CODE: AE2020/E BATCHES/GRAND TEST

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY

KARAIKUDI

Our TNPSC CESE AE Civil Result in 2019 Exam

436 + selections out of 573 posts

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PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY 11. The longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder of mean
KARAIKUDI radius R, wall thickness h, under pressure p is given
by :
TRB MODEL TEST- VI a) pR/h b) pR/2h c) 2pR/h d) p/2Hr
Maximum Marks: 190 Duration: 3.00Hrs
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A 12. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of
(c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true (A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
Directions to the candidates: (B) Shearing stress to shearing strain
1.There are 150 objective type questions in this question paper. (C) Longitudinal stress to shearing strain
Answer all the questions.
(D) Shearing stress to longitudinal strain
2.Part-A consist of 100 objective type questions, each carries 1
mark.
3. Part-B consist of 40 objective type questions, each carries 2 13. The flexural stress in a beam shall be lower if its
marks. (A) Section modulus is quite low
4.Part-C consist of 10 objective type questions, each carries 1 (B) Section modulus is quite high
mark. (C) Section modulus is zero
PART - A (D) size is large
1. The type of surveying in which the curvature of the
earth is taken into account is called 14. For a beam carrying a uniformly distributed load,
a) Geodetic surveying b) Plane surveying the strain energy will be maximum in case the beam
c) Preliminary surveying d) Topographical surveying is:
(A) Cantilever (B) Simply supported
2. Inclination of the needle to the horizontal towards (C) Propped cantilever (D) fixed at both ends
the pole is called
a) Dip b) Declination c) Azimuth d) Bearing 15.The ratio of maximum shear stress to the average
shear stress in a circular section is :
3. Whole circle bearing 338042’ converted into (A) 9/8 (B) 4/3 (C) 3/2 (D) 5/4
quadrant form is
a) N 21018’W b) S 21018’W 16. For a body subjected to hydrostatic state of stress,
c) N 68042’W d) S 68042’W the shear stress on a plane inclined at an angle of 45º
with the horizontal is :
4. The design value of lateral friction coefficient of (A) maximum (B) zero
highway is (C) minimum (D) one third of hydrostatic pressure
a) 1.5 b) 0.50 c) 0.35 d) 0.15
17. In a solid rectangular shaft subjected to torsion,
5. Camber on highway pavement is provided to take the maximum shear stress occurs at :
care of (A) centre (B) corners
a) Centrifugal force b) Drainage (C) mid of smaller side (D) mid of longer side
c) Sight Distance d) Off-tracking
18. In case of eccentricity loaded struts, the section
6. The distance traveled by a moving vehicle during preferred is
perception time and break reaction time is known as a) solid b) hollow c) tapering d)composite
a) Sight distance b) Stopping distance
c) Lag distance d) Breaking distance 19. Points of contraflexure are the points where
a) beam is supported b) bending moment is zero
7. The reaction time for calculation stopping sight c) shear force is zero d)bending moment changes sign
distance may be assumed as
a) 5 sec b) 2.5sec c) 0.5 sec d) 10 sec 20. The bending moment about the hinge support
must be
8. One degree of curve is equivalent to (a) less than zero (b) equal to zero
a)1600/R b) 1700/R c) 1750/R d) 1850/R (c) greater than zero (c) Approximately zero
9. The stopping sight distance depends upon 21. The plane frame shown aside is
a) total reaction time of driver b) speed of vehicle
c) efficiency of brakes d) all of the above

10. The absolute minimum radius of curve for safe

operation for a speed of 110kmph is
a) 110 m b) 220 m c) 440 m d) 577m

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a) statically indeterminate but unstable a) 5.9 kN

b) unstable c) determine and stable b) 30.2 kN
d) none of the above c) 66.3 kN
d) 94.1 kN
22. For the plane truss shown in the fig. the number
of zero force members for thegiven loading is

