question 1: A. entertain B. natural C. educate D. changeable
Question 2: A. finished B. influenced C. advertised D. helped
Question 3: A. arithmetic B. electronic C. systematic D. automatic
Question 4: A. employee B. refugee C. committee D. absentee
Question 5: One another (A) surprising (B) method of forest conservation is (C) controlled cutting (D) of
trees.
Question 6: There are many frequently (A) mentioned (B) reasons why one out of four arrests (C) involve
(D) a juvenile.
Question 7: The US Congress passed the National Banks Acts, which set up (A) a system of privately owned
banks (B) chartered (C) by a federal government (D).
questions.
Question 8: Narcissus bulbs _____ at least three inches apart and covered with about for inches of
welldrained soil.
A. must plant B. should be planted
C. should have been planted D. should be planting
Question 9: Who was the first person _____ the South Pole?
A. to reach B. who reaches C. reached D. reaching
Question 10: Despite its wide range of styles and instrumentation, country music has certain common
features _____ its own special character.
A. give it that B. give which C. that gives it to D. that give it
Question 11: The fraction 3/5 is pronounced _____.
A. third-fives B. three-five C. three over fifth D. three-fifths
Question 12: _____ he was lazy, he failed the exam.
A. So B. Consequently C. Thus D. Now that
Question 13: The _ of the human body towards the elements and disease is one of the miracles of all time.
A. sensitivity B. sensibility C. resistance D. resilience
Question 14: _____ the crying baby into my arms, he mumbled his thanks and dashed off.
A. Delivering B. Thrusting C. Squeezing D. Putting
Question 15: Thank you very much. I haven’t been to _____ party for ages.
A. so enjoyable B. a so enjoyable C. the so enjoyable D.so enjoyable a
Question 16: The bullet missed me by _____.
A. a hair’s breadth B. the breadth of a hair C. a breadth of a hair D. the hair’s breadth
Question 17: __________, I still was able to get to the top of the mountain.
A. Even though unfit B. Unfit as I was
C. While ever out of condition D. Much as I’m unfit
Question 18: The steep ________ of the land makes cultivation difficult.
A. ascent B. elevation C. rise D. slope
Question 19: You’re putting the cart before the _______ of you work on Project B before Project A because
the former is a sequel to the latter.
A. horse B. dog C. buffalo D. ox
Question 20: This city has four million _____.
A. residents B. inhabitants C. dwellers D. settlers
Question 21: You are welcome _____ any books in the library.
A. to B. with C. for D. by
Question 22: – Clerk: “Good morning, and welcome to Vietcombank. How can I help you?”
– Customer: “_____. What kind of accounts do you have?”
A. I’d like to withdraw some money. B. I’d like to borrow a loan from the bank.
C. I’d like to open a savings account. D. I’d like to deposit some money into my account.
Question 23: – Emma: “What’s the matter, Kevin? _____.”
– Kevin: “There are so many courses on the website. I don’t know which ones to take.”
A. You look very excited. B. You seem very tired.
C. You look very disappointed. D. You seem very puzzled
Question 24: Although the staff did expand somewhat, for the first century of its existence, the entire
teaching staff considered of the president and three or four tutors.
A. back and forth B. to and fro C. more or less D. side by side
Question 25: To remedy this situation, the Constitution of the United States, approved in 1789, allowed
Congress to issue money.
A. resolve B. medicate C. understand D. renew
Question 26: The police tried in vain to break up the protest crowds in front of the government building;
further measures needed to be employed.
A. unskillfully B. violently C. effectively D. eventually
Question 27: Tony would never forget the look of intense anguish on the face of his parents when they heard
the news of his failure in the exam.
A. delight B. sadness C. misery D. surprise
Question 28: Had I noticed that Joanne was crying, I would have called you.
A. If Joanne had been crying, I would have called you.
B. I did not see that Joanne was crying or I would have called you.
C. I called you because it was clear that Joanne was crying.
D. Joanne was crying because I had called you.
Question 29: The truth is hurtful, but you have to accept it.
A. Hurtful as is the truth, you have to accept it.
B. Hurtful as it is, you have to accept the truth.
C. Much as hurtful the truth is, you have to accept it.
D. In spite of the truth is hurtful, you have to accept it.
Question 30: By the time my friends arrive, we will have finished dinner.
A. My friends will have got here by dinner time.
B. We will be finishing dinner when my friends arrive.
C. Dinner will be finished when my friends get here.
D. My friends are arriving in time for dinner.
Question 31: He was able to finish his book. It was because his wife helped him.
A. If only he had been able to finish his book
B. If his wife had helped him, he couldn’t have finished his book
C. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t have finished his book
D. Without his wife’s help, he couldn’t finish his book
Question 32: The essay is too short. It can’t be given a high grade.
A. It is too short an essay to earn a high grade.
B. The essay needs to be shorter to receive a high grade.
C. Even if it were longer, the essay would not get a higher grade.
D. The essay is so short that it can be given a high grade.
AS OLD AS YOU FEEL
It might after all be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying out new high-
tech tests to calculate the “real” biological age of patients (33) ______ on the rate of physical deterioration.
Information on every aspect of a patient’s health, fitness, lifestyle and family medical history is (34) ______
into a computer to work out whether they are older or younger than their calendar age suggests.
The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has prompted one leading British gerontologist to
call for biological age to be used to determine when workers should retire. He (35) ______ that if an
employee’s biological or “real” age is shown, for example, to be 55 when he reaches his 65th birthday, he
should be incited to work for another decade. Apparently most employers only take into (36) ______ a
person’s calendar years, and the two may differ considerably. Some of those prepared to pay a substantial
sum of money for the examinations will be able to smugly walk away with medical evidence showing that
they really are as young as they feel, giving them the confidence to act and dress as if they were younger. Dr
Lynette Yong, resident doctor at the clinic where the tests are offered claims that the purpose of these tests
will be to motivate people to (37) _______ their health.
The concept of “real” age is set to become big business in the USA with books and websites helping
people work out whether their body is older or younger than their years. Others firmly believe that looks will
always be the best indicator of age.
Question 33: A. prospect B. arranged C. based D. established
Question 34: A. planned B. provided C. supplied D. fed
Question 35: A. argues B. discusses C. enquires D. debates
Question 36: A. detail B. account C. interest D. importance
Question 37: A. increase B. gain C. improve D. progress
(1) Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievements as an astronomer, he was a
scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also deeply
interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known accomplishments that
were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
(2) The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so divers had
to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that its design allowed
for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain underwater for several hours.
(3) The diving contraption that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that measured three feet
across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers comfortably; it was open at the
bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built of wood, which was first heavily
tarred to make it water repellent and was then covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy
enough to sink in water. The bell shape held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
(4) The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the bell, air
was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close to the bell itself.
Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell. The diver could breathe
the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the bell wearing a diving suit that
consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window and a leather body suit, with a leather
pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
Question 38: The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s _____.
A. childhood B. work as an astronomer
C. invention of the diving bell D. many different interests
Question 39: Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it _____.
A. was bigger B. provided more air
C. weighed less D. could rise more quickly
Question 40: How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell?
A. Just a few seconds B. Only a few minutes C. For days on end D. For hours at a time
Question 41: It is NOT stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _____.
A. was completely enclosed B. was wider at the top than at the bottom
C. could hold more than one diver D. was made of tarred wood
Question 42: The expression “at will” in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by
A. in the future B. upside down C. as they wanted D. with great speed
(1) As the twentieth century began, the importance of formal education in the United States increased.
The frontier had mostly disappeared and by 1910 most Americans lived in towns and cities. Industrialization
and the bureaucratization of economic life combined with a new emphasis upon credentials and expertise to
make schooling increasingly important for economic and social mobility. Increasingly, too, schools were
viewed as the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society.
(2) The arrival of a great wave of southern and eastern European immigrants at the turn of the century
coincided with and contributed to an enormous expansion of formal schooling. By 1920 schooling to age
fourteen or beyond was compulsory in most states, and the school year was greatly lengthened.
Kindergartens, vacation schools, extracurricular activities, and vocational education and counseling extended
the influence of public schools over the lives of students, many of whom in the larger industrial cities were
the children of immigrants. Classes for adult immigrants were sponsored by public schools, corporations,
unions, churches, settlement houses, and other agencies.
(3) Reformers early in the twentieth century suggested that education programs should suit the needs of
specific populations. Immigrant women were once such population. Schools tried to educate young women
so they could occupy productive places in the urban industrial economy, and one place many educators
considered appropriate for women was the home.
(4) Although looking after the house and family was familiar to immigrant women, American
education gave homemaking a new definition. In preindustrial economies, homemaking had meant the
production as well as the consumption of goods, and it commonly included income-producing activities both
inside and outside the home, in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States, however,
overproduction rather than scarcity was becoming a problem. Thus, the ideal American homemaker was
viewed as a consumer rather than a producer. Schools trained women to be consumer homemakers cooking,
shopping, decorating, and caring for children "efficiently" in their own homes, or if economic necessity
demanded, as employees in the homes of others. Subsequent reforms have made these notions seem quite
out-of-date.
Question 43: The paragraph preceding the passage probably discusses _____.
A. the industrialization and the bureaucratization of economic life the United States in the nineteen
century
B. the formal schooling in the United States in the nineteen century
C. the urbanization in the United States in the nineteen century
D. the most important means of integrating immigrants into American society in the nineteen century
Question 44: It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that one important factor in the increasing importance
of education in the United States was _____.
A. the expanding economic problems of schools
B. the growing number of schools in frontier communities
C. an increase in the number of trained teachers
D. the increased urbanization of the entire country
Question 45: The phrase "coincided with" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. happened at the same time as B. ensured the success of
C. was influenced by D. began to grow rapidly
Question 46: According to the passage, one important change in United States education by the 1920's
was that _____.
A. the amount of time spent on formal education was limited
B. new regulations were imposed on nontraditional education
C. adults and children studied in the same classes
D. most places required children to attend school
Question 47: According to the passage, early-twentieth century education reformers believed that _____.
A. special programs should be set up in frontier communities to modernize them
B. corporations and other organizations damaged educational progress
C. different groups needed different kinds of education
D. more women should be involved in education and industry
Question 48: The word "it" in line 19 refers to _____.
A. education B. consumption C. production D. homemaking
Question 49: Women were trained to be consumer homemakers as a result of _____.
A. scarcity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
B. economic necessity in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
C. income-producing activities in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
D. overproduction in the highly industrialized early-twentieth-century United States
Question 50: Which paragraph mentions the importance of abilities and experience in formal schooling?
A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 4 C. Paragraph 1 D. Paragraph 3
TRÊN LỚP TỰ LÀM- TỰ SỬA ĐỀ THI THỬ THPTQG NĂM 2019
ĐỀ 09 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. opinion B. powerful C. accurate D. comfortable
Question 2: A. completion B. material C. understand D. behavior
Question 3: James: “It was very kind of you to give me a lift home.”
Pete: “__________”
A. As a matter of fact, you’re pretty nice.
B. Oh, don’t do that. I was coming past your house any way.
C. I’m not pleased.
D. Oh, don’t mention it. I was coming past your house any way.
Question 4: Billy and Bobby are in a coffee shop. Billy is asking Bobby for his opinion about the coffee
there.
Billy: “How’s the coffee here?”
Bobby: “__________”
A. No, I don’t think so. B. It’s a little bitter, to tell the truth.
C. It’s a little better now that I’ve got a car. D. As a matter of fact, I’m not interested.
Question 5: Marie Curie was a famous mathematician and physicist. She also won the Nobel Prize for
chemistry.
A. Winning the Nobel Prize for chemistry, Marie Curie became a famous mathematician and physicist.
B. Marie Curie, a famous mathematician and physicist, also won the Nobel Prize for chemistry.
C. Marie Curie was a famous mathematician rather than a physicist although she won the Nobel Prize for
chemistry.
D. Marie Curie won the the Nobel Prize for chemistry so she was a famous mathematician and physicist.
Question 6: Jack was over confident. Therefore, he ruined our plan completely.
A. It was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
B. It was because Jack’s overconfidence that ruined our plan completely.
C. Jack was overconfident, which ruined our plan completely.
D. That was Jack’s overconfidence ruined our plan completely.
questions.
Question 7: Today, many serious childhood diseases _____ by early immunization.
A. prevent B. can prevent C. can be prevented D. are preventing
Question 8: _____ I’ve cleaned it and polished it, it still doesn’t look new.
A. Because B. In spite of C. While D. Although
Question 9: The Beauty Contest is _____ start at 8.30 a.m our time tomorrow.
A. due to B. bound to C. about to D. on the point of
Question 10: The picture, _____, was beautiful.
A. she was looking B. at it she was looking
C. at which she was looking D. at that she was looking
Question 11: In this job, experience accounts for more than paper _____.
A. qualifications B. certificates C. quality D. background
Question 12: Nadine: “I’ve been offered $550 for my stereo. Should I take it or wait for a better one?”
Kitty: “Take the $550. _____”
A. Actions speak louder than words. B. Kill two birds with one stone.
C. The early bird catches the worm. D. A bird in the hand is worth two in the bush.
Question 13: Jenny: “What did your grammar teacher want to talk to you about?”
Peter: “I did badly on the last test. She _____ studied for it.”
A. said why I hadn’t B. said why hadn’t I C. asked why I hadn’t D. asked why hadn’t I
Question 14: _____ summer I spent in _____ UK was one of _____ best in my life.
A. A/a/the B. The/the/a C. The/–/the D. The/the/the
Question 15: Whenever a problem ____, we try to discuss frankly and find solutions as soon as possible.
A. comes by B. comes off C. comes up D. comes in
Question 16: I bought this grammar book _____ I could go over all the things we have studied this year.
A. that B. with a view to C. so that D. in order to
Question 17: If people paid a little more attention to the environment, the Earth _____ greener.
A. would be B. will be C. would have been D. had been
Question 18: Lessons from the _____ developed countries are worth learning to save our time.
A. economically B. economic C. economize D. economical
Question 19: The accident _____ while he was driving to the office.
A. was occurred B. occurred C. has occurred D. was being occurred
Question 20: Floods have completely _____ the farmer’s crops.
A. ruined B. damaged C. harmed D. injured
Question 21: I was very busy lately since the project of designing the new collection started.
A. was B. since C. the project D. the new collection
Question 22: There are many different ways of comparing the culture of one nation with those of another.
A. There are B. of comparing C. those D. another
Question 23: She only had a twenty–dollars bill with her when she landed at Hearthrow airport.
A. had B. twenty–dollars bill C. when D. at
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
option for each of the blanks.
The Rocky Mountains run almost the length of North America. They start in the North West, but lie
only a (24) _____ hundred miles from the centre in the more southern areas. Although the Rockies are
smaller (25) _____ the Alps, they are no less beautiful.
