DIRECTORATE OF EDUCATION

GNCT of Delhi

SUPPORT MATERIAL
(2021-2022)
Class : X

SCIENCE

Under the Guidance of

Mr. Rajesh Prashad

Secretary (Education)

Mr. Udit Prakash Rai

Director (Education)

Dr. Rita Sharma

Addl. DE (School & Exam.)

Coordinators
Ms. Savita Drall Mrs. Mukta Soni Mr. Raj Kumar Mr. Krishan Kumar
DDE (Exam) Addl DDE (Exam) OSD (Exam) OSD (Exam)
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Anil Kumar Sharma

Published at Delhi Bureau of Text Books , 25/2 Institutional Area, Pankha

Road, New Delhi-110058 by Anil Kaushal, Secretary, Delhi Bureau of
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.
 DIRECTORATE OF EDUCATION
Govt. of NCT, Delhi

SUPPORT MATERIAL
(2021-2022)

SCIENCE
Class : X
(English Medium)

NOT FOR SALE

PUBLISHED BY : DELHI BUREAU OF TEXTBOOKS

 SUPPORT MATERIAL
CLASS X
SCIENCE

List of contributors for preparation of Support Material in Science Class

X (2021-22)
Team Leader Dr. Devender Kumar Vice Principal,
SBV, Narela
Team who Prepared Support Material of Natural Science:

S. No. Name Designation School

1. Mrs. Poonam Katyal TGT Nat. Sci. C.A.U.

2. Mrs. Yogita Girotra TGT Nat. Sci. C.A.U.

3. Mr. Siddharth Kaushik TGT Nat. Sci. RPVV Raj Niwas Marg

4. Mrs. Manjusha Sharma TGT Nat. Sci. RPVV Civil lines

5. Mrs. Sabita Varun TGT Nat. Sci. RPVV Raj Niwas Marg

.
 COURSE STRUCTURE
CLASS X

(EVALUATION SCHEME)
THEORY
Units Term -1 Marks
I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour:
Chapter 1,2 and 3 16
II World of Living: Chapter 6 10
III Natural Phenomena: Chapter 10 and 11 14
Units Term - II Marks
I Chemical Substances-Nature and Behaviour:
Chapter 4 and 5 10
II World of Living: Chapter 8 and 9 13
III Effects of Current: Chapter 12 and 13 12
IV Natural Resources: Chapter 15 05
Total Theory (Term MI) 80
Internal Assessment: Term I 10
Internal Assessment: Term II 10
Grand Total 100
TERM - I
Theme: Materials
Unit I : Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chapter - 1 Chemical reactions and equations
Chemical Reactions: Chemical equation, Balanced chemical equation,
implications of a balanced chemical equation, types of chemical reactions:
combination, decomposition, displacement, double displacement, precipitation,
neutralization, oxidation and reduction.
Chapter - 2 Acids, Bases and Salts
Adam, Bases and Salts: Their definitions in terms of furnishing of H+ and OH-
ions, General properties, examples and uses, concept of pH scale (Definition
relating to logarithm not required), importance of pH everyday life; preparation
and uses of Sodium Hydroxide, Bleaching powder, Baking soda, Washing soda
and Plaster of Paris.
Chapter - 3 Metals and Non-metals
Metal and Non-metals: Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series;
Formation and propertief of ionic compounds
Theme: The World of the Living
Unit II : World of Living
Chapter - 6 Life Processes
Life processes: ‘Living Being’. Basic concept of nutrition, respiration, transport
and excretion in plai and animals.
Theme: How Things Work
Unit III: Natural Phenomena
Chapter - 10 Light, Reflection and Refraction
Reflection of Light by Curved Surfaces: Images formed by spherical mirrors,
centre of curvature, principal axis, principal focus, focal length, mirror formula
(Derivation not required), magnification.
Refraction; Laws of refraction, refractive index.
Refraction of light by spherical lens; Image formed by spherical lenses; Lens
formula (Derivation not required); Magnification. Power of a lens.
Chapter - 11 Human Eve and Colourful World
Refraction of light through a prism, dispersion of light, scattering of light,
applications in daily life.
TERM - II
Theme: Materials
Unit I : Chemical Substances - Nature and Behaviour
Chapter - 4 Carbon and its Compounds
Carbon Compounds: Covalent bonding in carbon compounds. Versatile nature
of carbon.Homologous series.
Chapter - 5 Periodic Classification of Elements
Periodic Classification of Elements: Need for classification, early attempts at
classification of elements (Dobereiner’s Triads, Newland’s Law of Octaves,
Mendeleev’s Periodic Table), Modern periodic table, gradation in properties,
valency, atomic number, metallic and non-metallic properties.
Theme: The World of the Living
Unit II : World of Living
Chapter - 8 How do Organisms Reproduce?
Reproduction: Reproduction in animals and plants (asexual and sexual)
reproductive health-need and methods of family planning. Safe sex vs HIV/AIDS.
Child bearing and women’s health.
Chapter - 9 Heredity and Evolution
Heredity: Heredity; Mendel’s contribution- Laws for inheritance of traits: Sex
determination: brief introduction;
Theme: Natural Phenomena
Unit IV : Effects of Current
Chapter - 12 Electricity
Ohm’s law; Resistance, Resistivity. Factors on which the resistance of a
conductor depends. Series combination of resistors, parallel combination of
resistors And its applications in daily life, Heating effect of electric current and
its applications in daily life. Electric power, Interrelation between P, V, I and R.
Chapter - 13 Magnetic Effects of Current
Magnetic Effects of Current: Magnetic field, field lines, field due to a current
carrying conductor, field due to current carrying coil or solenoid; Force on current
carrying conductor, Fleming’s Left Hand Rule, Electric Motor, Electromagnetic
induction. Induced potential difference, Induced current. Fleming’s Right Hand
Rule.
Theme: Natural Resources
Unit V : Natural Resources
Chapter - 15 Our Environment
Our Environment: Eco-system, Environmental problems, Ozone depletion,
waste production and their solutions. Biodegradable and non-biodegradable
substances.
*****
 ONLY FOR INTERNAL ASSESSMENT
Note: Learners are assigned to read the below listed part of Unit V, Thev can be
encouraged to prepare a brief write up on any one concept of this Unit in their
Portfolio. This may be an assessment for Internal Assessment and credit may
be given (Periodic assessment/Portfolio). This portion of the Unit is not to be
assessed in the year-end examination.
Chapter - 16 Management of Natural Resources
Conservation and judicious use of natural resources. Forest and wild life; Coal
and Petroleum conservation. Examptes of people’s participation for conservation
of natural resources. Big dams: advantages and limitations; alternatives, if any,
water harvesting. Sustainability of natural resources.
PRACTICALS
Practical should be conducted alongside the concepts taught in theory classes.
TERM - I
List of Experiments
1. A. Finding the pH of the following samples by using pH paper/universal
indicator:
(i) Dilute Hydrochloric Acid
(ii) Dilute NaOH solution
(iii) Dilute Ethanoic Acid solution
(iv) Lemon juice
(v) Water
(vi) Dilute Hydrogen Carbonate solution
B. Studying the properties of acids and bases (HC1 & NaOH) on the basis of
their reaction with:
(a) Litmus solution (Blue/Red)
(b) Zinc metal
(c) Solid sodium carbonate
Unit I : Chapter-2
2. Performing and observing the following reactions and classifying them into:
A. Combination reaction
B. Decomposition reaction
C. Displacement reaction
 D. Double displacement reaction
(i) Action of water on quicklime
(ii) Action of heat on ferrous sulphate crystals (Hi) Iron nails kept in copper
sulphate solution
(iv) Reaction between sodium sulphate and barium chloride solutions.
Unit I : Chapter - 1
3. A. Observing the action of Zn, Fe, Cu and Al metals on the following salt
solutions:
(i) ZnSO4(aq) (ii) FeSO4(aq)
(iii)CuSO4(aq) (iv) Al2 (SO4)3(aq)
B. Arranging Zn, Fe, Cu and Al (metals) in the decreasing order of reactivity
based on the above result.
Unit I : Chapter - 3
4. Experimentally show that carbon dioxide is given out during respiration.
Unit II : Chapter - 6
5. Determination of the focal length of (t) Concave mirror and (ii) Convex lens by
obtaining the image of a distant object.
Unit III : Chapter - 10
6. Tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for
different angles of f incidence. Measure the angle of incidence, angle of
refraction, angle of emergence and Interpret the result.
Unit Ill : Chapter-10
7. Tracing the path of the rays of light through a glass prism.
Unit III : Chapter - 11
TERM - II
List of Experiments
1. Studying the dependence of Potential difference (V) across a resistor on the
current (I) passing through it and determining its resistance. Also plotting a
graph between V and I
Unit IV : Chapter - 12
2. Studying (a) binary fission in Amoeba, and (b) budding in yeast and Hydra
with the help of prepared slides.
Unit II : Chapter - 8
Prescribed Books
 Science-Textbook for class IX-NCERT Publication
 Science-Text book for class X- NCERT Publication
 Assessment of Practical Skills in Science-Class IX - CBSE Publication
 Assessment of Practical Skills in Science- Class X- CBSE Publication
 Laboratory Manual-Science-Class IX, NCERT Publication
 Laboratory Manual-Science-Class X, NCERT Publication
 Exemplar Problems Class IX - NCERT Publication
 Exemplar Problems Class X - NCERT Publication
Assessment Areas (Theory) 2021-22
(Class X)
Science (086)
Theory Total Maximum Marks: 80

Competencies Marks

Demonstrate Knowledge and Understanding 46%

Application of Knowledge/Concepts 22%

Analyze, Evaluate and Create 32%

Note: Internal choice would be provided.

Internal Assessment - Term I and II (10 Marks Each)

 Periodic Assessment - 03 marks

 Multiple Assessment - 02 marks

 Subject Enrichment (Practical Work) - 03 marks

 Portfolio - 02 marks
Content
S.No. Chapter Name Page No.

1. Chemical Reaction and Equations 01–17

2. Acids, Bases and Salts 18–38
3. Metals and Non-metals 39–51
4. Carbon and its compounds 52–69
5. Periodic Classification of Elements 70–87
6. Life Processes 88–108
7. Control and Co-ordination 109–122
8. How do Organisms Reproduce 123–138
9. Heredity and Evolution 139–162
10. Light Reflection and Refraction 163–185
11. The Human Eye and the colorful world 186–204
12. Electricity 205–219
13. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 220–237
14. Source of Energy 238–257
15. Our Environment 258–266
16. Sustainable Management of Natural Resources
267–277
• Practice Question Paper 278–289
 CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS

Reraction Types of Chemical Reaction

Change in
Combination Reaction
Form Equation

Colour – Exothermic Reaction

Decomposition Reaction
State – Endothermic Reaction

Temperature Displacement Reaction

Double Displacement Reaction

Simplest Way to Write Reaction – Precipitation Rkn
Word Equation
Oxidation – Reduction Reaction –
Magnesium + Oxygen Magnesium oxide Effects of Oxidation – Corrosion

Mg + O2 MgO 2Mg + O2 2MgO

Unbalanced Equation Balancd Equation Energy Absorbed –
Endothermic
Energy Released –
Exothermic
v Follows law of conservation of mass.
v No. of atoms remain same.
v Reactants and Products both
v Phycical states of elements, written as
solid(s) liquid(i), aqueous(aq) and gas(g)

Note: Skeleton equations are usually unbalanced equation but there are few
which need not to be balanced as they are already balanced equations eq.