28. Which one of the following structures is

statically determinate and stable?(IES-2005)

a) 4 b)8 c) 11 d) 13
a) b)
23. The order for the flexibility matrix for a structure
is,
a) equal to the number of redundant forces
b) more than the number of redundant forces
c) less than the number of redundant forces
d) equal to the number of redundant forces plus three c) d)

24. The Stiffness matrix of a beam element is given as PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY
2 +1
.Then the flexibility matrix is
+1 2 KARAIKUDI
2 1 1 −2
a) b)
1 2 −2 1 Most Successful Institute in
2 −1 2 −1
c) d) TNPSC AE Exam
−1 2 −1 2
Total AE selections
25. Identify the false statement from the following,
pertaining to the methods ofstructural analysis From Pyramid Academy
a) Influence lines for stress resultants in beams can be
2007 Exam -130
drawn using MullerBreslau’s Principle
b) The Moment Distribution Method is a force method 2008 Exam -178
of analysis, not adisplacement method
2010 Exam -395
c) The Principle of Virtual Displacements can be used
to establish a conditionof equilibrium 2018 Exam -225+
d) The Substitute Frame Method is not applicable to
2019 Exam – 439+
frames subject to significantsideway
In 2010 Exam,
26. The influence line diagram (ILD) shown is for the
47 selections in Top 50 &
member
All top 20

29. The three moments equation is applicable only

when
(A) The beam is prismatic
(B) There is no settlement of supports
C) There is no discontinuity such as hinges within the span
(D) The spans are equal

30. Match the List I with List II

List I List II
a) PS b)RS c) PQ d) QS (A) G.N. Maney 1. Moment distribution
(B) Hardy cross 2. Slope deflection method
27. Vertical reaction developed at B in the frame (C)Euler 3.Theorem of three moments
below due to the applied load to100 kN (with (D) Clapeyron 4. Crippling load on column
150,000mm2 cross-sectional area and 3.125x109 mm4 a) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-4 b) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
moment ofinertia for both members) is c) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 d) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

