03/09/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 19
Complete Syllabus of NEET
Instructions:
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered / unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material
on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A (1) OR gate (2) AND gate
1. Which of the following is a wrong description of (3) NOR gate (4) XOR gate
binding energy of a nucleus? 3. Symbol of Zener diode is
(1) It is the energy required to break a nucleus
into its constituent nucleons (1)
(2) It is the energy released when free nucleons
combine to form a nucleus
(2)
(3) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its
nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus (3)

(4) It is the sum of kinetic energy of all the

nucleons in the nucleus
2. The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown below is (4)
equivalent to
4. Value of current in the circuit given below is

(1) 35 mA (2) 28.5 mA

(3) 16 mA (4) Zero

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CST-19 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

5. Which relation between common base current 10. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at
gain α and common emitter current gain β is not the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side
correct? ‘L’ as shown in the figure. Moment of inertia of
β β2 the system about the line AD perpendicular to AB
(1) α = (2) α =
1− β 1 + β2 in the plane of triangle is

β
(3) α = (4) Both (1) and (2)
1+ β
6. When a conservative force does positive work on
a body then
(1) Its kinetic energy must increase
(2) Its potential energy must decrease
(3) Its potential energy must increase
5
(4) Its total energy must decrease (1) 2 mL2 (2) mL2
4
7. A particle of mass 6 gram is acted upon by a
force such that position of the particle as a 3 7
(3) mL2 (4) mL2
function of time is given by x = 3t –4t2 + t3, where 2 4
x is in metre and t is in second. The work done
during the time t = 0 to t = 4 s, will be 11. A uniform rod of mass m and length L is free to
rotate in horizontal plane about a vertical axis
(1) 528 mJ (2) 512 mJ
mg
(3) 1056 mJ (4) 829 mJ passing through one of its end. A force of is
2
8. Two balls of equal masses undergo an inelastic
collision (head on) as shown in the figure. If the L
applied normal to the rod at a distance from
1 6
coefficient of restitution is , then speed of ball the other (free) end. Angular acceleration of the
3
A and ball B after collision will be rod will be
2g 5g
(1) (2)
L 4L
(1) 1 m/s (2) 2 m/s 4g 3g
(3) (4)
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s 5L 2L
9. Tom, John and Harry are standing on a plank 12. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius 2R
having mass 90 kg. The plank is kept on ice. If rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of
Tom and Harry swap their positions, then John
length L and height h. Speed of centre of cylinder
will shift
when it reaches the bottom of inclined plane will
be

4
(1) gh (2) gh
3

5 7
(3) gh (4) gh
2 5
1
(1) m towards left 13. The escape speed from surface of the earth is ve.
3
The escape speed from centre of earth will be
1
(2) m towards right
3 3 1
(1) ve (2) ve
(3) Will be at same position 2 2

2 7
(4) m towards right (3) ve (4) Zero
3 2

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14. Two aluminium wires have lengths 1 m and 2 m 19. The time period of small oscillations of mass m
as shown in the figure is (All springs are ideal)
and their diameters are d and 2 d. If they are
stretched by applying equal forces, the ratio of
increase in their lengths will be
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 1

(4) 2 : 2
15. A force of 16 N is applied to lift a ring lying on
surface of water. If radius of ring is 2 m, then
calculate surface tension of water.
1 2
(1) N/m (2) N/m
π π 6m 11m
(1) 2π (2) 2π
(3) 2 N/m (4) 4 N/m 11k 6k

16. Two drops of same radius are falling through air m 6k

(3) 2π (4) 2π
with terminal velocity of 10 m/s. If these two k 11m
drops coalesce, then terminal velocity of new 20. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic
drop will be motions (both along x-axis) which are given by
 π
(1) 3 4 × 5 m/s x1 = 5sinωt and x2 = 5sin  ωt +  . The path of
 2
particle will be
(2) 3 4 m/s
(1) An ellipse (2) A straight line
(3) 3 4 ×10 m/s (3) A hyperbola (4) A circle
(4) 10 m/s 21. A transverse wave which is travelling along
the positive x-axis given by y = Asin(kx – ωt) is
17. Consider four blocks P, Q, R, S such that P and superposed with another wave given by
Q are in thermal equilibrium and R & S are also y = –Asin(kx + ωt). The point x = 0 is
in thermal equilibrium. However, P & R are not in
(1) A node
thermal equilibrium, we can conclude that
(2) An antinode
(1) Q and S are in thermal equilibrium (3) Neither a node nor an antinode
(2) Q and S are not in thermal equilibrium (4) Having maximum displacement A
(3) The zeroth law of thermodynamics does not 22. Stationary waves are produced in a 20 m long
apply here because there are more than stretched string fixed at both ends. If the string
three objects vibrates in 10 loops and wave velocity in the
string is 20 m/s, then the frequency of the wave
(4) Can’t say anything is
18. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of nitrogen and (1) 20 Hz (2) 10 Hz
4 moles of xenon at temperature T. Neglecting all (3) 9 Hz (4) 5 Hz
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the 23. A whistle producing a sound of frequency 540 Hz
system is approaches a stationary observer at speed of
(1) 4 RT 33 m/s. If speed of sound in air is 333 m/s, then
frequency heard by the observer (in Hz) will be
(2) 5 RT nearly
(3) 15 RT (1) 500 (2) 600
(4) 11 RT (3) 400 (4) 300

