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Ut Ssrg1 Test-2 Code-A1

This document contains a practice test for the JEE (Main & Advanced) exam covering topics in physics, chemistry, and mathematics. The test has 3 sections with 15 multiple choice questions in each section. It also contains 3 numerical response questions in each section. The document provides instructions on the duration of the test, marking scheme, and topics covered in each section. It then presents sample questions following the described format to illustrate the structure and style of the test.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
315 views6 pages

Ut Ssrg1 Test-2 Code-A1

This document contains a practice test for the JEE (Main & Advanced) exam covering topics in physics, chemistry, and mathematics. The test has 3 sections with 15 multiple choice questions in each section. It also contains 3 numerical response questions in each section. The document provides instructions on the duration of the test, marking scheme, and topics covered in each section. It then presents sample questions following the described format to illustrate the structure and style of the test.

Uploaded by

No:1 Scamed id
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 6

20/05/2021 SSR-G1

CODE-A1

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 180 UNIT TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.

for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

Test – 2

Topics covered
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Chemistry : Electrochemistry

Mathematics : Inverse Trigonometric Functions

Instructions :

(1) Duration of Test is 1½ hrs.

(2) The Test booklet consists of 45 questions. The maximum marks are 180.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 15 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 12 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical
value ranging from 00 to 99 without being given any option. Each question carries
4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 1]
Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-2 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

SECTION - I 6. An infinitely long line of charge has linear


Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains density of charge equal to 1.0 nC/m. Points A
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has and B are at a distance of 2 m and 3 m
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
respectively from the line of charge. Potential
ONE is correct.
difference between points A and B, VA – VB will
1. A ring has radius 30 cm and a charge of 2 nC. be equal to
The electric potential on the axis of the ring at
(1) 9 V (2) 10 ln3 V
a distance of 40 cm from its centre will be
3 2
(1) 3.6 × 104 V (2) 3.6 × 102 V (3) 18 ln V (4) 9 ln V
2 3
(3) 36 V (4) 3.6 V
7. The charge on the 4 µF capacitor in the circuit
2. A uniformly charged insulating disc of radius is
40 cm has charge per unit area 4.0 nC/m2. The
electric potential on the axis of the disc at a
distance of 30 cm from its centre will be nearly

(1) 300 V (2) 30 V

(3) 450 V (4) 45 V

3. A uniformly charged annular disc has inner


radius 30 cm, outer radius 40 cm and charge
(1) 8 µC (2) 16 µC
density of 10 ε0 (in SI unit). Electric potential at
(3) 24 µC (4) 32 µC
a point on the axis at a distance of 30 cm from
the centre will be nearly 8. The equivalent capacitance between a and b
is
(1) 10.0 V (2) 0.4 V

(3) 0.8 V (4) 6.0 V

4. The electric potential inside a uniformly


charged thin spherical shell of radius 20 cm is
10 V. The charge on the shell is

(1) 0.22 nC (2) 0.11 nC

(3) 5.5 nC (4) 0.33 nC (1) 2 µF (2) 1 µF

5. A uniform sphere of charge of radius a has 4


(3) µF (4) 5 µF
3
3a
electric potential at distance from its centre
2 9. A 4.0 µF parallel plate capacitor is connected
equal to half of its value at distance x from its to a 5 V battery. The work done by an external
centre. The value of x is agent to slowly increase the separation
between the plates to double of its original
a
(1) Zero (2) value is
2
(1) 25 µJ (2) 20 µJ
a a
(3) (4)
2 3 (3) 30 µJ (4) 50 µJ

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 2]
Unit Test-2 (SSRG1_Code-A1) Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

10. The plate area of the capacitor shown is A. SECTION - II


The capacitance of the capacitor is Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
respectively.

