SWAMY’S

ALE
S
DISCIPLINE
FOR
T
NO RULES
Made Objective
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

[ Free with Cat. Nos. C-8 and C-9 ]

MUTHUSWAMY
BRINDA
SANJEEV

ALE
R S
SWAMY PUBLISHERS (P) LTD.

FO
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NO
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ALE
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S
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R
FO CHENNAI — 600 028

OT
N FIRST EDITION — 2015
SECOND EDITION — 2019

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LE
of Chennai Courts only.
A
R S
FO
OT
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 ALE PREFACE
R S
FO
We have great pleasure in presenting the second edition of this book of
T
NO
Multiple Choice Questions on Discipline Rules to our readers.

Our pioneer venture of Swamy’s Leave Rules Made Objective was welcomed
by our readers. On the encouragement given by them, we have endeavoured to
bring out a question bank mainly meant for Discipline Rules.

The questions in this book have been coined in such a way that all rules
and decisions have been covered. All possible direct questions have been
extracted by our editorial board and incorporated in this book. This will surely
help the examination candidates to get a good understanding of the Rules and
answer the exam questions. The answers are given at the end of this book.
For reference purpose, the corresponding rule, GID and Office Memorandum
are also given along with the answer. Readers are encouraged to refer
Swamy’s Compilation of CCS (CCA) Rules and Swamy’s Compilation of
CCS (Conduct ) Rules for a detailed explanation to the answer.

Care has been taken to include every possible question covering all the
aspects of discipline rules, to make the study of MCQs easy and interesting.
The answers to questions are based on the provision prevailing on the date of
publication of this book.

Suggestions for improvement and rectifications of errors will be gratefully

accepted.
ALE
R S
Chennai FO
T
July, 2018
NO — The Publishers

iii
 FIFTH
MULTIPLE SCHEDULE
CHOICE QUESTIONS 5

A LE
S
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
R
FO
T
1. The date on which CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 came into effect is—
O
N
(a) 1st January
(c) 1st September
(b) 1st April
(d) 1st December

2. According to the definitions of CCS (CCA) Rules, who is defined as a

Government servant?
(a) A member of a service who holds a civil post under the Union, who
is temporarily placed at the disposal of the State Government
(b) A member of a service who holds a civil post under a State Government,
who is temporarily placed at the disposal of the Central Government
(c) A person in service of a local or other authority, temporarily placed
at the disposal of the Central Government
(d) All the above

3. From the following, CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 is applicable to—

(a) Members of All India Services
(b) Railway servant of Indian Railways Establishment
(c) Civilian Government servant working in the Defence Services
(d) Extra Departmental Agents of Postal Department

4. Central Government Civil posts are classified into ............................ after

implementation of Seventh CPC—
(a) Three

ALE
(b) Four (c) Five (d) Two

R S
5. Name the Level to which a Government servant belongs to if he was
appointed to a Central Civil post carrying the grade pay of ` 4,600 in the
FO
scale of pay of ` 9,300- 34,800 in PB-2—

O
(a) Level 6T (b) Level 7 (c) Level 8 (d) Level 9
N
6. Name the Authority for appointment to Group ‘A’ services and posts of
the Union without delegating any other authority—
(a) Governor (b) President
(c) Vice President (d) Head of the Department

DRMO — 2
6 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

7. Name the Authority for appointment to Groups ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’ posts of
the Union—
ALE
R S
(a) Vice President
(c) Appointing Authority
(b) Governor
(d) Inquiry Authority
FO
T
8. Suspension of Government servant means—
NO
(a) A kind of penalty (b) Temporary withdrawal of duties
(c) Attending office without salary (d) None of the above

9. An Appointing Authority may not place a Government servant under

suspension where—
(a) A disciplinary proceeding against him is contemplated or pending
(b) He has engaged himself in an activity prejudicial to the interest of
the security of the State
(c) A case against the Government servant in respect of any criminal
offence is under trial
(d) A Government servant has disobeyed his superior authority

10. From the following circumstances, under which can a Government servant
be placed under suspension—
(a) For attending office late (b) For a case against him in respect
of any criminal offence
(c) For disobedience (d) For petty quarrels amongst the
Government servants

11. A Government servant is deemed to have been placed under suspension,

if he is detained in custody for a period exceeding—

(a) 24 hours
ALE(b) 12 hours (c) 48 hours (d) 6 hours

R S
FO
12. Name the authority competent to place a Government servant under
suspension —
T
NO
(a) Appointing / Disciplinary Authority
(b) Inquiry Authority
(c) Leave Sanctioning Authority
(d) Subordinate Authority of a Government servant
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 7

13. A Government servant shall be deemed to have been placed under

suspension—
ALE
custodyR S
(i) With effect from the date of his detention, if he is detained in

FO
OT
(ii) With effect from the date of his conviction, if he is sentenced to
a term of imprisonment exceeding 48 hours
N
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) (i)
(c) (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

14. Where a penalty of compulsory retirement from service imposed upon

a Government servant under suspension is set aside in appeal, whether
the order of suspension is to be continued ? If so from which date ?
(a) From the date of original order of compulsory retirement
(b) From the date of original date of suspension
(c) From the date of appeal
(d) Order of suspension need not be continued

15. Can an order of suspension made or deemed to have been made, be

modified or revoked ? If so by whom?
(a) Inquiry Authority
(b) Leave sanctioning Authority
(c) An Authority competent to issue suspension order
(d) Order of suspension cannot be modified / revoked

16. Mention the period up to which an order of suspension can be reviewed.

ALE
(a) Before expiry of 30 days from the effective date of suspension
S
(b) Before expiry of 45 days from the effective date of suspension
R
FO
(c) Before expiry of 60 days from the effective date of suspension

T
(d) Before expiry of 90 days from the effective date of suspension
O
N
17. When will an order of suspension made or deemed to have been made,
not be valid unless extended ?
(a) After a period of 30 days (b) After a period of 60 days
(c) After a period of 90 days (d) After a period of 120 days
8 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

18. If an order of suspension made or deemed to have been made is not

LE
reviewed before expiry of ninety days, can it be valid ?
A
(a) Yes
R S
(b) No
FO
T
NO
(c) Yes, subject to conditions
(d) Yes, but with the approval of next higher Authority

19. What is the maximum period of suspension that can be extended at a time
after review of the Competent Authority ?
(a) 120 days (b) 150 days (c) 180 days (d) 210 days

20. Within the meaning of Rule 11, which of the following does not amount to
a penalty?

(a) Stoppage of a Government servant at the efficiency bar

(b) Compulsory retirement

(c) Withholding of increments

(d) Withholding of promotion

21. When does the review of suspension not become necessary on completing
90 days of suspension ?

(a) Deemed suspension (b) Under detention

ALE
(c) If it is not validated (d) None of the above

R S
22. From the following, choose which comes under the minor penalty—

FO
(a) Compulsory retirement
T
NO
(b) Dismissal from service

(c) Reduction by one stage for a period not exceeding three years
without cumulative effect

(d) Termination of the service under CCS (Temporary) Rules, 1965

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 9

23. A Government servant is appointed to a higher post on ad hoc basis

LE
against a short-term vacancy. Can he be allowed to continue in the ad hoc
A
S
appointment when a disciplinary proceeding is initiated against him?

R
O
(a) He shall be allowed to continue
F
T
(b) He shall be reverted to the post held by him on a regular basis
O
N
(c) He can be given an option between (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

24. Censure means—

(a) A formal punishment
(b) Imposition of penalty
(c) A record of adverse entry in the confidential record
(d) All the above

25. From the following, name the major penalty, under Rule 11—
(a) Withholding of increment of a Government servant for his failure to
pass any Departmental exam as per Recruitment Rules
(b) Withholding of promotion
(c) Recovering from pay of the whole or part of any recurring loss to the
Government caused by the official’s negligence
(d) Reduction to a lower time scale of Pay, Grade, Post or Service for
a period specified in the order of penalty, which shall be a bar to
his promotion

ALE
R S
26. If a Government servant had committed a misconduct during his earlier

employment? FO
employment, what action should be taken against him in his present

OT
N
(a) Should be warned
(b) Render hin unfit and unsuitable for continual in service
(c) Salary should be withheld for a specific period
(d) Can be awarded a penalty
10 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

27. What action should be proposed , if a temporary Government servant

LE
had furnished false information or produced a false certificate in order
A
to secure appointment?

R S
(a) Should be warned
FO
(b) Pay and allowances should not be drawn
T
NO
(c) Should be terminated immediately
(d) Should be asked to submit resignation

28. A Government servant was awarded a punishment of reduction to a lower

stage for two years. The reduction was from Level 7 to Level 5 in the Pay
Matrix. The reduction in stage was to operate for three years to postpone
all future increments. Comment.
(a) Punishment can be awarded for reduction only to one level
(b) The extent of punishment cannot exceed the period specified for
reduction
(c) Punishment cannot postpone all future increments
(d) None of the above

29. The Disciplinary Authority had initiated departmental proceedings

against a Government servant and after conclusion of disciplinary
proceeding, he decided not to award any penalty. What is the minimum
penalty that can be awarded to a Government servant ?
(a) Oral warning (b) Written warning
(c) Censure (d) Close the Disciplinary Proceeding

LE
30. Under which of the following circumstances, the leave sanctioning
A
R S
authority cannot mark the day as “dies non”—
(a) When an official remains absent from duty without prior information
FO
T
(b) When an official comes late and works throughout the day during

NO
the office hours
(c) When on duty in office, the official leaves the office without proper
permission
(d) When an official remains in office, but refuses to perform duty
assigned to him
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 11

31. A Government servant was awarded with penalty of withholding of one

LE
increment, by issue of punishment order, dated 1st November. Indicate
A
S
the date from which, the penalty takes effect from —

R
FO
(a) 1st November (b) 1st October

OT
(c) 1st January (d) 1st July

N
32. Is there any provision for imposition of two penalties at a time for any one
misconduct under CCS (CCA) Rules?
(a) No (b) Yes (c) Only one (d) No limit

33. A Disciplinary Authority imposed a penalty withholding of next increment

for a period of 3 years on Mr. X vide Punishment Order, dated 1-6-2013.
Specify the number of increments to be withheld.