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CST-19 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

24. The electric flux through a surface area of 27. Energy stored in the capacitor of capacitance
400 m2,lying in a space where electric field 4 µF connected in the circuit as shown below will
 be
E =5iˆ + 2 ˆj + 4kˆ exists will be [Surface area is
lying in x – y plane]

N 2 N 2
(1) 2000 m (2) 400 2 m
C C

N 2 N 2
(3) 1600 m (4) 2750 m
C C
25. A small electric dipole is placed at origin with
dipole moment directed along positive x-axis.
The direction of electric filed at the point ‘P’ as
shown in the figure will be

(1) 200 µJ (2) 300 µJ

(3) 400 µJ (4) 800 µJ
28. Four arrangement of resistors are given below. If
ammeter ‘A’ has a resistance of 2 Ω then which
arrangement give the largest reading when same
potential difference is applied between the points
X and Y?

(1)
(1) Along z-axis
(2) Along negative x-axis
(3) Along y-axis (2)

(4) At angle tan–1(1/2) from x-axis

26. Three capacitors each having capacitance of
1 µF are connected with a battery of emf 10 V as
(3)
shown in the figure.

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29. An electric heater having heating coil of 484 Ω
connected with a supply voltage of 220 V is used
to heat water. Time taken to increase the
Potential difference across the points A & B is temperature of 100 g water by 50ºC is

5 10 (1) 140 s
(1) (2)
3 3 (2) 270 s
(3) 210 s
20 15
(3) (4) (4) 315 s
3 3
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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-19 (Code-A)

30. A galvanometer having coil resistance 20 Ω and SECTION-B

full scale deflection current 1 mA is converted 36. The potential difference V and current I
into a voltmeter with a maximum range of 10 V. flowing through the AC circuit is given by
Value of resistance to be connected in series ε = 20cos(ωt –π/6) Volt and I = 5sinωt A. The
with galvanometer for this purpose should be average power dissipated in the circuit is
(1) 998 Ω (2) 98 Ω (1) 25 W (2) 15 W
(3) 50 W (4) 100 W
(3) 9980 Ω (4) 9998 Ω
37. An object is placed at 10 cm infront of a concave
31. A conducting wire is bent in the form of an
mirror. The mirror produces a real image that has
equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. current flowing 4 times bigger size than object. The distance of
through it is 0.5 A. Magnetic moment of current image from mirror is
carrying triangular loop is
(1) 10 cm (2) 20 cm
3 (3) 30 cm (4) 40 cm
(1) Zero (2) × 10−2 A m2
8 38. The wavelength of light in vacuum is 8000 Å and
in a medium is 4000 Å. The refractive index of
3 3
(3) × 10−4 A m2 (4) × 10−4 A m2 the medium is
4 2
(1) 1 (2) 2
32. The unit of electric current “Ampere” is the
(3) 3 (4) 4
amount of current that is flowing through each of
two parallel long wires 1 m apart will give rise to 39. A ray of light incident on a prism having prism
a force per unit length between them equal to angle 30º is retracing its path as shown in figure.
Refractive index of the prism is
(1) 1 N/m (2) 2 × 107 N/m
(3) 4π × 107 N/m (4) 2 × 10–7 N/m

33. A uniform magnetic field B = B0 ˆj exists in a
region. A particle of mass m and charge q is
projected along negative x-axis with speed v from
the point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of v for
which the particle does not hit y – z plane will be
qBd 2m 3 5
(1) (2) (1) (2)
2m qBd 2 6
qBd 3qBd (3) 2 (4) 3
(3) (4)
m 2m
40. A ray of light travelling in vacuum enters into a
34. A conducting ring is placed in a uniform magnetic medium of refractive index µ. It is found that
field with its plane perpendicular to the field. An angle of refraction is half of the angle of
emf is induced in the ring if incidence, then value of angle of incidence is
(1) It is translated along the axis of ring µ
(1) cos−1   (2) 2cos–1(µ /2)
(2) It is translated in the plane of the ring 2
(3) It is rotated about its axis µ
(3) sin–1(µ /2) (4) 2sin−1  
(4) It is rotated about one of its diameter 2
41. White light is incident normally on a glass plate
35. An ac source is represented by E = 200 2 sin placed in air. If the thickness of glass plate is
(100t + π / 3 ) Volt. If this source is connected 5000 Å and its refractive index is 3/2, then
across a capacitor of 10 µF capacitor through an (among the following) wavelength that is strongly
reflected by the plates will be (Visible light range
ac ammeter, then the reading of ammeter will be
is 4000 Å to 7000 Å)
(1) 20 mA (2) 200 mA (1) 4700 Å (2) 6000 Å
(3) 0.2 mA (4) 2 mA (3) 5500 Å (4) 6500 Å
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CST-19 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