There are many roads across the Rockies, but the best way to see them is to travel by train. You start
from Vancouver, the most attractive of Canada’s big cities. Standing with its feet in the water and its (26)
______in the mountains, this city (27) ______ its residents to ski on slopes just 15 minutes by car from the
city centre.
Thirty passenger trains a day used to (28) _____ off from Vancouver on the cross–continent railway.
Now there are just three a week, but the ride is still a great adventure. You sleep on board, which is fun, but
travel through some of the best site at night.
Question 24: A. many B. few C. lot D. couple
Question 25: A. from B. to C. than D. as
Question 26: A. ear B. hand C. head D. nose
Question 27: A. lets B. offers C. gives D. allows
Question 28: A. leave B. set C. get D. take
answer to each of the questions.
The New York Times is a daily newspaper published in New York city. For a long time, it has been the
newspaper of record in the United States and one of the world’s great newspapers. Its strength is in its
editorial excellence; it has never been the largest newspaper in terms of circulation.
The Times was established in 1851 as a penny paper whose editors wanted to report the news in a
restrained and objective fashion. It enjoyed early success as its editors set a pattern for the future by
appealing to a cultured, intellectual readership instead of a mass audience. However, in the late nineteenth
century, it came into competition with more popular, colorful, if not lurid, newspapers in New York City.
Despite price increases, the Times was losing $1,000 a week when Adolph Simon Ochs bought it in 1896.
Ochs built the Times into an internationally respected daily. He hired Carr Van Anda as editor. Van
Anda placed greater stress than ever on full reporting of the news of the day, and his reporters maintained
and emphasized existing good coverage of international news. The management of the paper decided to
eliminate fiction from the paper, added a Sunday magazine section, and reduced the paper’s price back to a
penny. In April 1912, the paper took many risks to report every aspect of the sinking of the Titanic. This
greatly enhanced its prestige, and in its coverage of two world wars, the Times continued to enhance its
reputation for excellence in world news.
In 1971, the Times was given a copy of the so–called “Pentagon Papers,” a secret government study of
U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War. When it published the report, it became involved in several awsuits.
The U.S. Supreme Court found that the publication was protected by the freedom–of–thepress clause in the
First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution. Later in the 1970s, the paper, under Adolph Ochs’s grandson,
Arthur Ochs Sulzberger, introduced sweeping changes in the organization of the newspaper and its staff and
brought out a national edition transmitted by satellite to regional printing plants.
Question 29: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The New York Times publishes the best fiction by American writers.
B. The New York Times became highly respected throughout the world.
C. The New York Times broadcasts its news to TV stations via satellite.
D. The New York Times lost its prestige after the Vietnam War.
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that the circulation of the New York Times is _____.
A. not the best in the world B. the smallest in the world
C. the worst in the world D. not the largest in the world
Question 31: Which phrase is closest in meaning to the word “restrained” in paragraph 2?
A. Put in prison B. With self–control C. Without education D. In handcuffs
Question 32: What word or phrase does the word “his” as used in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Van Anda B. Reporters C. News of the day D. International news
Question 33: To improve its circulation, the management of the Times did all of the following EXCEPT_.
A. emphasized good coverage of international news
B. increased the number of lurid stories, even if they were not true
C. added a Sunday magazine section
D. eliminated fiction from the paper
Question 34: When floodwaters recede, affected areas are often blanketed in silt and mud. The water and
landscape can be contaminated with hazardous materials, such as sharp debris, pesticides, fuel, and
untreated sewage.
A. to cover completely with thick layer of something B. to expose to the open air comfortably
C. to provide someone with a protective layer D. to dig out something hidden for long
Question 35: When you change a sound file to an MP3, the file is compressed.
A. transformed B. precise C. made bigger D.made smaller
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that pf the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 36: A. tea B. lead C. leather D. leave
Question 37: A. followed B. jumped C. rained D. arrived
correct answer to each of the questions.
The ideas of John Dewey, philosopher and educator, have influenced American thought for over one
hundred years. Dewey was born in Vermont in 1859, and throughout his life, he kept the respect for
experience, individuality, and fair play that shaped the character of the nineteenth–century Vermonter. He
viewed his own life as a continuously reconstructive process–with experience and knowledge building to
each other.
By the 1930s, Dewey had simplified his theory of experience to its essence. As the intellectual leader
of the progressive schools, he asserted that there was danger in rejecting the old unless the new was rooted in
a correct idea of experience. He held that experience is an interaction between what a person already knows
and the situation at hand. Previous knowledge interacting with the present environment influences future
experience.
Dewey believed that experience could not be equated with education because all experiences are not
necessarily educative. Experience is educative only when it contributes to the growth of the individual, but it
can be miseducative if it distorts the growth of future experience. It is the quality of experience that matters.
Thus, productive experience is both the means and the goal of education. Furthermore, since education is a
social process, truly progressive education involves the participation of the learner in directing the learning
experience.
During his long life, Dewey lectured and published prolifically. These writings were influential both
during his lifetime and after his death at the age of ninety–two. He viewed his whole life as an experiment
which would produce knowledge that would lead to the further experimentation. The range and diversity of
Dewey’s writings and his influence on society place him among American’s great thinkers.
A. John Dewey’s theory of experience. B. The educational methods of John Dewey.
C. John Dewey’s professional growth. D. The progressive movement in education.
Question 39: The author implies that Dewey’s Vermont background _____.
A. provided him with an excellent education
B. limited the types of experiences he had as a child
C. inspired him to become a philosopher
D. contributed to his philosophy of experience
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. progressive education B. theory of experience C. the 1930s D. the old
Question 41: According to Jon Dewey, the interplay between a person’s previous knowledge and the
present situation is _____.
A. dangerous B. a rejection of the old
C. education D. a correct idea of experience
Question 42: The word “distorts” in paragraph 3 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. balances B. deforms C. mislays D. stimulates
Question 43: All of the following were part of Dewey’s theory of experience and education EXCEPT __.
A. present experience affects future experience B. knowledge and experience interact
C. experience is always education D. experience should develop the individual
Question 44: According to Dewey, progressive education should include _____.
A. the active participation of the student B. both positive and negative experiences
C. complete rejection of traditional methods D. directing new social process
Question 45: The word “prolifically” in paragraph 4 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. carefully B. progressively C. abundantly D. intellectually
Question 46: We had no sooner got to know our neighbors than they moved away.
A. Sooner after we got to know our new neighbors, we stopped having contact with them.
B. If our new neighbors had stayed longer, we would have got to know them better.
C. Once we had got used to our new neighbors, they moved somewhere else.
D. Hardly had we become acquainted with our new neighbors when they went somewhere else to live.
Question 47: There were so many people on the train that Mary couldn’t get a seat.
A. The train was too crowded for Mary to get a seat.
B. The train was so crowded that there were nowhere for Mary to sit.
C. So crowded the train was that Mary couldn’t get a seat.
D. The crowded train did not prevent Mary from getting a seat.
Question 48: “I’ll speak calmly. I really will!” He said.
A. He promised to speak calmly. B. He reminded me to speak calmly.
C. He refused to speak calmly. D. He offered to speak calmly.
Question 49: Oil is one of the principal sources of energy.
A. most important B. most difficult C. most popular D. most expensive
Question 50: The museum was overrun with tourists, so I decided to go back another city.
A. having no tourists B. not having enough tourists
C. crowded with tourists D. having tourists running
Question 1: A. attract B. across C. actor D. factor
Question 2: A. collect B. concept C. conceal D. consume
Question 3: A. introduce B. volunteer C. understand D. mechanized
Question 4: A. mushroom B. mountain C. movement D. moustache
Question 5: It was not until (A) the late 1970s when (B) these country people could enjoy (C) the benefits
(D) of electricity.
Question 6: Neither (A) the director nor any (B) members of the staff is (C) working overtime (D) today.
Question 7: A big wedding requires (A) a lot of preparation (B), such as sending invitations (C), hiring
costumes and choose (D) dishes.
questions.
Question 8: A : Do you mind if we schedule the meeting for 11 o’clock?
B : Well, actually, I _____ earlier.
A. will prefer it B. would prefer it to be
C. am preferring D. should prefer it will be
Question 9: This statue is a lifelike _____ of Christ Jesus.
A. presentation B. presenting C. representation D. representative
Question 10: My brother had his camera _____ from his car in the office car-park.
A. lost B. robbed C. missed D. stolen
Question 11: The living conditions in the rural areas of the country _____ during the past five years.
A. have been improved B. had improved C. had been improved D. were improved
Question 12: ASEAN _____ Association of Southeast Asian Nations, a regional organization which
promotes intergovernmental cooperation and facilitates economic integration amongst its members.
A. takes over B. stands for C. represents as D. replaces with
Question 13: It is not _____ to be drunk in the street.
A. respecting B. respectably C. respectful D. respectable
Question 14: All his plans for starting his own business fell _____.
A. in B. through C. down D. away
Question 15: I had a_____, which I couldn’t explain, that something terrible was going to happen.
A. feeling B. view C. sense D. thought
Question 16: He will do the work and then send you the _____ for it.
A. addition B. sum C. note D. bill
Question 17: The man who lives opposite us sometimes comes _____ for a cup of coffee.
A. over B. off C. on D. to
Question 18: Being well-dress and punctual can help you create a good _____ on your interview.
A. effectiveness B. pressure C. employment D. impression
Question 19: _____ hard he has worked, he hardly supports his family of ten people.
A. However B. Although C. Despite D. In spite
Question 20: Floods have completely _____ the farmer’s crops.'
A. ruined B. damaged C. harmed D. injured
Question 21: You are welcome _____ any books in the library.'
A. to B. with C. for D. by
Question 22: – Mr. Black: “What shall I do when I want to call you?”
– Nurse: “_____.”
A. You shall find the red button. B. Press the red button on the left.
C. I’d come every ten minutes. D. Stay here and enjoy yourself.
Question 23: – Customer: “Can I have a look at that pullover, please?”
– Salesgirl: “_____.”
A. It’s much cheaper. B. Which one? This one?
C. Sorry, it is out of stock. D. Can I help you?
Question 24: We decided to pay for the furniture on the installment plan.
A. monthly payment B. cash and carry C. credit card D. piece by piece
Question 25: The last week of classes is always very busy because students are taking examinations, making
applications to the University, and extending their visas.
A. hectic B. eccentric C. fanatic D. prolific
Question 26: At school, people always used to take the mickey out of him for having red hair.
A. to say he is like Mickey Mouse B. to tease or make fun of
C. to hurt someone badly D. to give a compliment
Question 27: The girl has a bazillion clothes already, she does not need to buy any more.
A. a great deal of B. a heap of C. a good number D.a small amount
Question 28: “We lost the last game because of the referee”, said the team captain.
A. The team captain refused to tell the referee about their loss in the last game.
B. The team captain admitted to the referee that they had lost the last game.
C. The team captain blamed the referee for their loss in the last game.
D. The team captain said that without the referee, they might have lost the last game.
Question 29: For a cold, doctors often recommend that you rest and drink lots of fluids.
A. The doctors recommend that you have cold soft drinks.
B. Doctors would rather give advic about colds than about fluids.
C. Rest and liquids are frequently advised for treatment of colds.
D. You were told to come in out of the cold and rest.
Question 30: “You shouldn’t sit up until you feel better.” the doctor said to me.
A. The doctor ordered me to sit up if I wanted to feel better.
B. The doctor advised me not to sit up until I feel better.
C. The doctor told me that if I wanted to feel better, I should sit up.
D. The doctor suggested I should sit up until I feel better.
Question 31: I didn’t know that you were at home. I didn’t drop in.
A. I didn’t know you were at home although I didn’t drop in.
B. Not knowing that you were at home, I didn’t drop in.
C. If I knew that you were at home, I would drop in.
D. Not knowing that you were at home, but I still dropped in.
Question 32: We spray pesticides and fertilizers on our crops. Some pesticides and fertilizers are found
dangerous.
A. We spray pesticides and fertilizers, which are found dangerous, on our crops.
B. The pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are to be found dangerous.
C. We spray pesticides and fertilizers on our crops, which is found dangerous.
D. Some of the pesticides and fertilizers we spray on our crops are found dangerous.
CARE was (33) _____ in 1945 to help people after World War II. It distributed over 100 million food
(34) _____. Meanwhile, it was starting self-help programs. Today it has development programs in 37
countries. CARE gives equipment and (35) _____ people how to build water systems, roads, schools and
health centers. It also teaches people how to increase production on farms, how to reforest areas, and how to
(36) _____ small village industries. Doctors and nurses volunteer to go to villages. They provide health care
for the people. They also teach people how to improve their health. They train people to provide (37) _____
medical care. CARE also provides food for about 30 million people every year. Most of them are children. It
gives special help where there is a flood, an earthquake, a drought or a war.
Question 33: A. founded B. build C. found D. constructed
Question 34: A. packages B. wraps C. parcels D. pieces
Question 35: A. says B. tells C. orders D. informs
Question 36: A. start B. begin C. take up D. turn on
Question 37: A. elementary B. only C. easy D. primitive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate themcorrect
LEVELS OF VOCABULARY
Most languages have several levels of vocabulary that may be used by the same speakers. In English, at
least three have been identified and described.
Standard usage includes those words and expressions understood, used, and accepted by a majority of
the speakers of a language in any situation regardless of the level of formality. As such, these words and
expressions are well defined and listed in standard dictionaries. Colloquialisms, on the other hand, are
familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in informal
speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations. Almost all idiomatic expressions
are colloquial language. Slang, refers to words and expressions understood by a large number of speakers but
not accepted as appropriate formal usage by the majority.
Colloquial expressions and even slang may be found in standard dictionaries but will be so identified.
Both colloquial usage and slang are more common in speech than writing. Colloquial speech often passes
into standard speech. Some slang also passes into standard speech, but other slang expressions enjoy
momentary popularity followed by obscurity. In some cases, the majority never accepts certain slang phrases
but nevertheless retains them in their collective memories. Every generation seems to require its own set of
words to describe familiar objects and events.
It has been pointed out by a number of linguists that three cultural conditions are necessary for the
creation of a large body of slang expressions. First, the introduction and acceptance of new objects and
situations in the society; second, a diverse population with a large number of subgroups; third, association
among the subgroups and the majority population.
Finally, it is worth noting that the terms “standard”, “colloquial”, and “slang” exist only as abstract
labels for scholars who study language. Only a tiny number of the speakers of any language will be aware
that they are using colloquial or slang expressions. Most speakers of English will, during appropriate
situations, select and use three types of expressions.
Question 38: Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?
A. Standard speech B. Idiomatic phrases
C. Different types of vocabulary D. Dictionary usage.
Question 39: How is slang defined by the author?