(a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three

34. A Government servant who faced departmental proceeding was allowed

to appear in departmental examination and has passed the examination
also. Can he be promoted ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, after he is completely exonerated
(d) Not eligible to appear for the Departmental Examination

35. Whether the President of India is empowered to impose penalties on

ALE
a Government servant under Rule 11 of CCS (CCA) Rules ?

R S
(a) Only major penalties (b) No

FO
(c) Yes, any of the penalties (d) Only minor penalties

OT
N
36. From the following, which are the powers that cannot be exercised by an
officer who is appointed to perform the current duties of an appointment ?
(a) Administrative powers (b) Financial powers
(c) Statutory powers (d) Technical powers
12 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

37. Under what circumstances, can the Competent Authority not function as
LE
the Disciplinary Authority in respect of an official?
A
S
(a) On account of being his Appointing Authority
R
O
(b) On account of being a witness in support of the charges in the case
F
T
(c) On account of his appointment as Presenting Officer

NO
(d) On account of his Inquiry officer in another case

38. A penalty under Rule 11 can be imposed only by —

(a) Appellate Authority (b) Reviewing Authority
(c) Any other Authority (d) Punishing (Disciplinary)
Authority

39. Match the following from A to B—

A B
(i) Delinqent official 1. An officer appointed to hold the
enquiry independently in a
disciplinary proceeding
(ii) Disciplinary Authority 2. Appointing Authority / Punishing
Authority
(iii) Inquiry Officer 3. Government servant charged with
misconduct
(iv) Appellate Authority 4. An Authority considering an appeal
against an order imposing any of
the penalty
(a) i-3 (b) i - 4 (c) i - 1 (d) i - 3
ii - 2 ii - 2 ii - 3 ii - 4
iii - 1
iv - 4
ALE
iii - 3
iv - 1
iii - 4
iv - 2
iii - 1
iv - 2

R S
FO
40. Can a Disciplinary Authority who is not competent to impose the penalty
specified in Rule 11 institute disciplinary procedings against any
T
Government servant?
(a) No
(b) Yes
NO
(c) Competency of imposing penalty not required for DA
(d) None of the above
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 13

41. When can the Disciplinary Authority inquire into truth of any imputation
LE
of misconduct or misbehaviour against a Government servant ?
A
S
(a) When there is a ground established
R
FO
(b) When there is a complaint received anonymous

T
(c) Can inquire even there is no ground established
O
N
(d) On an oral complaint received

42. Who is competent to hold an enquiry when there is a complaint for sexual
harassment ?
(a) A complaint committee established in Ministry / Department / Office
(b) Head of Office
(c) Head of the Department
(d) A Vigilance Committee of the Department

43. Where it is proposed to hold an enquiry against a Government servant

under Rule 14 and Rule 15, the Disciplinary Authority shall draw up or
cause to be drawn up:—
(a) The substance of the imputation of misconduct or misbehaviour
into definite and distinct article of charges
(b) The substance of article of charge against the Government servant
(c) The substance of the penalty to be awarded
(d) The substance of evidence to be recorded

44. Under which Rule the Disciplinary Authority shall act, after recording its
findings on each charge taking such evidence as it may think fit?

(a) Rule 14
ALE
(b) Rule 15 (c) Rule 11 (d) Rule 13

R S
FO
45. In the event no defence statement is given, the Disciplinary Authority
may itself inquire or appoint an Inquiry Authority to inquire. Whether

OT
this is correct?
N
(a) Correct
(b) Incorrect
(c) Cannot appoint Inquiry Authority
(d) Without defence statement, no inquiry can be considered

DRMO — 3
14 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

46. The Disciplinary Authority (where he is not the Inquiring Authority) shall
LE
not forward to the Inquiry Authority ..................
A
R S
(a) A copy of the Article of Charge and the statement of imputation of
misconduct or misbehaviour
FO
(b) A copy of the statements of witness, if any referred to in sub-rule (3)
T
NO
(c) A copy of the order of appointing ‘Presenting Officer’
(d) A written brief of the case with directions for conducting Inquiry

47. What is the maximum time allowed / awarded to a Government servant

to appear before Inquiring Authority after the receipt of Article of Charge
by the Inquiring Authority ?
(a) 10 working days (b) 7 days
(c) 30 working days (d) 3 days

48. If the ‘Presenting Officer’ appointed is not a Legal Practitioner, then can
the Government servant engage a Legal Practitioner as Defence Assistant?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Appointment of Defence Assistant is the choice of Government
servant
(d) None of the above

49. How many cases can be pending with a Government servant who is acting
as Defence Assistant to the Government Servant under charge ?
(a) 2 cases (b) 4 cases (c) 3 cases (d) 5 cases

50. What is the time-limit for furnishing the copies of document to the
LE
Government servant on his application, before the commencement of the
A
(a) 3 days
R S
examination of witness ?
(b) 5 days
FO
(c) 10 working days (d) No time limit
T
NO
51. What is the time-limit for discovery or production of any documents
which are in possession of Government but not mentioned in the list
referred in sub-rule (3) ?
(a) within 10 days (b) 7 days
(c) within 12 days (d) 5 days
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 15

52. Can a Government servant indicate the reference of the document required
LE
by him, to be discovered or produced by the Government ?
A
(a) Yes
R S (b) No

FO
(c) Not required (d) None of the above

OT
53. Whether the Inquiring Authority can, based on the reasons recorded,
N
refuse requisition of document by the Government servant, if in it’s opinion
they are not relevant to the case ?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Irrespective of relevancy, the document required by Government
servant should be requisitioned
(d) It is the duty of the Inquiry Authority to produce the document indented.

54. If the document requisitioned by the Government servant would

go against the public interest or security of the State, can such document
be furnished?
(a) Yes, can be furnished
(b) No, cannot be furnished
(c) Under no circumstance can it be refurnished
(d) Only part of the document can be furnished

55. During re-examination of witnesses by the Presenting Officer, can he take

up any new matter without the leave of Inquiring Authority ?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Yes, with the permission of Government servant charged

ALE
(d) Yes, with the permission of Disciplinary Authority

R S
56. How many days can the Inquiry be adjourned, in the event of production
of new evidence or witness not listed before by the Inquiring Authority
FO
on behalf of the Disciplinary Authority ?

OT
(a) Three clear days, exclusive of the day of adjournment and the day
N
to which the enquiry is adjourned
(b) Five clear working days
(c) Three clear days, inclusive of the day of adjournment and the day
to which the inquiry is adjourned
(d) Only three working days
16 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

57. When can an evidence be permitted to be called / recalled during the

course of enquiry?
ALE
R S
(a) When there is an inherent lacuna or defect in the evidence which has
been produced originally
FO
T
(b) It cannot be recalled under any circumstances

NO
(c) It can be recalled to fill up gap in the evidence
(d) It is left to the discretion of the Inquiring Authority

58. After the case for Disciplinary Authority is closed, whether the Government
servant is allowed to state his defence in writing / orally?
(a) Yes, it should be recorded and a copy may be furnished to Presenting
Officer, if any
(b) No, it cannot be allowed
(c) It is allowed only with the permission of Presenting Officer
(d) It shall not be allowed in the event of causing any damage to the
proceeding

59. Whether witnesses produced by the Government servant is liable to be

examined, cross-examined or re-examined by the Inquiring Authority?
(a) According to the provisions applicable to the witness for the
Disciplinary Authority
(b) They are allowed to be cross-examined
(c) Re-examination can be done

ALE
(d) It is not allowed in any proviso

R S
60. Can an Inquiry Authority question a Government servant after the close

FO
of his case, to enable him explain himself any circumstances appearing
in the evidence against him?
T
(a) Yes
(b) No
NO
(c) Only Disciplinary Authority can question
(d) None of the above
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 17

61. Which of the following need not be submitted as return of assets and
LE
liabilities, by a Government servant during his entry into the Government
A
service?

R S
(a) Immovable property inherited or owned or acquired by him
FO
T
(b) Shares, debentures and cash in bank
O
N
(c) Other movable property
(d) Utensils, crockery and books

62. Under which of the following circumstances should a Government servant

report to the Authority, while entering into a transaction of a movable
property?
(a) If the value of the property exceeds two months’ basic pay
(b) If the value of the property exceeds one month’s basic pay
(c) If the value of the property exceeds three months’ basic pay
(d) None of the above

63. Who is the Prescribed Authority with respect to Class-I Officer, to order
for a full and complete statement regarding acquired movable and
immovable property ?
(a) The Government (b) Head of the Department
(c) Head of Office (d) CAG

64. Which Rule under CCS (Conduct) Rules prescribes the forms specified in
the schedule for submission of movable and immovable property return?

ALE
(a) Rule 18 (1) (b) Rule 14 (1) (c) Rule 16 (2) (d) Rule 114

R S
FO
65. Whether, participation in auction and bidding by a Government servant
is allowed, when the auction is conducted by his own Office or Ministry ?