42. If the ratio of intensity of wave from two coherent 48. A projectile ‘P’ is fired from ground. An observer
sources is 9, then the visibility of the fringes is ‘Q’ running on ground with uniform velocity of
5 3 magnitude v observes ‘P’ to move along a
(1) (2)
4 5 straight line. The time of flight of ‘P’ as measured
by ‘Q’ is T. Then the range R of the projectile on
4 5
(3) (4) ground is
5 3
(1) R = vT
43. Mass number of a radioactive nucleus is A. It
undergoes an α-decay such that α-particle (2) R < vT
comes out with kinetic energy of 96 MeV. If Q
(3) R > vT
value of the reaction is 100 MeV. Then the value
of A is (Assume that daughter nucleus is in (4) Insufficient information
ground state) 49. An elevator is descending with an acceleration ‘a’
(1) 384 (2) 296 as shown in the figure .If block M exerts a force
(3) 104 (4) 100 Mg
of on weighing machine, then value of ‘a’ is
44. Wavelength of line of Balmer series in
2nd 10
hydrogen spectrum is equal to the wavelength of [g = acceleration due to gravity]
one of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li2+.
The electronic transition corresponding to this
line for Li2+ is
(1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 7 to n = 3
(3) n = 8 to n = 3 (4) n = 12 to n = 6
45. The voltage applied to an X-ray tube is 20 kV.
Minimum wavelength of X-ray photon emitted by
the tube will be nearly (1) 0.3g
(1) 0.1 Å (2) 0.6 Å (2) 0.1g
(3) 12 Å (4) 6 Å
(3) 0.9g
46. A toy car starts from rest and is uniformly
accelerated for 15 seconds. The distance (4) 0.6g
travelled in the first 5 seconds is d1, in next 50. Figures I, II, III and IV show the variation of force
5 seconds is d2 and in the last 5 seconds is d3. with time, impulse will be maximum in case of
Then, d1 : d2 : d3 is the same as
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 : 5 (4) 7 : 5 : 2
47. A man crosses the river perpendicular to river
flow in time t and travels an equal distance down
the stream in time T. The ratio of man’s speed in
still water to the speed of river will be

T 2 + t2
(1)
T 2 − t2

t2 −T 2
(2)
t2 +T 2
(1) (II) and (III)
t2 − t2
(3)
t2 +T 2 (2) (I) and (IV)

t2 +T 2 (3) (I) and (III)

(4)
t2 −T 2 (4) (II) and (IV)

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-19 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 61. Which among the following properties is intensive
51. Number of atoms in 0.68 g C3O2 is (molar mass in nature?
of C3O2 is 68 g mol–1) (1) Volume (2) Heat
(1) 0.5 NA (2) 0.05 NA (3) Pressure (4) Adiabatic work
(3) 0.02 NA (4) 0.2 NA
62. If 1 mol ideal gas expanded from 5 L to 50 L at
52. Molality of an aqueous solution of urea in which 27°C then entropy change involved in the
mole fraction of urea is 0.18, is process will be
(1) 1.2 m (2) 12.2 m
(1) 2R (2) 2.303R
(3) 0.12 m (4) 122.2 m
(3) 10R (4) 20R
53. Select the incorrect value of quantum number of
last electron of Mg atom among the following. 63. pH of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M NH4Cl
(1) n = 3 (2) l = 0 solution is (Given pKb (NH4OH) = 4.7)

−1 (1) 9 (2) 5.15

(3) m = +1 (4) s =
2 (3) 8 (4) 10
54. Select the atom of largest atomic size among the 64. If Ksp (CuCl) > Ksp (CuBr) > Ksp (CuI) > Ksp (CuS)
following. then most soluble salt at 25°C
(1) Li (2) Be (1) CuCl (2) CuBr
(3) Na (4) Mg
(3) CuI (4) CuS
55. Paramagnetic species among the following is
65. Oxidation states of oxygen in KO2 and Na2O2
(1) C22 − (2) N2+ respectively are
(3) F2 (4) H2 (1) +1, –1 (2) –0.5, +1
56. Which among the following molecules is most (3) –0.5, –1 (4) +1, –2
polar?
66. Percentage strength of 5.6 volume of H2O2 is
(1) NF3 (2) NH3
(3) H2O (4) CO2 (1) 3.4% (2) 1.7%

57. During conversion of O2 to O2− , coming electron (3) 0.85% (4) 34%
will enter in 67. Halide of highest boiling point among the
(1) π2px (2) σ2pz following is

(3) π*2px (4) σ*2s (1) KF (2) KCl

58. Which among the following will be the correct (3) KBr (4) KI
order of bond length? 68. Heating of LiNO3 produces
(1) C–O > C–H > C–C (2) C–C > C–O > C–H (1) LiNO2 and O2 only
(3) C–C > C–H > C–O (4) C–O > C–C > C–H
(2) Li2O and N2 only
59. 1 poise is equivalent to
(3) Li2O, NO2 and O2 only
(1) 1 g cm–1 s–1 (2) 0.1 g cm–1 s–1
(4) Li2O and N2O only
(3) 0.01 kg m–1 s–1 (4) 0.001 kg m–1 s–1
60. If equal masses of both He(g) and SO2(g) are 69. Correct match of chemical formula is
taken in a 5 L vessel at total pressure of 10 atm (1) Gypsum: CaSO4 .H2O
then partial pressure of He(g) in the mixture will
be (2) Quick lime: Ca(OH)2
(1) 9.4 atm (2) 4.7 atm (3) Slaked lime: CaO
(3) 28 atm (4) 94.3 atm (4) Dead burnt plaster: CaSO4