III FLOOR, B&K COMPLEX, MAIN ROAD,SRI RAM NAGAR,

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31. Rankine’s theory of earth pressure suits well for Of these statements
(a) R.C.C. – Cantilever type retaining walls (a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct
(b) R.C.C. – Counterfort type retaining walls (c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct
(c) Masonry gravity walls
(d) Both (a) and (b) 40. Plate load test is carried over upto ______ times
expected ultimate load.
32. Select the incorrect statement. (a) 90% (b) 100% (c) 125% (d) 150%
(A) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon the
amount and direction of load 41. In the oxidation ditch, the excess sludge is taken
(B) Bearing capacity of a soil depends on the type of to
soil a) anaerobic digester b) aerobic digester
(C) Bearing capacity of a soil depends upon shape and c) drying beds d) incinerator
size of footing
(D) Bearing capacity of a soil is independent of rate of 42. The typical density in kg/cum (in situ) of
loading well - compacted municipal solid waste in landfill is
in the range of
33. Terzaghi's analysis assumes: a) 100 to 300 b) 310 to 500
(A) Soil is homogeneous and isotropic c) 550 to 850 d) 900 to 1100
(B) Elastic zone has straight boundaries inclined at
ψ=φ to the horizontal and plastic zones fully 43. In the design of storm sewers, "time of
developed concentration" is relevant to determine the
(C) Failure zones do not extend above the horizontal a) rainfall intensity b) velocity in the sewer
plane through the base of the footing c) time of travel d) area served by the sewer
(D) All the above
44. Various unit operations exist in a sewage
34. According to IS specifications in any case depth of treatment plant. These would include
foundation in sand and clay should not be less than 1. screening 2. grit removal
______ respectively. 3. secondary sedimentation 4. aeration
(a) 600 mm and 800 mm (b) 800 mm and 900 mm 5. primary sedimentation
(c) 900 mm and 1000 mm (d) 1000 mm and 1200 mm The correct sequence of these operations is
a) 1,2,3,4,5 b) 1,2,5,4,3 c) 2,1,4,5,3 d) 2,1,4,3,5
35. Rise of water table in cohesive soils up to ground
surface reduces the net ultimate bearing capacity 45. Type II settling in water treatment is defined as
approximately by a) settling of discrete particles in dilute suspensions.
(A) 25 % (B) 50 % (C) 75 % (D) 0 % b) settling of flocculant particles in dilute suspensions.
c) settling of flocculant particles in concentrated
36. The value of factor of safety adopted in suspensions.
foundation design is d) settling of particles in the form of a sludge blanket.
(a) 1.2 to 1.5 (b) 1.5 to 2.0
(c) 2 to 3 (d) 3 to 4 46. Dechlorination of water is achieved by adding
a) sodium thiosulphate b) sodium sulphate
37. The settlement of a group of friction piles as c) sodium hexametaphosphate d) sodium bisulphate
compared to that of a single pile is
(a) same (b) less 47. The spray tower can be used to control
(c) more (d) none of the above a) gaseous pollutants only
b) particulate pollutants only
38. Coefficient of earth pressure at rest of loose, c) both (a) and (b)
saturated sand is about d) none of above
(a) 0.36 (b) 0.46 (c) 0.54 (d) 0.64
48. To divert excessive flow from combined sewers,
39. Consider the following statements the most commonly used weir is a
The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) in soils is the a) cipoletti weir b) broadcrested weir
most commonly used field test. SPT is used to c) leaping weir d) submerged weir
determine
1. consistency of clay 49. The maximum efficiency of BOD removal is
2. un-drained shear strength of soft sensitive clay achieved in
3. relative density of sands. a) oxidation pond b) oxidation ditch
4. drained shear strength of fine loose sand c) aerated lagoons d) trickling filters
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50. The effective size of sand particles used in slow 53. When Environmental Lapse Rate (ELR) is more
sand filters is than Adiabatic Lapse Rate (ALR), then the
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm environment is said to be
c) 0.60 to 1.00mm d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm a) stable b) unstable c) neutral d) none of above

54. The unit of kinematic viscosity is

a) gm/cm-sec2 b) dyne-sec/cm
c) gm/cm2-sec d) cm2/sec

55. In the most general form of Bernoulli's equation

P/w+v2/2g+z =constant, each term represents
a) energy per unit mass b) energy per unit weight c)
energy per unit volume d) none of the above

56. In a forced vortex motion, the velocity of flow is

a) directly proportional to its radial distance from axis
of rotation
b) inversely proportional to its radial distance from the
axis of rotation
c) inversely proportional to the square of its radial
distance from the axis of rotation
d) directly proportional to the square of its radial
distance from the axis of rotation

57. The equation p/w+V2/2g+Z constant is based on

the following assumptions regarding the flow of
fluid :
a) Steady, frictionless, incompressible and along a
streamline
b) steady, frictionless, uniform and along a
streamline
c) steady, incompressible, uniform and along a
streamline
d) steady, frictionless, incompressible and uniform

58. A 3-hour unit hydrograph (UH) differs from 1 6-

hour UH, for any catchment, in that
a) both the time of rise and the peak ordinate for the
former are less than that for the latter
b) both the time of rise and the peak ordinate for the
former are greater than that of the latter
c) the time of rise is less but the peak ordinate is
greater for the former as compared to that of the latter
d) the time of rise is greater but the peak ordinate is
less for the former as compared to that of the latter

59. Which one of the following constitutes the basic

assumption of unit-hydrograph theory?
51. The polluted water is one which a) Non-liner response and time invariance
a) contains pathogenic bacteria b) Non- linear time variance and linear response
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit c) Linear response and linear time variance
for drinking and domestic use d) Time invariance and linear response
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
d) is contaminated 60. The following four hydrological features have to
be estimated or taken as inputs before one can
52. The ratio of 5 days BOD to ultimate BOD is about compute the flood hydrograph at any catchment
a) 1/3 b) 2/3 c) ¾ d) 1.0 outlet:
1. unit hydrograph 2. rainfall hydrograph
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3. infiltration index 4. base flow 66. Air formed transported soil is