A. Words and phrases accepted by the majority of formal usage.
B. Words or phrases understood by the majority but not found in standard dictionaries.
C. Words or phrases that are understood by a restricted group of speakers.
D. Words or phrases understood by a large number of speakers but not accepted as formal usage.
Question 40: The word “appropriate” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. old B. large C. correct D. important
Question 41: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. words B. slang phrases C. memories D. the majority
Question 42: What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 2: “Colloquialisms, on the other
hand, are familiar words and idioms that are understood by almost all speakers of a language and used in
informal speech or writing, but not considered acceptable for more formal situations.”?
A. Familiar words and phrases are found in both speech and writing in formal settings.
B. Familiar situations that are experienced by most people are called colloquialisms.
C. Informal language contains colloquialisms, which are not found in more formal language.
D. Most of the speakers of a language can used both formal and informal speech in their appropriate
situations.
In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea
mountains: the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of
these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946.
He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these
truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty
of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean
but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed
to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where
the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below
the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not
really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops of guyots has recovered
basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once islands. Some of
this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two
processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of
the sea rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11,000 years ago.
Question 43: What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To describe feature of the undersea world.
B. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains.
Question 44: The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. hide B. create C. erode D. contain
Question 45: The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of _____.
A. a deep-sea diving expedition B. computer analysis
C. research submarines D. a fathometer
Question 46: What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there.
B. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.
D. No guyots have ever been found there.
Question 47: The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics
in common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
C. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
D. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
Question 48: According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of _____.
A. between 600 and 3,200 feet B. more than 8,200 feet
C. less than 600 feet D. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet
Question 49: According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the
submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. High tides and earthquakes.
D. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents.
Question 50: According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. From 8,000 to 11,000 years B. In the nineteenth century
C. In 1946 D. 80 million years ago
Question 1: A. acronym B. admirable C. asset D. agency
Question 2: A. wicked B. shocked C. ragged D. legged
Question 3: A. resource B. sensible C. treatment D. vapour
Question 4: A. perversity B. supervisor C. miraculous D. conventional
Question 5: Neither (A) the director nor any (B) members of the staff is (C) working overtime (D) today.
Question 6: People live (A) in big cities (B) often have trouble (C) making friends (D).
Question 7: When attempt (A) to explain (B) children’s (C) good preferences, researchers are faced with (D)
contradictions.
questions.
Question 8: My supervisor is angry with me. I didn’t do all the work that I _____ last week.
A. must have done B. can have done C. may have done D. should have done
Question 9: The Mona Lisa, painted in Florence in 1504 by Leonardo da Vinci, is a name which is
perhaps more recognizable to people throughout the world _____ of da Vinci himself.
A. as that B. than C. than that D. more than
Question 10: Which phosphorus, a substance _____ in matches, is so flammable that it burst into flame upon
contact with the air.
A. is common B. common C. which being common D.being common, is
Question 11: If he _____ harder, he would have passed the exam.
A. studied B. had studied C. studies D. was studying
Question 12: My grandmother was a lovely person who_____ pleasure from helping others.
A. gathered B. derived C. deduced D. collected
Question 13: You have to _____ your revision tonight. Or it’s too late.
A. get over B. give out C. give away D. get through
Question 14: A child’s existence seems so_____ in the arms of its mother.
A. tight B. secure C. stable D. steady
Question 15: Despite her poor exam results, Alice put a _____ face on the situation.
A. tough B. courageous C. brave D. short
Question 16: My father has decided to _____ a beard to cover a small scar he has on his chin.
A. rear B. bring up C. breed D. grow
Question 17: The fall of the dictatorship of Miguel Primode Riverra _____ the establishment of the Second
Spanish Republic.
A. brought around B. set down C. set up D. brought about
Question 18: If you want a flat in the centre of the city, you have to pay through the _____ for it.
A. teeth B. back of your head C. nose D. arm
Question 19: Among bees _____ a highly elaborate form of communication.
A. it occurs B. occurs
C. it is an occurrence with D. occur
Question 20: As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _____.'
A. fall away B. fall out C. fall back D. fall over
Question 21: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy_____.'
A. sight B. view C. presence D. appearance
Question 22: – Anna: “Come on, Peter. I want to show you something?”
– Peter: “Oh how nice of you! I _____ you _____ to bring me a gift.”
A. never think/ are going B. never thought/ were going
C. didn’t think/ are going D. hadn’t though/ would be going
Question 23: – A: “Do you like pop music or jazz?”
– B: “_____. I prefer classical music.”
A. I don’t like any of them B. I like both of them
C. Of course D. I have no idea about it
Question 24: The red cross made an equitable distribution of the bread to the starving children.
A. just B. nutritious C. quick D. convenient
Question 25: On the second thought, I believe I will go with you to the theater.
A. On reflection B. For this time only
C. After discussing with my life D. For the second time
Question 26: Sales have been slow, but the market for contemporary art is expected to pick up soon.
A. worsen B. increase C. improve D. go up
Question 27: They’ll talk to us about the new project in detail.
A. briefly B. soon C. slowly D. rapidly
Question 28: I am much worse than Josh is at physics.
A. Josh is not nearly as bad at physics as I am. B. Josh is not quite as badly at physics as I am.
C. Josh is no any better at physics than me. D. Josh is such a better physics as me.
Question 29: We were already late for the show by the time we had found a taxi.
A. We found a taxi in order not to be late for show.
B. The taxi was late, so we missed the start of the show.
C. We eventually found a taxi to go to the show, which had already begun.
D. It took a long time to find a taxi but the show began later than expected.
Question 30: “You should take more care of your health or you may regret it,” the doctor said to her.
A. The doctor advised her to take more care of her health or she might regret it.
B. It will be a good idea if she takes more care of her health, otherwise she might regret it.
C. The doctor recommended her taking more care of her health so that she wouldn’t regret it.
D. She might regret taking more care of her health, which was the doctor’s advice to her.
Question 31: You need time to arrange a party. If not, it is better not to have one.
A. It is not worth having a party if you do not have time to organize it.
B. Do not have a party because it will take too much time to organize.
C. Organizing a party takes less time than you might expect.
D. Unless you enjoy organizing parties, you should not have one.
Question 32: The pop star is recognized wherever she goes. Therefore, she always has a bodyguard.
A. The pop star always has a bodyguard so that no one else can recognize her.
B. The pop star avoids recognition wherever she goes by having a bodyguard.
C. Recognized wherever she goes, the pop star always has a bodyguard.
D. Recognizing her wherever she goes, a bodyguard is always at her side.
All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil
does not contain enough (33) _____ nutrients, some plants have adapted to supplement their diets from
another source: living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (34)_____
fascinating beings that “eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are
commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey,
which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400
species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more prevalent than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are
easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together.
Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (35) _____ to movement. When the plant’s
prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together,
trapping the prey securely inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (36)_____ speed: the time
between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it
only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their grip. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from
special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only
one other type of snap trap exists today, (37)_____ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common
ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is
exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the
waterwheel lives off simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.
Question 33: A. critical B. vital C. crucial D. indispensable
Question 34: A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet
Question 35: A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive
Question 36: A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits of
Question 37: A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated
Our eyes and ears might be called transformers because they send the light and sound around us and
turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These electrical impulses that have been
transformed by the eyes and ears reach the brain and are turned into massages that we can interpret. For the
eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the cornea and lens, and then focuses
them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve fibers bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and
then split into optic tracts. Some of the fibers cross so that part of the input from the right visual field goes
into the left side of the brain, and vice versa. The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that
are carried in fluid-filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. Sound that is transformed into
electricity travels along nerve fibers in the auditory nerve. These fibers form a synapse with neurons that
carry the massages to the auditory cortex on each side of the brain.
Question 38: According to the author, we might call our eyes and ears "transformers" because _____.
A. they sense light and sound B. the brain can interpret the input
C. they create electrical impulses D. the massages travel in the brain
Question 39: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “admits” in line 4?
A. focuses on B. interprets C. lets in D. selects
Question 40: What does the word “them” in line 2 refers to?
A. eyes and ears B. light and sound C. transformers D. electrical impulses
Question 41: According to the passage, when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of
the brain, what happens?
A. The nerve fibers bundle together. B. The optic nerves split.
C. The retina receives light waves. D. Input from the left field goes to the right side.
Question 42: The phrase “carried out” could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. brought over B. taken away C. accomplished D. maintained
Alzheimer's disease impairs a person's ability to recall memories, both distant and as recent as a few
hours before. Although there is not yet a cure for the illness, there may be hope for a cure with a protein
called nerve growth factor. The protein is produced by nerve cells in the same region of the brain where
Alzheimer's occurs. Based on this relationship, scientists from the University of Lund in Sweden and the
University of California at San Diego designed an experiment to test whether doses of nerve growth factor
could reverse the effects of memory loss caused by Alzheimer's. Using a group of rats with impaired
memory, the scientists gave half of the rats doses of nerve growth factor while giving the other half a blood
protein as a placebo, thus creating a control group. At the end of the four-week test, the rats given the nerve
growth factor performed equally to rats with normal memory abilities. While the experiments do not show
that nerve growth factor can stop the general process of deterioration caused by Alzheimer's, they do show
potential as a means to slowing the process significantly.
Question 43: With what topic is this passage mainly concerned?
A. Impaired memory of patients B. Cures for Alzheimer's disease
C. The use of rats as experimental subjects D. Nerve growth factor as a cure for Alzheimer's
Question 44: The word “impairs” in line 1 is most similar to which of the following?
A. affects B. destroys C. enhances D. diminishes
Question 45: According to the passage, where is nerve growth factor produced in the body?
A. In nerve cells in the spinal column B. In red blood cells in the circulatory system
C. In nerve cells in the brain D. In the pituitary gland
Question 46: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Alzheimer's disease is deadly.
B. Though unsuccessful, the experiments did show some benefits derived from nerve growth factor.
C. The experiments did not show any significant benefits from nerve growth factor.
D. More work needs to be done to understand the effects of nerve growth factor.
Question 47: The passage most closely resembles which of the following patterns of organization?
A. chronological order B. statement and illustration
C. cause – effect D. alphabetical order
Question 48: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "deterioration"?
A. depression B. deduction C. decline D. disconnection
Question 49: Which of the following could best replace the word "significantly"?
A. considerably B. knowingly C. suggestively D. tirelessly
Question 50: The relationship between nerve growth factor and a protein is similar to the relationship
between Alzheimer's and ______.
A. forgetfulness B. a disease C. a cure D. a cancer

Question 1: A. comfortable B. syllable C. able D. capable
Question 2: A. habitat B. protection C. essential D. priority
Question 3: A. community B. emotional C. conversion D. element
Question 4: A. pedestrian B. incredible C. vegetarian D. associate
Question 5: Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes (A) in the world, only (B) about 600 can classify (C) asactive
(D) ones.
Question 6: When I got to (A) the passport control, there was a long line (B) of people waited (C) show (D)
their passport.
Question 7: Finished (A) her household chores (B), Mary decided to do (C) some shopping (D).
questions.
Question 8: No one knows exactly _____.
A. how did speech begin B. how speech began
C. how the beginning of speech D. of how beginning speech
Question 9: The marathon, first staged in 1896, _____ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who carried
news of victory from the battle at Marathon to Athens.
A. commemorating B. was commemorated C. commemorated D. commemorates
Question 10: Neither my dad nor my mom _____ of the idea.
A. convinced B. have convinced C. was convinced D. were convinced
Question 11: Jacobson is often referred to _____ at the factory.
A. be the best engineer B. as the best engineer
C. by the president to be the best engineer D. as being the best engineer
Question 12: He was brave, _____ soldier fought so bravely in that battle.
A. no others B. no another C. no other D. no the others
Question 13: I took a course in shorthand and typing with a(n) _____ to applying for a secretarial job.
A. purpose B. intention C. view D. project
Question 14: Our teacher tends to _____ certain subjects which she finds difficult to talk about.
A. boil down B. string along C. skate over D. track down
Question 15: Monica was so angry about the noise her neighbors were making that she refused to _____ it
anymore.
A. get away with B. run away with C. put up with D.cut down on
Question 16: I _____ hope there won’t be a repetition of these unfortunate events.
A. bitterly B. sincerely C. unfailingly D. completely
Question 17: There was _____ evidence to bring charges against the man.
A. ineffective B. inadvisable C. interior D. insufficient
Question 18: If Michael _____ with his piano playing, he could eventually reach concert standard.
A. perseveres B. maintains C. survives D. sustains
Question 19: After you have finished the _, restart the computer to get it acquainted to the new program.
A. installation B. install C. installment D. installing
Question 20: I’ll never _____ the King of pop music for the first time.'
A. forget meet B. forget met C. forget to meet D. forget meeting
Question 21: I have never seen _____ festival in my life.'
A. so spectacular a B. a so spectacular C. a such spectacular D. such spectacular
Question 22: – Jones: “It seems to me that the summer is nice here.”
– Tam: “_____. It’s really lovely.”
A. You’re exactly right B. You’re dead wrong C. I couldn’t agree less D. You could be right
Question 23: – Anna: “In my opinion, children always watch too much TV.”
– Tom: “_____.”
A. Completely B. Of course C. Totally D. Absolutely
Question 24: The pilot miraculously servived the crash unscathed.
A. unsurprised B. unhurt C. unhappy D. undeterred
Question 25: Ponce de Leon searched in vain for a means of rejuvenating the aged.
A. making weary again B. making wealthy again
C. making young again D. making merry again
Question 26: Friendship changed to antipathy when the settlers took the Indian’s land.
A. fright B. hatred C. amity D. hostility
Question 27: During the five-decade history the Asian Games have been advancing in all aspects.
A. holding back B. holding to C. holding by D. holding at
Question 28: I will only work extra hours if I get paid at a higher rate.
A. I will not work extra hours even if I get paid at a higher rate.
B. Unless I get paid at a higher rate, I won’t work extra hours.
C. Working extra hours means I won’t get paid at a higher rate.
D. I get paid at a higher rate because I will work extra hours.
Question 29: Mr. Kha remembered to take everything except his front door key.
A. The only thing which Mr. Kha forgot was his front door key.
B. Mr. Kha remembered to take everything including his front door key.
C. The only thing that Mr. Kha remembered was his front door key.
D. Except his front door key, Mr. Kha forgot everything.
Question 30: Mrs. Gibson expressed her thanks for all the help she’d received.
A. Mrs. Gibson stated that she was happy for all the help she’d received.
B. Mrs. Gibson expressed she was surprised at all the help she’d received.
C. Mrs. Gibson reported she was amused at all the help she’d received.
D. Mrs. Gibson said that she was grateful for all the help she’d received.
Question 31: They finished one project. They started working on the next.
A. Had they finished one project, they would have started working on the next.
B. Only if they had finished one project did they start working on the next.
C. Hardly had they finished one project when they started working on the next.
D. Not until did they start working on the next project then they finished one.
Question 32: The proposal seemed like a good idea. The manager refused it.