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
k1k2 ε0 A k1k2 ε0 A 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(1) (2)
2(k1 + k2 )d (k1 + k2 )d 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
3k1k2 ε0 A 2k1k2 ε0 A
(3) (4) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
2(k1 + k2 )d (k1 + k2 )d Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

11. A capacitor of capacitance 5.0 µF is charged


13. Twelve capacitors each of capacitance 1 µF
to a potential difference of 10 V. It is then
are connected as shown. If effective
connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacitance between corners a and b is NµF,
capacitance 10.0 µF as shown. The potential then value of 10 N is equal to ____

difference across each capacitor will now be

5
(1) 5 V (2) V
3

10 14. Value of potential difference |VA – VB| shown


(3) V (4) 6 V
3 in figure is ____ volt

12. A capacitor of capacitance 2.0 µF is charged

by connecting it to a battery of emf 5 V. The

capacitor is now disconnected and

reconnected to the same battery with the 15. In the shown figure, charge on 4 µF capacitor

polarity reversed. The heat developed in the is ____µC

connecting wires is

(1) 25 µJ (2) 125 µJ

(3) 150 µJ (4) 100 µJ


Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 3]
Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-2 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

SECTION - I 22. An aqueous solution of sodium acetate is


Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains subjected to Kolbe’s electrolysis to prepare
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has ethane. If a current of 5 A is passed for 1930
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY sec, then total volume of all gases collected at
ONE is correct. STP is

16. Which of the following is correct? (λC and λ° (1) 2.24 L (2) 4.48 L
represent conductance at C concentration and (3) 5.6 L (4) 11.2 L
at infinite dilution respectively)
23. Consider the λ ∞
eq values given below (in S cm
2
o
(1) ΛHCl = ΛHC+ + C
Λ Cl −
eq–1)
o o o o
(2) ΛNaNO = ΛHNO + ΛNaCl − ΛHCl λ∞
eq (H ) = 349.6
+
3 3

o C C o
(3) ΛNaNO = ΛHNO + ΛNaCl − ΛHCl λ∞
eq (Ca ) = 60
2+
3 3

(4) Λ C o o
CH3COOH = Λ CH COO– + ΛH+ λ∞ 2−
3 eq (SO4 ) =
80

17. Among the following the species with the


λ∞
eq (Cl ) = 76.3

lowest conductance in aq. medium is
(1) H+ (2) Li+ Which of the given values of λ ∞
eq (in S cm eq )
2 –1

(3) Na+ (4) K+ is incorrect?


18. The equivalent conductance of a solution (1) λ ∞
eq (H2SO4) = 429.6
containing 2.54 g of CuSO4 per litre is
91.0 Ω–1 cm2 eq–1. Its conductivity would be (2) λ ∞
eq (CaSO4) = 140
(Given : molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g/mol)
(1) 1.45 × 10–3 Ω–1 cm–1 (3) λ ∞
eq (HCl) = 425.9

(2) 2.17 × 10–3 Ω–1 cm–1


(4) λ ∞
eq (CaCl2) = 212.6
(3) 2.91 × 10–3 Ω–1 cm–1
24. Which of the following is correct?
(4) 4 × 10–1 cm–1
(1) On dilution, the value of both conductivity
19. Specific conductance of a decinormal solution and molar conductance increases
of KCl is 0.0115 ohm–1 cm–1. The resistance of
a cell containing the solution was found to be (2) On dilution, the value of conductivity
56.5 ohm. What is the cell constant (approx.)? increases but the value of molar
conductance decreases
(1) 0.56 cm–1 (2) 0.50 cm–1
(3) On dilution, the value of conductivity
(3) 0.75 cm–1 (4) 0.65 cm–1
decreases but the value of molar
20. Molar conductance at infinite dilution of conductance increases
Ti(NO3)2, H2SO4 and HNO3 solution in water
(4) On dilution, the value of both conductivity
are a, b and c respectively. Molar conductance
and molar conductance decreases
of TiSO4 solution at infinite dilution is
25. The amount of electricity required to produce
(1) a – b + c (2) a + ab + c
12.7 g of copper from CuSO4 using inert
(3) a + b – 2c (4) a – b + 2c electrode would be [Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5]
21. SI units of resistivity (specific resistance) is (Here F → Faraday).