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CST-19 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

70. Most electronegative element of 14 group 77. Consider the following reaction sequence,
elements, is (CH ) CHCl
Phenol 
Zn dust
→ A 3 2
Anhydrous AlCl3
→ B
(1) Carbon (2) Germanium
(i) Alk. KMnO4 /∆
(3) Tin (4) Lead 
(ii) H O+
→C
3

71. Man-made silicate among the following is The product ‘C’ is

(1) Glass (2) Feldspar
(3) Zeolites (4) Asbestos (1) (2)
72. Heterocyclic compound among the following is

(1) (2) (3) (4)

78. Which among the following pairs of molecules

can be distinguished by haloform reaction?
(3) (4) (1) CH3OH and CH3CH2CH2OH
(2) CH3CHO and CH3CH2OH
73. In the Kjeldahl’s method for estimation of (3) CH3CH2OH and CH3CH2COCH2CH3
nitrogen present in an organic compound,
ammonia evolved from 0.8 g organic compound (4) CH3CH2COCH3 and CH3CHO
neutralizes 20 ml of 0.8 M of H2SO4. The 79. Select the compound of highest pKa among the
percentage of nitrogen in the organic compound following.
is (1) HCOOH (2) CH3CH2COOH
(1) 28% (2) 56% (3) CCl3COOH (4) ClCH2COOH
(3) 33% (4) 84% 80. Which among the following amine respond to
74. Which amongst the following is the most stable carbylamine test?
carbocation? (1) (CH3)2NH (2) PhCH2CH2NH2
⊕ ⊕ (3) PhNHPh (4) (CH3)3N
(1) Ph − CH2 − CH2 (2) ( CH3 )2 CH
81. Most stable diazonium salt among the following
⊕ ⊕ is
(3) Ph − CH− CH3 (4) CH3 − CH2
NO2
75. Which among the following is aromatic in nature? |
–
(2) CH3 CHCH2N2 Cl
+
(1) CH3 CH2N2+ Cl–
(1) (2)
(3) PhN2+ Cl− (4) PhCH2 CH2N2+ Cl−

(3) (4) 82. Novolac is a condensation polymer of

(1) Caprolactam and Ethylene glycol
76. Which of the following compounds undergoes (2) Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid
nucleophilic substitution reaction most easily?
(3) Phenol and formaldehyde
(4) Melamine and formaldehyde

(1) (2) 83. Valium is used as

(1) Antibiotic (2) Tranquilizer
(3) Antiseptic (4) Antifertility drug
84. Packing efficiency of diamond unit cell is
π π
(1) (2) 3
(3) (4) 8 8
π π
(3) 3 (4)
16 6

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-19 (Code-A)

85. Boiling point of an aqueous solution of 0.2 m 93. Hydrogen halides of highest pKa is
K4[Fe(CN)6] will be (Kb(H2O) = 0.5 K molal–1)
(1) HF (2) HCl
(1) 0.5 °C (2) 273.5 °C
(3) HBr (4) HI
(3) 100.5 °C (4) 373.5 °C
94. Which among the following complexes is
SECTION-B paramagnetic in nature?
86. A binary solution is formed by taking 2 and 3 (1) [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
moles of two volatile component A( PA° = 400 mm
(3) K3[Fe(CN)6] (4) [Zn(H2O)6]Cl2
Hg) and B( PB° = 250 mm Hg) respectively. Partial
95. Select the molecule which can show optical
pressure of B in the solution will be isomerism
(1) 100 mm Hg (1) [Zn(H2O)4(NH3)2]Cl2
(2) 150 mm Hg
(2) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(3) 310 mm Hg
(3) [Co(NH3)4(en)]Cl3
(4) 450 mm Hg
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NH3)(Py)ClBrI]
87. Reduction potential of hydrogen electrode which
is placed in a solution of pH = 2, is 96 Correct electronic configuration of Gd(III) ion is
(Atomic number of Gd is 64)
(1) –0.33 V (2) –0.118 V
(3) –0.71 V (4) –0.92 V (1) [ Xe] 4f 7 5d 1 (2) [ Xe] 4f 8

88. If initial concentration of reactant in a first order (3) [ Xe] 4f 7 (4) [ Xe] 4f 6 5d 1
reaction increases to four times, then rate
constant of reaction 97 Select the hydride of 15 group elements of
highest boiling point.
(1) Increases by a factor of 4
(2) Increases by a factor of 8 (1) NH3 (2) PH3