A. The manager refused the proposal though it seemed like a good idea.
B. Since the proposal seemed like a good idea, the manager refused it.
C. The manager didn’t like to proposal because it didn’t seem a good idea.
D. The proposal didn’t seem like a good idea, so the manager didn’t accept it.
Reference books are not designed to be read from the first page to the last but rather to be consulted to
answer the questions and provide both general and specific pieces of information. One of the most (33)
_____ -used reference books is a dictionary, which provides information about words. It lists meanings and
spellings, tells how a word is pronounced, gives (34) _____ of how it is used, may reveal its origins and also
lists synonyms and antonyms. To help you find the words faster, there are guide words at the top of each
page showing the first and last words on that page - and of course it (35) _____ to know the alphabet!
There may be numerous special sections at the back with facts about famous people and places, lists of
dates and scientific names, etc. There is usually a section at the front (36) _____ how to use the dictionary,
which includes the special abbreviations or signs.
An atlas is also a reference book and it contains charts, tables and geographical facts, as well as maps.
Political maps locate countries and cities, physical maps show the formation of the land with its mountains
and valleys, and economic maps show industries and agriculture. To find a specific place, you need to look in
the (37) _____ at the back of the atlas and the exact position on the map. There are numerous map symbols
that you need to know in order to be able to read a map-almost like a special language-and these are
explained at the front of the atlas.
Question 33: A. greatly B. mainly C. widely D. largely
Question 34: A. evidence B. roof C. examples D. cases
Question 35: A. assists B. pays C. helps D. works
Question 36: A. explaining B. interpreting C. suggesting D. presenting
Question 37: A. foreword B. preface C. complement D. index
(1) The initial contact between American Indians and European settlers usually involved trade,
whereby Indians acquired tools and firearms and the Europeans obtained furs. These initial events usually
pitted Indian tribes against each other as they competed for the European trade and for the lands containing
fur-producing animals. When the furs had been depleted, the Europeans began a campaign to obtain the lands
the Indians occupied. The Indians often formed confederations and alliances to fight back the Europeans;
however, the Indians’ involvement in the white people’s wars usually disrupted these confederations. Indians
resisted the attempts by the whites to displace them. They fought defensive wars such as the Black Hawk
War in 1832. Indian uprisings also occurred, like the Sioux uprising in the 1860s.
(2) Despite the resistance of the Indians, the Europeans were destined to win the conflict. After Indian
resistance was crushed, the whites legitimized the taking of Indian lands by proposing treaties, frequently
offering gifts to Indian chiefs to get them sign the treaties. Once an Indian group had signed a treaty, the
whites proceeded to remove them from their land. Often the Indians were forced west of the Mississippi into
Indian Territory-land the whites considered uninhabitable. If only a few Indians remained after the conquest,
they were often absorbed by local tribes or forced onto reservations.
(3) No aspect of American history is more poignant than the accounts of the forced removal of Indians
across the continent. As white settlers migrated farther west, Indians were forced to sign new treaties giving
up the lands earlier treaties had promised them. Some Indian tribes, realizing the futility of resistance,
accepted their fate and moved westward without force. The Winnebagos, who offered little resistance, were
shifted from place to place between 1829 and 1866. About half of them perished during their perpetual
sojourn. Other tribes, however, bitterly resisted. The Seminoles signed a treaty in 1832 but violently resisted
removal. Hostilities broke out in 1835 and continued for seven years. The United States government lost
nearly 1,500 men and spent over $50 million in its attempts to crush Seminole resistance. Most of Seminoles
were eventually forced to Indian Territory. However, several hundred remained in the Florida Everglades,
where their descendants live today.
A. Violation of treaties by white settlers.
B. Conflict between American Indians and Europeans settlers.
C. The diverse cultures of American Indian tribes.
D. Trade between American Indians and European settlers.
Question 39: The word “legitimized” in paragraph 2 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. encouraged B. wrote to support C. justified D. coordinated
Question 40: It can be concluded from the line 8-10 that _____.
A. Both Indians and European wanted to end the conflict by signing treaties
B. Indian chiefs were easily bribed by economic offerings
C. Europeans showed great speaking skill in their treaty proposals
D. Europeans had greater military, political, and economic power than Indians
Question 41: The author makes the point that Indian Territory was _____.
A. where a few Indians remained
B. in the western part of Mississippi.
C. where several battles between Indians and whites took place.
D. considered undesirable by European settlers.
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following did NOT happen?
A. Treaties allowed Indians to live where they wanted.
B. Indians tribes formed alliances with other tribes.
C. Indians were forced to live on reservations.
D. Indians rebelled against European settlers.
No educational medium better as means of spatial communication than the atlas. Atlases deal with such
invaluable information as population distribution and density. One of the best, Pennycooke's World Atlas,
has been widely accepted as a standard owing to the quality of its maps and photographs, which not only
show various settlements but also portray them in a variety of scales. In fact, the very first map in the atlas is
a cleverly designed population cartogram that projects the size of each country if geographical size were
proportional to population. Following the proportional layout, a sequence of smaller maps shows the world’s
population density, each country’s birth and death rates, population increase or decrease, industrialization,
urbanization, gross national product in terms of per capita income, the quality of medical care, literacy, and
language. To give readers a perspective on how their own country fits in with the global view, additional
projections depict the world's patterns in nutrition, calorie and protein consumption, health care, number of
physicians per unit of population, and life expectancy by region. Population density maps on a subcontinental
scale, as well as political maps. Convey the diverse demographic phenomena of the world in a broad array of
scales.
Question 43: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The educational benefits of atlases. B. Physical maps in an atlas.
C. The ideal in the making of atlases. D. Partial maps and their uses.
Question 44: According to the passage, the first map in Pennycooke's World Atlas shows______.
A. the population policy in each country B. the hypothetical sizes of each country
C. geographical proportions of each country D. national boundaries relative to population
Question 45: In the passage, the word “invaluable” is closet in meaning to ______.
A. incremental B. invalid C. priceless D. shapeless
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. calorie consumption B. currency exchange rates
C. a level of educations D. population decline
Question 47: The word “layout” in the passage refers to _____.
A. the cartogram B. the geographical size
C. population D. each country
Question 48: It can be inferred from the passage that maps can be used to _____.
A. pinpoint ethnic strife in each country
B. identify a shortage of qualified labor
C. give readers a new perspective on their own country
D. show readers photographs in a new form
Question 49: The author of the passage implies that _____.
A. atlases provide a bird's eye view of countries B. maps use a variety of scales in each projection
C. maps of countries differ in size D. atlases can be versatile instrument
Question 50: The word “convey” in the passage is closest meaning to _____.
A. devise B. conjure up C. demonstrate D. indicate
Question 1: A. extinction B. exhibit C. exhaustion D. exist
Question 2: A. document B. education C. endangered D. secondary
Question 3: A. enthusiast B. statistics C. philosophy D. sociology
Question 4: A. misunderstand B. misbehavior C. responsibility D. characteristic
Question 5: It would be both (A) noticed and appreciating (B) if you could finish the work (C) before you
leave (D).
Question 6: The (A) suits were hanged (B) in the close when (C) they were returned (D) from the cleaners.
Question 7: A vast quantity (A) of radioactive material (B) is (C) made when a hydrogen bomb explode (D).
questions.
Question 8: Her young daughters _____ on the sofa, wishing they were out at play.
A. fidgeted B. shifted C. twisted D. moved
Question 9: Ken asked Barbara _____ she would like to go to the cinema.
A. unless B. in case C. regarding D. whether
Question 10: Dogs are good traveling companions. They will go _____ you take them.
A. whichever B. wherever C. whatever D. however
Question 11: Through an _____, your letter was left unanswered.
A. overcharge B. overtone C. oversight D. overtime
Question 12: The manager did not offer her the job because of her untidy_____.
A. sight B. view C. presence D. appearance
Question 13: I think you need a jacket, there’s a _____ breeze blowing outside.
A. chilly B. frosty C. frigid D. glacial
Question 14: The old manager has just retired, so Tom takes_____ his position.
A. in B. on C. up D. out
Question 15: There is a strong movement supporting the abolition of the death _____.
A. condemnation B. punishment C. penalty D. discipline
Question 16: As they came under heavy fire, the captain ordered his men to _____.
A. fall away B. fall out C. fall back D. fall over
Question 17: His grandfather died _____ the age of 90.
A. in B. of C. on D. at
Question 18: My brother asked me _____ of the football match.
A. what do you think B. what I think C. what did I think D. what I thought
Question 19: The boy _____ is my cousin.
A. talks to the lady over there B. is talking to the lady over there
C. was talking to the lady over there D. talking to the lady over there
Question 20: The new teacher was _____ to the needs of all the children in her care.'
A. attentive B. observant C. earnest D. careful
Question 21: The head of the research lab ______ with his boss over pay for the people who worked there.
A. fell out B. got on C. came to D. run away
Question 22: – Homer: “Excuse me, what is the best way for me to improve my English?”
– Ms. Claire: “_____. If you don’t practice, nothing else can help you.”
A. Just do it. B. Just give up. C. Keep improving D. Keep practicing
Question 23: – Karen: “Hi, Tina! What is your opinion about the Ted’s presentation?”
– Tina: “_____. But he needs to make some small changes.”
A. It is perfect. B. I do have some opinion about it.
C. On the whole it is good. D. I have no idea about it.
Question 24: Readers are required to abide by the rules of the library and mind their manners.
A. obey B. memorize C. review D. compose
Question 25: The coach explained the regulations at length to make sure that none of his players would
become violators.
A. at last B. at least C. in detail D. in short
Question 26: The ship went down although strenuous efforts were made to save it.
A. exhausting B. forceful C. energetic D. half-hearted
Question 27: Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity.
A. cover B. conserve C. presume D. reveal
Question 28: It was overeating that caused his heart attack.
A. If he didn’t overeat, he wouldn’t have a heart attack.
B. If he had overeaten, he would have had a heart attack.
C. If he hadn’t overeaten, he wouldn’t have had a heart attack.
D. If he overate, he would have a heart attack.
Question 29: Tom seemed very reluctant to take my advice.
A. Tom seemed quite willing to take my advice.
B. It seemed Tom was not ready to give my advice.
C. It seemed Tom was not willing to take my advice.
D. Tom seemed very anxious to take my advice.
Question 30: “Sorry I haven’t finished my assignment,” said Nam.
A. Nam apologized for not finishing his assignment.
B. Nam said he hadn’t finished his assignment.
C. Nam said sorry he hadn’t finished his assignment.
D. Nam apologized he hasn’t finished his assignment.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 31: We ought to visit Granma. Otherwise, she will be worried about us.
A. Granma is worried about us, so we would visit her.
B. If we do not visit Granma soon, she will start to worry.
C. We need not visit Granma unless she is worried about us.
D. We should visit Granma in case she is worried about us.
Question 32: My sisters used to get on with each other. Now they hardly speak.
A. My sisters rarely speak because they have never liked each other.
B. Because they have never got on, my sisters do not speak to each other.
C. My sisters were once close, but they rarely speak to each other now.
D. My sisters do not speak to each other much, but they are good friends.
It is terrible but we are not (33) ______ against crime. The first step towards preventing crime is
understanding its nature. Most crime is against property, not people, and most crime is not carried out by
professionals; nor is it carefully planned. Property crimes (34) ______ on the easy opportunity. They are
often committed by adolescents and young men, the majority of whom stop offending as they grow older.
(35) ______ ages for offending are 15 to 18. Also, and not surprisingly, the risk of being a victim of crime
(36) ______ greatly depending on where you live. This reliance by criminals on the easy opportunity is the
key to much crime prevention. Motor cars, for example, are a sitting target for the criminal. Surveys have
shown that approximately one in five drivers do not always bother to secure their cars by locking all the
doors and shutting all the windows, and in 30 percent of domestic burglaries, the burglar simply walks in
without having to use (37) ______. If opportunities like these did not exist, criminals would have a much
harder time. The chances are that many crimes would not be committed, which would release more police
time for tackling serious crimes.
Question 33: A. unprepared B. hopeless C. powerless D. weak
Question 34: A. increase B. thrive C. develop D. happen
Question 35: A. peak B. major C. maximum D. top
Question 36: A. varies B. adapts C. transforms D. adjusts
Question 37: A. force B. threat C. tools D. tricks
(1) Just as optical fibers have transformed communication, they are also revolutionizing medicine.
These ultra- thin, flexible fibers have opened a window into the living tissues of the body. By inserting
optical fibers through natural openings or small incisions and threading them along the body's established
pathways, physicians can look into the lungs, intestines, heart and other areas that were formerly
inaccessible to them.
(2) The basic fiber-optics system is called fiberscope, which consists of two bundles of fibers. One, the
illuminating bundle, carries light to the tissues. Is is coupled to a high-intensity light source. Light enters the
cores of the high-purity silicon glass and travels along the fibers. A lens at the end of the bundle collects the
light and focuses it into the other bundle, the imaging bundle. Each fiber in the bundle transmits only a tiny
fraction of the total image. The reconstructed image can be viewed through an eyepiece or displayed on a
television screen. During the last five years, improved methods of fabricating optical fibers have led to a
reduction in fiberscope diameter and an increase in the number of fibers, which in turn has increased
resolution.
(3) Optical fibers can also be used to deliver laser light. By use of laser beams, physicians can perform
surgery inside the body, sometimes eliminating the need for invasive procedures in which healthy tissue must
be cut through to reach the site of disease. Many of these procedures do not require anesthesia and can be
performed in a physician's office. These techniques have reduced the risk and the cost of medical care.
Question 38: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. A revolution in communication. B. The invention of optical fibers.
C. New surgical techniques. D. The roles of optical fibers in medicine.
Question 39: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “formerly” in paragraph 1?
A. previously B. completely C. usually D. theoretically
Question 40: According to the passage, what is the purpose of the illuminating bundle in a fiberscope?
A. To carry light into the body B. To collect and focus light
C. To reconstruct images D. To perform surgery inside the body
Question 41: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “cores” in paragraph 2?
A. tips B. centers C. clusters D. lines
Question 42: According to the passage, how do the fiberscopes used today differ from those used in five
years ago?
A. They use brighter light. B. They are longer.
C. They contain more fibers. D. They are larger in diameter.
(1) Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the
dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after
having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066.
Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as
two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave
trade), colonization, and missionary work. Thus, small enclaves of English speakers became established and
grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the
primary language of international business, banking and diplomacy.
(2) Currently, about 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is English.
Two - thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology,
advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers - Today there are more than 700 million
English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of
nonnative users than any other language in the world.
Question 43: What is the main topic of this passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English
B. The French influence on the English Language
C. The expansion of English as an international language
D. The use of English for science and Technology
Question 44: The word “emerged” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. appeared B. hailed C. frequented D. engaged
Question 45: Approximately when did English begin to be used to beyond England?
A. in 1066 B. around 1350 C. before 1600 D. after 1600
Question 46: According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around
the world EXCEPT _____.