OT
N
(a) It is allowed
(b) It is prohibited
(c) Prior sanction needs to be obtained
(d) Direct participation only is not allowed
18 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

66. Whether it is needed to scrutinize regularly the returns submitted by

LE
officers of Central Secretariat Service and Cabinet Secretariat Service ?
A
S
(a) No need to scrutinize regularly
R
FO
(b) It should be scrutinized immediately after submission

T
NO
(c) It is to be scrutinized when new items are added in the return
(d) It is to be scrutinized once in two years

67. Whose certificate of valuation submitted by a Government servant could

be accepted when a building is constructed at a cost not exceeding ` 10,000
in a village ?
(a) Certificate of valuation from Civil Engineer of Government Department
(b) Certificate of valuation from Tahsildar
(c) Certificate from retired Civil Engineer, who is doing the practice
(d) Certificate from the Legislative Assembly Member of that area

68. What is the upper monetary limit for a Government servant (Groups ‘A’
and ‘B’), for initiation of transaction in shares, debentures, etc., with the
Prescribed Authority?
(a) If the total transaction in shares, debentures, etc., exceeds ` 50,000
(b) If the total transaction in shares, debentures, etc., exceeds ` 25,000
(c) If the total transaction in shares, debentures, etc., exceeds ` 15,000
(d) If the total transaction in shares, debentures, etc., exceeds ` 20,000

ALE
R S
69. What is the prescribed limit for undertaking a repair / minor construction
work in respect of any immovable property belonging to a Government

FO
servant for which prior intimation to prescribed authority is necessary?

T
NO
(a) If the estimation exceeds ` 10,000
(b) If the estimation exceeds ` 5,000
(c) If the estimation exceeds ` 2,000
(d) If the estimation exceeds ` 7,500
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 19

70. When can a Government servant having a spouse living, enter into or
LE
contract a marriage with any person ?
A
R S
(a) When such marriage is permissible under the personal law of the
Government servant
FO
(b) If the first spouse has given her consent / permission

OT
(c) With the permission of children
N
(d) With the permission of the parents of the living spouse

71. No Government servant shall employ to work, any child below the age of
............. years.

(a) 18 years (b) 20 years (c) 14 years (d) 16 years

72. Whether the Presenting Officer and the Government servant are permitted
to file the written brief of the case after completion of production of
evidences ?
(a) Both are permitted to file written brief
(b) Written brief of case cannot be filed by both
(c) Only Presenting Officer is allowed to file the written brief
(d) Only Government servant is permitted to file written brief

73. What shall be the action of the Inquiring Authority, if the Government
servant (a) does not submit the written statement of defence or (b) does
not appear before the I.A.in person or (c) refuses to comply with the
provision of this rule, after the articles of charge has been delivered?
(a) Inquiring Authority may hold the inquiry ex parte
(b) Inquiring Authority may adjourn the enquiry indefinitely
(c) Inquiring Authority may seek the advice of Disciplinary Authority

ALE
(d) Inquiring Authority may give one more opportunity to the
S
Government servant
R
FO
74. Which is the one that is not included in the inquiry report, prepared after

T
the conclusion of inquiry ?
O
N
(a) The articles of charge and the statement of the implication of
misconduct or misbehaviour
(b) The defence of the Government servant in respect of each articles of
charge
(c) An assessment of the evidence in respect of each articles of charge
(d) Daily sheet recorded during the enquiry held
20 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

75. Whose advice is required to be taken before initiating criminal proceeding?

ALE
(a) Government Counsel

R S
(b) Police Commissioner
FO
(c) First Class Magistrate
T
NO
(d) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate / District Judge

76. What is the time-limit prescribed for issuing sanction against prosecution
of a Government servant?
(a) 5 months (b) 6 months (c) 3 months (d) 2 months

77. Whether departmental action can also be taken, when the same matter
has been taken up in the Court of Law for prosecution of Government
servant concerned ?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Departmental enquiry to be stayed (d) None

78. Which factor mentioned below is not related to the cause for undue delay
and faulty disposal of the disciplinary case?
(a) Officer conducting inquiry may be pre-occupied
(b) Unfamiliarity with the procedure and inadequate experience
(c) Some undue delay occurred in making reference to UPSC
(d) Non-availability of the Charged Officer for the inquiry

ALE
79. What is the period of limitation of appeals?
(a) 60 days
R S
(b) 45 days (c) 90 days (d) 30 days
FO
T
NO
80. Who is competent to accept the appeal after expiry of limitation period?
(a) Appointing Authority
(b) Disciplinary Authority
(c) Appellate Authority
(d) Ad hoc Disciplinary Authority
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 21

81. To whom shall the appeal be presented ?

ALE
(a) To the authority to whom appeal lies

R S
(b) To the Inquiry Officer

FO
(c) To the Disciplinary Authority

OT
(d) To the Appointing Authority
N
82. How to prefer an appeal ?
(a) Jointly (b) Separately
(c) Along with Appointing Authority (d) None

83. What are the contents of the appeal ?

(a) Representation of the official
(b) Only brief of his case
(c) Only orders of the Disciplinary Authority
(d) Material statements and arguments

84. What type of language is to be avoided in the appeal ?

(a) Disrespectful or improper language
(b) Normal writing
(c) Speaking language
(d) Polite language

85. What is the time-limit to forward the appeal to the Appellate Authority by
the authority which made the order, on receipt of a copy of appeal ?
(a) Immediately
ALE (b) With a normal delay

R S
(c) Within 10 days (d) Without any available delay

FO
86. Is there any provision for withholding appeals by the authority to whom
T
the appeal is preferred ?
O
N
(a) No provision for withholding appeals
(b) May be withheld
(c) May be withheld for a reasonable period
(d) None of the above

DRMO — 4
22 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

87. What are the proper records to be submitted to the Appellate Authority
LE
with appeals / petitions ?
A
S
(a) Brief history and Para-wise comments of the case
R
FO
(b) Only service book with CR dossier

T
NO
(c) Brief history, Para-wise comments, Annexure duly completed, Discip-
linary file in original, Appeal file in original (in case of petition only)
SB, CR dossier, any records or documents relevant to the case
(d) Disciplinary file only

88. What is the time-limit for review petitions addressed to Member (A),
P & T Board?
(a) 75 days (b) 60 days (c) 45 days (d) 30 days

89. Which Rule provision of the CCS (CCA) Rules is to be considered by

the Appellate Authority in case of appeal against the order of
suspension ?
(a) Rule 10 (b) Rule 12 (c) Rule 11 (d) None of the above

90. In case of appeal against an order imposing any penalty under Rule 11,
an Appellate Authority shall evaluate the same under provisions of which
of the following Rules?
(a) Rule 27 (2) (b) Rule 24 (c) Rule 22 (d) Rule 23

91. Who can allow for personal hearing in major penalty cases ?
(a) Appellate Authority (b) Appointing Authority

LE
(c) Disciplinary Authority
A (d) Head of the Office.

R S
O
92. When is de novo proceedings required ?
F
T
(a) When orders of the Disciplinary Authority are defective

NO
(b) When Appellate Authority sets aside the punishment orders
(c) When there is a dispute between delinquent and Disciplinary Authority
(d) Due to non implementing proper procedure during the course of
Inquiry
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 23

93. Who is the competent authority to review / revise the punishment order
LE
in respect of a Government servant serving in Postal Department ?
A
S
(a) Postmaster-General
R
FO
(b) SP / SSPOs (Superintendent of Posts)

OT
(c) Director of Postal Services
N
(d) Member (Personnel) Postal Services Board

94. Who is the authority to review / revise the punishment order in respect of
a Government servant serving in Telecommunication Department ?
(a) General Manager, Telecom
(b) Principal General Manager, Telecom
(c) Controller of Communication Accounts
(d) Advisor (Human Resources Development), Department of
Telecommunication

95. Who is the Competent Authority to review / revise the punishment orders
of the Government servant serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts
Department ?
(a) Accountant General (b) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(c) Deputy Accountant General (d) Audit Officer

96. Who is the Competent Authority to review / revise the punishment orders
in respect of other Central Government Departments (except P & T and
Secretariat) ?
(a) Head of a Department directly under the Central Government
(b) Head of Office of the respective Department

ALE
(c) Next immediate Officer of the concerned official

S
(d) Disciplinary Authority

R
FO
97. Permission of which commission is necessary for enhancing / setting
aside / cancellation of penalty already imposed on a Government servant?
OT
N
(a) Vigilance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Commission set up by the concerned Ministry
(d) None of the above
24 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

98. Whether the original Punishing Authority can cancel it’s own order in
revision?
ALE
S
(a) Cannot cancel it’s own order (b) Can revise the order
R
FO
(c) Can cancel the order (d) None of the above

T
NO
99. What is the time-limit fixed for preferring revision petition without
submitting an appeal ?
(a) 3 months before the date of order
(b) 6 months before the date of order
(c) Within 4 months
(d) 5 months

100. Who is competent for “remanding case” for revision of penalty in respect
of P & T Department ?
(a) Disciplinary Authority
(b) Appointing Authority
(c) The President or the P & T Board
(d) Inquiry Officer

101. Is UPSC consultation necessary for remanding a case for revision of

penalty?
(a) Necessary in all cases (b) Not necessary when President
sets aside the proceedings

LE
(c) Mandatory in certain cases
A (d) None of the above

R S
officer? FO
102. When is it necessary to initiate de novo proceedings against the concerned

T
NO
(a) If an appellate order is set aside for procedural defects
(b) At the request of the delinquent official
(c) At the request of the Disciplinary Authority
(d) At the request of the Defence Assistant
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 25