The correct order in which they have to be employed a) Loess b) Glacier c) Sand dunes d) A & C
in the computations is
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,1,4,3 c) 2,3,1,4 d) 4,1,3,2 67. While testing a soil, thread test is conducted in the
field in order to find out
61. Permanent wilting point is a) Liquid limit b) Plastic stage
a) a characteristic of the plant c) Shrinkage limit d) None of theabove
b) a soil characteristic
c) a soil characteristic modified by the crop 68. The phenomenon when soil loses its shear
d) dependent on soil water plant fertilizer interaction strength due to oscillatory motion is known as:
a)Consolidation b)Shear failure
62. Conjuctive use of water in a basin means c)Liquefaction d)Sloughing
a) combined use of water for irrigation and for
hydropower generation 69. Vane shear test is not applicable for
b) combined use of surface and ground water a) Dense sand b) Loose sand
resources c) All of the above d) Stiff clay
c) use of irrigation water for both rabi and kharif
season 70. Stability of a infinite slope is slowest for
d) use of irrigation water by cooperative of farmers a) Partially saturated soil b) Dry soil
c) Seepage parallel slope d) Horizontal slope
63. Rigid boundary canals, whose bed and banks are
made with non-erodible materials, are in 71. Darcy’s law is for
a) true regime b) permanent regime a) Open channel flow
c) final regime d) none of above b) Diffusion of water
c) Underground motion
64. Pycnometer is not used d) Evaporation of surface water
a) to measure only specific gravity
b) to measure water content 72. Coefficient of consolidation is measured in
c) to measure specific gravity and water content a)cm /g b) cm /sec
d) to measure specific area c) g/cm /sec d) g-cm/sec

65. A soil sample has a porosity of 100%, calculate 73. Undisturbed soil samples are required for
voids ratio conducting
a) 3.0 b) 0 c) 0.5 d) 0.33 a) Hydrometer b) Shrinkage limit test
c)Specific gravity test d)None of the above

Special Features of the Academy 74. What is the range of fineness modulus of sand
 Extensive and Well Informative Classes which is least suitable for making a good concrete?
a) 3.5 -4.5 b) 2.9-3.2 c) 2.6-2.9 d) 2.2-2.6
by highly qualified(from IIT Madras)
and experienced technical experts 75. Which constituent of the cement, upon addition of
water, sets and hardens first
a) tri-calcium silicate b) tri-calcium aluminate
 Complete guidance for written tests c)di calcium silicate d)tetra calcium alumino ferrite

 Timely completion of full syllabus with 76. The Bogue s compound tricalcium aluminate in
stressing on vital areas clinkering process of cement is named as
a) alite b) belite c) celite d) Felite

 Well planned test series and regular 77. Lap length of reinforcement in compression shall
assessment of performance not be less than
a) 30Φ b) 24Φ c) 20Φ d) 15Φ
 Previous year Question papers will
78. What is the modular ratio to be used in the
be discussed analysis of RC beams using WSM if the grade of
concrete is M20?
 Model exams will be conducted a) 18.6 b) 13.3 c) 9.9 d) 6.5