A. the slave trade B. missionaries C. colonization D. the Norman invasion
Question 47: The word “enclaves” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. communities B. organizations C. regions D. countries
Question 48: The word “proliferated” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. prospered B. organized C. disbanded D. expanded
Question 49: The word “stored” in paragraph 2 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. bought B. saved C. spent D. valued
Question 50: According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in
the world today?
A. a quarter million B. half a million C. 350 million D.700 million
Question 1: A. builds B. destroys C. occurs D. prevents
Question 2: A. drought B. fought C. bought D. brought
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions:
Question 3: A. buffalo B. dinosaur C. elephant D. mosquito
Question 4: A. apply B. anthem C. appear D. attend
Question 5: Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations
and proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. is C. to change D. proceed
Question 6: The attribution of human characteristics to animals or inanimate objects appears in the
mythologies of many cultures is a literary device called anthropomorphism
A. The attribution B. appears C. many cultures D. called
Question 7: That inventors in the stock market enjoys increases and suffer declines is simply a fact of the
financial market, and a small inventor is not too excited about the former or crestfallen about the latter.
A. enjoys B. declines C. former D. crestfallen
questions:
Question 8: Hurry up, or they ……………… serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.
A. stop B. will have stopped C. are stopping D. will stop
Question 9: Whatever we expect from………………future, it is noted that progress has never moved in
straight lines.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
Question 10: The more challenging the exercises are,……………….we feel
A. the less bored B. the least bored C. the less boring D. the least boring
Question 11: 3 August 1998, the day on ………… my sister was born, is the first day I remember.
A. when B. which C. that D. it
Question 12: If your mobile phone ………………… to get water in it, it’ll stop working.
A. will happen B. should happen C. would happen D. happen
Question 13: It was lovely ………………… you to invite me to your birthday meal.
A. for B. of C. to D. through to
Question 14: Does Mr.Ba bring his farm……………. to the local market every day?
A. product B. productivity C. production D. produce
Question 15: It’s a good idea in theory, but it’s going to be hard to put it into ………………….
A. practice B. trial C. test D. examination
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays……themselves to teaching disadvantaged children.
A. Offer B. stick C. give D. devote
Question 17: Before you started cooking, you should gather together all the necessary…………
A. ingredients B. substances C. elements D. factors
Question 18: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring him …… to out point view.
A. Up B. over C. round D. back
Question 19: His business is growing so fast that he must take ………………… more workers.
A. up B. over C. on D. out
Question 20: If your mobile phone ………………… to get water in it, it’ll stop working.'
A. will happen B. should happen C. would happen D. happen
Question 21: It was lovely ………………… you to invite me to your birthday meal.'
A. for B. of C. to D. through to
Question 22: Let’s meet outside the theatre
B. Yes, let us do it. B. What about?
C. Is 6.30 all right? D. I’d like to go to the concert.
Question 23: Customer: …………………..
Salesman: It’s over there, next to the dry fruit section.
A. I’m sorry. I didn’t buy the tea and coffee.
B. Can you help me? I can’t carry the tea and coffee.
C. How much is a kilo of tea and coffee?
D.Excuse me, where’s the tea and coffee?
Question 24: When you cross the street, be careful and be on the alert for the bus.
A. Look for B. watch out for C. search for D. watch for
Question 25: He seems to make the same mistake over and over again.
A. for good B. by the way C. repeatedly D. in vain
A. failed to pay B. paid in full
C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 27: In the final match between Liverpool and Manchester United, viewers witnessed the deadly
strike’s 11th goal of the season.
A. mortal B. unhealthy C. lethal D. immortal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that is similar in meaning to the
given one
Question 28: "Leave my house now or I'll call the police!" shouted the lady to the man.
A. The lady threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her house
B. The lady said that she would call the police if the man didn’t leave her house
C. The lady told the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house
D. The lady informed the man that she would call the police if he didn’t leave her house
Question 29: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago.
A. He had tested his eyes ten months before.
B. He had not tested his eyes for ten months then.
C. He hasn't had his eyes tested for ten
D. He didn't have any test on his eyes from ten months.
Question 30: "You should have finished the report by now," John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 31: Ben made all attempts to carry out the project. Finally, he completed it with satisfactory result
A. But for his attempts, the project could not have been completed with satisfactory result
B. If he had not attempted to carry out the project, it wouldn’t have been completed
C. His attempts made the project complete
D. He did not make any attempt because he knew that the project could never be completed
Question 32: We should quickly find the solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned
will increase
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we’ll lower the impact on all of our concerns
B. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lowered
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved
D. The sooner we find the solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned
word for each of the blanks:
The heart has long been considered to be (33)………….feelings of love dwell. In love songs throughout the
ages, love almost always goes together (34)…….the heart. The heart has continuously been viewed as the
place where love begins and develops. Even the Bible gives preference to love and the heart.
The role of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly (35)…….. to
someone. The strong feelings (36)………the other person, especially in the early stages of a relationship,
have the results that the heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding up. According to
psychologists, a love relationship is a situation that (37)………a lot of stress and the body reacts to this by
getting ready to face the unknown. This has been called the "fight or flight" reaction, meeting danger by
fighting it or running away. So with love, the heart accelerates and breathing becomes quick.
Question 33: A. what B. when C. where D. that
Question 34: A. with B. to C. at D. from
Question 35: A. attracted B. attractive C. attract D. attracting
Question 36: A. of B. to C. with D. for
Question 37: A. includes B. involves C. comprises D. arouses
(1) Interest is the sum charged for borrowing money for a fixed period of time. Principal is the term
used for the money that is borrowed, and the rate of interest is the percent per year of the principal charged
for its use. Most of the profits for a bank are derived from the interest that they charge for the use of their
own or their depositor’s money.
(2) All problems in interest may be solved by using one general equation that may be stated as follows:
Interest = Principal X Rate X Time
(3) Any one of the four quantities – that is, interest, principal, rate, or time – may be found when the
other three are known. The time is expressed in years. The rate is expressed as a decimal fraction. Thus, 6
percent interest means six cents charged for the use of $1 of principal borrowed for one year. Although the
time may be less than, equal to, or greater than one year, most applications for loans are for periods of less
than one year. For purpose of computing interest for short periods, the commercial year or 360 days is
commonly used, but when large sums of money are involved, exact interest is computed on the basis of 365
days.
Question 38: With what topic is this passage primarily concerned?
A. Profits B. Rate C. Interest D. Principal
Question 39: The word “fixed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. Definite B. short C. repeated D. trial
Question 40: At 4 percent interest for the use of $1 principal, how much would one pay?
A. Six cents per year B. Twenty-five cents per year
C. Four cents per year D. One cent per year
Question 41: Which of the following would be a correct expression of an interest rate as stated in the
equation for computing interest?
A. Four B. 04 C. 4 D. 4/100
Question 42: Most applications for loans are for
A. one year B. less than one year C. more than one year D. 360 days
(1) The protozoans, minute, aquatic creatures each of which consists of a single cell of protoplasm,
constitute a classification of the most primitive forms of animal life. They are fantastically diverse, but three
major groups may be identified on the basis of their motility. The Mastigophora have one or more long tails,
which they use to project themselves forward. The Ciliata, which use the same basic means for locomotion as
the Mastigophora, have a larger number of short tails. The Sarcodina, which include amoebae, float or row
themselves about on their crusted bodies.
(2) In addition to their form of movement, several other features discriminate among the three groups
of protozoans. For example, at least two nuclei per cell have been identified in the Ciliata, usually a large
nucleus that regulates growth but decomposes during reproduction, and a smaller one that contains the
genetic code necessary to generate the large nucleus.
(3) Protozoans are considered animals because, unlike pigmented plants to which some protozoans are
otherwise almost identical, they do not live on simple organic compounds. Their cell demonstrates all of the
major characteristics of the cells of higher animals.
(4) Many species of protozoans collect into colonies, physically connected to each other and
responding uniformly to outside stimulae. Current research into this phenomenon, along with investigations
carried out with advanced microscopes may necessitate a redefinition of what constitutes protozoans, even
calling into question the basic premise that they have only one cell. Nevertheless, with the current data
available, almost 40,000 species of protozoans have been identified. No doubt, as the technology improves
our methods of observation, better models of classification will be proposed.
Question 43: Where do protozoans probably live?
A. Water B. Sand C. Grass D. Wood
Question 44: What is protoplasm?
A. A class of protozoan
B. The substance that forms the cell of a protozoan
C. A primitive animal similar to a protozoan
D. An animal that developed from a protozoan
Question 45: To which class of protozoans do the amoebae belong?
A. Mastigophora B. Ciliata C. Sarcodina D. Motility
Question 46: What is the purpose of the large nucleus in the Ciliata?
A. It generates the other nucleus.
B. It contains the genetic code for the small nucleus.
C. It regulates growth.
D. It reproduces itself.
Question 47: Why are protozoans classified as animals?
A. They do not live on simple organic compounds.
B. They collect in colonies.
C. They respond uniformly to outside stimulate.
D. They may have more than one cell.
Question 48: The word “uniformly” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to
A. in the same way B. once in a while C. all of a sudden D. in the long run
Question 49: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to
A. protozoans B. microscopes C. investigations D. colonies
Question 50: Which of the following statements are NOT true of protozoans?
A. There are approximately 40,000 species.
B. They are the most primitive forms of animal life.
C. They have a large cell and a smaller cell.
D. They are difficult to observe.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
Question 1: A. reduce B. offer C. apply D. persuade
Question 2: A. inventor B. physicist C. president D. property
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. reliable B. liquid C. revival D. final
Question 4: A. measure B. pleasure C. treasure D. ensure
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Both Mr. and Mrs. Smith are explaining the children the rules of the game.
A. both Mr. and Mrs. Smith B. are
C. explaining D. the children the rules of the game
Question 6: A child of noble birth, his name was famous among the children in that school.
A. of B. his name C. among D. in that
Question 7: Unlike many writings of her time, she was not preoccupied with morality.
A. writings B. of her time C. preoccupied D. with morality
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 8: I'm sure you'll have no ______the exam.
A. difficulties of passing B. difficulty passing
C. difficulties to pass D. difficulty to pass
Question 9: The referee______ the coin to decide which team would kick the ball first.
A. caught B. threw C. cast D. tossed
Question 10: Increasing______ of fruit in the diet may help to reduce the risk of heart disease.
A. the amount B. an amount C. the number D. a number
Question 11: - "Why wasn't your boyfriend at the party last night?"
- "He______ the lecture at Shaw Hall. I know he very much wanted to hear the speaker."
A. was to attend B. can have attended C. may have attended D. should have attended
Question 12: I am considering______ my job. Can you recommend a good company?
A. changing B. to move C. to change D. moving
Question 13: The price of fruit has increased recently, ______the price of vegetables has gone down.
A. whereas B. whether C. when D. otherwise
Question 14: I’m afraid I’m not really______ to comment on this matter.
A. qualitative B. quality C. qualified D. qualifying
Question 15: I accidentally______ Mike when I was crossing a street downtown yesterday.
A. kept an eye on B. lost touch with C. paid attention to D. caught sight of
Question 16: It is blowing so hard. We______ such a terrible storm.
A. never know B. had never known
C. have never known D. have never been knowing
Question 17: My computer is not______ of running this software.
A. compatible B. suitable C. capable D. able
Question 18: The room needs for the wedding.
A. to decorate B. be decorated C. decorate D. decorating
Question 19: When the old school friends met, a lot of happy memories______ back.
A. were brought B. had been brought C. had brought D. brought
Question 20: The new teacher was _____ to the needs of all the children in her care.'
A. attentive B. observant C. earnest D. careful
Question 21: Why does he need to make such heavy _____ of a simple task?'
A. climate B. weather C. storm D. cloud
Question 22: - Laura: “What a lovely house you have!”
- Maria: “____________.”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so
Question 23: - Janet: "Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?"
- Susan: " __________________."
A. I don't agree, I'm afraid B. That would be great
C. You’re welcome D. I feel very bored
Question 24: In many countries people who are jobless get unemployment benefit
A. dole B. pension C. fee D. scholarship
Question 25: Computers are recent accomplishments in our time
A. structures B. achievements C. calculations D. documents
A. failed to pay B. paid in full C. had a bad personality D. was paid much money
Question 27: His career in the illicit drug trade ended with the police raid this morning.
A. elicited B. irregular C. secret D. legal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that is similar in meaning to the
given one
Question 28: "I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tom said to Janet.
A. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
B. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of the week.
C. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of the week.
D. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of the week.
Question 29: "Why don’t we go out for dinner?” said Mary.
A. Mary suggested a dinner out. B. Mary requested a dinner out.
C. Mary ordered a dinner out. D. Mary demanded a dinner out.
Question 30: My friend told me, “If I were you, I would not smoke so much.”
A. My friend prohibited me from smoking so much.
B. My friend warned me against smoking so much.
C. My friend advised me not to smoke so much.
D. My friend suggested not smoking so much.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate sentence that sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 31: We've run out of tea.
A. We didn’t have any tea. B. We have to run out to buy some tea.
C. There's not much more tea left. D. There's no tea left.
Question 32: The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
A. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
B. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on you answer sheet to indicate the
The heart has long been considered to be (33) ______eelings of love dwell. In love songs throughout the
ages,love almost always goes together (34) ______the heart. The heart has continuously been viewed as
theplace where love begins and develops. Even the Bible gives preference to love and the heart.
The role of the heart in love must come from what happens to it when a person feels strongly (35)______to
someone. The strong feelings (36) ______the other person, especially in the early stages of arelationship,
have the results that the heart starts beating faster and breathing starts speeding (37) ______
Question 33: A. what B. when C. where D. that
Question 34: A. with B. to C. at D. from
Question 35: A. attracted B. attractive C. attract D. attraction
Question 36: A. of B. to C. with D. for
Question 37: A. on B. up C. upon D. forward
Reading to oneself is a modern activity which was almost unknown to the scholars of the classicaland
medieval worlds, while during the fifteenth century the term “reading” undoubtedly meant readingaloud.
Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
One should be wary, however, of assuming that silent reading came about simply because readingaloud
was a distraction to others. Examinations of factors related to the historical development of silentreading
have revealed that it became the usual mode of reading for most adults mainly because the tasksthemselves
changed in character.
The last century saw a steady gradual increase in literacy and thus in the number of readers. As
thenumber of readers increased, the number of potential listeners declined and thus there was somereduction
in the need to read aloud. As reading for the benefit of listeners grew less common, so came the flourishing
of reading as a private activity in such public places as libraries, railway carriages andoffices, where reading
aloud would cause distraction to other readers.
Towards the end of the century, there was still considerable argument over whether books shouldbe
used for information or treated respectfully and over whether the reading of materials such asnewspapers was
in some way mentally weakening. Indeed, this argument remains with us still ineducation. However,
whatever its virtues, the old shared literacy culture had gone and was replaced bythe printed mass media on
the one hand and by books and periodicals for a specialised readership onthe other.