(3) Increases by a factor of 2 (3) AsH3 (4) BiH3

(4) Remains same 98 Magnetic moment of Cu2+ ion is [Cu : Atomic no

is 29]
89. Select the ion which has highest coagulating
power for coagulation of charcoal sol. (1) 2 BM (2) 3 BM
(1) Na+ (2) Al3+
(3) 8 BM (4) 15 BM
(3) F– (4) PO34−
99 Which among the following compounds does not
90. Solvent used in leaching process of bauxite is
exhibit tautomerism?
(1) NaCl (aq) (2) NaOH (aq)
(3) NH4Cl (aq) (4) H2SO4 (aq)
91. Select the incorrect statement about white (1) (2)
phosphorus
(1) It is insoluble in water but soluble in carbon
disulphide
(2) It undergoes disproportion on boiling with
(3) (4)
NaOH solution
(3) It is most reactive allotrope of phosphorous
(4) It does not catches fire in air 100. Most basic oxide of vanadium among the
92. Number of ‘P – OH’ bond(s) in phosphonic acid is following is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) VO (2) V2O3

(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) V2O4 (4) V2O5

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CST-19 (Code-A) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

BOTANY
SECTION-A 109. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t racemose
101. Which of the given cell organelles contain(s) inflorescence
ribosomes? (1) Shoot axis continues to grow indefinitely
(A) Mitochondria (2) Flowers are borne in acropetal succession
(B) Chloroplast (3) Younger flowers are present toward apex
(C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (4) It is seen in Dianthus
(D) Lysosome 110. Which of the given is a medicinal plant of family-
(1) Only (A) and (B) (2) All except (D) Fabaceae?
(3) Both (A) and (D) (4) Only (C) (1) Muliathi (2) Lupin
102. Which of the given chromosomes appear (3) Trifolium (4) Aloe
V-shaped during anaphase? 111. Cork cambium is also known as
(1) Metacentric chromosome (1) Phelloderm (2) Phellem
(2) Sub-metacentric chromosome (3) Phellogen (4) Pith
(3) Acrocentric chromosome 112. Which of the following can be called ‘starch
(4) Telocentric chromosome sheath’?
103. How many generations of mitosis are required to (1) Pericycle of stem (2) Epiblema of root
produce 64 cells? (3) Endodermis of stem (4) Hypodermis of stem
(1) 32 (2) 4 113. Select the correct option w.r.t ploidy of capsule,
(3) 6 (4) 8 seta and rhizoids respectively in Funaria.
104. Morphology of chromosome can be best studied (1) 2n, 2n and n (2) n, n and 2n
in (3) 2n, n and 2n (4) n, 2n and n
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase 114. Syngamy refers to
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
105. Which of the given is not an obligate category (2) Fusion of male gamete with diploid
w.r.t taxonomic hierarchy? secondary nucleus
(1) Phylum (2) Order (3) Formation of endosperm
(3) Family (4) Tribe (4) Formation of triploid tissue
106. In case of plants, classes with a few similar 115. Which of the following transport mechanisms
characters are assigned to higher taxonomic is/are highly selective in nature?
category called
(1) Active transport (2) Simple diffusion
(1) Phylum (2) Order
(3) Facilitated transport (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Division (4) Family
116. Symplast pathway of water movement
107. How many kingdom(s) w.r.t Whittaker’s kingdom
(1) Consists of non-living parts of plant body
classification system exhibit both autotrophic as
well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition? (2) Is not affected by metabolic state of root
(1) Three (2) Two (3) Is slightly slower
(3) One (4) Four (4) Involves cell walls
108. Mycelium is found to be aseptate or coenocytic in 117. Which of the given bacteria oxidises ammonia to
members of which of the given classes of fungi? nitrite w.r.t nitrogen cycle?
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (1) Nitrobacter (2) Nitrocystis
(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuteromycetes (3) Nitrosomonas (4) Thiobacillus

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118. How many ATPs are consumed for production of 126. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t most of the
5 molecules of NH3 during biological N2-fixation? species of Chara.
(1) 5 (2) 40 (1) They are monoecious
(3) 10 (4) 20 (2) Male sex organ is globule
119. The first action spectrum of photosynthesis was (3) Female sex organ is nucule
described by T.W. Engelmann. He experimented
(4) Globule occupies upper position than the
on
nucule
(1) A green alga, Cladophora
127. All of the given are monocarpic plants, except
(2) A green alga, Chlorella
(1) Wheat (2) Mango
(3) An aquatic plant, Hydrilla
(3) Marigold (4) Rice
(4) Green sulphur bacteria
128. Select the correct sequence of anther wall layers
120. The primary acceptor molecule of CO2 during C3
from outermost to innermost
cycle is
(1) Epidermis → Middle layer → Tapetum →
(1) RuBP (2) OAA
Endothecium
(3) PEP (4) 3-PGA
(2) Epidermis → Endothecium → Middle layer →
121. It is said to be protoplasmic respiration, when Tapetum
respiratory substrate is
(3) Tapetum → Epidermis → Middle layer →
(1) Fats (2) Carbohydrates
Endothecium
(3) Protein (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Tapetum → Middle layer → Epidermis →
122. Select the incorrect match. Endothecium
(1) Acetyl CoA — Carotenoids 129. The stalk of ovule by which it remains attached to
(2) Succinyl CoA — Terpenes placenta is called
(3) Oxaloacetic acid — Pyrimidines (1) Funicle (2) Hilum
(4) α-ketoglutaric acid — Amino acid synthesis (3) Integument (4) Micropyle
123. Which of the given is/are synthetic auxins? 130. Which of the given traits selected by Mendel w.r.t
(A) IAA (B) IBA pea plants express itself in both homozygous as
(C) 2,4-D (D) NAA well as heterozygous conditions?