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KARAIKUDI. CONTACT 94864 31610,04565 286671,99521 60010
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79. Shrinkage in concrete slab causes

a) shear cracks b) tension cracks 92. What is the imperfection factor for lateral
c) compression face d) no cracking torsional buckling of beams for welded steel sections
(a) 0.65 (b) 0.21 (c) 0.45 (d) 0.49
80. Partially safety factor for concrete and steel in
LSM of design of RC structures assumed as 93. Which of the following loads are considered in
a) 1.35 & 1.20 respectively b) 1.24 & 1.25 designing a gantry girder in an industrial building
c) 1.08 & 1.25 d) 1.5 & 1.15 (1) Gravity loads (2) Lateral loads
(3) Longitudinal loads (4) Wind loads
81. The magnitude of loss due to relaxation of steel is Select the correct answer using the codes given
in the range of below:
a) 0 to 1% b) 2 to 8 % c) 8 to 12% d) 12 to 14% (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2,3 and 4

82. The surface width of cracks shall not generally 94. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering
exceed section under direct tension is at :
a) 0.1mm b) 0.2mm c) 0.3mm d) 0.4mm (A) larger end (B) smaller end
(C) middle (D) anywhere
83. Bursting stresses in prestressed concrete members
are developed at
a) maximum bending moment zone
b) maximum shear zone c) anchorage zone
d) bond zone

84. In Magnel Blaton system each sandwich plate can

generally anchor
a) 8 b) 12 c) 16 d) 20

85. In PSC the prestressing of concrete is done to

compensate the stresses caused by
a) dead load b) working loads
c) live load d) dynamic loads

86. An ISMB 300 is to be used as a compression

member. Considering the buckling about y-y axis,
the corresponding buckling class as per IS 800: 2007
will be
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) d

87. In a single laced column system a tie plate of

length 300 mm is used at the end of the column. The
minimum thickness of the tie plate should be
(a) 3 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 12 mm

88. Reduction factor (βij) for Ordinary Black Bolt is

considered if length of joints is greater than, (d =
nominal diameter of bolt)
(a) 10d (b) 15d (c) 5d (d) 12.5d

89. The net tensile area of a 16 mm diameter bolt to

be consider at the root of the threads is
(a) 201 mm2 (b) 157 mm2 (c) 100 mm2 (d) 85 mm2

90. The yield stress ratio (ε) of Fe 410 grade of steel is

a) 0.25 b) 0.5 c) 0.75 d) 1.0

91. What is the slenderness ratio of idealised web

strut (t = thickness of web, d = depth of web)?
(a) 2.5d/t (b) 0.5d/t (c) 0.7d/t (d) 2d/t
III FLOOR, B&K COMPLEX, MAIN ROAD,SRI RAM NAGAR,
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95. Two Eigen values of A= are equal 106. A three hinged parabolic arch having a span of
− − − 20 m and a rise of 5 m carries apoint load of 10 kN at
and they are double the third. Then the eigen values quarter span from the left end as shown in the figure.
are The resultant reaction at the left support and its
(A) (1,2,2) (B) (3,6,6) (C) (4,8,8) (D) (5,10,10) inclination with the horizontal are respectively

96. Solve ( − ) =0 a) 9.01 kN and 56.310

(A)y = Ae + Be + Ce b) 9.01 kN and 33.690
(B) y = Ae + Be + Ce c) 7.50 kN and 56.310
(C) y = A cos x + B sin x + Ce d) 2.50 kN and 33.690
√ √
(D) y = Ae + e + (B cos + C sin
97. grad = 107. A beam PQRS is 18 m long and is simply at
⃗ points Q and R 10 m apart. Overhangs PQ and RS are
(A) r⃗ (B) (C) - (D) 0 3 m and 5 m respectively. A train of two point loads
of150 kN, 5 m apart, crosses this beam from left to
98. The residue of ( at z=2 is right with 100 kN load leading.The maximum
)( )
(A) 1/9 (B) 3/9 (C) 4/9 (D) 4/8 sagging moment under the 150 kN load anywhere is
a) 500 kNm b) 450 kNm c) 400 kNm d) 375 kNm
99. Find (( )
) 108. For the frame shown in the figure 2.4, the
(A) e sin 4t (B) e sin t maximum bending moment in the columns is
(C) e sin 4t (D)