By the end of the twentieth century, students were being recommended to adopt attitudes to booksand
to use reading skills which were inappropriate, if not impossible, for the oral reader. The social,cultural and
technological changes in the century had greatly altered what the term “reading” implied.
Question 38: Reading aloud was more common in the medieval world because .
A. few people could read to themselves
B. there were few places available for private reading
C. silent reading had not been discovered
D. people relied on reading for entertainment
Question 39: The word “commonplace” in the first paragraph mostly means “ ”.
A. attracting attention B. for everybody’s use C. most preferable D. widely used
Question 40: The development of silent reading during the last century indicated .
A. an increase in the number of books B. an increase in the average age of readers
C. a change in the status of literate people D. a change in the nature of reading
Question 41: Silent reading, especially in public places, flourished mainly because of .
A. the decreasing need to read aloud B. the development of libraries
C. the increase in literacy D. the decreasing number of listeners
Question 42: It can be inferred that the emergence of the mass media and specialised reading materials
was an indication of .
A. a decline of standards of literacy B. a change in the readers’ interest
C. an improvement of printing techniques D. an alteration in educationalists’ attitudes
Read the following passage on transport, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
The Sun today is a yellow dwarf star. It is fueled by thermonuclear reactions near its center that convert
hydrogen to helium. The Sun has existed in its present state for about four billion six hundred million years
and is thousands of times larger than the Earth.
By studying other stars, astronomers can predict what the rest of the Sun’s life will be like. About five
billion years from now, the core of the Sun will shrink and become hotter. The surface temperature will fall.
The higher temperature of the center will increase the rate of thermonuclear reactions. The outer regions of
the Sun will expand approximately 35 million miles, about the distance to Mercury, which is the closest
planet to the Sun. The Sun will then be a red giant star. Temperatures on the Earth will become too high for
life to exist.
Once the Sun has used up its thermonuclear energy as a red giant, it will begin to shrink. After it
shrinks to the size of the Earth, it will become a white dwarf star. The Sun may throw off huge amounts of
gases in violent eruptions called nova explosions as it changes from a red giant to a white dwarf.
After billions of years as a white dwarf, the Sun will have used up all its fuel and will have lost its heat.
Such a star is called a black dwarf. After the Sun has become a black dwarf, the Earth will be dark and cold.
If any atmosphere remains there, it will have frozen over the Earth’s surface.
Question 43: It can be inferred from the passage that the Sun _______.
A. has been in existence for 10 billion years
B. is approximately halfway through its life as a yellow dwarf
C. will continue to be a yellow dwarf for another 10 billion years
D. is rapidly changing in size and brightness
Question 44: When the Sun becomes a red giant, what will the atmosphere be like on the Earth?
A. It will become too hot for life to exist.
B. It will be enveloped in the expanding surface of the sun.
C. It will freeze and become solid.
D. It will be almost destroyed by nova explosions.
Question 45: Large amounts of gases may be released from the Sun at the end of its life as a .
A. white dwarf B. red giant C. yellow dwarf D. black dwarf
Question 46: As a white dwarf, the Sun will be _______.
A. a cool and habitable planet B. the same size as the planet Mercury
C. thousands of times smaller than it is today D. around 35 million miles in diameter
Question 47: The Sun will become a black dwarf when .
A. the outer regions of the Sun expand B. it has used up all its fuel as a white dwarf
C. the Sun moves nearer to the Earth D. the core of the Sun becomes hotter
Question 48: The word “there” in the last sentence of paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. our own planet B. the core of a black dwarf
C. the outer surface of the Sun D. the planet Mercury
Question 49: This passage is intended to _______.
A. describe the changes that the Sun will go through
B. discuss conditions on the Earth in the far future
C. alert people to the dangers posed by the Sun
D. present a theory about red giant stars
Question 50: The passage has probably been taken from _______.
A. a scientific chronicle B. a news report
C. a work of science fiction D. a scientific journal
Question 1: A. chamber B. ancient C. danger D. ancestor
Question 2: A. smoothly B. southern C. breath D. airworthy
Question 3: A. operation B. supervision C. reinforce D. committee
Question 4: A. overlook B. influential C. furniture D. oceanic
Question 5: The foreign student advisor recommended that she studied more English before enrolling at the
university.
A. foreign B. studied C. enrolling D. the
Question 6: Tourists are not permitted entering the park after twenty-four hundred hours for security.
A. Tourists B. entering C. after D. for security
Question 7: In a hot, sunny climate, man acclimatizes by eating less, drinking more liquids, wearing lighter
clothing, and experience a darkening of the skin.
A. In B. by eating C. more liquids D. experience
questions.
Question 8: I had to pay the fine, _____.
A. didn’t I B. hadn’t I C. wouldn’t I D. don’t I
Question 9: What a dangerous thing to do! You _____ have been killed.
A. may B. can C. must D. might
Question 10: Ludwig van Beethoven is considered one of the greatest composers _____.
A. to live B. when living
C. who ever lived D. while he was still living
Question 11: Scarcely _____ when the fight broke out.
A. he arrived B. he had arrived C. did he arrive D. had he arrived
Question 12: Up _____ and the people cheered.
A. went the balloon B. did the balloon go C. had the balloon go D.has the balloon gone
Question 13: I’d love to try and make that cake. Have you got a(n) _____ for it?
A. receipt B. prescription C. ingredient D. recipe
Question 14: At first he didn’t agree, but in the end we managed to bring him _____ to our point of view.
A. up B. over C. round D. back
Question 15: You’ve got to be _____ certain before you decide.
A. deadly B. deathly C. dead D. dearly
Question 16: His business is growing so fast that he must take _____ more workers.
A. up B. over C. on D. out
Question 17: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have _____ by 2015
A. taken over B. caught up C. used off D. run out
Question 18: She had to hand in her notice _____ advance when she decided to leave the job
A. with B. from C. in D. to
Question 19: If you have anything important to do, do it straight away. Don’t put it _____ .
A. on B. off C. over D. up
Question 20: Housewives find it easier to do domestic chores thanks to_________ invention of laboursaving
devices.'
A. the B. a C. an D. some
Question 21: Air pollution is getting__________ serious in big cities in the world.'
A. more and more B. the more and the more
C. the most and the most D. most and most
Question 22: – Sorry, do I know you? _____?
A. Fine, thanks. And you B. How do you do
C. We’ve met before, haven’t we D. Are your luggages these ones
Question 23: – _____?
– No, that’s Helen’s.
A. Is this your luggage B. Are these your luggages
C. Is your luggage red D. Are your luggages these ones
Question 24: Because the jury had reached a deadlock, the judge called for a retrial.
A. reduction B. disagreement C. impasse D. verdict
Question 25: His tenacious personality made him top salesperson in the company.
A. explosive B. charming C. tenable D. persistent
Question 26: In remote communities, it’s important to replenish stocks before the winter sets in.
A. remake B. empty C. refill D. repeat
Question 27: There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were banned.
A. clear B. obvious C. thin D. insignificant
Question 28: Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. This job offers a poor salary.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
Question 29: At no time did the two sides look likely to reach an agreement
A. The two sides had no time to reach an agreement.
B. The two sides never looked likely to reach an agreement
C. If the two sides had had time, they would have reached an agreement
D. The two sides never look like each other
Question 30: No matter how hard Fred tried to start the car, he didn’t succeed.
A. Fred tried very hard to start the car, and succeeded.
B. However hard Fred tried, he couldn’t start the car.
C. It’s hard for Fred to start the car because he never succeeded.
D. Fred tried hard to start the car, and with success.
Question 31: The new restaurant looks good. However, it seems to have few customers
A. In order to get more business, the new restaurant should improve its appearance.
B. The new restaurant would have more customers if it looked better.
C. If it had a few more customers, the new restaurant would look better.
D. In spite of its appearance, the new restaurant does not appear to attract much business.
Question 32: No one but the experts was able to realize that the painting was an imitation. It greatly
resembled the original.
A. It was obvious that only a person with great talent could fake a painting so successfully.
B. It was almost impossible for amateurs to realize that the painting was not authentic, though the experts
could judge it quite easily.
C. The painting looked so much like the authentic one that only the experts could tell it wasn’t genuine.
D. It was hard for ordinary people to judge between the fake painting and the real one.
There has been an outbreak of avian influenza, better known as bird flu in Asia recently. The first (33)
_____ died two weeks ago in Vietnam and there have been the cases reported since in Thailand, and there are
some suspected cases in Cambodia as well as.
Wild birds are affected by a large number of flu viruses, just as the humans and other animals are, but
they are normally exclusive to birds. If the viruses manage to mutate, they can to jump the species barrier and
infect human beings. The first case (34) _____ someone died was in Hong Kong in 1997.
There are the several different forms of bird flu, ranging from mild to very (35) _____ infections,
which spreading rapidly and kill many of the birds they infect. It is spread by wild birds-ducks, in particular –
which carry the virus, but aren't killed by it. They can spread the virus to farm birds through (36) _____
contact or by the contaminating water supplies.
World Health Organization officials have attributed the spread of bird flu to human contact with the
droppings of infected birds and (37) _____ sanitation. There was no evidence at first that the virus spread
from person to person, though there has been a case of this happening being investigated by scientists.
Question 33: A. victim B. casualty C. sufferer D. infector
Question 34: A. where B. when C. which D. why
Question 35: A. strict B. severe C. serious D. heavy
Question 36: A. direct B. straight C. immediate D. square
Question 37: A. awful B. bad C. terrible D. poor
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest
subsistence strategy, and has been practiced for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only
way to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about
10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their
numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and
arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing season has restricted the availability of plant life.
Such conditions have caused a greater independence on hunting, and along the coasts and waterways, on
fishing. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided a
greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted
the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies. Contemporary hunter-
gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from observation of modern hunter-
gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that society based on hunting and gathering must be very mobile. While
the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party harvests the food within a reasonable
distance from the camp. When the food in the area is exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another
site. We also notice seasonal migration on patterns evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict
division of labor between sexes. These patterns of behavior may be similar to those practiced by mankind
during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 38: With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned?
A. The Paleolithic period B. Subsistence farming C. Hunter-gatherers D. Marginal environment
Question 39: Which is the oldest subsistence strategy?
A. Migrating B. Domesticating animals
C. Farming D. Hunting and gathering
Question 40: The word “rudimentary” is closet in meaning to _____.
A. rough B. preliminary C. ancient D. backward
Question 41: When was hunting and gathering introduced?
A. 1,000,000 years ago B. 2,000,000 years ago
C. 10,000 years ago D. 2,000 years ago
Question 42: What conditions exist in the lower latitude?
A. Greater dependence on hunting. B. More coats and waterways for fishing.
C. A shorter growing season. D. A large variety of plant life.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name
from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general
public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as
seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity.
Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or
volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water
sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour.
In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when
they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters.
Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas
of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity
that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit
Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the
Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis
have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their
imminent arrival.
Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous
tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the
Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record
occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion,
sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano
actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 43: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____.
A. tides B. underwater earthquakes
C. storm surges D. tidal waves
Question 44: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves except that _____.
A. they are the same as tsunamis
B. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
C. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
D. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
Question 45: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. located B. moved C. filtered D. not pleased
Question 46: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _____.
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
C. causes serve damage in the middle if the ocean
D. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
Question 47: In line 9, water that is “shallow” is NOT _____.
A. coastal B. tidal C. clear D. deep
Question 48: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to _____.
A. arrive without warning B. originate in Alaska
C. be less of a problem D. come from greater distances
Question 49: The possessive “their” in line 15 refers to _____.
A. these tsunamis B. thousands of miles
C. the inhabitants of Hawaii D. the Hawaii Islands
Question 50: The passage suggests that the tsunamis resulting from the Krakatoa volcano _____.
A. resulted in little damage
B. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
C. actually traveled around the world
D. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. buffalo B. dinosaur C. elephant D. mosquito
Question 2: A. relate B. protect C. compose D. settle
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
Question 3: A. practiced B. stamped C. indulged D. accomplished
Question 4: A. friends B. tunes C. clubs D. stamps
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 5: Although smokers are aware that smoking is harmful to their health, they can’t get rid it.
A. Although B. are aware C. to D. get rid it
Question 6: Even though the extremely bad weather in the mountains, the climbers decided not to cancel
their climb.
A. Even though B. extremely C. not to cancel D. climb
Question7: Bill was about average in performance in comparison with other students in his class.
A. about average B. in C. with other students D. his
questions.
Question 8: We couldn’t fly ______ because all the tickets had been sold out.
A. economics B. economy C. economical D. economic
Question 9: “Buy me a newspaper on your way back, ______?”
A. will you B. can’t you C. do you D. don’t you
Question 10: My mother told me to ______ for an electrician when her fan was out of order.
A. turn B. rent C. send D. write
Question 11: Lora: “Your new blouse looks gorgeous, Helen!”
Helen: “______.”
A. It’s up to you B. Thanks, I bought it at Macy’s
C. I’d rather not D. You can say that again
Question 12: She had to hand in her notice ______ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. in B. from C. with D. to
Question 13: There was nothing they could do ______ leave the car at the roadside where it had broken
down.
A. unless B. instead of C. than D. but
Question 14: Through an ______, your letter was left unanswered.
A. overcharge B. overtime C. oversight D. overtone
Question 15: There should be an international law against ______.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. afforestation D. deforestation
Question 16: Susan’s doctor insists ______ for a few days.
A. her resting B. that she rest C. her to rest D. that she is resting
Question 17: “This library card will give you free access ______ the Internet eight hours a day.”
A. to B. in C. on D. from
Question 18: The United States consists of fifty states, ______ has its own government.
A. they each B. each of which C. hence each D. each of that
Question 19: The forecast has revealed that the world’s reserves of fossil fuel will have ______ by 2015.
A. run out B. taken over C. caught up D. used off
Question 20: Her fiancé is said _________from Harvard University five years ago.'
A having graduated B. to have graduated C. being graduated D. to be graduated
Question 21: They are always _________of what their children do.'
A support B. supporting C. supportive D. supportively
Question 22: – “How do you like your steak done?”
– “ ______.”
A. Very much B. Well done C. Very little D. I don’t like it much
Question 23: John: “Do you think that we should use public transportation to protect our environment?”
Laura: “______”
A. There’s no doubt about it. B. Well, that’s verysurprising.
C. Of course not . Youbet! D. Yes, it’s an absurd idea
Question 24: I’ll take the new job whose salary is fantastic
A. reasonable B. wonderful C. pretty high D. accept
Question 25: I could see the finish line and thought I was home and dry
A. successful B. hopeless C. hopeful D. unsuccessful
Question 26: I clearly remember talking to him in a chance meeting last summer
A. unplanned B. intention C. deliberate D. odd
Question 27: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country
A. soak B. permanent C. complicated D. guest
Question 28: “Why don’t you reply to the President’s offer right now?” said Mary to her husband.