(1) Only (C) (2) Both (C) & (D) (1) Constricted pod (2) Yellow pod

(3) Only (A) (4) Both (A) & (B) (3) Terminal flower (4) Green pod
124. Which of the given plant hormone is known as 131. How many types of gametes can be produced by
stress hormone? a diploid organism with genotype AaBBCcDd?
(1) ABA (2) Cytokinin (1) 4 (2) 8
(3) Ethylene (4) GA3 (3) 3 (4) 6
125. Match the following columns and select the 132. Which of the given is an autosomal dominant
correct option. disorder?
Column-I Column-II (1) Haemophilia (2) PKU
A. Penicillium (i) Rhizome (3) Myotonic dystrophy (4) Thalassemia
B. Banana (ii) Bulb 133. Consider the following cross,
C. Onion (iii) Bulbil PpQq × PpQq
D. Lily (iv) Conidia What are the chances of occurrence of a progeny
A B C D with ppQq genotype?
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) 1 1
(1) (2)
(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) 4 8
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 1 1
(3) (4)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 2 16

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134. In a polynucleotide chain, phosphodiester linkage 143. A population is said to be mature or stable, when
joins (1) Its age pyramid appears bell-shaped
(1) Two complementary nitrogenous base
(2) It shows a declined growth
(2) A phosphate group to a nucleoside
(3) It shows a rapid increase in population size
(3) Two nucleotides
(4) It has very high proportion of pre-
(4) Nitrogenous base and pentose sugar reproductive individual
135. How many different types of histones form core 144. Which of the given is least productive
part of nucleosome? ecosystem?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) Desert
(3) 5 (4) 6
(2) Coral reefs
SECTION-B
(3) Tropical rain forest
136. Which of the given is a start codon?
(4) Sugar cane field
(1) AUG (2) UAA
145. Which of the given constitute pioneer community
(3) UAG (4) UGA in hydrarch succession?
137. In lac-operon, permease is coded by (1) Phytoplankton
(1) lac-y (2) lac-z (2) Submerged plant
(3) lac-a (4) lac-i
(3) Scrub stage
138. During somatic hybridisation, the plant cells are
(4) Forest
first treated with
146. Species-area relationship was given by
(1) Pectinase (2) Cellulase
(1) Alexander von Humboldt
(3) PEG (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Paul Ehrlich
139. The crucial step for success of breeding
programme is (3) David Tilmann
(1) Collection of variability (4) Robert May
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents 147. The most important cause driving animals and
(3) Selection and testing of superior plants to extinction is
recombinants (1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Cross hybridisation (2) Overexploitation
140. Puffed-up appearance of dough during (3) Alien species invasion
preparation of bread is due to
(4) Co-extinction
(1) Production of CO2 during fermentation
148. Mark the odd one w.r.t primary air pollutants.
(2) Death of yeast
(1) CO (2) SO2
(3) Release of ethyl alcohol
(3) NOx (4) Ozone
(4) Secretion of enzymes by yeast
149. Noise become unbearable at
141. Major component of biogas is
(1) 30 dB
(1) Methane (2) CO2
(2) 60 dB
(3) H2S (4) H2
(3) 80 dB
142. Which of the following contributes to decrease in
population density? (4) 140 dB
(1) Natality and Mortality 150. Which of the given green house gases contribute
(2) Mortality and Immigration maximum to total global warming?

(3) Emigration and Immigration (1) CO2 (2) CH4

(4) Mortality and Emigration (3) CFCs (4) N2O

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-19 (Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 156. Complete the analogy w.r.t. Periplaneta
151. The characteristic cells of animals exhibiting americana.
tissue level of organisation and metagenesis are Spiracles : 10 pairs : : Alary muscles : ________
(1) Ciliated cells Choose the option which correctly fills the blank
(2) Choanocytes (1) 10 pairs (2) 12 pairs
(3) Cnidoblasts (3) 13 pairs (4) 6 pairs
(4) Collar cells 157. The co-factors which are attached to
152. Match column-I with column-II and choose the apoenzyme transiently, usually during the course
correct option of catalysis are called
Column-I Column-II (1) Prosthetic groups

a. Clarias (i) Claspers on pelvic fins (2) Co-enzymes

(3) Metal ions
b. Doliolum (ii) Notochord in larval tail (4) Holoenzyme
158. Read the following statements and choose the
c. Aptenodytes (iii) Presence of terminal correct option.
mouth and air bladder Statement A: The blood concentration of
d. Pristis (iv) Homoiothermous glucose in a normal healthy individual is 4.2 m
mol/L – 6.1 mmol/L.
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
Statement B: Hormones' level in blood is usually
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) expressed in nanograms/mL.
153. Which of the following is a function of areolar
(1) Both A and B are correct
connective tissue?
(2) Both A and B are incorrect
(1) Serves as a support framework for epithelium
(3) Only A is correct
(2) Specialised to store fats
(3) Site of production of blood cells (4) Only B is correct