100. In Simpson’s 1/3 rule, the result is more accurate

is a polynominal of degree
(A) three (B) four (C) five (D) two

PART - B
101. A 30 m metric chain is found to be 0.1-m too
short through out the measurement. If the distance a)Zero b)400kNm c) 100kNm d) 200kNm
measured is recorded as 300 m, then the actual
distance will be 109. For the structure shown below, the vertical
a) 300.1 m b) 301.0 m c) 299.0m d) 310.0m deflection at point A is given by

102. The true bearing of a line is 34° 20’ and the

magnetic declination at that place of observation is 2°
20’ west on the date of observation. The magnetic
bearing of the line is
a) 36° 40’ b) 34° 20’ c) 32° d) 32° 40’ .

103. The co-efficient of friction in the longitudinal

direction of a highway is estimatedas 0.396. The
braking distance for a car moving at a speed of 65
km/hris
a) 87 m b) 45 m c) 42 m d)40 m a) b) c)zero d)

104.The extra widening required for a two-lane 110. A propped cantilever of uniform flexural rigidity
National Highway at a horizontalcurve of 300 m is loaded as shown in the given figure. The bending
radius, considering a wheel base of 8 m and a design moment at fixed end A is(IES-2000)
speed of 100kmphis
a) 0.42 m b) 0.62 m c) 0.82 m d) 0.92 m

105. Design rate of super elevation for horizontal a) 150 kN-m hogging b) 300 kN-m sagging
highway curve of radius 450m for a mixed traffic c) 150 kN-m sagging d) 300 kN-m hogging
condition, having a speed of 125km/hour is
a) 1.0 b) 0.05 c) 0.07 d) 0.154
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111. A reinforced concrete foundation, of dimensions (b) good for back fill because of their high shear
18 m × 36 m, exerts a uniform pressure of 180 kN/m2 strength
on a soil mass, with E-value 45 MN/m2, then the (c) poor for back fill because of large lateral pressure
value of immediate settlement under the foundation (d) none of the above
is (take Is=1.00).
(A)35 mm (B)45 mm (C)55 mm (D)65mm 115. A raft of 6m × 9m is founded at a depth of 3 m in
a cohesive soil having c = 120 kN/m2. The ultimate
112. If the back fill is having a uniform surcharge of net bearing capacity of the soil using Terzaghi’s
intensity per unit area, the lateral pressure will be theroy will be nearly
(A) q times the lateral pressure within the surface (a) 820 kN/m2 (b) 920 kN/m2
(B) 1/q times the lateral pressure within the surface (c) 1036 kN/m2 (d) 1067 kN/m2
(C) Equal to a fill of height Z equal to q/r, where r is
the density of the backfill 116. The magnitude of the component of velocity at
(D) None of these point (1, 1) for a stream function = x2 - y2 is equal to
Pyramid IAS Academy a) 2 b) 2√2 c) 4 d) 4√2
Toppers – 2015
117. An open tank contains 1 m deep water with 50
cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8 above it. The
intensity of pressure at the bottom of tank will
be
a) 4kN/m2 b) 10kN/ m2 c) 12 kN/ m2 d) 14 kN/ m2
Rank 2384.50 Rank 3384.00 367.75 364.50 SARATH
SIVA KUMAR
RAGHUL C. CHARLES
SHANMUGAVEL 118. The intensity of pressure developed by surface
tension of 0.075 N/m in a droplet of water of 0.075
mm diameter is
a) 0.8 N/ cm2 b) 0.6 N/ cm2
c) 0.4 N/ cm 2 d) 400 N/ cm2
362.00
RANJITH
359.5 359.25 355.00 JAMES 119..The ordinates of a 3-hour unit hydrograph, for a
RAJENDRAN VENKATESH BABU MARTIN. A
small catchment are given below:
Time (Hour) Unit graph ordinates (m3/s)
0 0
3 1.5
6 4.5
9 18.6
354
MANIKANDAN
352.5 RIYAZ 351. 25 12 12.0
PRASANTH 350.000
MOHAMMED RAMESH 15 9.4
18 4.6
21 2.3
24 0.8
27 0
If the design storm produces net rainfall depths of 4.6
344.75
346.50 345.50
PARVATHA cm and 3.5 cm in successive unit periods, and if the
PERIYATHIRUMA PRAVEEN NISHANTHI
L
344.50 base flow is (2 m3/s) will nearly be
ANBARASU
a) 270 b) 130 c) 90 d) 86
113. A pile is being driven with a drop hammer
weighing 1800 kg and having a free fall of 1.00 m. If 120. Match List I (Main provision) with List II
the penetration with last blow is 5 mm, the load (Surplussing arrangement
carrying capacity of the pile, -according to the List I List II
Engineering News formula, is A Minor irrigation work 1 Saddle spillway
(A) 100 tonnes (B) 50 tonnes B Medium irrigation 2 Syphon spillway
(C) 20 tonnes (D) 10 tonnes project in interior area
C Earth dam across main 3 Ogee spillway
114. Cohesive soils are river
(a) good for back fill since they exert low lateral D Masonry dam on good 4 Surplus weir
pressure rock
a) A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3 b) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
c) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 d) A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3
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121. 200 gr. On over drying for 24 hrs, the mass is 129. The torsional stiffness of a member can be
reduced to 150 gr. Calculate the bulk density. defined as
a) 9.81 kN/ m3 b) 14.72 kN/m3 (a) Torque for unit moment (b) Torque for unit twist
c) 19.62 kN/ m 3 d) 24.53 kN/ m3 (c) Moment for unit twist (d) Torsion for unit twist