1
 Skeleton Equation Balanced Equation

2
 Magnesium oxide.
2 2

be

3
4
(iii) 2Pb (NO3)2(s) 2PbO(s)+ 4NO2(g)+O2
(lead nitrate) (lead oxide) (Nitogen dioxide)

(l)

5
The decomposition reactions are mostly endothermic in nature. Energy
in the form of heat, light or electricity is generally absorbed in these reactions.

Silver chloride turns grey on exposure to sunlight

(a)

(b)

white precipitate of BaSO4 is formed, so it is also called precipitation

reaction.
Note: All bouble displacement reactions are not precipitation reactions.
6
(ii) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 +PbI2 + 2KNO3
Potassium iodide Lead nitrate Lead iodide Potassium nitrate
(Yellow ppt)
(iii) 2KBr + BaI2 2KI + BaBr2
Potassium bromide Barium iodide Potassium iodide Barium bromide

7
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Q. 1 The shiny inish of wall after white wash is because of.
a) Calcium oxide b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Calcium Carbonate d) Calcium phosphate
Q. 2 Electrolysis of water is decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of
hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 1:2
Q. 3 Which the following statements about the given reaction are correct:
3Fe(s) + 4H2O (g) Fe2O3(s) + 4H2(g)
i) Iron metal is getting oxidized
ii) Water is getting reduced
iii) Water is acting as reducing agent
iv) Water is acting as oxidizine agent
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (iii) and (iv)
c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)
Q. 4 In order to prevent the spoilage of potato chips, they are packed in
plastic bags containing the gas
a) Cl2 b) O2 c) N2 d) H2
Q. 5 The process of respiration is -
a) an oxidation reaction which is endo thermic
b) a reduction reaction which is exothermic
c) a combination reaction which is endo thermic
d) an oxidation reaction which is exothermic

8
Q. 6 Burning of Methane is an example of
I. Exothermic recation
II. Combustion reaction
III. Decompostition reaction
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. I and III
Q. 7 A solution of substance X is used for white washing. The substance X is
a. Calcium oxide b. Calcium hydroxide
c. Calcium carbonate d. Calcium chloride
Q. 8 When iron nails are dipped into Copper Sulphate solution. The colour of
Copper Sulphate solution changes from
a. Green to blue b. Blue to green
c. Green to colourless d. Blue to colourless
Q. 9 The given Chemical reaction is an example of
Zn + CuSO4 —® ZnSO4 + Cu
a. Combination reaction b. Displacement reactions
c. Decomposition reaction d. Double displacement reaction
Q. 10 The balanced equation for the given chemical reaction is
Hydrogen + Chlorine —® Hydrogen Chloride
a. H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl b. H + Cl ® HCl
c. H2 + Cl2 —® HCl d. none of the above
Q. 11 Give an example of double displacement reaction? (CBSE 2010, 2011)
Q. 12 Name the reducing agent in given chemical reaction
3 MnO2 + 4Al —® 3 Mn+2Al2O3 (CBSE-2016)
Q.13 Name the brown coloured gas evolved when lead nitrate crystal are
heated in dry test-tube.
Q. 14 Give reasons-
a) Silver chloride is stored in dark coloured bottles.
b) Copper vessel loses shine when exposed to air
c) Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate solution.

9
Q. 15 Identify the following reactions as
i) combination ii) decomposition iii) displacement
reactions iv) double displacement reaction.
i) ZnCO3(s) ZnO(s) + CO2 (g)
ii) Pb(s) + CuCl2 (ag) PbCl2 (aq) + Cu(s)
iii) H2 (g) + Cl2(g) 2HCl
iv) CaCO3 (s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g)
v) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3 (a) AgCl + NaNo3
vi) 3H2 (g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g)
vii) Fe2O3 + Al Al2O3+2Fe

16.

Sometime?
17.

18.
19.

20.

21. in labs?

22.

23.

24.

25.

10
 Practical Based MCQ’s
1. When aqueous solution of sodium sulphate and barium chloride are
mixed together, we observe-
a) precipitate red b) white precipitate
c) yellow precipitate d) colourless solution
2. The colour of ferrous sulphate crystal is-
a) yellow b) light green c) red d) brown
3. A student took solid quick lime in a china dish and added a small amount
of water to it. He would hear-
a) pop sound b) a crackling sound
c) hissing sound d) no sound at all
4. When an iron nail is placed in copper sulphate solution the observation
are as follow-
a) The solution turns light green
b) A brown deposit is formed on the nail
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above
Answer
1. (b)       2. (b)     3. (c)     4. (c)
Assertion and Reason type of questions
In the following questions a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement
of Reason.
Mark the correct choice as two statements are given one labeled Assertion (A)
and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the cods (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1. Assertion (R): Chemical reaction changes the physsical and chemical
state of substance.
Reason (R): When electric current is passed through water (liquid), it
decomposes to produce hydrogen and oxygen gases.

11
2. Assertion (R): In a balanced chemical equation, total mass of the each
element towards reactant side is equal to the total mass of the same
element towards product side.
Reason (R): Mass can neither be created nor destroyed during a
chemical change.
3. Assertion (R): When calcium carbonate is heated, it decomposes to
give calcuim oxide and carbon dioxidde.
Reason (R): The decomposition reaction takes place on application of
heat, therefore its an endothermic reaction.
4. Assertion (R): Chips manufactures usually lush bags of chips with gas
such as nitrogen to prevent the chips from getting oxidised.
Reason (R): This increases the taste of the chips and helps in their
digestion.
5. Assertion (R): Rusting of iron metal is the most common form of
corrosion.
Reason (R): The effect of rusting of iron can be reversed if they are left
open in sunlight.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 MARKS)

two s

Change in colour of a substance during a chemical reaction.

(c)c Chemical reaction showing change in temp.

12
 F

or Name the type of reaction.

Give equation and identify the type of reaction.

9.

10.

respectively.

Why is it necessary to add few drops of dil. H2SO4 to water before

electrolysis?
11.

12.

Silver

13.

13
14.

15.

Q.16 When potassium Iodide solution is added to a solution of lead nitrate in

test tube, a precipitate is formed.

i) State the colour of precipitate

ii) Name the compound which is precipitated

iii) Write balanced equation for chemical reaction (CBSE-2015 Comptt)

Q. 17 Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or

light a electricity for breaking down of reactions. Write one equation for

each type of decomposition reaction where heat, light or electricity is

used as form of energy.

14
Q. 18 2 gm of silver chloride is taken in china dish, and china dish is placed in

sunlight for sometime. What will be your observation. Write the balanced

chemical equation for above reaction and identify the type of reaction.

(CBSE-2019)

Q.19 Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of following cases and

write the balanced chemical equation for the reactions.

a) Zn reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.

b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium

nitrate and lead iodide (CBSE-2019)

LONG ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)

This reaction is exothermic or endother mic. Justify your answer.

2.

Barium Sodium

15
 Case Study/Source Based Question
In most pollution control application lime is used as calcium hydroxide. To
manufacture calcium hydroxide the limestone must be converted to calcium
oxide then converted to calcium oxide and the calcium oxide then converted
to calcium hydroxide. The following is a brief chemical reaction of this
process:
Limestone + Heat ¾® Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
However, calcium oxide is unstable in the presence of moisture and
carbon dioxide. A more stable form of lime is calcium hydroxide.
Calcium oxide + Water ¾® Calcium hydroxide + Heat
The process of adding water to calcium oxide to produce calcium
hydroxide is referred to as hydration process or lime slaking. The hydration of
Calcium oxide; commercially referred to as quick lime, is an exothermic
process releasing a great quantity of heat. The hydration takes place quickly,
releasin a lot of heat energy. This heat will boil of the water and genrate steam,
which makes the particles burst, exposing the inner surfaces to water for
further slaking. This process will continue until hydration is complete.
(i) Lime is used as calcium hydroxide. The formula of lime is calcium
hydroxide that absorb CO from air and become white, the compound
2

formed is
(a) CaO (b) CaCO 3

(c) CaCo 3 (d) CaO.2H O 2

(ii) The chemical reaction of the given word equation:

(a) 2CaO + Heat ¾® 2Ca + O 2

(b) CaCO + Heat ¾® CaO + CO

3 2

(c) Ca(OH) + Heat ¾® CaO + H O

2 2

(d) 2CaCO + Heat ¾® 2CaO + CO

3 2

(iii) The stable form of lime is

(a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Calcium oxide
(c) Calcium carbonate (d) Calcium oxide. Dehydrate
(iv) The hydration of Calcium oxide is an
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Endothermic reaction

16
 (c) Combination and exothermic reaction
(d) Decomposition and exothermic reaction
(v) In a beaker take small amount of calcium oxide. When water is added to
it. The temperature of the breaker will increase because:
(a) A suspension of calcium hydroxide is formed
(b) The beaker will be hot when touched
(c) Clear solution appears when suspension of calcium hydroxide
settles down to the bottom of the beaker.
(d) All of the above

17
 · Sour in taste · Bitter in taste
· Turn blue litmus red · Turn red litmus blue
· Give H+ ions in aqueous solution · Give OH+ ions in aqueous solution
· Aqueous soln conduct electricity · Does not conduct electricity in aqueous soln

Physical Properties of Acids

Physical Properties of Bases

Chemical Properties of Acids, Bases

and Salts Chemical Properties of Bases
Acids

· Reacts with metals to liberate hydrogen. · Alkali reacts with metal to liberate H2
· Reacts with metal carbonates/metal · Bases reacts with acidic oxides to
hydrogen carbonate to liberate Co2 form water.
· Reacts with certain metal
oxides to form salt and water.
Classification of Acid, Bases and
Salts on the basis of pH scale.

Salts : When acid and base are pH scale : H+ ion concentration

combind under the given condition. of the solution.
Salt is formed.
Neutral
acidic nature increasing Basic nature increasing
0 7 14
Some Common Salts +
H
OH
+ +

Some Common Salts Increase in H ion

concentration
Decrease in H ion
concentration
• Common salts : Nacl
• Sodium hydroxide : NaCl + 2H2O ¾®NaOH + Cl2 + H2
• Bleaching Powder: Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ¾® CaOCl2 + H2O
• Baking Soda: NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 ¾® NH4Cl + NaHO3
• Wasing Soda: Na2CO3 + 10.H2O ¾® Na2CO2.10H2O
373 k 1 1
• Plaster of Paris : CaSO4.2H2O ¾® 1
heat CaSO4. H2O + H
2 2O 2
1 1
• Gypsum : CaSO4 . H 1
O + H
2 2 2 2O ¾® CaSO.2H2O
18
19
20
 insoluble

(Soluble)

to give salt and

water is called as neutralisation reaction.

[pH of the Soln is less than 7]

n
[pH of the Sol is more than 7]
n
[pH of the Sol is = 7]
[pH of the Soln is = 7]

21
 Reaction of Non-metalic Oxides with Bases
Non-metallic oxides are acidic in nature.
Non-mettalic Oxide+Base Salt+H20
C02+Ca(OH)2 CaCO3 + H2O
+ Metal Carbonate Salt + CO2+Water

+ Metal Salt+H2

Reaction of Acid + Metal Hydrogen Carbonate Salt+CO2+H2O

+ Metal oxide Salt + H2O

+ Base Salt + H2O

+ Metal Salt+H2

+ Metal Carbonate No Reaction

Reaction of Base + Metal Hydrogen Carbonate No Reaction

+ Acid Salt + H2O

+ Non Metallic oxide Salt + H2O

22
23
 l

24
eg. Nacl
eg. NH4cl
eg. CH3C00na

25
 Anode Cathode
C12 H2
(Water treatment, swimming pools, (Fuels, margarine, ammonia
PVC disinfectanis, CFCs, for fertiliser)
pesucides)

Brine containing
Brine NaOH
C1
OH
Na- (De-greasing metals, soaps and
H+ detergents, paper making
arti icial ibres)

Membrane

Figure 2.8 Important products from the chlor-alkali process

26
27
 VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTION (1 MARK)

s when
(CBSE-2010, 2011)

28
Q. 7 Given below are the results of solution tested with universal indicator
(pH paper)
(i) Sulphuirc and .................................. Red.
(ii) Metal Polish ................................... Dark Blue.
(iii) Milk of Mapnesia .................................. Light blue.
(iv) Liquid Soop .................................. Yellow.
(v) Over cleaner .................................. Purple.
(vi) Car battery acid .................................. Pink.
Arrange the solutions in increasing order of their pH.