103. How are the Orders / Notices served to the Government servant ?

ALE
(a) Served in person or by Registered Post

R S
(b) By Ordinary Post

FO
(c) Through a messenger

OT
(d) By Courier
N
104. Should the copy of UPSC’s advice be supplied to the Government servant
along with the final Order of Penalty ?
(a) Should be supplied (b) Not compulsory
(c) Optional (d) If desired

105. State the year in which CCS (Conduct) Rules came into force?
(a) 1962 (b) 1964 (c) 1968 (d) 1972

106. To whom is CCS (Conduct ) Rules not applicable?

(a) Employees of non-statutory departmental canteens
(b) Persons appointed to a civil service or post in connection with the
affairs of the Union
(c) Extra Departmental Agents in the Postal Department
(d) Members of Committees / Commissions appointed by the Government

107. What behaviour is expected of a Government servant at all times?

(a) Maintain absolute integrity
(b) Maintain absolute devotion to duty
(c) Do nothing which is unbecoming of a Government servant
(d) All the above
ALE
R S
108. State what a Government servant should do, if he had received oral
O
instruction / direction from his official superior?
F
T
(a) He would obtain the written confirmation of the same.
O
N
(b) He would go and discuss about this with other employees
(c) He would not ask for any official confirmation from his official
superior in writing
(d) He would try to get the written confirmation from the supervisor of
some other department
26 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

109. Quote the rules under which the provisions of “Prohibition of Sexual
LE
Harassment of Working Women” is covered?
A
(a) Rule 3
R S(b) Rule 3-B (c) Rule 3-C (d) Rule 3-A

FO
T
NO
110. A Government servant who was convicted by a Court of law had
suppressed the fact and requested for grant of regular leave for the
absence. What action is to be proposed if leave already sanctioned?
(a) Leave sanctioned to be cancelled
(b) Government servant is liable for disciplinary action
(c) Government servant is to be dismissed immediately
(d) Not to be allowed to join duty

111. A Government servant who was detained in a police custody for more
than 48 hours failed to intimate the same to his superior and requested for
sanction of leave for the absence. Is the action of the Government servant
in order?

(a) No. He should have intimated the fact of his detention and is therefore
liable for disciplinary action

(b) Yes. Leave to be treated as dies non

(c) Yes. His leave will not affect his duty

(d) Yes. If he has enough leave, he can take leave without informing the
superior the actual purpose of his absence

ALE
R S
112. Name the activity which requires prior permission / sanction of the
prescribed authority.

FO
(a) Seeking redressal of grievances of service matters in Courts of law
T
NO
(b) To join educational institution or course of studies for university
degree
(c) Giving evidence in any judicial enquiry
(d) To take part in informal farewell entertainment
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 27

113. Name the act, conduct and commission of a Government servant which
LE
amounts to misconduct?
A
S
(a) Rendering prompt and courteous service to the public
R
O
(b) Act in accordance with the Government policies
F
T
(c) Striking work or inciting others to strike
O
N
(d) Maintenance of political neutrality

114. Name the activity which does not require sanction / permission of the
prescribed authority
(a) To join as volunteers in Civil Defence Service
(b) To accept gifts from near relatives and personal friends when the
value exceeds prescribed limits
(c) To accept fee for work done for any private or public body or person
(d) To participate in ‘shramdhan’ organized by Government Departments
or the Bharat Sevak Samaj during spare time

115. Members of Parliament / State Legislature of the area are to be invited to

public functions organized by Government offices. In such situation, what
is the status of M.P. as per the ‘Warrant of Precedence?
(a) He is above the rank of a Minister
(b) He is above the rank of a State Governor
(c) He is above the rank of Secretary to the Government of India
(d) He is equivalent to the rank of Deputy Secretary of India

116. What is the time-limit prescribed for sending an acknowledgement to a

communication / letter received from the Members of Parliament as per

ALE
the provision of Manual of Office Procedure?

R S
(a) Within 3 days
(c) Within 15 days
(b) Within 7 days
(d) Within 30 days
FO
OT
117. What is the time-limit stipulated for sending a final reply to a communi-
N
cation / letter received from the Member of Parliament, if the information
has to be obtained from another Office / Ministry, as per the provision of
Manual of Office Procedure?
(a) Within 10 days (b) Within 15 days
(c) Within 20 days (d) Within 30 days
28 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

118. A Complaints Committee has been constituted in each Ministry /

LE
Department / Office as per the norms / guidelines issued by the Hon’ble
A
Supreme Court. State the purpose for which it is constituted?

R S
(a) To forbid the practice of untouchability

FO
(b) To prohibit the Government servants from taking part in proselytization
T
activities

NO
(c) To enquire into the complaints of sexual harassment of working women
in the workplace
(d) To deal with the representation from Government servant on service
matters

119. The report of Complaints Committee established in each Ministry or

Department or Office for inquiring into complaints of sexual harassment
is considered to be the—
(a) Inquiring Authority report under CCS ( CCA) Rules, 1965
(b) Appointing Authority report
(c) Disciplinary Authority report
(d) Appellate Authority report

120. The Complaints Committee constituted for redressal of the complaints by

the women employee should be headed by—
(a) The Head of the Department
(b) An Officer of equivalent rank of the victim
(c) an officer sufficiently higher in rank
(d) An officer from an NGO

121. The periodicity of convening a Complaints Committee is ....................

(a) Half-yearly
ALE(b) Annual (c) Quarterly (d) Monthly

R S
FO
122. Which is the nodal Ministry responsible for formulating policies and
framing rules and regulations relating to service conditions of Government
servants ? T
NO
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Communication
(c) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(d) Ministry of Finance
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 29

123. CCS (Conduct) Rules stipulates prior permission / intimation for accepting
LE
employment in foreign organization by a close relative of the Government
A
R S
servant. Name the foreign organization from the following categories:—
(a) A company which is not a subsidiary of foreign company
FO
(b) A corporation not being a foreign company incorporated in a foreign

OT
territory
N
(c) A company under Companies Act, in which less than one half of the
nominal value of its share capital is held by a Government of foreign
country
(d) Commercial organization which is not incorporated in a foreign
country

124. Name the act from the following, which does not amount to taking part in
politics and elections by a Government servant—
(a) Participation in demonstrations organized by political parties
(b) Acting as election agent
(c) Proposing / seconding the nomination of a candidate at an election
(d) Assisting in the conduct of an election in the due performance of
the duty imposed on him

125. Name the act from the following which will amount to taking part in politics
and election by a Government servant:—
(a) Organizing election meetings for Ministers
(b) To exercise his right to vote in an election to Legislature
(c) Providing normal protection to Ministers for maintaining law and
order
(d) Making normal arrangements during election tours of Ministers

ALE
R S
126. Which are the matters that cannot be displayed by a recognized
Association / Trade Unions on the notice board in the office premises?

FO
(a) Statement of accounts of income and expenditure of the Unions /
T
Associations
O
N
(b) Announcement regarding date, time, place and purpose of General
Body Meeting
(c) Reminders to the members of the Associations / Unions about the
dues outstanding against them
(d) Criticism against individuals / Officers / Office directly or indirectly
30 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

127. Who is the Competent Authority to decide whether the activities of an

LE
Association attract the provision of Rule (6) of CCS (Conduct) Rules?
A
S
(a) Head of Office
R
FO
(b) Head of Department

T
NO
(c) Authority competent to sanction leave
(d) Labour Officer

128. What constitutes a strike?

(a) Submission of joint representation by employees
(b) Participation in general body meeting
(c) Lawful gathering of employees at one place within the office
premises
(d) Refusal to work or stoppage or slowing down work by a group of
employees

129. What action can be taken against employees who participate in a strike?
(a) Treating the above as ‘Casual Leave’
(b) Initiation of disciplinary action for unauthorized absence
(c) Sanctioning the leave admissible for the period of absence
(d) Treating the period of absence as EOL

130. Which Conduct Rule prevents the criticism of Government?

(a) Rule 8

ALE
(b) Rule 9 (c) Rule 7 (d) Rule 10

S
131. What action is to be taken against the Service Associations passing
R
employee? FO
resolutions on issues which involve violation of rule by the individual

T
NO
(a) No action to be taken
(b) Written warning to be issued
(c) Disciplinary action to be initiated
(d) Oral warning to be issued
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 31

132. Which committee’s recommendation has given freedom to Officers to

LE
express their differing views?
A
S
(a) Hota Committee Recommendation
R
O
(b) Estimates Committee Recommendation
F
T
(c) Vigilance Committee
O
N
(d) Review Committee

133. What are the following acts which the witness shall note as breach of
privilege and Contempt of Parliament?
(a) Destroying or damaging material document
(b) Using saucy language relating to the enquiry
(c) Refusal to answer questions
(d) All the above

134. Under which Act does a Government servant communicate official

information in performance of his duties ?
(a) Evidence Act
(b) Copyright Act, 1914
(c) Right to Information Act, 2005
(d) Contract Act

135. Who is the Competent Authority to give permission in respect of maps,

charts, plans and other documents published by or on behalf of the Survey
of India?