122. A flow net constructed for an earth dam storing 130. The second moment of a plane area about any
water to a height 20m,the number of flow channels axis as compared to its second moment about the
and the number of potential drops are found to be 4 neutral axis :
and 10 respectively.If the permeability of the dam (A) is always more (B) is always less
material is 3m/day,the seepage per metre length of (C) is sometimes more (D) is equal
the dam is equal to
a)24m /day b)48m /day 131. A beam of square cross section (B×B) is used as a
c)96m /day d)12m /day beam with one diagonal horizontal. The location of
the maximum shear stress from the neutral axis will
123. A dry sand specimen is put through a triaxial be at a distance of :
test. The Cell pressure is 50 KPa and the deviator (A) Zero (B) b/4 (C) 0.25B/√2 D) B/8
stress at failure is 100KPa.The angle of internal
friction for the sand specimen is 132. If b = width of the beam , fy = yield stress in
a)15° b)30° c)37° d)45° steel, Sv = spacing of stirrups, the minimum area of
steel required is
124. Consider the following statement related to a) Asv = 0.4bSv / fy b) Asv = 0.6bSv / fy
triaxial test c) Asv = 0.6bSv / 0.8fy d) Asv = 0.4bSv / 0.87fy
1.Failure occurs along predetermined plane
2.Intemediate and minor principal stresses are equal 133. Tensile strength of concrete is measured by
3.Volume changes can be measured a)direct tensile in the universal testing machine
4.Field condition can be simulated b) applying compressive load along diameter of the
Of these statements cylinder
a)1,2& 3 are correct b)1,2& 4 are correct c) applying third point loading on a prism
c)1,3& 4 are correct d)2,3& 4 are correct d) applying tensile load along the diameter the
cylinder
125. In an isotropic soil field if is the permeability
coefficient in x direction and is the permeability
coefficient in y-direction, then the equivalent
permeability of transformed field for determination
of discharge is
a)K = k =k b)K =

c)K = k . k d)K =

126. Two samples of water A and B have pH

values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How
many times more acidic sample A is than
sample B?
a) 0 b) 50 c) 100 d) 200