Name of salt Salt obtained

Base Acid
1 NH4Cl NH4OH ___________
2 CuSO4 ___________ H2SO4
3 NaCl NaOH ___________
4 Mg (NO3)2 ___________ HNO3
5 K2SO4 ___________ ___________
6 Ca(NO3)2 Ca(OH)2 ___________

29
Practical Based MCQ’s
1. On putting a drop of liquid on a pH paper a student observes a small
patch of blue color on pH paper. The liquid is most probably-
a) H2O b) HCl c) NaOH d) H2SO4
2. The correct method of inding the pH of solution is—
a) Heat the solution in test-tube and expose the pH paper to the vapours
formed—
b) Pour solution on pH paper
c) Dip the pH paper in solution
d) Put a drop of solution on pH paper using dropper (CBSE-2011)
3. The colour obtained on pH paper for highly acid basic and neutral
solutions are respectively.
a) blue, orange, green
b) yellow, blue, green

30
c) red, blue, green
d) red, green, blue
4. Four student- ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and D measured pH value of water, lemon juice
and sodium bicarbonate solution. The student who has expressed correct
pH values in decreasing order.
a) Water > lemon juice > Sod. bicarbonate solution
b) Lemon juice > Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution
c) Sod. bicarbonate solution > water > lemon juice
d) Water > Sod. bicarbonate solution > lemon juice (CBSE-2010)
5. If we add some sodium carbonate in distilled water, the pH of solution
will be-
a) less than 7
b) more than 7
c) exactly 7
d) very close to 7
6. Dil HCl is added to sodium carbonate. It is observed that:-
a) No change takes place
b) A loud sound is produced immediately
c) Immediately a brick effervescence occur
d) The solution turns black.
7. A student added Zn grannules to dil HCl and made following
observations:-
I) The surface of Zn become black
ii) A colourless gas evolved which burns with pop/sound
iii) The solution remains colurless

The correct observations are-

a) I and II b) I and III c) II and III d) I, II and III

8. Four students performed reactions of zinc and sodium carbonate with dil
Hydrochloric acid sodium hydroxide and present their result as follows.
The (P) represent evolution of gas and ‘x’ represent no reaction.

31
 Zn Na2CO3 Zn Na2CO3
HCl P P HCl P O
A B
NaOH P O NaOH P P

Zn Na2C03 Zn Na2CO3
HCl O O HCl P P
C D
NaOH P P NaOH O O

32
 Multiple Choice Questions
1. An acid can react with
(a) AgCl (b) Na2CO3 (c) AgNO3 (d) None of the above
2. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Both bases and alkalies are soluble in water
(b) Alkalies are soluble in water but all bases
(c) Bases are soluble in water but all alkalies are
(d) C2H5OH is a base because it has OH in its formula
3. Solution A,B,C and D have pH 3,4,6 and 8 respectively. the solution with
highest acidic strength is
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
4. A solution blue litmus red the pH of the solution will be
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 6
5. Which of the following is a neutral salt
(a) NaCl (b) Na2SO4 (c) KCl (d) all of the above
6. Which of the following correctly represents the molecular formula of
washing sode?
(a) Na2CO3 (b) Na2CO3H2O
(c) Na2CO35H2O (d) Na2CO310H2O
7. Gypsum salt is
(a) CaSO42H2O (b) Ca2SO4 (c) CaSO4.½H2O (d) CaSO4.½H2O
8. Which of the following is used in making tyos?
(a) CaSp4.2H2O (b) Na2SO4.10H2O
(c) CaSO4.½H2O (d) CaSO4.½H2O
9. The type of medicine used to treat indigestion is hyperacidity is
(a) antibiotic (b) antacid (c) sulpha drug (d) pain killer
10. Which one of the following is a weak acid
(a) HCl (b) H2CO3 (c) HNO3 (d) H2SO4

33

Assertion and Reason type of questions
In the following questions a statement of Assertion is followed by a
statement are given-one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason
(R). Selected the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c)
and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1. Assertion (A): Salts are the products of the an acid- base reaction.
Reason (R): Salt may be acidic or basic.
2. Assertion (A): NaCl is a basic salt.
Reason (R): On passing electricity aqueous solution of NaCl forms
NaOH.
3. Assertion (A): The acid must always be added slowly to water with
contant stirring.
Reason (R): The process of dissolving an acid in water is a highly
exothermic.
4. Assertion (A): A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a
solution, called pH scale.
Reason (R): Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an acidic
solution.
5. Assertion (A): Ammounium chloride is a basic salt.
Reason (R): Slats of strong acid and weak base are acidic with pH value
less than 7.

34
SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (2 and Marks)

show the change in colour.

35
36
 Long Answer Type of Questions (5 Marks)
1. What is water of crystallisation? write the common name and chemical
formula of a commercially important compound which has 10
molecules of water how is this compound obtained? Write its chemical
equation also. List any two uses of this compound.
2. Identify the compound X on the basis of the reactions given below, Also
write the name and chemicals formula of A,B and C.
3. An element P does not react with dil H2SO4. It forms an oxide PO which
turns red litmus into blue. Will you call P as a metal or a non-metal?
Justify your answer.
4. What is the chemical name and formula of bleaching power. What
happens when bleching powder is exposed to air for long time? Give any
two important uses of bleaching powder.

Case Study
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions:
There are many substances which show one colour or odour in the acidic
medium and a different colour or odour in the basic medium. Such substances
are called acid-base indicators. An indicator is a weak acid or base that is
added to the analyte solution, and it changes colour when the equivalence
point is reached . Let's take the real-life example of our ish tank. Over time,
plants, rocks, and the ish themselves will alter the pH of the water. Most ish
can adjust to a pH that changes slowly over time, but are very sensitive to
sudden changes in pH . So when it's time to clean the tank and add new water,
we should add water that is near the pH of what the ish have been swimming
in and ish do not get a pH shock. To test a solution that whether it is acidic,
basic or neutral, we use indicators.There are 3 types of indicators- Natural,
Synthetic and Olfactory.
Indicator Colour in the Colour in the Colour in the
neutral solution acidic solution basic solution
Litmus Purple Red Blue
Phenolphthalein Colourless Colourless Pink
Methyl Orange Orange Red Yellow

37
 1. Which of the following will turn Blue litmus red?
(a) Dry HCI (b) Aqueous HCI
(c) Solution of HCI in Benzene (d) All the above
2. Phenolphthalein is
(a) Yellow in acidic and pink in basic medium
(b) Pink in acidic and colourless in basic medium
(c) Colourless in acidic and pink in basic medium
(d) Pink in acidic and yellow in basic medium
3. Methyl Orange is ................... in HCI and ................. in NaOH
(a) red and yellow (b) red and red
(c) yellow and red (d) yellow and yellow
4. A solution turns methyl orange yellow, the pH of the solution is
probably-
(a) 6 (b) 12
(c) 2 (d) 7
5. If the pH of a solution is 4.5 and you want to change its pH to 8. You will
add
(a) HCI (b) HNO3
(c) NaOH (d) H2O

38
 Reaction with
· Solid · Air
· Ductile · Water Physical properties
· Malleable · Acids Formation by · Solid state, brittle
· Lusturous · Compounds of electron transfer · High melting point
· Sonorous other metals from metal to · Soluble in water,
· Good conductor · Reactivity series non-metal insoluble in organic
solvents
Reaction with Air and · Good conductor in
aqueous solution and
in molten state
METALS NON-METALS
IONIC · Silver-Reacts with
Importance/Uses: COMPOUNDS H2S to form black
Prevent corrosion, METALS Ag2S.
Changed resistivity, AND NON- Copper - Reacts with
changed melting point METALS Moisture and CO2 to
Form green basic
CORROSION CuCO3, Cu(OH)2
ALLOYS METALLURGY

Steel, Stainless steel, Ore Enrichment

Prevention of Rusting of Iron:
brass, bronze, solder, Rusting/Corrosion: Air and moisture are
amalgam Conversion of ore
into Metal oxide: galvanization, required to form
Refining Roasting/Calcination painting, anodizing rust (hydrated oxide
of metals of iron) Fe2O3. xH2O.
Conversion of Metal oxide into metal :
* Heating * Using Coke
* More reactive metal * Electrolytic reduction

39
 Metals and Non Metals
• About 118 elements are known till date. There are more than 90 metals,
22 non metals and few metalloids.
• Sodium (Na), Potassioum (K), Calcium (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), Iron (Fe),
Aluminium (AI) are some metals.

Parts of making bridges,

machines buildings, railway
tracks

Metals
around us

manufacturing of
Utensils trains, cars, ships,
aeroplanes

Jewellery and
Ornaments

• Oxygen(O), Nitrogen(N), Hydrogen(H), Sulphur(S), Phosphorus(P),

Fluorine(F), Bromine(Br) are a few non metals

Carbon : as fuel, in
nutrients, electrodes Oxygen : in respiration,
and jewellery in fuel combustion.

Non-Metals
around
us

Nitrogen : in preventing
Hydrogen : in Hydrocarbons, rancidity, in tyres
making of fertillzers and and making of
vegetable ghee, as fuel, acids, fertillizers,
explosives

40
 • Differences between metals and non-metals
Metals Non-Metals
· Solid at room temperature · Exist in all the three states,
except mercury bromine is liquid
· Ductile and malleable · Non-ductile and non-malleable
· Sonorous and lustruous · Non-sonorous and non-lustruous
except Iodine and graphite
· Generally have high melting, · Have low melting, except
point, cesium and gallium carbon.
have low melting point.
· Generally good conductors of · Poor conductors, except
heat and electricity, except lead graphite.
and mercury.
· Have high density, but sodium · Have low density.
and potassium have low density.
· Metal oxides can be basic or · Oxides of non-metals are acidic
amphoteric in nature. generallym in nature.
· Many, metals displace hydrogen · Non metals cannot displace hy-
from dilute acids and release drogen from dilute acids.
hydrogen gas.
· Metal oxides are ionic in nature. · Non metal oxides are covalent in
nature.

