

FIITJEE : INTERNAL TEST (SYNCHRO TEST-21)

TARGET : JEE (ADVANCED) 2022 /Qns

05.12.2010
TEST DATE : 30-04-2022
FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011
PAPER II

CHEMISTRY – PHYSICS – MATHEMATICS

QUESTION PAPER CODE 1

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 237
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
INSTRUCTIONS:

A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 57 questions. The booklet has 25 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 25) of this booklet.
3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

SEAL
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which
appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.
8. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.
C. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 25) of this booklet.

Name: . Enrollment No.:

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I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the informations
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.

…………………………………… …………………………………
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CHEMISTRY
TEST-II
PART-I
Atomic number: Co = 27, Pt = 78 ; RH = 109677 cm–1 ; Velocity of light, C = 3 × 108 m sec–1
SECTION–I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

CH3O
AlBr3(1 equiv.) AlBr3(3 equiv.)
1. (b) (a)
CH2Cl2 CH2Cl2
CH3O C
Cl O
a and b respectively are
CH3O CH3O
(A) ,
CH3O O CH3O O
CH3O CH3O
(B) ,
CH3O O CH3O O
CH3O CH3O
(C) ,
CH3O O CH3O O
CH3O CH3O
(D) ,
CH3O O CH3O O
2. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) Group I A hydroxides are hygroscopic.
(B) Dissolution of group I A hydroxide is endothermic.
(C) Iodine is considerably more soluble in ethanol than in water.
(D) SO2 bleaches by reduction while Cl2 by oxidation.

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3. The E.M.F. of a Daniel cell, Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq) || Cu2+ (aq) | Cu(s) can be increased by
(A) Increasing the area of the electrodes.
(B) Increasing the concentration of the copper sulphate solution.
(C) Increasing the concentration of the zinc sulphate solution.
(D) It remains constant.

4. Consider the following statements

(I) The colour of hydrophobic sol depends on the wavelength of light scattered by the
dispersed particle.
(II) The smaller the gold number value of a hydrophilic colloid, the greater is its protective
power.
(III) Equivalent conductance increases with dilution for an electrolyte solution while its
specific conductance decreases.
(IV) Aluminium is obtained from Al2O3 by reduction with carbon monoxide.
The correct statements are
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (I), (II) and (III)
(C) (II), (III) and (IV) (D) (I), (III) and (IV)

5. A solution containing As3+, Cd2+, Ni2+ and Zn2+ is made alkaline with dilute NH4OH and
treated with H2S. The precipitate obtained will consist of
(A) As2S3 and CdS (B) CdS, NiS, and ZnS
(C) NiS and ZnS (D) only NiS

6. Consider two reactions

− OH / H O
(I) (2R, 3S) 3-Bromo-butan-2-ol   
2
→
− OH / H O
(II) (2R, 3R) 3-Bromo-butan-2-ol    
2
→
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Reaction (I) will proceed at a faster rate.
(B) Reaction (II) will proceed at a faster rate.
(C) Both the reactions follow different mechanism.
(D) Both the reactions will proceed at the same rate.

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SECTION–II
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

7. Among the following the total number of compounds which can act both as an acid and a base
is _______ .
CH3–C–CH3, Ph–C–Ph, CH3COOH, CH3CN, NH3, H2O, SO3, BF3.
O O
8. An electron absorbs a photon of light of frequency 7.312 ×1014 s −1 in the first excited state of
hydrogen and jumps from there to nth excited state. The value of n is ________ .

9. A molecule Bn dissolves in water and is non-volatile. A solution of certain molality showed a

depression of 0.93 K in freezing point. The same solution boiled at 100.26°C. When 7.9 g
of Bn was dissolved in 100 g water, the solution boiled at 100.44°C. Given K f for water =
1.86 K mol–1 kg and Atomic mass of B = 31. The value of ‘n’ is _________ .

10. Total number of monochlorination products that can be obtained on treating 1-butene with Cl2
in presence of light is _________ .

11. One g of a compound (C 6 H 10 O 5 ) n on combustion gave only CO2(g) and H2O(l) alongwith
17.49 kJ/g of energy. Given: ∆Hf of H2O(l) = –285.85 kJ mol–1, ∆Hf of CO2(g) =
–293.7 kJ mol–1, ∆Hf(C6H10O5)n = – 2148.42 kJ mol–1. The value of ‘n’ is _________ .