(4) Attach one bone to another 159. Choose the odd one w.r.t. enzymes of succus
entericus
154. Select the incorrect match
(1) Lipases
(1) Fallopian tubes – Ciliated epithelium
(2) Dipeptidases
(2) PCT of nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium (3) Amylase
(3) Air sacs of lungs – Squamous epithelium (4) Nucleotidases
(4) Pancreatic ducts – Simple epithelium 160. Gross calorific value of 10 g of fat would be
(1) 90 kcal (2) 94.5 kcal
155. The external genitalia in male Periplaneta
americana are represented by (3) 56.5 kcal (4) 40 kcal
a. Three pairs of gonapophyses 161 During normal quiet inspiration
b. Right, left and ventral phallomere (1) External intercostal muscles relax
c. Calcareous asymmetrical structures, (2) Internal intercostal muscles contract
surrounding the male gonopore
(3) Intra-pulmonary pressure is more than
Choose the correct option atmospheric pressure
(1) a, b and c (2) b and c (4) Volume of thoracic chamber increases in
(3) a and c (4) b only both antero-posterior and dorso-ventral axis

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162. The enzyme catalysed reaction given below 168. Polyuria, glycosuria and ketonuria in a person
occurs in backward direction at are indicative of
Carbonic
anhydrase
Carbonic
anhydrase
(1) Diabetes insipidus (2) Starvation
    − +
CO2 + H2O   H2CO3   HCO3 + H
(3) Diabetes mellitus (4) Renal calculi
(1) Alveolar site where pCO2 is high
169. Match column-I with column-II and choose the
(2) Tissue level where pCO2 is high correct option
(3) Alveolar site where pCO2 is low
Column-I Column-II
(4) Tissue level where pO2 is low
a. PCT (i) Almost impermeable
163. Branchial respiration is present in
to electrolytes
(1) Adult frog
(2) Aquatic molluscs b. DCT (ii) Filtrate becomes
hypotonic after
(3) Earthworm
passing through it
(4) Reptiles
c. Ascending limb of (iii) Helps to maintain
164. A person having only anti-A in his plasma can
Henle’s loop ionic balance
donate blood to persons with blood group
(1) B and AB (2) A and AB d. Descending limb of (iv) Conditional
Henle’s loop reabsorption of Na+
(3) AB and O (4) A and B
and water
165. Volume of blood pumped by both ventricles in
one minute by a normal adult human is (1) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) 70 mL (2) 140 mL (3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(3) 5 L (4) 10 L 170. Which of the following is not true for amoeboid
movement?
166. Read the following statements (a – d) w.r.t. ECG
of healthy individual and select the option which (1) Pseudopodia are formed
correctly states each statement as true (T) or (2) Cytoskeletal elements are not involved
false (F).
(3) Streaming of protoplasm
a. Atrial contraction starts shortly after start of Q
(4) Exhibited by macrophages
wave.
171. Select the correct match w.r.t. joints
b. ECG is a graphical representation of the
mechanical activity of heart during a cardiac (1) Gliding joint – Between atlas and axis
cycle.
(2) Fibrous joint – Between adjacent
c. “Pip…..pip…..pip….peeeee” sound indicates
vertebrae
heart failure.
d. Electrical leads are connected one to each (3) Cartilaginous – Between flat skull bones
wrist and to right ankle in standard ECG. joint

a b c d (4) Synovial joint – Between carpal and

(1) F F F F metacarpal of thumb

(2) T F T T 172. Which of the following parts of brain is located

(3) T F F F between hypothalamus and pons?

(4) F F T T (1) Corpora quadrigemina

167. Osmoreceptores are present in (2) Cerebellum

(1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata (3) Medulla oblongata

(3) Heart (4) Kidneys (4) Thalamus

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173. How many statement(s) is/are incorrect w.r.t. 179. The cells which are not found in the interstitial
sense organs? spaces between the seminiferous tubules are
a. Nose and tongue can detect dissolved (1) Immunologically competent cells
chemicals
(2) Interstitial cells
b. The chemical senses of gustation and
(3) Leydig cells
olfaction are functionally dissimilar
(4) Sertoli cells
c. The olfactory epithelium consists of three
kinds of cells 180. During parturition in human female, foetal
d. Olfactory bulbs are extension of brain’s limbic ejection reflex triggers the release of A from
system
the B . Here A and B are
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four A B
174. Auditory receptor(s) in internal ear of human (1) Oxytocin Foetal pituitary
is/are
a. Macula (2) Cortisol Foetal adrenal medulla