Chemical Properties of Metals

1. Reaction with air
Metals can either burn, react or don't react with air
Metal + Oxygen Metal oxide
Some metals like Na and K are kept immersed in kerosene as they react
vigorously with air. Metals like Mg, AI,Zn and Pb react slowly with air
and form a protective layer. Mg can burn in air but combine with oxygen
to form oxide Fe and Cu don't burn in air but combine with oxygen to
form their oxides. Iron ilings burn when sprinkled in the lame of
burner. Silver, platinum and gold show no reaction with air.
41
 2Na + O2 Na2O
2Mg + O2 MgO
2Cu + O2 CuO (black)
• Amphoteric oxides: These are metal oxides which react with both
acids as well bases. e.g. ZnO, AL2O3
AL2O3 + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2O
AL2O3 + 2NaOH 2NaAlO2 + H O 2

(Sodium aluminate)
• A
nodizing of metals: In anodizing, aluminium is made anode and
graphite as cathode, oxygen gas is released by the electrolysis of
sulphuric acid, which reacts with aluminium to form a thick protective
oxide layer.
2. Reaction with water: Metals react with water differently. Not all
metals react with water

React with cold Metals React only with

water eg. Na,K,Ca steam eg. Fe, Al

React with hot

water eg. Mg

2K + 2H2O 2KOH + H2
Ca + 2H2O Ca(OH)2 + H2
Mg + 2H2O Mg(OH)2 + H2
• I n case, of Ca and Mg, the metal starts loating due to bubbles of
hydrogen gas sticking to its surface.
2Al + 3H O(g)
2 Al2O3 + 3H2
3Fe + 4H2O(g) Fe3O4 + 4H2
3. Reaction with dilute acids:
(i) Most metals react with dilute HCl and dilute H SO to form salt and
2 4

hydrogen gas.
Metal + dilute acid salt + hydrogen gas
Mg + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2

42
 Al + 6HCl 2AlCl3 + 3H2
Zn + H2SO4 ZnSO4 + H2

•
Copper, mercury and silver don't react with dilute acids.
(ii) With dilute nitric acid: As metals react with dilute nitric acid,
hydrogen gas produced is oxidised to water. Mg and Mn are
exceptions.

Aqua Regia: It is a mixture of concentrated HCl and concentrated HNO3 in a
3:1 ratio. It dissolves gold and platinum.
4. Reaction with other metal compounds:
Metal A + Salt solution Salt solution of
of metal B Metal A + Metal B
More reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from their
compounds in solution. This forms the basis of reactivity series of
metals.
• Reactivity series of metals: It is an arrangement of metals in
decreasing order of their reactivity.
K > Na > Ca > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Pb > H > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au
Decreasing reactivity
Cu + 2AgNo3 Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
Copper being more reactive displace silver.
5. Reaction between metals and non-metals:
• Reactivity of elements can be understood as a tendency to attain a
completely illed valence shells.
• Atom of metals lose valence electron(s) to form cations (+ve ions)
• Atoms of non-metals can gain electron(s) in valence shell to form
anions (–ve ions)
• Oppositely charged ions attract each other forming an ionic
compound.
Formation of MgCl2
2+ e–
Mg Mg + 2
Cl + e– Cl–

43
 ××

××
××
Cl
×× ××
[Mg2+] ·

××
Mg Cl

×
×× ××
2

××
××
Cl
×× Molecule of Magnesium chloride

• Properties of Ionic compounds: Are solid and mostly brittle
• Have high melting and boiling points. More energy is required to
overcome the strong inter-ionic force of attraction.
• Generally soluble in water, but insoluble in inorganic solvents like
kerosene, petrol,etc
• Conduct electricity in aqueous solutions and in molten state. In both
cases, free ions are formed and conduct electricity.
Occurance of Metals
• Minerals: Compounds present in earth's crust can be termed as
minerals.
• Ores: Mineral from which metal can be economically extracted is called
an ore e.g. sulphide ores, carbonate ores, oxide ores. Not all the minerals
are ores.
• Metals at the bottom of reactivity series like gold, platinum, silver,
copper occur in free state. But copper and silver also occur in sulphide
and oxide ores.
• Metals of moderate reactivity (Zn, Fe,Pb) occur mainly as oxide,
sulphide or carbonate ores Metals of high reactivity (K,Na,Ca,Mg,AI) are
found in combined states.
Gangue: Ores are found mixed with earthly impurities like soil,
sand,etc. known as gangue. The gangue is removed from the ore.
Metallurgy: It is the step-wise process of obtaining metal from its ore.
These steps are
1. Enrichment of ore.
2. Obtaining metal from enriched ore.
3. Re ining of impure metal to obtain pure metal
Obtaining Metals low in the reactivity series: These metals can be
obtained by heating the ore in air at high tempertature.

44
 * Mercury from cinnabar:
D D D
Sulphide oxide metal re ining
D D D
HgS HgO Hg Hg(pure)
* Copper from copper sulphide
2Cu2S + 3O2 ¾¾¾
heat
® 2Cu2O + 2SO2 ­

heat
2Cu2O + Cu2S ¾¾¾
® 6Cu + SO2 ­

EXTRACTING METALS IN THE MIDDLE OF ACTIVITY SERIES:

etals are easier to obtain from oxide ores, thus, sulphide and carbonate ores
M
are converted into oxides.
Metal ore heated strongly in excess of air (Roasting)
heat
2ZnS + 3O2 ¾¾¾
® 2ZnO + 2SO2

Metal ore heated strongly in limited supply of air (Calcination)
heat
ZnCO3 ¾¾¾
® ZnO + CO2

Reduction of metal oxide:

1. Using coke: Coke as reducing agent.

heat
ZnO + C ¾¾¾
® Zn + CO

2. Using Displacement Reaction: highly reactive metal like Na, Ca and Al

are used to displace melals of lower reactivity from their compounds.
heat
MnO2 + 4AI ¾¾¾
® 3Mn + 2AI2O3 + heat

heat
Fe2O3 + 2AI ¾¾¾
® 2Fe + AI2O3 + heat
In the above reaction mclten iron is formed and is used to join railway
tracks. This is called thermit reaction.
EXTRACTING METALS AT THE TOP OF ACTIVITY SERIES:
These metals
* Have more af inity for oxygen than carbon

45
 * are obtained by electrolytic reduction. Sodium is obtained by
electrolysis of its molten chloride
NaCI Na+ + CI
As electricity is passed through the solution metal gets deposited at
cathode and non-metal at anode.
At cathode:
+ +
Na + e Na
At anode:
–
2Cl CI2 + 2e
REFINING OF METALS:
I mpurities present in the obtained metal can be removed by electrolytic
re ining. Copper is obtained using this method. Following are present inside
the electrolytic tank.
· Anode- slab of impure copper
· Cathode- slab of pure copper
· Solution aqueous solution of copper sulphate with some amount of
dilute sulphuric acid ,
· From anode copper ions are released in the solution and equivalent
amount of copper from solution is deposited at cathode.
· Insoluble impurities containing silver and gold gets deposited at the
bottom of anode as anode mud.

46

CORROSION:
· Metals are attacked by substances in surroundings like moisture, acids,
and moist air. Silver- it reacts with H2S in air to form silver sulphide and
articles become black.
· Copper- reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air and gains a green coat of
basic copper carbonate
· Iron- acquires a coating of a brown laky substance called rust. Both air
and moisture are necessary for rusting of iron.
Prevention of Corrosion:
· Rusting of iron is prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing,
chrome plating, anodising and making alloys.
· In galvanization iron or steel is coated with a layer of zinc because zinc
is preferably oxidized than iron.
· Alloys: these are mixture of metals with metals or non-metals Adding
small amount of carbon makes iron hard and strong.
· Stainless steel is obtained by mixing iron with nickel and chromium. It
is hard and doesn't rust. Mercury is added to other metals to make
amalgam. Brass: alloy of copper and zinc. Bronze: alloy of copper and tin.
· In brass and bronze, melting point and electrical conductivity is lower
than that of pure metal. Solder: alloy of lead and tin has low melting
point and is used for welding electrical wires.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
1. W
hich of the following metal is obtained by electrolytic reduction
process?
(a) Cu (b) Ag
(c) Fe (d) Al
2. Cinnabar is an ore of which metal?
a. Tin b. Aluminium
c. Magnesium d. Mercury
3. Which of the following does not conduct electricity?
a. Solid KCI b. Fused KCI
c. Aluminium d. Iron

47
 4. Which of the following is not an ionic compound?
(a) Sodium oxide (b) Carbon tetrachloride
(c) Magnesium chloride (d) Sodium chloride
5. Which metal is associated with haemoglobin?
(a) Calcium (b) Aluminium
(c) Magnesium (d) Iron
6. The liquid non-metal is
(a) Carbon (b) Hydrogen
(c) Bromine (d) Chlorine
7. Choose the correct option for brass:
(a) Cu-Hg (b) Cu-Mg
(a) Cu-Fe (d) Cu-Zn

8.
The colour of Iron(ll) sulphate soultion is
(a) Blue (b) Yellow
(c) Green (d) Orange
MCQ Correct Options:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
D D A B D C D C
1. De ine the following terms: ores, gangue, rust, aqua regia, anodizing,
amalgam
2. Show the reaction between zinc oxide and sodium hydroxide by a
chemical equation.
3. Why food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc?
4. Name any two alloys whose electrical conductivity is less than that of
pure metals.
5. Why ionic compounds have high melting point?
6. Which element is displaced by metals from acid?
I n the following questions , two statements are given- one labeled Assertion
(A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:

48
 (a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1. Assertion: Metals have high melting point.
Reason: Metals are found in solid state.
2. Assertion: Sulphide ores are roasted.
Reason: It is easier to obtain metal from their oxides.
3. Assertion: Anode mud settles at the bottom of electrolytic tank.
Reason: Anode mud contain soluble impurities.
4. Assertion: Zinc oxide is an amphoteric oxide.
Reason: It reacts with acid as well as base to produce salt and water.
5. Assertion: Silver becomes brown in colour when exposed to air.
Reason: It reacts with hydrogen sulphide and forms silver sulphide .
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
lements are pure form of matter, which are divided into metals, non-
E
metals and metalloids. Approximately three-quarters of all known chemical
elements are metals. The most abundant varieties in the earth's crust are
aluminum, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium, and magnesium. The vast
majority of metals are found in their ores, but a few such as copper, gold,
platinum, and silver frequently occur in the free state because they do not
readily react with other elements.
1. Identify the metalloid:
(a) Carbon (b) Silicon
(c) Helium (d) Mercury
2. Choose the correct statement:
(a) Metals form acidic oxides
(b) Metal oxides cause acid rain
(c) All metals react with hot water.
(d) Metals form ionic chlorides.

49
 3. Which metal is most abundant in earth's crust?
4. Why gold is used for making jewellery?
5. Which metal can be used for making electric wires: Pb or Al?
2 Marks
1. What is an amalgam? Write the constituent elements of solder.
2. Distinguish between :
(a) Roasting and calcination (b) Mineral and ore
3. Write the chemical equation for heating of Cu and Fe respectively.
4. What is galvanization? How is it bene icial?
5. Why is hydrogen gas generally not evolved when metals react with
dilute nitric acid.Name two metals which evolve hydrogen gas with the
same acid.
6. Explain thermite process.
7. "Every ore is a mineral, but not every mineral an ore." Explain.
8. Why can highly reactive metals not obtained from their oxides using
coke as a reducing agent?
9. Distinguish between metals and non-metals on the basis of chemical
properties.
3 Marks
1. Ionic compounds are good conductors of electricity under speci ic
conditions. Write the two conditions and give reason.
2. Why are metal sulphides and carbonates converted to oxides prior to
reduction. Write the equation for the chemical reactions occuring
during roasting and calcination of zinc ores.
3. What are alloys? How are they prepared? Name the alloy used for
welding electric wires together.
4. Write the differences between electrolytic reduction and electrolytic
re ining.
5. Describe an activity to study conditions necessary for rusting of iron.
6. Show the formation of molecules of Magnesium oxide, aluminium oxide
and potassium chloride by electron transfer.
7. Describe an activity to show the reaction between iron and steam.

50
5 marks
1. (i) Give reasons:
(a) Platinum is used to make jewellery.
(b) Lithium is stored under kerosene.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make
utensils for cooking.
(ii) What is an allotrope? Explain the difference in properties of
different allotropes of carbon.
2. Give a detailed account of steps of extracting pure copper from its ore.
HINTS to LA Questions
1. (a) Unreactive metal, donot get corroded by the action of moisture
and atmospheric gases. Highly malleable, ductile
(b) Lithium readily reacts with oxygen gas, formed oxide reacts with
moisture producing hydrogen gas, which catches ire.
(c) Strong and economical metal. Good conductor of heat. On
exposure to air it forms aluminium oxide layer all around, which
prevents oxidation of the metal inside.
(ii) Graphite: soft, good conductor of electricity, greyish
Diamond: hardest natural substance, bad conductor of electricity,
transparent.