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SECTION–III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each of the paragraphs 3 multiple choice
questions have to be answered. Each of these question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 12 to 14

Stereoisomerism occurs when the bond connectivity is the same but the spatial arrangement of
more than one type is possible. Stereoisomerism finds vast use in organic chemistry, mainly
biochemistry as all the biomolecules, are generally stereospecific in their actions. Stereoisomerism
is limited not only to organic compounds but also to inorganic compounds, mainly in
co-ordination complexes.

12. For Tetraamminedichlorocobalt(III) ion, the trans isomer

(A) has an axis of symmetry (B) has a plane of symmetry
(C) is green in colour (D) all of these

13. For the ion [Co(en)2Cl2]+

(A) cis form exists as a pair of enantiomers.
(B) trans form exists as a pair of enantiomers.
(C) trans form is the meso form.
(D) both (A) and (C).

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) square planar complexes can show optical isomerism.
(B) chelate complex of glycine and platinum shows stereoisomerism.
(C) square planar complex of platinum with four different groups always exists as
enantiomers.
(D) all of these.

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 17

Compound (A), C 6 H 12 O 2 , optically active was oxidized by Ag( NH 3 ) +2 to an optically active

compound (B), C 6 H 12 O 3 . (A) on oxidation with CrO3 in pyridine gives optically inactive
compound (C) which on treating with Zn-Hg / HCl gave 3-methylpentane. (A) on oxidation with
H 2 CrO 4 gave optically inactive compound (D).

15. Compound (B) on treating with dilute H 2 SO 4 gives

O O
(A) (B)
O O
(C) CH3–CH=C–CH2CHO (D) None of these
CH3

16. Compound (C) on treating with CH 3 O − / CH 3 OH will give

OH OCH3 OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O O O
OCH3 OCH3 OH

17. Compound (D) on gently heating with P2 O 5 gives

O O
O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O O O O
O O O O

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SECTION–IV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in
Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For
example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then for
that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.

18.

Column I Column II
H O+ / H O (p) Ketone
(A) C 2 H 5 O − CH = CH 2 3  
2
→
CH3 CH3 (q) Enol
(B) Hg2+, H3O+
HO–C–C≡C–C–OH
CH3 CH3
O (r) Cyclic ring
KOH
(C) CH3–C–CH2CH2CH2Cl H2O

OH (s) Nucleophilic substitution Reaction

(D) Ph–C–CH3 A+B
Br
(t) Aldehyde

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19.
Column I Column II

(A) Irreversible adiabatic expansion (p) ∆Ssystem = 0

(B) Reversible adiabatic expansion (q) ∆Ssurrounding = 0

(C) Irreversible isothermal expansion (r) ∆Ssys = + ve

(D) Reversible isothermal expansion (s) ∆Ssys = + x and ∆Ssurr = − x

(t) ∆Ssys = + x and ∆Ssurr = − y, x > y

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PHYSICS
PART-II
SECTION–I
Single Correct Choice Type
This Section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

20. A square loop of side L and mass M is hinged about edge AD Y

and edge BC is attached with a string such that the loop is
A B X
horizontal. A magnetic field is present along +ve x-axis. A
current flows along D →A → B → C → D such that the tension
in the string becomes zero. If the direction of current is reversed
L
by keeping magnitude same, the tension in the string will
become D
L C
(A) Mg (B) 2 Mg Z

3Mg
(C) 3 Mg (D)
2

21. A block of mass m is performing SHM with an amplitude A, on extreme

position mean
a frictionless surface. When it is at extreme position, a bullet of t = 0 position
mass m moving with a velocity v0 collides and gets embedded
v0 m m
into it at time t = 0. The displacement x at any time t will be
x=0
(mv02 = 2kA2 )
A
 k  k
(A) x = − 2 A sin  t + π / 4  (B) x = − 2 A sin t
 2m  2m

 k π k
(C) x = − 2 A sin  t +  (D) x = − A sin t
 2m 3 m

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22. One mole of oxygen is contained in a rigid container with walls of inner surface area A,
thickness d and thermal conductivity K. The gas is at initial temperature T 0 and the
surrounding temperature of air is 2T 0 . The temperature of the gas at time t is (R is gas
constant)
2 KA 2 KA
− t − t
(A) T = T0 (2 − e 5 dR
) (B) T = T0 (1 − e 5 dR
)
2 KA KA
− t 2 − t
(C) T = T0 e 5 dR
(D) T = T0 e dR
5

23. In the following figure a wire of cross sectional radius r is 2L

fixed lightly at P and Q. The young’s modulus of the P Q
O
material of the wire is Y and a << L. If it is pulled into the
form PRQ, the tension generated in the wire is a
T T