ALE
(a) Surveyor- General of India

R S
(b) Cabinet Secretary of India
(c) Chief Secretary of the State concerned
FO
(d) Secretary of the Ministry

OT
N
136. Communication of unauthorized information like Government circulars,
secret notes, repeated appeals to the unauthorized persons amounts
to an offence under—
(a) Indian Evidence Act (b) Official Secrets Act
(c) Right to Information Act (d) Copyright Act
32 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

137. Which category of Officers are specially authorized to meet the Press?

ALE
(a) Head of the Office

R S
(b) Ministers / Secretaries / other officers specially authorized by the
Minister
FO
T
(c) Section Officers

NO
(d) Officer-in-charge

138. Which of the following does not permit a Government servant to collect
contributions for ?
(a) National Defence Fund
(b) Flag Day Fund
(c) National Foundation for communal harmony
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru Memorial Fund

139. Which of the following comes under the expression ‘gift’ ?

(a) A casual meal offered to a Government servant
(b) Social hospitality
(c) Free transport, boarding and lodging offered by a person who has
official dealings with the Government servant
(d) Near relative’s help

140. What should be avoided by a Government servant?

(a) Getting social help from his friend

ALE
(b) Getting small help from his relatives

R S
(c) Small help from his neighbour
FO
(d) Accepting lavish / frequent hospitality from any individual / industrial /
T
NO
commercial firms having official dealing with him

141. What is the maximum limit of gift to be received on occasions of weddings,

funerals, religious functions of a Group ‘B’ Officer?

(a) ` 15,000 (b) ` 14,000 (c) ` 13,000 (d) ` 12,000

 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 33

142. How much amount is to be received as gift in respect of functions like

LE
anniversaries, religious functions, wedding of a Group ‘C’ official?
A
(a) ` 5,000
R S(b) ` 4,000 (c) ` 7,500 (d) ` 10,000

FO
143. What is the limit of a gift to be received by a Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ Officer
T
without sanction of a Government on an ordinary way?
O
N
(a) ` 2,000 (b) ` 1,500 (c) ` 1,000 (d) ` 500

144. A Group ‘C’ official had accepted a gift of ` 800 from a friend who has
no official dealing with him, without the sanction of the Government.
From the following, indicate which limit does not require a sanction—
(a) ` 2,000 (b) ` 1,000 (c) ` 750 (d) ` 500

145. What is the limit for a Government servant who is a member of Indian
delegation to receive money as gift from the foreign dignitaries on one
occasion?
(a) ` 1,000 (b) ` 2,000 (c) ` 5,000 (d) ` 4,000

146. Which Ministry should be consulted for accepting invitation for free
inaugural flights as a gift?
(a) Finance Ministry’s acceptance (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Civil Aviation (d) Ministry of External Affairs

147. Under what circumstances are Government servants allowed to avail the
facility of free companion tickets offered by the airlines?
(a) In case of international travel only
(b) In case of domestic travel
(c) In case of travel within the local area

LE
(d) None of the above
A
S
148. Demand of dowry is prohibited by Rule 13-A of CCS (Conduct) Rules.
R
FO
Which Act defines dowry?
(a) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (b) Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

OT
(c) Indian Evidence Act (d) None of the above
N
149. If a Government servant violated the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what
punishment should be initiated?
(a) Warning to be issued (b) Disciplinary action to be initiated
(c) Oral warning to be issued (d) No action to be taken
34 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

150. A Group ‘B’ Officer of the Government was working for a Charitable Trust
LE
as a part-time Accountant. Which of the following sentences is true?
A
S
(a) If it was a honorary work, no previous sanction is necessary
R
O
(b) Previous sanction is necessary even for honorary work
F
T
(c) He cannot involve in any part-time work

NO
(d) He can undertake any part-time job

151. Can permission be granted to enrol with the Bar Association to

a Government servant having legal qualification?
(a) Permission to enrol as an Advocate but not allowed to practise
(b) Not permitted
(c) He can enrol without permission
(d) Permitted to enrol as an Advocate and engage himself in the Legal
profession

152. Is it necessary to get prior sanction to participate in any competition /

social event organized by private companies / organization, the primary
objective of which is only to promote their business ?
(a) Prior sanction is necessary (b) Prior sanction not necessary
(c) Formal intimation is enough (d) Sanction is optional

153. Is it necessary for a Government servant to get previous sanction for

contesting / canvassing in elections to sports bodies ?
(a) Previous sanction not necessary
(b) Previous sanction must

ALE
(c) Oral intimation to be given

S
(d) Previous sanction optional

R
FO
154. What action should be taken against a Government servant for subletting
of Government accommodation?
T
NO
(a) No action necessary
(b) Damage licence fee to be recovered
(c) To initiate disciplinary action under Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules
(d) Warning to be issued
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 35

155. Whether a Government servant should get prior sanction for acquiring /
LE
disposing land or valuable property?
A
S
(a) Prior sanction should be obtained
R
FO
(b) Ex post facto sanction to be obtained

T
(c) No sanction is necessary
O
N
(d) Oral intimation to be given

156. Whether permission is necessary from the Government for getting

temporary loans of small amounts, free of interest from personal friends
and relatives by a Government servant?
(a) Permission to be obtained
(b) Written intimation to be given
(c) No sanction / permission is necessary
(d) Oral information to be given

157. Can a Senior Officer approach his subordinate for giving surety for loans
taken by them ?
(a) Surety may be obtained from their subordinates
(b) Surety may be obtained at the willingness of the subordinates
(c) Not to approach the subordinate to stand surety for him
(d) Prior intimation to be given to Government

158. Who is the competent authority for appointment of an Inquiry Officer

in a Departmental proceedings ?

LE
(a) Head of Department
A (b) Presenting Officer

R S
(c) Head of Office (d) Disciplinary Authority

FO
T
159. What is the role of an Inquiry Officer in a Departmental Enquiry ?
O
N
(a) To give an evidence
(b) To assist the Charged Officer
(c) To conduct an inquiry independently
(d) To frame charges against a delinquent Official
36 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

160. Who is the custodian of listed documents in a Departmental Enquiry ?

ALE
(a) Presenting Officer (b) Defence Assistant

R S
(c) Inquiry Officer (d) Charged Officer

FO
T
161. How many types of documents are there to which the Charged Official has

NO
a right to access for defending himself in a departmental proceedings ?
(a) Three types (b) Four types
(c) Two types (d) Five types

162. Whether the production of new documentary evidence which was not
included originally by the Disciplinary Authority is permissible ?
(a) No
(b) Yes, invariably
(c) Yes, only where there is defect in the evidence
(d) None

163. What is Daily Order Sheet ?

(a) It is a record maintained by the Presenting Officer
(b) It is a record maintained by the Charged Officer
(c) It is a record maintained by the Defence Assistant
(d) It is a record maintained by the Inquiry Officer

164. Who is empowered to pass Interlocutory Orders in a departmental

proceedings?
ALE
R S
(a) Inquiry Officer (b) Presenting Officer

FO
(c) Disciplinary Authority (d) Defence Assistant
T
NO
165. In how many parts examination of witness is done ?
(a) Two parts (b) Three parts
(c) Four parts (d) Five parts
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 37

166. To whom should the Inquiry Officer forward the inquiry report after
LE
conclusion of Inquiry ?
A
R S
(a) Disciplinary Authority (b) Appellate Authority

FO
(c) Charged Official (d) Head of Office

OT
N
167. Can a Disciplinary Authority issue an order imposing any of the major
penalties specified in Rule 11 without following the procedure prescribed
in Rule 14 of CCS (CCA) Rules ?
(a) Yes (b) No
(c) Yes, with an exception (d) None

168. Which of the following is the function of an Inquiry Officer ?

(a) His duty is to somehow prove the charges
(b) He has to conduct an inquiry as a quasi-judicial functionary and
send a report
(c) He has to suggest deterrent punishment / penalties
(d) He can consult others behind the back of the Charged Officer and
send the report

169. What is the function of a Presenting Officer ?

(a) To enquire into the charges levelled against the Charged Officer
(b) To plead for the Charged Officer
(c) To show why the charges are considered to be established on the
basis of documentary evidence provided

LE
(d) To impose the penalty on the charges proved by the Inquiry Officer
A
R S
O
170. What is the function of a Defence Assistant ?
F
OT
(a) To establish the charges levelled against the Charged Officer on the
basis of documentary evidence provided
N
(b) To impose the penalty on the charges proved by the Inquiry Officer
(c) To assist the Charged Officer in the presentation of his case before
the Inquiry Officer
(d) To enquire into the charges levelled against the Charged Officer
38 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

171. Under which rule is a Government servant permitted to undertake a journey

LE
to a station other than his headquarters and claim T.A.?
A
(a) SR 116
R S
(b) SR 154 (c) SR 114 (d) SR 147

FO
172. Whether a Government servant who is charged with the departmental
T
proceedings, has requested for holding an enquiry at a place other than

NO
his headquarters and requested for grant of T.A.? Is it admissible ?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Yes, subject to condition
(d) Yes, subject to condition by the Inquiry Officer

173. Whether the Defence Assistant, who rendered assistance in examining

the documents in a Departmental proceedings is entitled for T.A.?
(a) No (b) Yes

174. Whether the retired Government servant who is required to attend

Departmental enquiry instituted against him, is entitled to T.A.? If so,
where from ?
(a) The office in which he retired
(b) The place of his hometown declared
(c) From any place
(d) Not allowed T.A.

175. Whether a retired Government servant is entitled to T.A., for perusal of

Official Documents at an outstation in preparation of his defence against
a departmental proceedings instituted against him ? If so, mention the

ALE
maximum number of days of Daily Allowance, to which he is eligible.