2. Cu2S ore. Cu2S + O2 Cu2O + SO2

Cu2S + Cu2O Cu + SO2

* pure copper is obtained by electrolytic re ining of impure copper.
* Anode-Impure Copper, Cathode- Pure copper, Electrolytic
solution- Aq. Solution of Copper sulphate with few drops of
sulphuric acid.
* Pure metal collects over cathode.

51
52
Single Bond Graphite
Catenation Size Smaller Tetravalency

Double Bond Diamond

Fullerenes 3 Allotropes Versatile Halogens

Triple Bond Nature
Alcohols
Covalent Bonding Carbon Carboxylic
Atomic Number 6 Heteroatoms And
Valence Electrons 4 Functional Groups
Combustion Configuration: 2.4 Aldehyde
Soaps and
Scum
Oxidation Compounds Detergents

Hydrogenation Chemical Hydrocarbons

Propeties Cleansing
Action
Substitution
Unsaturated : Saturated :
Alkanes Structural
Alkenes and Alkynes Isomerism
Branched
Straight Chain Cyclic Butane Pentane
CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
• Carbon is a versatile element.
• In earth's crust, carbon is 0.02% and found in form of minerals.
• Atmosphere has 0.03% of Carbon dioxide.
• All living structures are carbon based.
• Carbon is present in paper, plastic, leather and rubber.

COVALENT BOND IN CARBON

• The atomic number of carbon is 6 and its electronic con iguration is 2,
4. To attain a noble gas con iguration it can
1. Gain 4 electrons: But it would be dif icult for nucleus to hold 4
extra electrons, and is highly energy requiring process
2. Lose 4 clectrons: But it would require a large amount of energy to
remove 4 electrons.
• It is dif icult thus for an atom of carbon to either gain or lose electrons.
• Carbon attains the noble gas con iguration by sharing its valence
electrons, with other atoms. Atoms of other elements like hydrogen,
oxygen, nitrogen, chlorine also show sharing of valence electrons.
• Formation of H , O and N is shown as below:
2 2 2

(i) H2 molecule
Hydrogen atoms

H2 molecule

Shared electrons

A molecule of hydrogen

53
A molecule of hydrogen
O2 molecule

O2 molecule

Double bond between two oxygen atoms

(iii) N2 molecule

N2 molecule

Triple bond between two nitrogen atoms

• It is evident that the number of shared pair of electrons can be one, two
or three. Try making the structures of H2O and +CH4
• Bond formed by the sharing of an electron pair between two atoms is
called covalent bond.
• Covalently bonded molecules have low melting and boiling points
because of comparatively weaker intermolecular forces, unlike ionic
compounds.
• These molecules are generally poor conductor of electricity since no
charged particles are formed.

Allotropes of carbon:
(i) Diamond
(ii) Graphite
(iii) Fullerenes

54
 These allotropes have same chemical properties. Difference between
diamond and graphite
Diamond Graphite
• It is hardest natural substance • It is soft.
• It is bad conductor of electricity • It is good conductor of both
but good conductor of heat. heat and electrcity
• It is transparent • It is opaque

VERSATILE NATURE OF CARBON ATOMS:

Two important properties of carbon atom enable carbon to form
enormously large number of compounds.
Carbon

Catenation Tetravalency

CATENATION:
property of carbon atom to form bond with other atoms of
carbon is called catenation. Like. carbon, silicon forms compounds with
hydrogen upto seven or eight atoms of silicon.
TETRAVALENCY: Having a valency of 4, carbon atom is capable of
bonding with atoms of oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and
other elements.
The smaller size of carbon atom enables nucleus to hold the shared pair
of electrons strongly, thus carbon compounds are stable in general.

SATURATED AND UNSATURATED CARBON COMPOUNDS

Hydrocarbon

Saturated : have only Unsaturated : have

single bond between only double and/or
atoms referred as triple bond between
alkanes are less atoms of carbon
reactive referred as alkenes
and alkynes are
more reactive

55
General formula of
• ALKANE: CnH2n+2 CH4, C2H6, C3H8, C4H1 , C5H12 0

• CnH2n C2M4, C3H6, C4H8, C5H10, C6H12

• ALKYNE: CnH2n–2 C2H2, C3H4, C4H4, C5H8, C6H10
• Electron dot structure of a saturated carbon compound, ethane (C H ) 2 6

is as follows:

• Electron dot structure of an unsaturated carbon compound, ethene

(C H ) is as follows:
2 4

Formulae and structure of saturated compounds of carbon and

No. of
carbon Name Formula Structure
atoms

56
 No. of
carbon Name Formula Structure
atoms

3.

4.

5.

Name of Molecular
Structural Formula
Hydrocarbon formula

57
 hydrogen
• On the basis of structures the hydrogcarbons can be:

C C C C C C C

Straight chain Branched

H

H H H C H
C C
H C H
C C C C
H H H H
C

H
Cyclo-propane Benzene

58
 · Structural isomers: these are the compounds having Identical
molecular formula but different structures, for example, isomers of
butane.
H H H H H H H

H C C C C H H C C C H

H H H H H C H

H
Straight Chain isomer Branched isomer of butane

HETEROATOM AND FUNCTIONAL GROUP:

• ln hydrocarbon chain, one or more hydrogen atoms can be replaced by
other atoms in accordance with their valencies. The element that
replaces hydrogen is called a heteroatom.
• These heteroatoms and the group containing them impart chemical
properties to the compound and hence are called functional groups.

Heteroatom Functional Group Formula

HOMOLOGOUS SERIES:
• It is a series of compounds in which the same functional group
substitutes for hydrogen in a carbon chain.
• For instance, the ALCOHOLSs: CH OH, C H OH, C H OH, C H OH.
3 2 5 3 7 4 9

59
 • The successive member differs by -CH unit and 14 units of mass.
2-

• The chemical properties are imported by the functional group thus all
members have similar chemical properties. But the members have
different physical properties.
• The physical prcperties vary among the members of homologous
series due to difference in their molecular mass.
• Melting point and boiling point increases with increasing molecular
mass.

NOMENCLATURE OF CARBON COMPOUNDS:

1. Identify the number of carbon atoms in the compound.
2. Functional group is indicated either by pre ix or suf ix.
FUNCTIONAL GROUP SUFFIX PREFIX
Alkene -ene
Alkyne -yne
Alcohol -ol
Aldehyde - al
Ketone -one
Carboxylic acid - oic acid
chlorine chloro -
3. If a suf ix is added, then inal 'e' is removed from the name.eg. methanol
( methane – e = methan + ol).

CHEMICAL PROPERTIES OF CARBON COMPOUNDS

1. COMBUSTION:
* Carbon compounds generally burn (oxidize) in air to produce
carbon dioxide and water, and release heat and light energy.
CH + 0 CO + H O + heat and light
4 2 2 2

* Saturated hydrocarbon burns generally with a blue lame in good

supply of air and with a yellow sooty lame in limited supply of air.
* Sooty lame is seen when unsaturated hydrocarbons are burnt.
* Burning of coal and petroleum emits oxides of sulphur and
nitrogen which are responsible for acid rain.

60
 2. OXIDATION:
* Alcohols can be converted to caboxylic acids by oxidizing them using
alkaline potassium permanganate or acidi ied poatassium
dischromatee (they add oxygen to the reactant, thus are called
oxidizing agents)
Acidied K2Cr2O7
CH3- CH2OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® H 3 COOH + H2O
Alkaline KMnO4
3. ADDITION REACTION:
Hydrogen is added unsaturated hydrocarbon in presence of nickel
platinum or palladium as catalyst.
Vegetable oils are converted into vegetable ghee using this process.

Nickel catalyst

Saturated fatty acids are harmful for health and oils with unsaturated
fatty acids should be used for cooking.
4. SUBSTITUTION REACTION:
In saturated hydrocarbons, the hydrogen attached to carbon can be
replaced by another atom or group if atoms in presence of sunlight
CH + Cl CH Cl + HCI (sunlight required)
4 2 3

Important CARBON COMPOUNDS: ETHANOL AND

ETHANOIC ACID
Ethanol:
Melting Point Boiling point
156 K 351 K

ETHANOL

Soluble in Burning
Water taste

* Consumption of dilute ethanol causes serious health issues and intake

of pure alcohol is lethal.
61
Chemical properties of Ethanol
C H OH Reacts with sodium to
2 5 When C H OH is heated with
2 5

form sodium ethoxide and hydrogen Concentrated sulphuric acid

at 443 K, it is dehydrated to ethene

C2H5OH C2H5ONa + H2

conc. H2SO4 at 443°K

C2H4 + H2O
(ethene)

In preparation of In alcoholic
soap cosmetics beverages

Uses of ETHANOL

As a laboratory In Medicines
reagent and Tonics

Ethanoic Acid (CH3COOH)/Acetic Acid

Freezes at Boiling point

290 K 391 K

ETHANOL

Miscible in Sour
Water taste

* Pure acetic acid is called glacial acetic acid.

62
 Ethanoic Acid:
React with Products
1. Sodium Sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
2. Sodium Carbonate Na CO 2 3 Sodium ethanoate, carbon
sodium dioxide and water
3. Sodium Bicarbonate NaHCO 3 Sodium ethanoate, carbon
sodium dioxide and water
4. Ethanol (in presence of conc. Ester and water
sulphuric acid) CH – CH OH
3 2

CH2COONa + H2O

+NaOH
+Na2CO3 +Na
CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O CH3 COOH CH3COONa + H2

+NaHCO3 +CH3—CH2OH in presence of conc. H2SO4

CH3COONa + CO2 + H2O CH3COOH2CH2 + HOH

(ester)
Esteri ication
Caboxylic acids react with alcohols in presence of few drops of
concentrated sulphuric acid as catalyst and form sweet smelling compounds
called ester.
HYDROLYSIS
On heating with an acid or a base, the ester forms back the original
alcohol and carboxylic acid.

CH3COOCH2CH3 + NaOH CH3COONa + CH3—CH2OH

Dil. H2SO4
CH3COOCH2CH3 CH3COOH + CH3—CH2OH
Heat

* Alkaline hydrolysis of ester is also called saponi ication.

63
SOAPS AND DETERGENTS
• Soap is sodium and potassium salt of carboxylic acids with long chain.
(C15H31COOH) (C17H35COOH) (Palmitic acid, stearic acid)
• Soaps are effective with soft water only and ineffective with hard
water.
• Detergents are ammonium or sulphonate salts of hydrocarbons with
long chain, they are effective with both soft as well as hard water.
An ionic part (hydrophillic) and a long hydrocarbon chain
(hydrophobic) part constitutes the soap molecule

STUCTURE OF A SOAP MOLECULE

Cleansing action of Soaps:
• Most dirt is oily in nature and the hydrophobic end attaches itself with
dirt, while the ionic end is surrounded with molecules of water. This
result information of a radial structure called micelles.

• An emulsion is thus formed by soap molecule, the cloth needs to be

mechanically agitated to remove the dirt particles from the cloth.
• Scum: The magnesium and calcium salts present in hard water reacts
with soap molecule to form insoluble products called scum, thus
obstructing the cleansing action. Use of detergents overcome this

64
 problem as the detergent molecule prevents the formation of insoluble
product and thus clothes get cleaned.
• Soaps are completely biodegradable, while detergents are not soaps
are environmental friendly but detergents are not.

CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS IN BRIEF

• Carbon is a verstile non metal
• Carbon atom, like atoms of other non-metals like oxygen, nitrogen,
hydrogen and chlorine shares electrons.
• Carbon forms large number of compounds due to catenation and
tetravalency.
• Carbon can form single, double and triple covalent bonds
• The compound of hydrogen and carbon are called hydrocarbons which
can be saturated or unsaturated.
• Structurally hydrocarbons can have straight chain, branches or cyclic
structure.
• Difference in structual arrangement of same molecule gives the
isomers.
• In a hydrocarbon, a hetcroatom can replace the hydrogen atom and
impacts its chemical properties. Homologeous series is a series of
compounds with same general formula and same chemical properties
but different physical properties.
• Carbon based compounds are excellent fuels.
• Ethanol is an important industrial compound. It react with reactive
metals and is also dehydrated to ethene.
• Ethanoic acid is another important compound. It combine with
ethanol to form sweet smelling esters.
• Soaps and detergents are used as cleansing agents. Detergents
ef iciently cleanses with soft and hard water.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following metal is used as a catalyst in hydrogenation?
a. Cu b. Ni
c. Fe d. Na

65
 2. The number of single bonds in hexane molecule are:
a. 18 b. 19
c. 20 d. 21
3. It is present in the molecule of N : 2

a. Single bond b. Ionic bond

c. double bond d. Triple bond
4. Which substance burns without producing lame?
a. Candle b. Charcoal
c. Wood d. LPG
5. It is a product of soap industry,
a. Glycerol b. Glucose
c. Ester d. Propanal
6. The third member of homologous series of alkyne is
a. Hexyne b. Butyne
c. Propyne d. Ethyne
7. Which of the following is used in cough syrups:
a. Sugar-methanol b. Methanol
c. Ethanol-methanol d. Sugar-ethanol
8. –CHO is :
a. Carboxylic acid b. Ketone
c. Aldehyde d. Alcohol

MCQ correct options:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
B B D B A B D C
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Consumption of alcohol in large quantities slows down the metabolic
processes and affects the central nervous system. It results in dif iculties
such as lack of coordination, mental confusions, drowsiness, lowering of
normal inhibitions and inally stupor. Along with these harmful effects,
ethanol is an important industrial solvent, it is used in different industries
with water and with many organic solvents, including acetic acid,acetone,

66
benzene, carbon tetrachloride. It is used as fuel in jet engines in countries
like Brazil.
1. Identify the heteroatom in ethanol.
a. Carbon b. Hydrogen
c. Bromine d. Oxygen
2. Which acid is constituent of vinegar?
a. Ethanoic acid b. Carbonic acid
c. Oxalic acid d. Lactic acid
3. Complete the following chemical equation.
conc. H2SO4
C2H5OH + CH3COOH ____________ + ____________
4. Draw the structure of ethanol molecule.
5. Describe the harmful effects of consuming alcohol?

VSA 1 MARK
1. How does an atom of carbon attain noble gas con iguration?
2. Draw the electron dot structure of molecule of CCI 4

3. De ine catenation.
4. The kerosene/gas stoves have inlets for air. Give reason.
5. Write only the balanced chemical equation for dehydration of ethanol
by hot concentrated sulphuric acid.
6. Draw the structure for propyne.
7. Write the formula of irst member of ketone.
8. What is an oxidising agent? Give example.
9. Which energy is used to convert methane into chloromethane?
10. Write a balanced chemical equation for burning of ethanol in oxygen.
In the following questions, two statements are given- one labeled
Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.

67
 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1. ASSERTION: Butane is less reactive than butene.
REASON: Presence of double bond increases the reactivity of
molecule.
2. ASSERTION: Unsaturated hydrocarbons burn in air with blue lame.
Reason: Incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons causes a yellow
lame.
3. ASSERTION: Detergents are not environment-friendly.
Reason: Detergents are not easily bio-degradable.
4. ASSERTION: Alkanes show addition reaction.
Reason: Addition reaction is a charateristic property of unsaturated
hydrocarbons.
5. ASSERTION: Pentane has three isomers.
Reason: For structural isomerism hydrocarbons should have 4 or
more carbon atoms.

2 Marks
1. De ine saponi ication. Write a chemical equation for it.
2. Covalent compounds generally don't conduct electricity.Why?
3. Specify the condition due to which ethanol undergo oxidation to form
ethanoic acid. Write the chemical equation.
4. De ine structural isomerism. Draw the structures of two isomers of
butane.
5. Identify the functional group in the following compounds, methanoic
acid, methanal, bromo ethane and hexanol.
6. Why is ethanoic acid called as glacial acetic acid. Write the chemical
equation for esteri ication.
7. Draw the structure of benzene.
8. Why are carboxylic acids known as weak acids? Name the alcohol
which produces methanoic acid on oxidation.
9. A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a
mixture of air and ethyne is not used?

68
 10. (i) Which property of ethanol makes it suitable for making cough syrups
and tincture iodine?
(ii) What is the function of concentrated sulphuric acid in the formation
of ethene from ethanol?

3 Marks
1. What is a homologous series? List any of its four features.
2. State any three charcteristics of structural isomers of any compound.
3. Propanal and propanone are structural isomers. Explain.
4. Explain why carbon atom is unable to form either cation or anion?
5. Describe substitution reaction with the help of an example.
6. Give a test that can be used to differentiate between saturated and
unsaturated hydrocarbons.
7. Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap.
8. Distinguish between soap and detergent.
9. Describe the two properties of carbon which lead to the formation of
huge number of compounds.

5 Marks
1. Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps with the help of
diagram.
2. A neutral organic compound X of molecular formula C2H6O on
oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 gives compound Y. compound X and Y
react on warming in presence of concentrated sulphuric acid to
produce a sweet smelling substance Z. Identify X,Y and Z. Also write the
corresponding chemical equations.
HINT
1. Soap molecule structure, application on wet dirty cloth, micelles
formation process, mechanical agitation, suitable diagrams
2. X- ethanol, Y- ethanoic acid, Z- ester ethyl ethanoate, chemical
equations.

69
 Periodic Classification of Elemnts
DOBERENEIR'S TRIAD
When elements are arranged in order MODREN PERIODIC LAW
of increasing atomic masses. Group • It states that the properties of
of three elements (Triads) were formed. elements are the periodic function
Atomic mass of the middle element was
roughly the average of the atomic of their atomic number.
masses of other two elements. • 18 Vertival Columns Groups
e.g. Li (7), Na (11), K (39) • 7 Horizontal Rows Periods
7 + 39 46
At. mass of K = = = 23(Na)
2 2 NAMES OF THE GROUPS
st
• Alkali Metals –1 group
NEWLAND'S LAW OF OCTAVE nd
• Alkaline earth Metals –2 group
When elements are arranged in the
• Boron Family –13th group
order of increasing atomic masses,
the properties of the eighth element • Carbon Family –14th group
are a repetition of the first, just like • Nitrogen Family –15th group
the notes of music. (Sa, Re, Ga, • Oxygen Family –16th group
th
Ma, Pa, Dha, Ne, Sa) • Halogens –17 group
th
• Noble Gases –18 group
MENDEELEV'S PERIODIC LAW
It states that the properties of
element are the periodic function of
their atomic masses.
• 8 Vertival Columns Groups
• 6 Horizontal Rows Periods
Trends in Modern Periodic Table

ATOMIC RADIUS METALLIC CHARACTER

• Decreases across a period. • Decreases across a period.
• Increases down in a group. • Increases down in a group.

VALENCY NON-METALLIC CHARACTER

• First increases and then • Increases across a period.
decreases across a period. • Decreases down a group.
• Remains same down a group.

70
71
 It was applicable upto Calcium (for lighter elements only).

72
73
74
75
Valency is the combining power of an element with other atoms when it forms
a chemical compound. Or
Valency is equal to number of electrons gained or lost or shared to complete its
octet or doublet. Valency = 8 – No of electrons in valence shell ³ 4
= No of electrons in valence shell £ 4

76
77
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE OF QUESTIONS (1 Mark)
1. Write the principle of modern periodic table.
2. On which side of periodic table you will find metals.
3. On which side of periodic table you will find-non-metals.
4. Name the elements that separated the metals and non-metals in periodic table .
5. An element ‘x’ belongs to groups 2. Find its valency.
6. An elements ‘y’ belongs to group 1. Find formula for its oxide.
7. Name the element that has same number of electrons as that of K+ and Cl– have.
8.
9.
10.

78
11.

12.
13.

14.
15. Name the elements and its valency having electronic con iguration 2, 8, 3.
16. How many rows and columns are there in modern Periodie table.
17. Why properties of elements of same period are deffernt.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following combination of elements belong to the same
period of Mendeleev or Modern Periodic Table.
a. Li,Mg b. Al, Si
c. B.Al d. C,S
2. Which of the following remains unchanged on descending a group
in the periodic table.
a. Valence electrons b. Atomic size
c. Metallic Character d. all of the above
3. The highly metallic element will have the electronic con iguration of
a. 2,8,7 b. 2,8,8,5
c. 2,8,8.1 d. 2,8,2
4. Element having the smallest size is-
a. Al b. F
c. CI d. K
5. Identify the correct statement-
a. Elements of Group 1 - Alkali metals
b. Elements of Group IT- Alkaline metals
c. Elements of Group 17 - Halogens
d. All of the above
6. Which pair of atomic number represent elements in the same
group?
a. 11,19 b. 6.12
c. 4, 16 d. 8, 17
7. In Modern Periodic Table the period indicates the value of
a. atomic number b. atomic mass
c. number of shells d. none of the above
79
 8. The element with atomic number 16 belongs to
a. Group 6 b. Group 16
c. Group 2 d. Group 3
9. Which of the following has correct "law of triads"-
a. Na,K,Ca b. Na.Sr.Br
c. CI,Br,I d. Li,Be,Na
10. According to Mendeleeve's Periodic table, the horizontal rows and
Vertical columns are known as
a. Groups and Periods respectively
b. Periods and Groups respectively
c. Groups only
d. Periods only

Assertion and Reason type Of Questions

In the following questions a statement of Assertion is followed by a
statement of Reason. Mark the correct choice as two statements are given-
one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
1. Assertion(A): Group of three elements having similar properties were
called as the Dobereiner triads.
Reason(R): The atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the
average of the atomic masses of the other two elements
2. Assertion(A): Lithium shows less metallic nature than Potassium.
Reason(R): The metallic character of the elements increases
downwards in a group.
3. Assertion(A): Elements present in group 2 have valency equal to 2 .
Reason(R): All the elements in group 2 have same valence electrons.
4. Assertion(A): Properties of the elements are periodic function of their
atomic masses.
Reason(R): This periodic law was given by Henery Moseley.
5. Assertion(A): Elements Lithium, Sodium and Potassium are alkali
metals.
Reason(R): These elements are found in alkaline soil.Z

80
Case study /Source Based Questions
Read the following passage and answer the given questions:
Metallic Character The ability of an atom to donate electrons and form
positive ion (cation) is known as electro-positivity or metallic character.
Down the group, metallic character increases due to increase in atomic
size and across the period, from left to right electro-positivity decreases
due to decrease in atomic size.