Ya 2 Ya 2 r 2 πYa 2 r 2 πr 2Ya 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2L2 L2 2L2 L2

24. In the circuit shown, the equivalent resistance between the points A and B is

R R/2 R/4 to ∞

A R 2R 4R to ∞ B

R/2 R/4 R/8 to ∞

R 4R 2R
(A) R (B) (C) (D)
2 3 3

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25. A small block of mass 2m initially rests at the bottom of a

fixed vertical circular track of radius 1m. A bullet of mass m
strikes the block horizontally with initial speed
O
v0 = 990 m/s and remains embedded in the block. Assume θ
no friction between block and circular track. The ratio of
tangential and centripetal acceleration for θ = 60º is m v0


2m
(g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 5 3 : 1 (B) 10 : 3 (C) 3 : 20 (D) 1 : 2 3

SECTION–II
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

26. An electron accelerated by a potential difference V = 3.6 V, first enters a region of uniform
electric field of a parallel-plate capacitor whose plates extend over a length l = 6 cm in the
direction of initial velocity. The electric field is normal to the direction of initial velocity and
its strength varies with time as E = a × t where a = 3200 Vm–1s–1. Then the electron enters a
region of uniform magnetic field of induction B = π × 10–9 T. Direction of magnetic field is
same as that of the electric field. Calculate the pitch (in mm) of helical path traced by the
electron in the magnetic field. (Mass of electron, m = 9 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19C). [Neglect
the effect of induced magnetic field].

27. In the given circuit wire AB is of uniform V1

resistance. On closing switch 2 with other two
switches open, the balance length AJ is L1. On J J1
A B
closing all the switches, the balance length AJ1
1
is L2. The internal resistance of the battery V is
L  R R R 2
nRΩ. Find n.  1 = 3  G
 L2  3

r V

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28. An adiabatic piston of mass m equally divides a diathermic container of volume V0 and length
l. A light spring connects the piston to the right wall. In equilibrium pressure on each side of
the piston is P0. The container starts moving with acceleration a towards right. The stretch x
of the spring when the acceleration of the piston equals the acceleration of the container is
n
given as m . Find n (Assume that x << l, the gas in the container has the adiabatic
nP0 γA
k+
l
exponent (ratio of CP and CV) = γ, m = 2kg, a = 2m/s2)
l

k
a

29. In the given figure, all the springs and pulley

are ideal and surface is frictionless. The rod is k/4 l
massless. The time period of horizontal
nm
oscillations of the block is 2π s. The l
k k
strings are inextensible. Find n. m

30. A solid sphere of mass m rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface strikes a vertical
wall elastically. The coefficient of friction between the sphere and the surface is µ. After the
collision, the centre of mass of the sphere follows a parabolic trajectory and the sphere strikes
the horizontal surface at a distance R from the wall. The value of µ such that R is maximum is
1
. Find n.
n

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SECTION−III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have
to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 33
The ability of a capacitor to store potential energy is the basis of defibrillator devices, which
are used in emergency by medical team to stop the fibrillation of heart attack victims. In a
portable defibrillator device, a battery charges a capacitor to a high potential difference,
storing a large amount of energy in less than a minute. The battery maintains only a modest
potential difference, an electronic circuit repeatedly uses that potential difference for greatly
increasing the potential difference of the capacitor. When a control switch is closed, the
capacitor lends a portion of its stored energy from paddle to paddle through the victim. The
figure shows an arrangement, to understand the working of a defibrillator.
R 1 = 12R k 1 R 3 = 6R k3

k2 C C
V
R 2 = 6R k4

31. If k 1 , k 2 and k 3 are closed (keeping k4 open) at t = 0, then current in the resistor R 2 at t = t
is given by
t t
V − 10 RC V − 20 RC
(A) e (B) e
15 R 10 R
V   V  
t t
− −
(C)  1 + 5 e 20 RC  (D)  5 − 2e 20 RC 
90 R  
 90 R  

32. Long time after closing k 1 , k 2 and k 3 the energy stored in each capacitor is
CV 2 CV 2 CV 2 CV 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 18 72 144

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33. Long time after closing k 1, k 2 and k 3 , if k 1, k 3 are opened and k 4 is closed, then heat
produced in R 2 will be
1 1 1 1
(A) CV 2 (B) CV 2 (C) CV 2 (D) CV 2
36 9 4 6

Paragraph for Question Nos. 34 to 36

A particle of mass 10 kg is projected from a 20m/s

horizontal surface with a velocity of 20 m/s at an
angle of 60º with the horizontal. When it hits the 60º
horizontal surface, its velocity makes an angle of 30º 30º
with the horizontal. Apart from gravity, a horizontal
force acts on the particle during the motion
(g = 10 m/s2)
34. The speed of the particle when it hits the ground is
(A) 20 m/s (B) 20 3 m/s
(C) 10 m/s (D) 10 3 m/s.