A. Mary ordered her husband to reply to the President’s offer right now.
B. Mary suggested that her husband should reply to the President’s offer without delay.
C. Mary told her husband why he didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
D. Mary wondered why her husband didn’t reply to the President’s offer then.
Question 29: She said, “John, I’ll show you round my city when you’re here.”
A. She organized a trip round her city for John. B. She planned to show John round her city.
C. She made a trip round her city with John. D. She promised to show John round her city.
Question 30: The film didn’t come up to my expectations.
A. The film was as good as I expected. B. I expected the film to end more abruptly.
C. The film fell short of my expectations. D. I expected the film to be more boring.
Question 31: He talked about nothing except the weather.
A. His sole topic of conversation was the weather.
B. He had nothing to say about the weather.
C. He said that he had no interest in the weather.
D. He talked about everything including the weather.
Question 32: It doesn’t matter to them which film they go to.
A. Whatever films are shown, they never see.
B. They don’t care about the cost of the films they see.
C. Which film they go to matters more than the cost.
D. They don’t mind which film they go to.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word for each of the blanks from 33 to 37.
Some time ago, scientists began experiments to find out (33)______ it would be possible to set up a
“village” under the sea. A special room was built and lowered (34)______ the water of Port Sudan in the Red
Sea. For 29 days, five men lived at a depth of 40 feet. At a (35)______ lower level, another two divers stayed
for a week in a smaller “house”. On returning to the surface, the men said that they had experienced no
difficulty in breathing and had (36)______ many interesting scientific observations. The captain of the party,
Commander Cousteau, spoke of the possibility of (37)______ the seabed. He said that some permanent
stations were to be set up under the sea, and some undersea farms would provide food for the growing
population of the world.
Question 33: A. which B. what C. how D. whether
Question 34: A. underneath B. into C. down D. below
Question 35: A. any B. more C. much D. some
Question 36: A. made B. exercised C. caught D. done
Question 37: A. implanting B. transplanting C. growing D. cultivating
Probably the most famous film commenting on the twentieth-century technology is Modern Times,
made in 1936. Charlie Chaplin was motivated to make the film by a reporter who, while interviewing him,
happened to describe the working conditions in industrial Detroit. Chaplin was told that healthy young farm
boys were lured to the city to work on automotive assembly lines. Within four or five years, these young
men’s health was destroyed by the stress of work in the factories.
The film opens with a shot of a mass of sheep making their way down a crowded ramp.
Abruptly, the film shifts to a scene of factory workers jostling one another on their way to a factory.
However, the rather bitter note of criticism in the implied comparison is not sustained. It is replaced by a
gentle note of satire. Chaplin prefers to entertain rather than lecture.
Scenes of factory interiors account for only about one-third of Modern Times, but they contain some of
the most pointed social commentary as well as the most comic situations. No one who has seen the film can
ever forget Chaplin vainly trying to keep pace with the fast-moving conveyor belt, almost losing his mind in
the process. Another popular scene involves an automatic feeding machine brought to the assembly line so
that workers need not interrupt their labor to eat. The feeding machine malfunctions, hurling food at Chaplin,
who is strapped in his position on the assembly line and cannot escape. This serves to illustrate people’s utter
helplessness in the face of machines that are meant to serve their basic needs.
Clearly, Modern Times has its faults, but it remains the best film treating technology within a social
context. It does not offer a radical social message, but it does accurately reflect the sentiment of many who
feel they are victims of an over-mechanised world.
Question 38: According to the passage, Chaplin got the idea for Modern Times from ______.
A. a movie B. a conversation C. a newspaper D. fieldwork
Question 39: The young farm boys went to the city because they were ______.
A. promised better accommodation B. driven out of their sheep farm
C. attracted by the prospect of a better life D. forced to leave their sheep farm
Question 40: The phrase “jostling one another” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to “____”.
A. jogging side by side B. pushing one another
C. hurrying up together D. running against each other
Question 41: According to the passage, the opening scene of the film is intended ______.
A. to reveal the situation of the factory workers B. to introduce the main characters of the film
C. to produce a tacit association D. to give the setting for the entire plot later
Question 42: The word “vainly” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to “______”.
A. recklessly B. carelessly C. hopelessly D. effortlessly
Very few people in the modern world obtain their food supply by hunting and gathering in the natural
environment surrounding their homes. This method of harvesting from nature’s provision is the oldest known
subsistence strategy and has been practised for at least the last two million years. It was, indeed, the only way
to obtain food until rudimentary farming and the domestication of wild animals were introduced about
10,000 years ago.
Because hunter-gatherers have fared poorly in comparison with their agricultural cousins, their
numbers have dwindled, and they have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and
arctic wastelands. In higher latitudes, the shorter growing seasons have restricted the availability of plant life.
Such conditions have caused a greater dependence on hunting, and on fishing along the coasts and
waterways. The abundance of vegetation in the lower latitudes of the tropics, on the other hand, has provided
a greater opportunity for gathering a variety of plants. In short, the environmental differences have restricted
the diet and have limited possibilities for the development of subsistence societies.
Contemporary hunter-gatherers may help us understand our prehistoric ancestors. We know from the
observation of modern hunter-gatherers in both Africa and Alaska that a society based on hunting and
gathering must be very mobile. While the entire community camps in a central location, a smaller party
harvests the food within a reasonable distance from the camp. When the food in the area has become
exhausted, the community moves on to exploit another site. We also notice seasonal migration patterns
evolving for most hunter-gatherers, along with a strict division of labor between the sexes. These patterns of
behavior may be similar to those practised by mankind during the Paleolithic Period.
Question 43: The word “domestication” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. hatching and raising new species of wild animals in the home
B. adapting animals to suit a new working environment
C. teaching animals to do a particular job or activity in the home
D. making wild animals used to living with and working for humans
Question 44: According to the passage, subsistence societies depend mainly on ______.
A. agricultural products B. hunter-gatherers’ tools
C. nature’s provision D. farming methods
Question 45: In the lower latitudes of the tropics, hunter-gatherers ______.
A. have better food gathering from nature B. can free themselves from hunting
C. harvest shorter seasonal crops D. live along the coasts and waterways for fishing
Question 46: According to the passage, studies of contemporary subsistence societies can provide a___.
A. further understanding of prehistoric times
B. broader vision of prehistoric natural environments
C. further understanding of modern subsistence societies
D. deeper insight into the dry-land farming
Question 47: The word “conditions” in the second paragraph refers to ______.
A. the environments where it is not favorable for vegetation to grow
B. the situations in which hunter-gatherers hardly find anything to eat
C. the places where plenty of animals and fish can be found
D. the situations in which hunter-gatherers can grow some crops
Question 48: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT mentioned?
A. The number of hunter-gatherers decreases where farming is convenient.
B. Hunting or fishing develops where there are no or short growing seasons.
C. Harvesting from the natural environment had existed long before farming was taken up.
D. The environmental differences produce no effect on subsistence societies.
Question 49: According to the author, most contemporary and prehistoric hunter-gatherers share_____.
A. only the way of duty division B. some restricted daily rules
C. some methods of production D. some patterns of behavior
Question 50: Which of the following would serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Hunter-gatherers: Always on the Move B. Hunter-gatherers and Subsistence Societies
C. Evolution of Humans’ Farming Methods D. A Brief History of Subsistence Farmi
Question 1: A. passed B. managed C. cleared D. threatened
Question 2: A. sugar B. solar C. super D. subside
Question 3: A. economic B. territorial C. multiracial D. memorial
Question 4: A. compromise B. correspond C. interview D. innocent
Question 5: Metal and glass containers can be recycled, and several states are currently contemplating
mandatory recycling for either.
A. be recycled B. and
C. currently contemplating D. for either
Question 6: The Concorde can fly across the Atlantic without re-fueling and carrying 11 tons of freight.
A. across B. without C. carrying D. of freight
Question 7: Usually the climate in mountainous areas becomes much windy at higher altitudes.
A. Usually B. the C. much windy D. at higher
questions.
Question 8: The number of homeless people after the flood _____ dramatically.
A. are increasing B. has increased C. increase D. had increased
Question 9: John _____ this task yesterday morning, but I did it for him. He owes me a thank-you.
A. must have completed B. should have completed
C. could have completed D. may have completed
Question 10: The man who was driving the truck would not admit that he had been at fault, and _____.
A. neither had the other driver B. neither would the other driver
C. neither the other driver D. the other driver neither
Question 11: No one cares about the starving people _____.
A. whose aid is intended for B. whom the aid is intended
C. that the aid is intended for D. for the aid is intended
Question 12: Not all historical sites that are found _____.
A. highly publicized B. of high publicity
C. to be highly publicized D. are highly publicized
Question 13: _____ are unpleasant, but it will be nice when we get into the new house.
A. Removals B. Movements C. Removements D. Moves
Question 14: The _____ horse ran away from the fire.
A. fright B. frightful C. frightened D. frightening
Question 15: The polar bear’s _____ depends on its ability to catch fish.
A. survival B. survive C. surviving D. survivor
Question 16: It is very important for a firm or a company to keep _____ the changes in the market.
A. pace of B. track about C. touch with D. up with
Question 17: We couldn’t help laughing when he took _____ his teacher so well
A. up B. over C. off D. out
Question 18: She went _____ a bad cold just before Christmas.
A. through B. over C. in for D. down with
Question 19: Mrs. Granny is completely deaf. You’ll have to _____ allowance for her
A. bring B. take C. make D. find
Question 20: Hurry up, or they _____ serving meals by the time we get to the restaurant.
A. stop B. will have stopped C. are stopping D. will stop
Question 21: Whatever we expect from _____ future, it is noted that progress has never moved in straight
lines.'
A. a B. an C. the D. some
Question 22: “Your parents must be proud of your result at school.” – “_________”
A. Sorry to hear that. B. Thanks. It’s certainly encouraging.
C. Of course. D. I am glad you like it.
Question 23: - “ _______ .”
- “Never mind, better luck next time.”
A. I’ve broken your precious vase . B. I have a lot on my mind.
C. I couldn’t keep my mind on work. D. I didn’t get the vacant position.
Question 24: We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all long day B. the long day C. day after day D. all day long
Question 25: Biogas can be utilized for electricity production, cooking, space heating, water heating and
process heating.
A. sparing B. generation C. increase D. reformation
Question 26: Doctors have been criticized for their indiscriminate use of antibiotics.
A. disciplined B. selective C. wholesale D. unconscious
Question 27: Slavery was abolished in the US in the 19th century.
A. instituted B. eradicated C. eliminated D. required
Question 28: If you need my advice, I would forget about buying a new house.
A. If I were you, I did not buy a new house.
B. If I were you, I would not bought a new house.
C. If I were you, I hadn’t bought a new house
D. If I were you, I would not buy a new house.
Question 29: He said: “I’m sorry I didn’t reply to the letter.”
A. He apologized for not to reply to the letter.
B. He apologized for not to replying to the letter.
C. He apologized for didn’t reply to the letter.
D. He apologized for not replying to the letter.
Question 30: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind
A. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.
B. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
Question 31: I’d suggest that we avoid telling any scary stories with Janet around. She’s a bit unstable and
could get hysterical.
A. Janet has trouble keeping her emotions under control, especially when she is told frightening stories.
B. Since Janet is somewhat unbalanced, the only way to make her laugh is by telling stories, but we should
avoid scary ones as they might cause her to panic.
C. It is no fun to tell frightening stories to Janet, who is not very stable mentally, because she only laughs
instead of getting scared.
D. Janet is somewhat mentally unbalanced and might easily become uncontrollably emotional, so let’s not
tell frightening stories in her presence.
Question 32: We chose to find a place for the night. We found the bad weather very inconvenient.
A. Bad weather was approaching, so we started to look for a place to stay.
B. The bad weather prevented us from driving any further.
C. Seeing that the bad weather had set in, we decided to find somewhere to spend the night.
D. Because the climate was so severe, we were worried about what we’d do at night.
ENGLISH SPEELING
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down when
Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (33) ______. They used the 23 letters of Latin to write
down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon speech as they heard it. However, English has a (34) _____ range of basic
sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were needed to
express the different sounds. Inevitably, there were inconsistencies in the way that letters were combined.
With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put at risk. English survived, but the
spelling of many English words changed to follow French (35) _____, and many French words were
introduced into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was invented in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English texts
spoke other first languages. They made little effort to respect English spelling. Although one of the shortterm
(36) _____ of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it created fixed
spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were drawn up, and dictionaries
were put together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken English was not fixed and
continued to change slowly - just as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the Anglo- Saxon period,
like the 'k' in 'knife', now became (37) _____. Also, the pronunciation of vowels then had little in common
with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn't changed. No wonder, then, that it is often difficult
to see the link between sound and spelling.
Question 33: A. centuries B. times C. ages D. years
Question 34: A. longer B. deeper C. thicker D. wider
Question 35: A. types B. guides C. plans D. patterns
Question 36: A. conclusions B. actions C. meanings D. effects
Question 37: A. silent B. dumb C. quite D. speechless
HISTORY OF THE HELICOPTER
Although first flight generally attributed to a fixed-wing aircraft, the helicopter actually represents the
first style of flight envisioned by humans. The ancient Chinese developed a toy that rose upward when spun
rapidly. As early as the mid-sixteenth century, the great Italian inventor Leonardo da Vinci had drawn a
prototype for the machine that we now know as the helicopter.
Early in the twentieth century, a great deal of experimentation and revision was taking place with
regard to helicopter flight. The well-known phrase “two steps forward and one step back” provided an apt
descriptor for early flight development. Uneven lift, known as dissymmetry, caused the early helicopters to
flip over and confounded the inventors until the creation of the swash-plate; this allowed the rotor blade
angles to be changed so that lift would be equal on each side of the shaft.
On November 13, 1907, the French pioneer Paul Cornu made history by lifting a twin-rotor helicopter
into the air for a few seconds without ground assistance. Several models followed without significance until
in 1924 when another French pioneer, Etienne Oehmichen, became the first to fly a helicopter for one
kilometer. It was a historic flight of 7 minutes and 40 seconds. By 1936, solutions have been found to many
of the problems with helicopter flight.
With the introduction of the German Focke-Wulf Fw 61, the first practical helicopter became a reality.
Question 38: What is the topic of the passage?
A. Which aircraft was the first to fly. B. Aircraft design in the 20th century.
C. The development of the helicopter. D. The invention of the swash plate.
Question 39: Why was “dissymmetry” important to the early pioneers of helicopter flight?
A. It was an effect that caused helicopter to crash.
B. It equalized lift on each side of the central shaft.
C. It allowed helicopters to lift from the ground.
D. It allowed the rotor blade angles to be altered.
Question 40: Why was Paul Cornu’s flight important?