Non-Metallic Character
The ability of an atom to accept electrons to form a negative ion (anion) is
called non-metallic character or electronegativity. The elements having
high electro-negativity have a higher tendency to gain electrons and form
anion. Down the group, electronegativity decreases due to increase in
atomic size and across the period, from left to right electronegativity
increases due to decrease in atomic size.
1. Which of the following correctly represents the decreasing order of
metallic character of Alkali metals plotted in the graph?
a. Cs>Rb>Li>Na>K b. K>Rb>Li>Na>Cs
c. Cs>Rb>K>Na>Li d. Cs>K>Rb>Na>Li
2. Hydrogen is placed along with Alkali metals in the modem periodic
table though it shows non-metallic character
a. as Hydrogen has one electron & readily loses electron to form
negative ion
b. as Hydrogen can easily lose one electron like alkali metals to
form positive ion
c. as Hydrogen can gain one electron easily like Halogens to form
negative ion
d. as Hydrogen shows the properties of non-metals.

81
 3. Which of the following has highest electronegativity?
a. F b. CI
c. Br d. I
4. Identify the reason for the gradual change in electronegativity in
halogens down the group
a. Electronegativity increases down the group due to decrease in
atomic size
b. Electronegativity decreases down the group due to decrease in
tendency to lose electrons
c. Electronegativity decreases down the group due to increase in
atomic radius/ tendency to gain electron decreases
d. Electronegativity increases down the group due to increase in
forces of attractions between nucleus & valence electrons.
5. Which of the following reason correctly justi ies that "Fluorine
(72pm) has smaller atomic radius than Lithium (152pm)"?
a. F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size increases down the
group
b. F and Li are in the same period. Atomic size increases across the
period due to increase in number of shells
c. F and Li are in the same group. Atomic size decreases down the
group
d. F and Li are in the same period and across the period atomic
size/radius decreases from left to right.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 & 3 Marks)

82
8.

9.

10.

11.
12. How many gropus and periods are present in Mendeleeve's and
Modern Periodic Table?
13. There are two elements X and Y having atomic nubmer 17 and 20
respertively.
a. What are the position of X and Y in periodic table?
b. Write the molecular formula of XY.
c. 4Bc, 9F, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca
Which are the elements belonging to same group among these
elements?
Give reason for your answer. Which are the two elements belonging to
same period. Give reason to your answer. (CBSE 2013)

83
 14. Elements A,B,C,D and E having atomic number : 4, 9, 14, 19, 20.
a. Name the elements having same valence electrons.
b. Name the elements of same period . give reason to your answer.
c. Name the elements of same group . give reason to your answer.
(CBSE 2015)
15. a. Newland, Mendeleev asnd Dobereiner gave their contribution in
building Modern Periodic table. List one merit and one demerit of their
contribution.
b. Write the Modern Peridic law.
16. In refernce to Modern periodic table explain what is meant by periodic
function of properties of elements? What is the effect on the po9wer of
accepting electrons on moving from left to right in Peroidic table.
17. X and Y are two elements having atomic number 20 and 17. Write the
formula of compund formed by X and Y and also draw electron dot
structure. Write the nature and bond in XY.
18. Answer by looking at the table:
No. of Periods Element-I Element-II
2 Li-3 Be-4
3 Na-11 Mg-12
4 K-19 Ca-20
5 Rb-37 Sr-38

a. Valence electron of Rb b. Electronic eon iguration of Ca

c. K is a metal or Non-metal d. Size is bigger of either Rb of Sr

19. An element belongs to third period and group 13. Fing its valence
electrons and valency. Another element Y have 18 neutrons in its
nucleus and Massw Number 35, Write the group and period number of
element Y.
20. Write the name, symbol and electornic con iguration of an element
having atomic number 11. Write the group and period nubmer of this
element.

84
 21. Can we calssify the given groups of elements as triads of Doereiner?
a. Na, Si, Cl b. Be, Mg, Ca
Mass nubmer of Be-9m Na-23, Mg-24, Si-28, Cl-35, Ca-40
22. How cand we prove that Modern Peroidic table is based on the
electronic con iguration of various elements.
23. Electronic con iguration of an elements is 2, 8, 47.
a. Write the group number of this element in modern periodic table.
b. Write its name and one physical property of this elements.
(CBSE-2019 SET 31/1/3)

1. Write 5 major differences between mendeleev's periodie table and

modern periodie table.
2. Element 'A' has atomic number 16
(a) Name of the element
(b) Its physical state
(c) Metal or Non-mental
(d) Nature and formula with oxides
Previous years exams questions
1. How many raw and groups are there in periodic table? (CBSE-2013)
2. 4 Be, 9F, 14Si, 19K, 20Ca
a) Select the element that has same group and give reason.
b) Select the elements that has same period and give reason.
(CBSE-2013)
3. There are two elements, X atomic no. 17 and Y atomic no. 20
(CBSE-2013)
a) Write the position of X and Y in periodic table
b) Write the molecular formula for compound XY

85
4. Given that A(4), B(9) C(14), D(19), E(20)
ie A,B,C,D,E are elements with their atomic numbers
a) Select the elements that has same valence electrons and write their
electronic canfiguration.
b) Select those, who have same group, Give reason.
c) Select who belongs to same period, Give reason
5. Modern Periodic table has contribution of Newland, Mendeleeve and
Dobereiner. Write one advantage and one limitation of each scientist.
6. State Modern Periodic Law.
7. What is periodicity in properties of elements with respect to modern
periodic table? Why do all the element of same group gave similar
properties. How does tendency to gain electron changes from left to right
State reasons for these two changes.
8. (a) Write the electronic configuration of x and y having atomic number 20, 17
(b) Write molucular formula for XY. Draw electron dot structure of product
XY. Find nature and bond in XY.
9. Analyse the Given table
Period No. Elements I Elements II
2 Li (3) Be (4)
3 Na (11) Mg (12)
4 K (19) Ca (20)
5 Rb (37) Sr (38)
(a) Predict the valence electron of Rb.
(b) Write electronic configuration of Ca.
(c) K is metal or non-metal
(d) Which has the largest atomic size Rb or Sr.

86
10. An Element X belongs to 3rd Period and 13 Group. Find the Valency and
Valence electron. Find molecular formula for compound XY.
(Y = At. No. 8)
11. An Element X has mass number 35 and neutron 18. Write atomic number
and electronic configuration of X. Also write group number and period and
find valency of X. (CBSE 2016)
12. Write the name, symbol and electronic configuration of an element X atomic
number is 11. (CBSE 2019 Set 31/1/2)
13. Can following groups elements be classified as Doberseiner's triad.
(i) Na, Si, Cl (ii) Be, Mg, Ca
Atomic mass of Be-9, Na-23, Mg-24, Si-28
Cl-35, Ca-40. Justify year answer. CBSE 2019
Set 31/1/2
14. How can it proved that the basic structure of Modern periodic Table is based
on electronic configuration of atoms of different elements?
(CBSE 2019 Set, 31/1/1)
15. Electronic configuration of an element is 2, 8, 4. State its
(a) Group and period
(b) Name and write its one physical property. (CBSE 2019, Set 31/1/1)

87
 LIFE PROCESSES

Respiration in Nutrition
Animals
Autotrophic nutrition in
Mechanism of Plants
Breathing: • Process involved is
• Inspiration Photosynthesis
• Gaseous exchange
• Expiration
Heterotrophic nutrition
Absence of
oxygen
Ethanol+carbon
in animals.
(in yeast) dioxide + Energy
(2-carbon molecule) • Steps included are:
In
Glucose
(6-carbon
cytoplasm
Pyruvate
(3-carbon
Lack of oxygen
(in our
Lactic acid + Energy
(3-carbon molecule)
• Ingestion
molecule) molecule
+
Energy
muscle cells)
• Digestion
Presence of
oxygen Carbon dioxide + • Absorption
(in mitochondria) Water + Energy
• Egestion

Part of Respiratory Part of Alimentary

System: Canal in Human.
• Nostrils • Mouth
• Trachea • Oesophagus
• Bronchi • Stomach Juice
• Bronchioles • Small Intestine
• Lungs • Large Intestine
• Alveoli • Rectum

Transportation and Circulation Excretion

Transportation in Circulatory system In Plants; In Humans, Basic

plants in humans: Process unit of Kidney-Nephron
• Xylem - Transport • Blood involved is Parts of Nephron
of water • Heart
• Phloem - Transport Transpiration • Bowman's capsule
of food • Blood vessels • Glomerulus
• Proximal convoluted tubule
• Loop of Henle
• Distal convoluted tubule
• Collecting duct

88
obtains

89
90
leech etc

91
 Undigested food is
thrown out

(ii) Paramaecium : Which is a unicellular organism takes in food at a specific

spot which is moved there by cilia (small hairs present all over cell surface)

Steps of Nutrition : (In Heterotrophs)

92
Salivary

digested

93
 Emulsify
g Fat drop lets

94
 Lo
ck
of
(In ox
m yg
us en
cle
s)

(2c) (3c)

95
96
 Ribs move
Ribs downwards
lift up

Diaphragm moves up
Diaphragm flatters

97
98
Granular Component

Deep Seated

99
 transpiration pull.

Adrenal Gland
Interior Vena Cava
Left Kidney
Right Kidney

Aorta

Ureter
Urinary Bladder
(Out Open)
Opening of
Urethra Urethra

The human excretory system

100
1. It maintains water equilibrium, pH equilibrium, ionic equilibrium of the
blood and osmotic equilibrium.
2. It helps to excrete out waste product urea in th the dissolved form from the blood.
3. It excretes poisoneous substance like drugs, toxins etc. from the body.
4. It regulates blood pressure by controlling he fluid balance in the body.

101
102
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
(A) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ's)
1. Which is the first enzyme that gets mixed with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin (b) Cellulose
(c) Trypsin (d) Amylase
2. The opening and closing of the stomatal pore depends upon.
(a) Temperature (b) Oxygen
(c) Concentration of CO2 in stomata (d) Water in guard cells
3. The parts A and B Shown in the given diagram are:

(a) Guard cell and stomatal pore

(b) Epidermal cell and stomatal pore
(c) Epidermal cell and guard cell
(d) Guard cell and epidermal cell
103
4. Complete the following reactions:
Sunlight
6CO2 + 12H2O C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chlorophyll
(c) Iodine (d) Chlorophyll
5. The energy currency of the cell is:
(a) ATP (b) AMP
(c) CO2 (d) ADP
6. The blood leaving the tissues becomes richer in
(a) Carbon-di-oxide (b) Water
(c) Haemoglobin (d) Oxygen
7. The internal (cellur) energy reserve in autotrophs is
(a) Glycogen (b) Protein
(c) Starch (d) Fatty acid
8. During deficiency of oxygen in tissues of human beings, pyruvic acid is
converted into lactic acid in the
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Chloroplast
(c) Mitochondria (d) Golgibody
9. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction-
(a) Thin walls of atria
(b) Valves in heart
(c) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(d) All of the above
10. Which of the following enzymes needs an acidic medium to be active
(a) Trypsin (b) Pepsin
(c) Lipase (d) None of the above
Answers-
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b)

104
11. Give reasons:
(i) The number of stomata are more on the lower surface of the leaf as
compared to the upper surface.
(ii) Arteries are thick walled.
(iii) Plants have low energy needs.
(iv) Aquatic animals breathe faster than the terrestrial animals.
12. (i) What stops blood from flowing backwards through the heart.
(CBSE 2008)
(ii) Name the process used by single-celled organisms for taking in food,
exchange of gases or removal of wastes. (CBSE 2016)

13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23. In following questions two statements are given one labelled Assertion (a)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
I. Assertion: Rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is slower than
terrestrial organisms.