35. The work done by the horizontal force during the complete motion is
(A) 2000 J (B) 6000 J
(C) 5000 J (D) 4000 J.

36. The average power delivered by the horizontal force during the time of flight will be
1000
(A) W (B) 1000 W
3
2000
(C) W (D) 2000 W.
3

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SECTION−IV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I
can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then
for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.
37. All the lenses used in column I are thin, each of refractive index µ = 1.5 and one of their
surfaces is silvered. An object is shown moving in front of their silvered surface. Match with
column II suitably.
Column-I Column-II
R=20cm
2cm/s (p) the image will coincide with the object at the
(A) O given instant.

40/3cm
2cm/s
(B) (q) magnitude of focal length ≥ 10 cm
O 6cm
R1=20cm R2=10cm
R=40cm
(r) magnitude of power ≥ 10 D
0.5cm/s
(C) O
(s) speed of the image at the given instant ≥ 2cm/s
80cm

O 5cm
(t) the image will move along the direction opposite
(D) to the direction of object’s velocity
4cm/s
R1=R2=10cm

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38. In column I, certain thermodynamic process are given and in column II, the value of physical
quantities are given. Match the column I with the column II suitably.
∆Q = amount of heat exchange,
∆U = change in internal energy,
∆W = amount of pressure-volume work,
T = temperature of the gas,
P = pressure of the gas,
ρ = density of the gas.
Column I Column II
V
V ∝T
(A) 1 mole of N2 (p) | ∆Q |≥ 2 RT0

T0 2T0 T
P
P ∝T (q) | ∆U |≥
3
RT0
1 mole of He
(B) 2

T0 2T0 T
1 mole of a gaseous V
1
mixture having V∝
(C) adiabatic index T (r) | ∆W |≥ RT0
γ= 1.5
T0 2T0 T
P
1 ρ VS T graph for the process is a straight
P∝ (s)
(D) 1 mole of a gas having T line.
degree of freedom f = 4
T0 2T0 T
(t) P Vs ρ graph for the process is a
parabola

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MATHEMATICS
PART-III
SECTION–I
Single Correct Choice Type
This Section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

39. If the positive integers are written in a triangular array as shown

1
2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9 10

Then the row in which the number 2010 will be, is

(A) 58 (B) 61 (C) 63 (D) 65

40. The values of k for which the inequality k cos 2 x − k cos x + 1 ≥ 0, ∀ x ∈(− ∞, ∞ ) holds is
1 1 1
(A) k < − (B) k > 4 (C) − ≤k≤4 (D) ≤ k ≤ 5.
2 2 2
2π
be such that a = 3 and




41. Let two non-collinear vectors a and b inclined at an angle
3
b = 2. If a point P moves so that at any time t its position vector OP (where O is the

 1
 1

origin) is given as OP =  t + a +  t −  b , then least distance of P from the origin is
 t  t
(A) 2 133 − 10 (B) 2 133 + 10 (C) 5 + 133 (D) none of these

42. If equation x n − nx n −1 + a 2 x n − 2 + a 3 x n −3 + … + a n −1 x + ( −1) n = 0 has n positive roots, then

least value of n for which a 2 + a3 is negative, is
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 1

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1 p ( x)
43. Let k be a fixed positive integer. The nth derivative of has the form k n n +1 where
x −1 k
( x − 1)
pn ( x) is a polynomial of degree n with p 0 (1) = 1 . Then the value of pn (1) is
(A) (n − 1) ! (−k )n (B) n ! (−k )n −1
(C) (n − 1) ! (−k )n −1 (D) n ! (−k ) n .

2π
−1
44. If f ( x) = x + sin x, then ∫f ( x)dx is equal to
π

3π 2 3π 2
(A) −2 (B) +2
2 2
(C) 3π 2 (D) none of these

SECTION–II
Integer Type
This section contains FIVE questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.