127. A city supply of 15000 cubic metres of water per

day is treated with a chlorine dosage of 0.5 ppm. For
this purpose, the requirement of 25% bleaching 134. Amoist aggregate is one
powder per day would be a) whose all the pores are filled with water and also
a) 300 kg b) 75 kg c) 30 kg d) 7.5 kg having its surface wet
b) whose all the pores are filled with water and also
128. If the deflection at the free end of a uniformly having its surface dry
loaded cantilever beam of length 1 m is equal to 7·5 c)which do not contain any moisture either in the pores
mm, then the slope at the free end is : or on the surface
(A) 0·01 rad (B) 0·015 rad d) which may contain some moisture in the pores but
(C) 0·02 rad (D) none of the above having dry surface

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 CODE: AE2020/E BATCHES/GRAND TEST

135. A batten column is carrying a factored load of 140. If u= ( ) then, x + =

800 kN. Two channel section are placed back to back
with a spacing of 190 mm. Assume gauge length of 50 (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 tan u (D) tan u
mm and number of parallel plane of batten as 2. If
the spacing of battens, C = 1300 mm, longitudinal PART –C
shear and moment on the batten are 141. Which one of the following river called as
(a) 24.4 kN and 3.5 kN-m (b) 3.5 kN and 24.4 kN-m sorrow of West Bengal?
(c) 44.8 kN and 6.5 kN-m (d) 6.5 kN and 44.8 kN-m a) Mahanadhi b) Ganga c) Damodar d) Tista

142. The strongest part of human body is?

PYRAMID IAS ACADEMY a) Femur b) Bone c) Enamel d) Nail
KARAIKUDI
143. The first governor general of free India was
Congratulates the following Pyramid Students for
a) Rajaji b) S.Sinha
their selection in Tamil Nadu Slum Clearance
c) Mountbatten d) Rajendraprasad
Board(TNSCB) AE/JE Result Published on
26.04.2017 and Received Appointment order from 144. Which country has headquarter of International
Our Honorable CM…We produced Around 35+ LabourOrganisation?
AE/JE in TNSCB. a) Switzerland b) Italy c)USA d) France

145. The banks are required to maintain a certain

ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This
is called:
a) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)
b) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
c) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)
d) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)

146. Nucleolus is present within the:

a) Lysosome b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria d) Nucleus

147. Which statereceived an award from the Defence

Minister Rajnath Singhfor “Best Performance in
Road Safety”was
a) Andhra b)Tamilnadu
136. A pipe of 100 mm diameter is connected to a c)Maharastra d)Telangana
plate with a fillet weld of size 5 mm. A vertical force
of 10 kN is acting at a distance 0.5 m from welded 148. Tamil Nadu has retained ____rank in the
end. Calculate shear stress due to direct load Sustainable DevelopmentGoals (SDG) India Index
(a) 5 N/mm2 (b) 6 N/mm2 2019, released by NITI Aayog.
(c) 9 N/mm2 (d) 8 N/mm2 a)4th b)3th c)8th d)5th

137. If X has a Poisson distribution and 149. Which state has declared the “Year 2020 as the
P(X=0)=P(X=1)= k then k is Year of ArtificialIntelligence”
(A) e (B) 1/e (C) e (D) 1 a)Telangana b)Tamilnadu
c)Maharastra d)Kerala
138. The equation x+y=1, 2x+2y-2=0 have
(A) no solution (B) unique solution 150. Which city has been named as the most dynamic
(C) only two solutions (D) Infinite number of solutions city in the world byJones Lang Lasalle (JLL)
a)Chennai b)Delhi
139. The function f(x,y)= + − ( + ) + c)Hyderabad d)Bangaluru
the point (-7,-7) gives
(A)Maximum (B) Minimum
(C) Saddle point (D) None of these

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 CODE: AE2020/E BATCHES/GRAND TEST

III FLOOR, B&K COMPLEX, MAIN ROAD,SRI RAM NAGAR,

KARAIKUDI. CONTACT 94864 31610,04565 286671,99521 60010
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