R S
(a) Four days (b) Two days (c) Three days (d) Five days

FO
176. Who has to bear the travelling and other expenses of a Government servant
who is nominated as Defence Assistant, to assist the Government servant
T
NO
against whom the departmental proceedings is held ?
(a) The Charged Official
(b) Defence Assistant himself
(c) Office to which delinquent Government servant belongs
(d) Office to which Defence Assistant belongs
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 39

177. The retired Government Officer appointed as Departmental Inquiry Officers

LE
has requested for sanction of honorarium in addition to T.A./D.A.
A
S
sanctioned to them. Is it admissible ? If so, at what rates?

R
O
(a) Last pay drawn at the time of retirement
F
T
(b) 50% of last pay drawn at the time of retirement
O
N
(c) Rates fixed per case by the Government of India
(d) Lumpsum fixed for the entire cases

178. Quote the Rule under which T.A. is admissible to a person called as a
Defence witness in a Departmental inquiry conducted by a Commissioner
of Enquiries ?
(a) SR 116 (b) SR 114 (c) SR 154 (d) SR 190 (a)

179. Please indicate the Pay and Allowances on reinstatement after dismissal,
removal or compulsory retirement as a result of appeal or review and
when fully exonerated?
(a) No Pay and Allowances
(b) Full Pay and Allowance
(c) Half of the Pay and Allowance
(d) Only Basic Pay without Allowance

180. How shall the period of suspension preceding dismissal, removal or

compulsory retirement be treated on reinstatement as a result of appeal /
review, if fully exonerated?
(a) as a period spent on duty (b) as dies non

ALE
(c) as leave due and admissible (d) as break in service

R S
181. What is the entitlement of Pay and Allowances on reinstatement without

FO
holding further inquiry, whose dismissal, removal or compulsory retirement
is set aside by a Court of Law and not exonerated on merits?

OT
(a) Pay and Allowance subject to the provisions of sub-rule (7) of
N
Rule 54
(b) Half Pay and Allowances
(c) No Pay and Allowances
(d) Basic pay only
40 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

182. How will the period intervening between the date of dismissal, removal or
LE
compulsory retirement and the date of judgment be treated on
A
reinstatement without holding further inquiry, whose dismissal, removal
S
or compulsory retirement is set aside by a Court of Law?
R
FO
(a) Treated as leave due and admissible

T
(b) Treated as EXOL

NO
(c) Treated as duty with the provisions contained in sub-rule (5) of
Rule 54
(d) Treated as dies non

183. What will be the entitlement of Pay and Allowances of a Government

servant, if he was under suspension and dies before conclusion of
disciplinary or court proceedings instituted against him?
(a) Full Pay and Allowances (b) Half Pay and Allowances
(c) Only Basic Pay (d) Only Subsistence Allowance

184. What will be the effect of the period of EXOL if a Government servant on
suspension is reinstated without the suspension being fully exonerated
and the period of suspension treated as leave due / EXOL?
(a) Recovery of difference between Subsistence Allowance plus
Compensatory Allowance and leave salary plus allowances
(b) To recover 50% of Subsistence Allowance
(c) To recover other allowances
(d) To recover only Compensatory Allowance

185. How will the suspension period be treated on discharge from erroneous
detention?
(a) As duty and eligible for full pay and allowance
(b) As suspension as such

ALE
(c) As leave and grant leave salary
S
(d) Treated as break in service
R
FO
186. What will be the emoluments when the suspension is taken / treated
T
as qualifying service?

NO
(a) The difference between Subsistence Allowance and emoluments not
treated as increase in pay.
(b) Only Subsistence Allowance to be taken
(c) No Pay and Allowance taken
(d) Only allowances to be taken
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 41

187. State clearly, how the unauthorized absence be treated in pursuance of

LE
concerted action by a group of employees in combination ?
A
R S
(a) Treated as casual leave (b) Treated as earned leave

O
(c) Treated as break in service (d) Treated as absent
F
OT
188. Who is competent to decide for condonation against such break in service
N
under FR 17-A in respect of Postal Department?
(a) Head of the Postal Circles
(b) Divisional Head of the Postal Division
(c) Inspector of Posts
(d) Director of Postal services

189. Interruption or break in service under FR 17-A will not affect which of the
following even if not condoned by the Competent Authority ?
(a) LTC
(b) Quasi-permanency
(c) Eligibility to appear in Departmental Exam for which continuous
service is required
(d) Promotion / EB Efficiency Bar

190. Which of the following comes under lack of integrity?

(a) Bribery or corruption
(b) Misbehaviour
(c) Unbecoming a Government servant

ALE
(d) None of the above

R S
FO
191. Under which rule will the disciplinary proceedings initiated while an officer
was in service be deemed to be proceedings after his retirement?

OT
N
(a) Under Rule 9 of CCS (Pension) Rules
(b) Under Rule 9 of CCS and CCA Rules
(c) Under Rule 9 of CCS (Conduct) Rules
(d) None of the above Rules
42 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

192. Whether Government servant is entitled to pension if he is under judicial

LE
proceedings / departmental proceedings under Rule 9 after retirement?
A
S
(a) Entitled to provisional pension under Rule 69 of CCS (Pension) Rules
R
O
(b) Eligible for 50% normal pension
F
T
(c) Not eligible for pension

NO
(d) 25% of eligible pension entitled

193. Who is the Competent Authority to withhold or withdraw pension or

gratuity or both either in full or part for any pecuniary loss caused to the
Government and if in any departmental or judicial proceedings, the
pensioner is found guilty?
(a) Head of the Department (b) Pension Sanctioning Authority
(c) President of India (d) Disciplinary Authority

194. What is the quantum of Pension up to which such pension can be reduced
before any final orders are passed consequent on the pending judicial /
departmental proceedings?
(a) Not below ` 3,500 p.m. with effect from 1-1-2006.
(b) Not below 2 rd of the pension
3
1
(c) Not below 3 rd of the pension
(d) 50% of the normal pension

195. Which commission is to be consulted before the final orders are passed
to withhold / withdraw pension of a retired Government servant?
(a) Vigilance Commission
(b) Union Public Service Commission

LE
(c) Commission appointed by the Department
A
S
(d) None to be consulted
R
FO
196. For cases of which category of staff / employees, consultation with UPSC
T
NO
is necessary as a measure of safeguard for pensioners?
(a) Gazetted Officers
(b) Groups ‘C’ and ‘D’ officials / staff
(c) Only Group ‘A’ officers
(d) All cases of staff / employees
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 43

197. Is it necessary to issue a show-cause notice to the pensioner before

LE
imposing a cut in his pension where the pensioner is convicted in judicial
A
(a) Yes
R S
proceedings for an offence committed while in service?
(b) Not necessary
(c) Optional FO (d) None of the above

OT
N
198. What type of penalty is to be imposed in case of an employee involving
gross irregularity or negligence, misuse of official position, false claims,
failure to maintain integrity?
(a) Minor penalty under Rule 11 (b) Major penalty under Rule 11
(c) Memo / warning (d) None of the above

199. What is the time-limit for a delinquent official to make representation

against the disciplinary proceedings (i.e. statement of imputation of
misconduct or misbehaviour) in a minor penalty?
(a) 15 days (b) 30 days (c) 10 days (d) one week

200. Normally who can sign the memorandum of charges in respect of a major
penalty?
(a) Appointing Authority (b) Disciplinary Authority
(c) Head of the Department (d) Head of Office

201. What procedure should be avoided when imposing Major Penalties under
Rule 14?
(a) Multiplication or splitting up charges on the basis of the same
allegation
(b) Formal intimation imposing major penalty to be given to the delinquent
official

LE
(c) Showing the documents to the delinquent official without permission
A
S
(d) Oral information to the delinquent official
R
FO
202. Can the delinquent official be permitted to inspect the documents to admit

OT
or deny his guilt?
N
(a) Inspection of document is permitted
(b) Optional
(c) Inspection of documents not permitted
(d) At his request
44 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

203. Under what circumstances Inquiry Proceedings should be stayed?

ALE
(a) Under orders of a court of competent jurisdiction

R S
(b) At the request of the delinquent official
FO
(c) On the orders of the Appointing Authority
T
NO
(d) None of the above

204. In a case involving complicated points of law, who should work as

a Presenting Officer?
(a) Senior Officer of the Department
(b) A legal practitioner
(c) Rule-knowing person
(d) Appointing Authority

205. How many disciplinary cases can an assisting Government servant have
at a time while assisting an accused officer?
(a) 6 cases (b) 4 cases (c) 3 cases (d) 5 cases

206. How many disciplinary cases can an assisting retired Government servant
have at a time while assisting an accused officer?
(a) 10 cases (b) 7 cases (c) 8 cases (d) 5 cases

207. Is prior permission necessary to appoint a Government servant as

a defence assistant by an accused official?
(a) Not required to take prior permission of the Disciplinary Authority
(b) May give oral information

LE
(c) Written permission required
A
(d) Compulsory
R S
FO
208. Can an accused official nominate a legal practitioner as a Defence
Assistant?
T
(a) Yes NO
(b) Not permissible
(c) With a permission of the Disciplinary Authority
(d) None of the above
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 45

209. If a retired Government servant is also legal practitioner, can he work as

L
a Defence Assistant?
A E
S
(a) Not permissible
R
O
(b) Permitted to work as full-time Defence Assistant
F
T
(c) Permissible to work as a part-time Defence Assistant
O
N
(d) to work occasionally

210. Normally who will keep the original documents of a disciplinary case?
(a) Presenting Officer (b) Disciplinary Authority
(c) Appointing Authority (d) Immediate Superior Officer

211. What is the time-limit to present the accused officer for a preliminary
hearing on receipt of notice from the Inquiry Officer?
(a) 15 days (b) 10 days (c) 7 days (d) 20 days