A. It was the first practical helicopter flight.
B. It lasted 7 minutes and 40 seconds.
C. It was the first time a helicopter lifted into the air without ground assistance.
D. It was the first time a helicopter lifted into the air.
Question 41: Why is it important that lift be equal on both sides of the helicopter shaft?
A. If there is more lift on one side, the helicopter will flip.
B. Equal lift means that the helicopter will be faster.
C. Dissymmetry of lift makes helicopters fly well.
D. It allows the rotor blade angles to be changed.
Question 42: The word “envisioned” in paragraph 1 is closet in meaning to _____.
A. imagined B. perfected C. experienced D. taught
“The economic history of the United States”, one scholar has written, “is the history of the rise and
development of the capitalistic system”. The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those
of the seventeenth century have begun: the expansion and elaboration of an economy born in the great age of
capitalist expansion.
Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development of abundant capital to increase our
growth. Capital includes the tools – such as: machines, vehicles, and buildings – that makes the outputs of
labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds necessary to buy those tools. If a society
had to consume everything it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase future
productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed
to increase the next crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital accumulation was
aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage. Saving played an important role in the European
tradition. It contributed to American’s motivation to put something aside today for the tools to buy tomorrow.
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished from what was consumed, was
derived either directly or indirectly from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the
accumulation of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions was already visible in the
seaboard cities, its wealth as the obvious consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying
trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice coast of South Carolina finally depended for
their genteel way of life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice in the markets of
Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded, a business community emerged in the colonies,
linking the provinces by lines of trade and identity of interest.
Question 43: With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?
A. Geography B. Finance C. Economics D. Culture
Question 44: The phrase “paved the way” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. paid for B. supported C. accumulated D. resembled
Question 45: It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans ______.
A. sent many tools to America B. taught their skills to their offspring
C. were accustomed to saving D. were good farmers
Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?
A. Training workers who produce goods. B. Studying the culture history of the country.
C. Consuming what is produced. D. Planting more of a crop than what is needed.
Question 47: The word “it” in the third sentence of paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. growth B. resource C. labor D. capital
Question 48: According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. factories B. tractors C. money D. workers
Question 49: According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result
of ___.
A. efficient saving B. the immigration
C. the success of production and trade D. the existence of manufacturing
Question 50: The phrase “put aside” in the second paragraph is closet in meaning to _____.
A. hidden B. saved C. reviewed D. consumed
Question 1: A. accompany B. category C. shortcoming D. newcomer
Question 2: A. caring B. sacrifice C. hand D. panda
Question 3: A. architect B. electric C. mineral D. luxury
Question 4: A. imagine B. horizon C. property D. computer
Question 5: Assessment instruments in nursery schools they feature items and other materials different from
those on elementary school tests.
A. they feature B. other materials C. from those D. school tests
Question 6: Migrant workers live in substandard unsanitary , and dilapidated housing and often are lacking
medical care.
A. workers live B. substandard C. unsanitary D. are lacking
Question 7: For thousands of years, man has created sweet-smelling substances from wood, herbs, and
flowers and using them for perfume or medicine.
A. man B. sweet-smelling C. using them D. or
questions.
Question 8: - “I’m going out now.”
- “_____ you happen to pass a chemist’s, would you get me more some aspirins?”
A. Should B. Had C. Were D. Did
Question 9: By the year 2050, many people currently employed _____ their jobs.
A. have lost B. will be losing C. will have lost D. are losing
Question 10: Simple sails were make from canvas _____ over a frame.
A. was stretched B. a stretch C. it was stretched D. stretched
Question 11: A cooperative program between China and Germany on building Yangshow, a famous ancient
city, into a(n) _____ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. ecological-friendly B. friendly ecology C. ecology-friendly D. friendly-ecological
Question 12: I know you didn’t see me yesterday because I was in Hanoi. You _____ me.
A. may not have seen B. mustn’t have seen C. shouldn’t have seen D. can’t have seen
Question 13: Governments should _____ international laws against terrorism.
A. bring up B. bring about C. bring in D. bring back
Question 14: She had just enough time to _____ the report before the meeting.
A. dip into B. go into C. turn around D. get through
Question 15: Students can___ a lot of information just by attending class and taking good notes of the
lectures.
A. absorb B. provide C. read D. transmit
Question 16: “Have you _____ this contract yet?” – “Not yet. I’ll try to read it this weekend.”
A. looked over B. looked out C. looked up D. looked into
Question 17: He left the country _____ arrest if he returned.
A. in fear of B. under threat of C. with fear of D. with threat of
Question 18: He was a natural singer with a voice that was as clear as _____.
A. a bell B. a mirror C. a waterfall D. a lake
Question 19: We never expected that we would come up _______ so many problems at the very start of our
business.
A. with B. against C. for D. to
Question 20: _____ Mr. John Smith is old, he still goes jogging everyday.'
A. So that B. Although C. In spite of D. Because
Question 21: She didn’t tell me why she _____ to school the day before.'
A. didn’t come B. doesn’t come C. hadn’t come D. hasn’t come
Question 22: – “What do you do for a living?”
– “_____”
A. I work in a bank. B. I want to be a doctor, I guess.
C. It’s hard work, you know. D. I get a high salary, you know.
Question 23: –: “Excuse me. I’m your new neighbor. I just moved in.”
– “_____”
A. Sorry, I don’t know. B. I’m afraid not. C. Where to, sir? D. Oh, I don’t think so.
Question 24: Mr. Young, general manager of the emergency response division of AMSA, said that the debris
was spotted along a busy shipping route and could be containers that had fallen off cargo vessels.
A. seen B. collected C. shot D. analyzed
Question 25: Ten years ago the Republic of Ireland became the first country in the world to lay down a
workplace smoking ban.
A. expose B. suggest C. introduce D. purpose
Question 26: He was so insubordinate that he lost his job within a week.
A. fresh B. disobedient C. obedient D. understanding
Question 27: I am afraid t haven’t allowed him enough initiative, said Father Payne; that’s a bad habit of
mine.
A. determination B. encouragement C. beginning D. cowardice
Question 28: My cousin shows a desire to put aside the status of the school child.
A. The status of the school child makes my cousin happy.
B. My cousin is determined to put up with the other school children.
C. My cousin decides to play down the status of the school child.
D. My cousin doesn’t want to be a school child any more.
Question 29: It appears that the harvest workers think they were maltreated.
A. The harvest workers seem to think they were maltreated.
B. The harvest workers claim to have been maltreated.
C. It is thought that the harvest workers were maltreated.
D. It appears that the harvest workers think of being maltreated.
Question 30: A simplified edition is easier to read than the original: it’s shorter.
A. A simplified edition which is shorter than the original is easier to read.
B. A simplified edition, which is shorter than the original, is easier to read.
C. The original, which is shorter, is easier to read than a simplified edition.
D. The original is longer than a simplified edition, and it is difficult to read.
Question 31: The flood may rise higher. We have to move upstairs.
A. We’ll have to move upstairs soon if the flood rises any higher.
B. Unless the flood rises any higher we won’t have to move upstairs.
C. If we don’t move upstairs, the flood may rise higher.
D. We have to move upstairs in case the flood rises any higher.
Question 32: People live together in one place. They form a community.
A. When people form a community, they live together in one place.
B. In order to live together in one place, people form a community.
C. People form a community when living together in one place.
D. Forming a community, people live together in one place.
The (33) _____ of the earth is caused by exhaust gas from automobile engines, factories and power
stations. Carbon dioxide goes up into the atmosphere, and it forms a kind of factories that keeps or rather
allows the sunshine in but stop the earth’s heart (34) _____ getting out. It works like a greenhouse, that’s
why we call it the Greenhouse Effect.
Because of this effect, the earth is getting warmer all the time. This (35) _____ in temperature will
cause big changes to the world's climate. The sea level will rise, the ice covering the poles will melt and
cause the sea level to rise.
The second problem is the (36) _____ of the ozone layer. Certain chemicals float up to the sky and
react with the ozone layer, and they make holes in it. Because of these holes the ultraviolet rays can shine
directly to the earth. Many people are now starting to suffer from skin cancer.
The sulfurous smoke from factories and power stations mixes with rain clouds and gets blown by the
wind and then falls as acid rain (37) _____ destroys lakes and forests.
These three problems threaten our environment at the end of the twentieth century. Unless we do
something about them quickly, we, human race, may disappear from the face of the earth.
Question 33: A. heating B. warming C. poisoning D. harming
Question 34: A. against B. up C. from D. away
Question 35: A. rise B. raise C. fall D. drop
Question 36: A. loss B. lose C. losing D. lost
Question 37: A. it B. which C. what D. they
The election of Andrew Jackson to the presidency in 1928 marked the political ascendancy of the
“common man” in American politics. Whereas all previous presidents had been Easterners from well-todo
families, Jackson was a self-made man of modest wealth from the West. Born in 1767, Jackson fought in the
American Revolution, in which many of his relatives died. Afterwards, he studied law and moved to the
Western District of North California. When that territory became the state of Tennessee, Jackson was elected
the state’s first congressman. His name became a household word during the war of 1812, when, as a U.S
Army major general, he led troops against the Creek Indians in the Mississippi Territory and later defeated
the British at New Orleans.
After his presidential inauguration, Jackson rode on horseback to the White House to attend a private
party. Crowds of well-wishers suddenly appeared at the reception and nearly destroyed the White House as
they tried to glimpse the new president. The common man had made a dramatic entrance onto the national
political scene.
Jackson’s two terms moved American society toward truer democracy. Many states abandoned
property requirements for voting. Elected officials began to act more truly as representatives of the people
than as their leaders. As president of the common man, Jackson waged a war against the Bank of the United
States, vetoing the bill that re-chartered the institution, declaring it a dangerous monopoly that profited the
wealthy few.
Although he had built his reputation as an Indian fighter during the War of 1812, Jackson was not an
Indian hater. He adopted what was at the time considered an enlightened solution to the Indian problem-
removal. Many tribes submitted peacefully to being moved to the West. Others were marched by force to the
Indian Territory, under brutal conditions, along what the Cherokees called the Trail of Tears.
One of Andrew Jackson’s most enduring legacies was the Democratic Party, which under him became
a highly organized political party. In opposition to the Democrats were the Whigs, a party that attracted
supporters of the Bank of the United States and opposed the tyranny of the man called “King Andrew”. A
less specific but more basic legacy is the populist philosophy of politics that still bears the name “Jacksonian
Democracy.”
Question 38: The author’s perspective toward Andrew Jackson could be best described as _____.
A. critical B. emotional C. personal D. historical
Question 39: The author suggests that Jackson’s election and inauguration _____.
A. destroyed the White House.
B. brought a new style to the presidency.
C. made a lot of common people angry.
D. put a military man in the White House for the first time.
Question 40: The word “institution” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. the presidency of the United States B. American society
C. The Bank of the United States D. democracy
Question 41: According to the passage, why did Jackson oppose the Bank of the United States?
A. He thought it benefited only rich people.
B. It started a war.
C. It opposed electing him “King Andrew”.
D. It opposed giving common people the right to vote.
Question 42: According to the passage, Jackson’s policy toward American Indians was _____.
A. developed during the War of 1812 B. forceful and cruel
C. considered his greatest achievement D. considered progressive at the time
The work of women has been economically vital since prehistory, although their contributions have
varied according to the structure, needs, customs, and attitudes of society.
In prehistoric times, women and men participated almost equally in hunting and gathering activities to
obtain food. With the development of agricultural communities, women’s work revolved more around the
home. As urban centres developed, women sold or traded goods in the marketplace.
From ancient to modern times, four generalizations can be made about women's paid work. Women
have worked because of economic necessity; poor women in particular worked outside the home whether
they were unmarried or married, and especially if their husbands were unable to sustain the family solely
through their own work. Women’s indentured work has often been similar to their work at home. Women
have maintained the primary responsibility for raising children, regardless of their paid work. Women have
historically been paid less than men and have been allocated lower-status work.
Some major changes are now occurring in industrial nations, including the steadily increasing
proportion of women in the labor force; decreasing family responsibilities (due to both smaller family size
and technological innovation in the home); higher levels of education for women; and more middle and
upper-income women working for pay or for job satisfaction. Statistically, they have not yet achieved parity
of pay or senior appointments in the workplace in any nation
Artisans working in their own homes not infrequently used the labor of their families. This custom was
so prevalent during the Middle Ages, craft guilds of the period, including some that otherwise excluded
women, often admitted to membership the widows of guild members, providing they met professional
requirements. Dressmaking and lacemaking guilds were composed exclusively of women.
Gradually, the guilds were replaced by the putting-out system, whereby tools and materials were
distributed to workers by merchants; the workers then produced articles on a piecework basis in their homes.
During the 18th and early 19th centuries, as the Industrial Revolution developed, the putting-out system
slowly declined. Goods that had been produced by hand in the home were manufactured by machine under
the factory system. Women competed more with men for some jobs, but were concentrated primarily in
textile mills and clothing factories. Manufacturers often favored women employees because of relevant skills
and lower wages, and also because early trade union organization tended to occur first among men.
Employees in sweatshops were also preponderantly women. The result was to institutionalize systems of low
pay, poor working conditions, long hours, and other abuses, which along with child labor presented some of
the worst examples of worker exploitation in early industrial capitalism. Minimum wage legislation and other
protective laws, when introduced, concentrated particularly on the alleviation of these abuses of working
women.
Women workers in business and the professions, the so-called white-collar occupations, suffered less
from poor conditions of work and exploitative labor, but were denied equality of pay and opportunity. The
growing use of the typewriter and the telephone after the 1870s created two new employment niches for
women, as typists and telephonists, but in both fields the result was again to institutionalize a permanent
category of low-paid, low-status women’s work.
Question 43: When the the farming communities developed, women worked _____.
A. less at home B. more at home C. more outside D. in groups
Question 44: With the development of urban centres, women ____.
A. traded cattle in the marketplace B. stayed at home to take care of their children
C. worked more in the marketplace D. sold cloth in the marketplace
Question 45: The word “indentured” in this context may mostly means _____.
A. outside the home B. in the kitchen C. outside the kitchen D. inside the home
Question 46: With better education and less family burden, women _____.
A. have been respected at home and in the workplace
B. have enjoyed equal status in the workplace
C. have not yet achieved high status in the workplace
D. have become more influential in their companies
Question 47: Although women cannot avoid the task of bringing up children, _____.
A. they have to work to feed their men B. they have to amuse their men
C. are the mainstay of their families D. they can be breadwinners as men
Question 48: The word “sweatshops” suggests _____.
A. workshop B. factory work C. hard work D. harmful work
Question 49: During the time of Industrial Revolution, women were dominant in _____.
A. sex industry B. Broidery C. textile industry D. bakery
Question 50: What women have done for the economic development have changed over time due to ___.
A. their role in the home B. their marital status and their husbands
C. the different factors of the society D. the Industrial Revolution

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High School Graduation Test

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