45. Number of triangles with each side having integral length and the longest side is of 11 unit is
equal to k 2 . Then the value of k is equal to …………

46. If n C0 − nC1 + nC2 − nC3 + .... + ( −1) r . nCr = 28 , then n is equal to ………….

47. The length of the sub-tangent to the hyperbola x 2 − 4 y 2 = 4 corresponding to the normal
1
having slope unity is , then k is equal to
k
∞
 π 1 cos nx
48. If x ∈ 0,  and cos x = then the value of ∑ is equal to ………….
 2 3 n =0 3n

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49. Let S1 and S2 denote the circles x 2 + y 2 + 10 x − 24 y − 87 = 0 and
x + y − 10 x − 24 y + 153 = 0 respectively. (Let m be the smallest positive value of ‘a’ for
2 2

which the line y = ax contains the centre of a circle which touches S2 externally and S1
p
internally). Given that m 2 = , where p and q are relatively prime integers, if ( p + q ) is
q
k
equal to 13 , then the value of k is equal to ………….

SECTION–III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have
to be answered. Each of these uestions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 50 to 52
A parabola touches the bisectors of the angle obtained by the lines x + 2 y + 3 = 0 and
2 x + y + 3 = 0 at the points (1, 1) and (0, − 2) .
50. The focus of the parabola is
(A) (2, 3) (B) (− 2, 3)
2 7 1 7
(C)  ,  (D)  , − 
5 5 5 5
51. The equation of the directrix is

(A) 3 x + y + 4 = 0 (B) x − 3 y − 2 = 0
(C) 8 x − y + 7 = 0 (D) none of these
52. The length of latus rectum is
16 16 2
(A) 3 / 2 (B)
5 5
16 5 16 2
(C) (D)
( 2 )3 / 2 (5)3 / 2

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Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 55

Let f ( x) = x 4 − 6 x 3 + 26 x 2 − 46 x + 65 . All the roots of f ( x) = 0 are of the form ak + ibk for

k = 1, 2, 3, 4, where i = − 1. Further a k and bk are all integers. Also
λ = b1 + b2 + b3 + b4 and µ = a1 + a2 + a3 + a4 . If set S is formed whose elements are all
ai ' s and bi ' s, then

53. The value of λ + µ is equal to

(A) 16 (B) 4
(C) 10 (D) 6.

54. Roots of the equation are

(A) − 1 ± 2 i, − 2 ± 3 i (B) 2 ± 2 i, 1 ± 3 i
(C) − 2 ± 2 i, − 1 ± 3 i (D) 1 ± 2 i, 2 ± 3 i .

55. Number of functions from set S → C , where C has 8 distinct element is

(A) 84 (B) 88
(C) 85 (D) 86 .

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SECTION–IV
Matrix Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in
Column I and five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I
can have correct matching with one or more statement(s) given in Column II.
For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the statements given in q and r, then
for that particular question, against statement B, darken the bubbles corresponding to
q and r in the ORS.

56. Match functions f ( x) : R → R in the column-I with their types in Column-II.

Column I Column II
x (p) Discontinuous function
(A) f ( x) = , is
x
(B) f ( x) = (sgn {x}) (sgn { x}) (where {x} represent fractional (q) Even function
part of x) is
 x2 + x + 2  (r) Odd function
(C) f ( x) = sgn  2  , is
 x + x +1 
(D) f ( x) = [ x] + [1 − x], is (s) Periodic function
([.] denotes greatest integer function)
(t) Continuous function

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57. Match the following:

Column I Column II
(A) The number of ways in which 4 distinct balls can be kept in 7 (p) 361
different boxes if each box can have at most one ball is greater than
or equal to
(B) The distance of the z-axis from the image of the point M ( 2, − 3, 3) (q) 392
in the plane x − 2 y − z + 1 = 0 is equal to

(C) Number of ways in which 3 squares of unit length can be chosen on (r) 1
a 8 × 8 chess board, so that all the squares are in same diagonal line
is equal to
(D) Number of ways in which the letters of the word ' ABBCABBC ' can (s) 35
be arranged such that the word ABBC does not appear in any word
is less than or equal to
(t) 12

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Name: . QUESTION PAPER CODE:

1
Enrollment No.:

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

C. Question paper format:

9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Chemistry, Part II: Physics and Part III: Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.

10. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the instructions given at the
beginning of the section.

12. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension type questions. Each set consists of a paragraph
followed by 3 questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only one Choice is
correct.

13. Section IV contains 2 questions. Each question has four statements (A, B, C and D) given in Column I and
five statements (p, q, r, s and t) in Column II. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching
with one or more statement(s) given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B
matches with the statements given in q and r, then for that particular question, against statement B, darken
the bubbles corresponding to q and r in the ORS.

D. Marking scheme:

14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
two (– 2 ) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct choice for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be
awarded for incorrect answers in this section.

16. For each question in Section III you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will
be awarded.

17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in which you have darkened
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of
8 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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