212. If a family member of a Government servant enters into transactions of

movable or immovable property out of their own funds in their names,
such transactions—
(a) Would be treated as transactions out of the funds of the Government
servant and the relevant provisions of Conduct Rules would be
applicable
(b) Should be reported to the Government within one month from the
date of transaction
(c) Cannot be done without obtaining prior approval of the Government
(d) Need not be reported to the Government as they do not come within
the purview of Conduct Rules

ALE
S
213. Which of the following is not a violation of Rule 12 of Conduct Rules ?
R
FO
(a) Collection of contribution from public without permission from
Government for welfare activities of an employees’ union

OT
N
(b) Association with a national leader’s memorial fund in a campaign for
raising funds
(c) Raising of subscriptions from members of an employees’ association
for defending a case against Government in a service matter
(d) None of the above
46 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

214. The following does not attract the provisions of Rule 22 of Conduct
Rules—
ALE
R S
(a) Consumption of liquor by a Government servant in a club meant
exclusively for members to invite non-members as guests
FO
(b) Taking liquor in a public place or appearing there in a state of
T
NO
intoxication in a state where prohibition is not in force
(c) In neither of the cases (a) and (b)
(d) Provisions of the rule would be applicable in both the cases (a) and (b)

215. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Suspension of a Government servant is a routine matter in disciplinary
cases
(b) Suspension amounts to reduction as he is paid reduced rates during
the period
(c) Suspension is an executive action whereby a Government servant is
kept out of duty temporarily, pending final action being taken against
him
(d) Suspension is prelude to removal / dismissal of a Government servant

216. Recovery from the pay of Government servant as a punishment for loss
caused by him to Government by his negligence—
(a) Should not exceed 1 rd of his basic pay
3

(b) Should not be spread over a period of more than three years
(c) Can be waived by the Competent Authority in deserving cases
(d) Can be made from the delinquent official spreading over a period of

ALE
time till the entire amount is recovered

R S
217. The type of case which would not merit action for imposing one of the
O
major penalties is —
F
T
(a) Misappropriation of public money
NO
(b) Incidence of frequent absence without leave
(c) Contracting a marriage with a woman whose husband is alive and
not divorced
(d) Receiving bribe
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 47

218. As per Rule 7 (ii) of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, ………......………. constitutes a
strike.
ALE
S
(a) Mass abstention from work without permission
R
FO
(b) Refusal to work overtime

OT
(c) Go-slow or pen-down
N
(d) All the above

219. Rule …………… of CCS (Conduct) Rules speaks about insolvency and
habitual indebtedness.
(a) Rule 10 (b) Rule 17
(c) Rule 5 (d) Rule 16

220. Any Government servant may give evidence in any judicial enquiry
as per Rule ……........ of CCS (Conduct) Rules

(a) Rule 6 (b) Rule 4 (i)

(c) Rule 10 (d) Rule 8

221. During the enquiry, the enquiry officer should follow the prescribed
procedure of—

(a) Inspection of the original records produced in support of the charges

(b) Examination and cross-examination of the witnesses produced
on behalf of the disciplinary authority
(c) Both the above

LE
(d) None of the above
A
R S
222. Who will take a decision whether the charges have been established
FO
before passing final orders?

OT
N
(a) Disciplinary Authority

(b) Inquiry Officer

(c) Presenting Officer
(d) None of these
48 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

223. Under what circumstances the change of headquarters of a suspended

LE
officer can be ordered?
A
(a)
S
In the interest of the public service
R
(b)
(c) FO
At the request of the suspended officer
In both the above cases
T
NO
(d) In none of these cases

224. Subsistence Allowance of a non-Gazetted official can be remitted by—

(a) Demand Draft (b) Cheque
(c) Service Money orders (d) Pay Order

225. Where is the procedure to be followed in disciplinary cases against

Government servants laid down in detail?
(a) CCS (CCA) Rules (b) CCS (Conduct) Rules
(c) Postal Manual, Volume-II (d) None of these

226. The authorities competent to impose penalties on members of Group ‘B’,

‘C’ and ‘D’ services are mentioned in / under :
(a) Schedules to the CCS (CCA) Rules
(b) Rule 12 of CCS (CCA) Rules
(c) Rule 11 of CCS (CCA) Rules
(d) None of these

227. The rate of Subsistence Allowance is prescribed in .............

(a) FR 53 (b) FR 10
(c) FR 54
ALE (d) Rule 10 of CCS (CCA) Rules

R S
228. What will happen to a disciplinary case, which is pending against
O
a Government servant, on his death?
F
T
(a) The case will continue to its natural end

NO
(b) The case will be dropped on the death of the alleged Government
servant
(c) The case will continue but no recovery will be made
(d) The case will continue and recovery, if any, will be made from his
settlement
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 49

229. Two Government servants working in the same office make complaints
LE
against each other. Which of the following sentences is correct in such
A
a case?

R S
O
(a) The person who complained first will be enquired first.
F
T
(b) Both the accused will be tried together in one joint proceeding.
O
N
(c) The accused in cross cases will be tried separately and both trials
should be held simultaneously.
(d) Cross complaints will not be entertained at all.

230. From the following, identify the order against which an appeal can be
made?
(a) An order by the President
(b) An order of suspension
(c) Any order of an interlocutory nature of a step-in-aid of the final
disposal of a disciplinary proceeding
(d) Any order passed by an Inquiring Authority in the course of
an inquiry

231. Re-arrange the following stages of a minor penalty proceeding according

to the sequence of their happening?
(i) Government servant should be given reasonable time to submit
his defence.
(ii) Disciplinary Authority should conduct an inquiry on receipt of
defence
ALE
S
(iii) Government servant to be given a copy of charge-sheet.
R
FO
(iv) Inquiring Officer to send a report of inquiry along with his
findings
OT
N
(v) The Disciplinary Authority to make a final order as it deems fit.

(a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v), (i) (b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)

(c) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv), (v) (d) (v), (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
50 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

232. Which of the following amounts to conviction on a criminal charge for

LE
the purpose of CCS (CCA) Rules?
A
R S
(a) A Government servant is bound down for good behaviour under
Section 110 of the CrPC
FO
(b) Conviction under Army Act, 1950
T
NO
(c) Dismissal from military service of a person holding a lien on
a permanent civil post
(d) None of the above

233. If a Disciplinary Authority discovers any procedural irregularities in an

order issued by itself, who has the authority to revise or cancel the order?
(i) Disciplinary Authority (ii) Appellate Authority
(iii) Reviewing Authority (iv) Any Subordinate Authority

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

234. The disciplinary functions of the election commission over the employees
posted for election duties are—
(a) Suspending any officer for dereliction of duty
(b) Substituting any officer by another such person
(c) Recommend to the Competent Authority for taking disciplinary action
(d) All the above

LE
235. From the following, identify the provision which is not imposed on a
A
Government servant regarding marriage—

R S
(a) A Government servant should not enter into a marriage with a person
FO
having a spouse living

T
NO
(b) A Government servant who has married a person other than of Indian
Nationality should intimate the fact to the Government
(c) A Government servant having a living spouse should not enter into
a marriage with any person
(d) A Government servant should marry any person from the same religion
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 51

ALE KEY
Q. No. Ans.

R S Reference

1.
2.
(d)
(d)
FO
CCS (CCA) Rules
”
Rule 1 (2)
Rule 2 (h)
3. (c)
OT ” Rule 3
4.
5.
6.
(a)
(b)
(b)
N ”
”
Rule 6
—
Rule 8
”
7. (c) ” Rule 9
8. (b) ” Rule 10
9. (d) ” Rule 10 (1)
10. (b) ” Rule 10
11. (c) ” Rule 10 (2)
12. (a) ” Rule 10 (1)
13. (a) ” Rule 10 (2)
14. (a) ” Rule 10 (3)
15. (c) ” Rule 10 (5) (c)
16. (d) ” Rule 10 (6)
17. (c) ” Rule 10
18. (b) ” Rule 10 (7)
19. (c) ” Rule 10 (6)
20. (a) ” EXPLANATION below Rule 11
21. (b) ” Rule 10 (7)
22. (c) ” Rule 11
23. (b) ” GID (4) below Rule 11
24. (d) ” GIO (6) below Rule 11
25. (d) ” Rule 11
26. (b) ” Rule 11
27. (c) ” Rule 11, GID (2)
28. (b) ” GIO (8) below Rule 11
29. (c) ” Rule 11, GID (7)
30.
31.
(b)
(d)
”
ALE Rule 11, D.G. P&T Order No. (3)
Rule 11, D.G. P&T Order No. (6)
32. (b)
”

R
” S Rule 11, D.G. P&T Order No. (4)
33.
34.
(c)
(c) FO”
”
Rule 11, D.G. P&T Order No. (7)
Rule 11, D.G. P&T Order No. (10)
35. (c)
OT ” Rule 12
36.
37.
38.
(c)
(b)
(d)
N ”
”
Rule 12, GID (1)
Rule 12, GID (2)
Rule 12, D.G. P & T Order No. (4)
”
39. (a) ” —
40. (a) ” Rule 13 (2)
41. (a) ” Rule 14 (2)
52 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

Q. No. Ans.

ALE Reference
42.
43.
(a)
(a)
R
” S
CCS (CCA) Rules Proviso to Rule 14 (2)
Proviso to Rule 14 (3) (i)
44.
45.
(b)
(a) FO” Rule 14 (5) (a)
Rule 14 (5) (b)
T ”