(1) Ohm–1 metre–1 (2) Ohm metre (1) 0.2 F (2) 0.4 F
(3) Ohm–1 cm (4) Ohm cm–1 (3) 0.6 F (4) 0.8 F
Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 4]
Unit Test-2 (SSRG1_Code-A1) Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022

26. Which of the following aqueous solution


0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
produces metal after electrolysis if inert X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
electrode is used?
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) KMnO4 Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(3) CH3COONa (4) CuCl2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
N Z
27. The equivalent conductivity of solution of 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
10
acetic acid at 25°C is 14.3 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1.
28. 2 g equivalent of Na metal is formed from
Calculate the % dissociation of acetic acid if
electrolysis of fused NaCl. Moles of Al from
Λ∞
eq for CH3COOH is 397.071 ohm cm eq .
–1 2 –1
fused Na3AIF6 formed by passage of same
(1) 3.6 (2) 4.40 amount of charge (assume at cathode only Al
deposited) is x. Then value of 3x is
(3) 90 (4) 100
29. A current of 4.0 A when passed for 10 hours
SECTION - II through a molten salt, deposits 88 g of metal
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section (atomic weight = 176). The oxidation state of
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging metal in metal salt is +y. Then value of y is
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be 30. A current of 13.4 A is passed through 1.0 L of
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the 1.0 M HI solution for 1.0 hr. The pH of the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer solution at 298 K after the experiment will be
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and about (consider volume of solution does not
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR change) x. Then 10x is (Take log2 = 0.3)
respectively.

SECTION - I  1 1
33. The value of sin  sin−1 + tan−1  is
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains  7 4
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE  1+ 3 
is correct. (1) 2 (2) 4  
 7 17 
 7π 
31. Value of cos−1  cos  is equal to 1− 3 2
 6  (3) (4)
7 7 17
7π 5π
(1) (2) π
6 6 34. If cos−1 x < , then the set of exhaustive values
3
π π of x is
(3) (4)
6 3
 1 1 1 
2 (1)  − ,  (2)  , 1
−1   2 2 2 
32. tan  −  is equal to
 5
 1  1   1
5−1 
(3)  −1, −  ∪  , 1 (4)  −1, − 
(1) cot  −  + π  2  2   2 
 2
x y
5 35. If cos−1 + cos−1 =θ, then the value of
(2) cot −1   − π a b
2
x2 y2 2 xy
5 + − cos θ is equal to
(3) cot −1   + π a 2
b 2 ab
2
(1) |sin θ| (2) |cos θ|
 5
(4) cot −1  −  − π
 2 (3) |sin 2θ| (4) cos 2θ
Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 5]
Second Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2022 Unit Test-2 (SSRG1_Code-A1)

36. The value of x where x > 0 and  x −2


41. The domain of f ( x ) = sin−1  
 1  2 
tan  sec −1  = sin(tan−1 2) is
 x
(1) [0, 4] (2) [–4, 0]

5 5 (3) [–4, 4] (4) (–4, 4)


(1) (2)
3 2 42. If x > 1, then 2 tan–1x is equal to
 2x   2x 
3 (1) sin–1   (2) π – sin–1  
(3) 1 (4)  1+ x2   1+ x2 
2
 2x   2x 
π (3) – π – sin–1   (4) π + sin–1  
37. If sec–1(tanθ) + cosec–1(tanθ) = , then the  1+ x2   1+ x2 
2
exhaustive range of ‘θ’ is SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1) R, the set of real numbers contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
(2) { R−
(2n + 1)π
2
, n ∈I } appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to

(3)
n∈I
 π
  nπ + 4 , nπ +
3π 
4 { π 
− (2n + 1) 
2  } question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9
respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
respectively.
 π π
(4)  nπ + 4 , nπ + 2  , n ∈ I 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
n∈I
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. The maximum value of sin–1x + tan–1x is
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
π π Y
(1) (2) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
4 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
3π Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(3) (4) π
4

n2 n2 43. If sin–1x + sin–1y + sin–1z = , then the value of
39. If ∑ cos −1
α i =0, then the value of ∑ αi is 2
i =1 i =1
12
x100 + y 100 + z100 + 101
is equal to
(1) n2 (2) n x + y 101 + z101

n2π 44. The sum of infinite terms of series


(3) (4) n2π
2
2  2  –1  2 
tan–1   + tan–1   + tan   + ... ∞ is
40. The area bounded by the curve y = sin–1(sinx) 9  25   49 
and x-axis for x ∈ [0, 50π] is equal to cot–1λ, where λ is a natural number,
25π2 21π2 then λ is equal to
(1) sq. units (2) sq. units
2 2
45. The number of value(s) of x satisfying the
2
23π
(3) sq. units (4) 25π2 sq. units equation x = sin–1x is
2

  

Aakash Educational Services Limited – Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 6]

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