b. Crista ampullaris (3) ACTH Foetal hypothalamus

c. Hair cells in organ of Corti (4) Oxytocin Maternal pituitary
Choose the correct option
181. Which of the following is an incorrect statement
(1) a and b (2) a and c
w.r.t. adult human female reproductive system?
(3) b and c (4) c only
(1) Ovaries are located one on each side of the
175. Select the protein hormone which is secreted by lower abdomen
a gland composed of two lobes and regulates
blood calcium levels (2) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium,
which encloses ovarian stroma
(1) PTH (2) TCT
(3) Vaginal opening is anterior to urethral
(3) T4 (4) PRL
opening
176. Which hormone is released in response to high
(4) The last part of oviduct which joins uterus is
blood pressure?
isthmus
(1) ADH (2) Aldosterone
182. The population of India according to May 2011
(3) Renin (4) ANF census report is
177. Select the monoecious animal which exhibits
(1) 7.2 million (2) 1 billion
self-fertilisation
(3) 1.2 billion (4) 6 billion
(1) Pheretima (2) Periplaneta
183. Given below are the names of contraceptives,
(3) Taenia solium (4) Sycon
their composition and mechanism of action.
178. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option. Choose the correct option

Statement A: In animals, the juvenile phase is Contraceptive Composition Mechanism of action

followed by morphological and physiological
(1) Male condom Latex Covers vagina but
changes prior to active reproductive behaviour. allows deposition of
Statement B: In both plants and animals, semen in it
hormones are responsible for the transitions (2) Multiload 375 Copper coating Alters the quality of
between the three phases of life. cervical mucus
(1) Both A and B are correct (3) LNG-20 Levonorgestrel Makes the uterus
(2) Only A is correct unsuitable for
implantation
(3) Only B is correct
(4) Saheli Progestogens Prevents implantation
(4) Both A and B are incorrect

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184. The preferred method for assisting the case of 191. Mating of more closely related individuals within
infertility due to impotency is the same breed for 4-6 generations, where there
is selection at each step will result in all except
(1) ICSI (2) AI
(1) Increase in homozygosity
(3) GIFT (4) ZIFT
(2) Exposure of harmful recessive genes
185. When the same structure developed along
(3) Decrease in the productivity of inbred
different directions due to adaptation to different population
needs is called
(4) Accumulation of superior genes
(1) Analogous organs 192. The breeding and rearing of fishes only by
(2) Convergent evolution artificial means is called
(3) Divergent evolution (1) Fishery (2) Pisciculture

(4) Co-evolution (3) Apiculture (4) Sericulture

193. DNA fragment containing desired gene can be
SECTION-B
identified by
186. Life span of ‘A’ species is more than the life span (1) Staining with ethidium bromide under visible
of ‘B’ species then in which case new life forms light
would appear early? (2) Probe followed by autoradiography
(1) A species (3) Agarose gel electrophoresis after staining
(2) B species with bromophenol blue

(3) Simutaneously in A and B species (4) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay based
on antigen-antibody interaction
(4) Neither in A nor in B species
194. Why same restriction endonuclease is employed
187. Select the correct sequence w.r.t. evolution of to cut the cloning vector and donor DNA?
plants a. Resultant DNA fragments have same kind of
(1) Seed ferns → Progymnosperms → Dicots → ‘sticky-ends’
Monocots b. Resultant DNA fragments have
complementary sequences
(2) Psilophyton → Progymnosperms → Seed
c. Allows bond formation between the resultant
ferns → Dicots DNA fragments
(3) Progymnosperms → Seed ferns → Monocots Choose the correct option
→ Dicots (1) a only (2) a and b only
(4) Seed ferns → Cycads → Dicots → Monocots (3) a and c only (4) a, b and c
188. Choose the odd one w.r.t mode of transmission 195. Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria form
(1) Chicken pox (2) Diptheria (1) Protein crystals throughout their growth
(3) Pneumonia (4) Typhoid (2) Active toxin which kills cotton bollworm
(3) Inactive protoxins during a particular phase of
189. Select the correct match w.r.t vaccine and its
their growth
composition
(4) Proteins that kill lepidopterans like beetles
(1) BCG vaccine – Killed bacteria
196. Read the following statements and choose the
(2) OPV – Killed virus correct option.
(3) Recombivax HB – Polysaccharide Statement A: Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord
in chordates.
(4) Covaxin – Killed virus
Statement B: Urochordates are exclusively
190. Cancer can be detected by all except marine.
(1) Computed tomography (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens (2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Techniques of molecular biology (3) Both A and B statements are correct
(4) α-interferons (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect

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197. The pitch of B-DNA is 199. Which of the following is responsible for LH
(1) 34 Å (2) 3.4 Å surge?

(3) 0.34 nm (4) 36 Å (1) Under secretion of GnRH

198. Select the mismatch. (2) High levels of estrogen
(1) Addison's disease – Hyposecretion of (3) High levels of progesterone
mineralocorticoids
(4) High levels of prolactin
and glucocorticoids
200. Factor which does not affect the Hardy-Weinberg
(2) Acromegaly – Hyposecretion of
growth hormone in equilibrium is
adults (1) Gene flow
(3) Cretinism – Hyposecretion of (2) Genetic drift
thyroid hormones
(3) Mutation
(4) Diabetes insipidus – Hyposecretion of
(4) Random mating
ADH

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