NO
46. (d) ” Rule 14 (6)
47. (a) ” Rule 14 (7)
48. (b) ” Rule 14 (8) (a)
49. (c) ” Rule 14 (8) (a)
50. (a) ” Note below Rule 14 (11)
51. (a) ” Rule 14 (11) (iii)
52. (a) ” Rule 14 (11) (iii)
53. (b) ” Rule 14 (12)
54. (b) ” Rule 14 (13)
55. (b) ” Rule 14 (14)
56. (a) ” Rule 14 (15)
57. (a) ” Note below Rule 14 (15)
58. (a) ” Rule 14 (16)
59. (a) ” Rule 14 (17)
60. (a) ” Rule 14 (18)
61. (d) CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 18
62. (a) ” Rule 18 (3)
63. (a) ” Rule 18 (5) (2)
64. (a) ” Rule 18 (1)
65. (b) ” Rule 18, GID (3)
66. (a) ” Rule 18, GID (6)
67. (b) ” Rule 18, GID (1)
68. (a) ” Rule 18, GID (28)
69. (a) ” Rule 18, GID (29)
70. (a) ” Rule 21
71. (c) ” Rule 22-A
72. (a) CCS (CCA) Rules Rule 14 (19)
73. (a) ”
ALE Rule 14 (20)
74.
75.
(d)
(a)
”

R
” S Rule 14 (23)
Rule 14, GID (1)
76.
77.
(c)
(a) FO” Rule 14, Para. 2-A of GID
Rule 14, GID (3)
T ”

NO
78. (d) ” Rule 14, (23) Para. 4 of GID (4)
79. (b) ” Rule 25
80. (c) ” Proviso to Rule 25
81. (a) ” Rule 26 (2)
82. (b) ” Rule 26 (1)
83. (d) ” Rule 26 (2)
84. (a) ” Rule 26 (2)
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 53

Q. No. Ans.

ALE Reference
85.
86.
(d)
(a)
R
”
S
CCS (CCA) Rules Rule 26 (3)
Rule 26, GIO (1)
87. (c)
FO” Rule 26, GIO (2)
88.
89.
(b)
(a)
OT ” Rule 26, GIO (3)
Rule 27 (1)
90.
91.
(a)
(a)
N ”
”
”
Rule 27 (2)
Rule 27, GIO (3)
92. (b) ” Rule 27, D.G. P&T, Order 27
93. (d) ” Rule 29 (1) (iii)
94. (d) ” Rule 29 (1) (iii)
95. (b) ” Rule 29 (1) (ii)
96. (a) ” Rule 29 (1) (iv)
97. (b) ” Rule 29, GID (3)
98. (a) ” Rule 29, GIO (2)
99. (b) ” Rule 29, GIO (3)
100. (c) ” Rule 29, GIO (5)
101. (b) ” Rule 29, GIO (6)
102. (a) ” Rule 29, GIO (7)
103. (a) ” Rule 30
104. (a) ” Rule 32
105. (b) CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 1
106. (c) ” Rule 2, GID (4)
107. (d) ” Rule 3 (1) (ii)
108. (a) ” Rule 3 (2) (iii) & (iv)
109. (c) ” Rule 3-C
110. (b) ” Rule 3-C, GID (1)
111. (a) ” Rule 3-C, GID (2)
112. (b) ” Rule 3-C, GID (4)
113. (c) ” Rule 3-C, GID (23)
114. (d) ” Rule 3-C, GID (6)
115.
116.
(c)
(c)
”
”
ALE Rule 3-C, GID (17-D)
Rule 3-C, GID (17-G)
117.
118.
(d)
(c)
”
R
”
S Rule 3-C, GID (17-H)
Rule 3-C, GID (25)
119. (a)
FO” Rule 3-C, GID (25)
120.
121.
(c)
(c)
OT ” Rule 3-C, GID (25-A)
Rule 3-C, GID (27)
122.
123.
(d)
(b)
N ”
”
”
Rule 3-C, GID (27)
Rule 4, GID (3)
124. (d) ” Proviso ii to Rule 5 (4)
125. (a) ” Rule 5, GID (3)
126. (d) ” Rule 6, GID (1)
127. (b) ” Rule 6, GID (2)
54 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

Q. No. Ans.

ALE Reference
128.
129.
(d)
(b)
R
” S
CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 7, GID (2)
Rule 7, GID (5)
130.
131.
(b)
(c) FO” Rule 9
Rule 9, GID (2)
T ”

NO
132. (b) ” Rule 9, GID (3)
133. (d) ” Rule 10, GID (1) (7)
134. (c) ” Rule 11
135. (a) ” Rule 11, GID (1) (2)
136. (b) ”” Rule 11, GID (2)
137. (b) ” Rule 11, GID (4)
138. (d) ” Rule 12, GID (5)
139. (c) ” Rule 13, (1)
140. (d) ” Rule 13, Note 2
141. (a) ” Rule 13 (2) (ii)
142. (c) ” Rule 13 (2) (iii)
143. (b) ” Rule 13 (3) (i)
144. (d) ” Rule 13 (3) (ii)
145. (a) ” Rule 13 (4)
146. (c) ” Rule 13, GID (3)
147. (a) ” Rule 13, GID (15) (4)
148. (b) ” Rule 13-A
149. (b) ”” GID below Rule 13-A
150. (a) ” Rule 15
151. (a) ” Rule 15, GID (12)
152. (a) ” Rule 15, GID (14)
153. (b) ” Rule 15, GID (17)
154. (c) ” Rule 15-A, GID (1)
155. (a) ” Rule 16, GID (1)
156. (c) ” Rule 16, GID (3)
157. (c) ” Rule 16, GID (3)
158. (d) CCS (CCA) Rules Rule 14 (2)
159. (c) ”
ALE Procedure for Conducting Inquiries
160.
161.
(a)
(c)
”

R
” S -do-
-do-
162.
163.
(c)
(d) FO” -do-
-do-
T ”

NO
164. (a) ” -do-
165. (b) ” -do-
166. (a) ” -do-
167. (b) ” Instructions to Inquiry Officers
168. (b) ” -do-
169. (c) ” Instructions to Presenting Officers
170. (c) ” Instructions for the Defence Assistant
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 55

Q. No. Ans.

ALE Reference
171. (b)
S
CCS (CCA) Rules

R
Orders for grant of TA, etc., during
Disciplinary Proceedings
172.
173.
(a)
(b) FO
” -do-
-do-
174. (b)
OT ”
-do-
175.
176.
(c)
(c)
N ”
”
”
-do-
-do-
177. (c) ” GID 15 -do-
178. (d) ” —
179. (b) ” Reinstatement, Order 1 Para. 2
180. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 1 Para. 3
181. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 2 Para. 2 (i)
182. (c) ” Reinstatement, Order 2 Para. 2 (ii) & 3
183. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 3 Para. 2
184. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 6
185. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 7
186. (a) ” Reinstatement, Order 10
187. (c) ” Unauthorized Absence, D.G. P&T
Order 1
188. (a) ” Unauthorized Absence, D.G. P&T
Order 3
189. (d) ” Unauthorized Absence, D.G. P&T
Order 4
190. (a) ” Rule 3 (c), Departmental Enquiries Act
191. (a) ” Para. 1, Proceedings after Retirement
192. (a) ” Para. 1, Proceedings after Retirement
193. (c) ” Proceedings after Retirement, GID (1)
194. (a) ” Proceedings after Retirement, Proviso
to GID (1)
195. (b) ” Proceedings after Retirement, Proviso

196. (d)
ALE to GID (1)
Proceedings after Retirement, GID (4)
197. (a)
”
”
R S Proceedings after Retirement, GID (8)
198.
199.
(b)
(c)
FO
”
”
Disciplinary Proceedings, Order 2
Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 5
200. (b)
OT ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 2 of

201. (a) N ”
Order 6
Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 4 (d)
of Order 6
202. (c) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 10 of
Order 6
203. (a) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 17 of
Order 6
56 SWAMY’S — DISCIPLINE RULES MADE OBJECTIVE

Q. No. Ans.

ALE Reference
204. (b)
S
CCS (CCA) Rules

R
Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 18 of
Order 6
205. (c)
FO” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 19 (ii)
of Order 6
T
NO
206. (d) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 19 (ii)
of Order 6
207. (a) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 19 (ii)
of Order 6
208. (a) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 20 (i)
of Order 6
209. (b) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 20 (i)
of Order 6
210. (a) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 1 of
Order 7
211. (b) ” Disciplinary Proceedings, Para. 2 of
Order 7
212. (d) CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 18, GID (8)
213. (d) ” Rule 12
214. (c) ” Rule 22, GID (3)
215. (c) CCS (CCA) Rules Para. 2 under Chapter 2
216. (d) ” Rule 11, GID (12)
217. (b) ” Rule 11 and GIDs
218. (d) CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 7, GID (2)
219. (b) ” Rule 17
220. (c) ” Rule 10
221. (c) CCS (CCA) Rules Rule 14 (17)
222. (a) ” Chapter 10
223. (b) ” Chapter 3, GID (8)
224. (c) Postal Manual, Vol. III Rule 41
225. (a) CCS (CCA) Rules —
226. (a) ”
ALE —
227.
228.
(a)
(b)
R S
FR & SR — Part-I
CCS (CCA) Rules
FR 53
GIO (4) below Rule 15
229. (c)
FO
” GIO below Rule 18
230. (b)
T Rule 22

NO
”
231. (c) ” Rule 16
232. (d) ” GIDs below Rule 19
233. (b) ” D.G. P&T Order (2) below Rule 29
234. (d) ” GIO below Rule 35
235. (d) CCS (Conduct) Rules Rule 21