105
 Reason: The amount of dissolved oxygen is fairly low as compared
to amount oxygen in air.
II. Assertion: The effect of root pressure in transport of water is more
important at night.
Reason: During the day the transpiration pull acts as major driving
force in the movement of water in the system.
III. Assertion: The openin and closing of the pore of stomata is a
function of the guard cell.
Reason: The stomatal pore opens when water comes out of guard
cells causing their shrinkage.
IV. Assertion: Carnivores have a shorter small intestine.
Reason: Meat is easier to digest.
V. Assertion: Plasma of blood transports food, carbondioxide and
nitrogenous wastes.
Reason: Red blood corpuscles carry oxygen.
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b)
24 Read the following and answer questions given below:
There is a progressive change in structure of heat between verterbrates
like fishes to birds & mammals. Fish have a simple two chambered heart.
Amphibians possess three chambered heart with two atria and a single
ventricle. Reptiles have a septum (wall) that partly divides the ventricle.
Birds and mammals have the four chambered design.
1. In fishes blood flows from heart to gills to body and back to heart. This is
example of
(a) Single circulation (b) circulation
(c) circulation (d) circulation
2. Which of the following organisms shows mixing of oxygenated and
deoxygenated blood-
(a) Pigeon (b) Pigeon
(c) Frog (d) Crocodile
3. Birds and mammals have four-chambered hearts as it leads to
serpartion of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood such a separation
allows-
(a) Highly efficient supply of oxygen to the body

106
 (b) Give energy to maintain their body temperature continuously
(c) Double circulation being carried on efficiently
(d) Efficientof collection of blood from tissues of the body\
Now choose the right option-
(a) (i) & (iv) (b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i) & (iii) (d) (i), (ii) & (iii)
4. In which of the following verterbrate group/groups heart does not pump
oxygenated blood to different parts of the body-
(a) Pisces and Amphibians (b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only (d) Pisces only
5. Which chamber of human heart recieves deoxygenated blood from tissues
of the body.
(a) Left atrium (b) Right atrium
(c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (2 and 3 MARKS)

1. Name the organ which perform the following functions in human
i) Absorption of digested food
ii) Absorption of water
iii) Secretion of Bile juice.
2. Diagramatically illustrate the process of utilization and digestion of
food in Amoeba.
3. Give two examples each of organisms which perform the following
types of nutrition.
a) Saprotrophic b) Parasitic c) Holozoic
4. What will happen if green plants disappear from earth?
5. Mention three major events that occur during photosynathesis?
6. Name the energy currency in the living organisms. When and where it is
produced?
7. How do carbohydrates, proteins and fats get digested in human
beings?
107
8. Explain the three pathways of breakdown of glucose in living
organisms.
9. How is small intestine designed to absorb digested food.
10. Describe the process of double circulation in human beings.
11. Define the term transpiration. Design an experiment to demonstrate this

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARKS)

1. i) Write three types of blood vessels. Give one important feature of each
(CBSE, Delhi 2018-19)
ii) How are CO2 and O2 transported in human beings? (CBSE 2018-19)
2. Write the function of the following in the human alimentary canal.
(CBSE 2018-19)
i) Saliva ii) HCl in Stomach iii) Bile juice iv) Villi
3. Write one function of each of the following enymes.
i) Pepsin ii) Lipase
4. Draw a well labelled diagram of Nephron. Explain the process of
formation of urine in the human kidney.
5. Why is energy needs in plants is very less as compared to animals?
Explain.
6. Draw the diagram showing Human Respiratory System. Label the
following parts.
a) Alveolus
b) Trachea
c) Bronchus
d) Lungs

108
 Control and Coordination in Human

Human Nervous System Human Endocrine

System (Glands)

Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Central Peripheral Autonomic Thyroid
Nervous Nervous Nervous
System System Parathyroid
System
Thymus
Pancreas
Brain Spinal Cranial Spinal Sympathetic Para Adrenal
cord Nerves Nerves Sympathetic
Ovaries
Testes
Fore Mid Hind
Brain Brain Brain

Cerebellum Pons Medulla

109
 Control and Co-ordination in Plants

Plant Hormones
Movements
(Phytohormones)

Growth Promoters Growth Natic Tropic

Inhibitor Movement Movement

Auxin Gibberelin Cytokinin

Abscisic Acid

Hydro Geotropism Phototropism Chemotropism Thigmotropism

tropism

110
 Thigmoreceptors

Dendrite

Neuromuscular
junction
Axon

Capillary

111
 ( )

(
)

112
113
 (Nastic Movement)

114
Phototropism : Movement towards light, e.g. growth of a shoot towards
light.
Geotropism : Movement towards/away form gravity, e.g. growth of
roots in soil
Chemotropism : Movement to/away Chemicals Growth of pollen tube
towards ovule.
Hydrotropism : Movement towards water. e.g. growth of a roots towards
water

115
6. Releasing Hormone Hypothalmus Mid brain Stimulates pituitary
gland to release
hormones

116
117
 Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Mark)

3. Spinal cord originates from-

(a) Cerebrum (b) Medulla
(c) Pons (d) Cerebellum
4. The movement of shoot towards light is
(a) Geotropism (b) hydrotropism
(c) Chemotropism (d) Phototropism
5. Choose the incorrect statement about insulin
(a) It is produced from pancreas
(b) It regulates growth and development of the body
(c) It regulates blood-sugar level
(d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes
6. Which phytohormone is responsible for wilting of leaves-
(a) Auxin (b) Abscisic acid
(c) Cytokinin (d) Gibberellin

118
 7. Which of the following is not an effect produced after secretion of
adrenalin into the blood-
(a) Blood supply to the digestive system & skin is reduced
(b) Heart beats faster
(c) Breathing rate increses
(d) Blood supply to skeletal muscles is reduced
8. Which part of the brain is responsible for involuntary actions like
blood-pressure, vomitting etc.
(a) Pons (b) Cerebrum
(c) Medulla (d) Cerebellum
9. Dwarfism results due to
(a) Less secretion of growth hormone
(b) Less secretion of adrenaline
(c) Excess secretion of growth hormone
(d) Less secretion of thyroxin
10. Which of the follownig endocrine glans is unpaired-
(a) Adrenal (b) Testes
(c) Pituitary (d) Ovary
Answer :
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b)
6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c)
11.

12. em.
13.
14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

119
19.

20.
21.
22.
23.
24. In following questions two statements are given one labelled Assertion
(a) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
I. Asseration : It is imporatant to have iodised salt in our diet.
Reason: Iodine is necessary for thyroid gland to make thyroxin
hormone.
II.
Asseration : Reflex arcs have evolved in animals

Reason: The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough.
III.
Asseration : The brain sits inside a bony box

Reason: Brain, a delicate organ, is very important for organisms.
IV.
Asseration : Auxin helps the cells of stem grow longer

Reason: Auxin is a growth inhibitor.
V. Asseration : The hormones should be secreted in precise quantities

Reason: Feedback mectranism operates in body to control hormone
secretion
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a)
Case-Study
25. Read the following and answer the questions:
The nervous tissue is made up of an organised network of nerve cells or
neurons and is specialized for conducting information via electrical
impulses from one part of the body to another.

120
 1. Which part of the neuron acquires the information
(a) Dendrite (b) Cell body
(c) Axon (d) Nerve ending
2. Junction between two neurons is called
(a) Cell junction (b) Neuro-muscular junction
(c) Neural joint (d) Synapse
3. Identify the diagram
(a) Neural joint
(b) Neuro-muscular junction
(c) Cell junction
(d) None of the above
4. In a neuron, conversion of electrical signal
to a chemical signal occurs at/in
(a) Cell body (b) Axonal end
(c) Dendritic end (d) None of the above
5. The neurons that carry signals from spinal cord to muscles are
(a) Sensory neuron (b) Motor neuron
(c) Relay neuron (d) None of the above
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 AND 3 Marks)

121
8. List two different functions performed by pancreas (CBSE-2019)

9.

10.

12.

13

122
 Binary Multiple
Frag Vegetative
Fission mentation Regeneration Budding Propagation Spore Formation

Asexual-Reproduction : Only single parent involved

Reproduction : The process of producing

New individuals like oneself

Sexual-Reproduction : Two parents involved

In Birth Control In Plants

Humans Methods
female Reproductive Mechanical
Male Reproductive System Male Repro- Female Repro-
Barriers ductive ductive
System
Part-Stamen Part-Carpel
Chemical
female gamete-ovum Methods
Male gamete- Self
sperm Pollination
Contraceptive
Devices Cross
Fertilisations If no fertilisations Surgical
Fertilisation
Methods

zygote Menstruation
Tubectomy Vadectomy Formation of
(In females) fruit and seeds
(In females) (In males)
embryo

foetus

baby

123
124
125
 Tentacles

Bud

New Individual

126
127
128
129
 place after implantation of embryo in its wall.

130
 Methods of contraception

Mechanical Chemical IUCD Surgical

Barrier Methods Method

Condom Cervical Pills Loop Copper T

Cap

131
MCQ Very Short Answer Type Qestions (1 Marks)

Q. 4 Reproduction is essential for living organisms in order to

a) Keep the individual organism alive
b) Fulfill their energy requirement

132
 c) Maintain growth
d) Continue the species generation after generation
Q. 5 Which among the following diseases is not serwaly transmitted.
a) Syphillis b) HIV-AIDS
c) Cholera d) Gonorrhoea
Q. 6 The ability of a cell to divide into several cells during reproduction in
wishmania is called.
a) Budding b) Reduction division
c) Binary fission d) Multiple fission
Q. 7 Characters transmitted from paresnts to off springs are present in
a) Cyptoplasm (b) Ribosome
c) Genes d) Golgi bodies
Q. 8 In figure given here identify the parts A, B and C sequentially.
A
B
C

a) Cotyledon, Plumble, Radicle b) Plumule, Redicle, Cotyledon

c) Plumule, Cotyledon, Radicle d) Radicle, Cotyledon, Plumule
Q. 9 During adolescence several changes occur in the human body. Mark
one change associated with sexual maturation in boys.
a) Loss of milk teeth b) Increase in height
c) Weight gain d) Cracking of voice
Q.10 Which of the following is an example of unisexual
a) Papaya b) Hibiscus
c) Mustard d) Petunia

Answer
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)

133
11. Labelled Aseertion two other labelled are given one select the
correct answer to these question from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below :
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the
assertion
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the cortrect explanation of the
assertion
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
1. Asseration : Testes in males are located outside the abdominal
cavity in scrotum
Reason: Sperm formation requires a lower temperature than the
normal body temperature
2. Asseration : The lining of uterus thickens and prepares itself every
month to receive a fertilised egg.
Reason: The unfertilized egg implants itself to uterus wall for
nutrition
3. Asseration : Conventionally the motile germ cell is male gamete
Reason: The germ cell has stored food is female gamete
4. Asseration : Hibiscus is a un sexual flower
Reason: A sexual flower contains both male and female parts
5. Asseration : The human population size is a cause for concern
Reason: An expanding population makes it easier to improve living
conditions
Answer:
1. (a) 2. (a)
3. (c) 4. (d)
5. (c)
Read the following and answer the questions
The female reproductive system is made up of internal and external
organs. The function of the system is reproduction of new offsprings.
In humas the female reproductive system is immature at birth and
develops to maturity at puberty to be able to produce gametes.

134
 1. Which organ of female reproductive system acts as site of
implantation of foetus
(a) Ovary
(b) uterus
(c) Cervix
(d) Fallopain tube
2. Which of the statements is incorrect
(a) When a girl is born the ovaries contain thousand of immature
eggs
(b) The site of fertilization is uterus
(c) The menstrual cycle takes place roughly month
(d) If the egg is not fertilised it is discarded out with the uterus living
3. What is the life span of an unfertilized egg in human females
(a) One week
(b) One month
(c) One day
(d) 2–8 days
4. The disc like structure in uterine wall that provides foetus a surface
for oxygen to pass is called
(a) Cervix
(b) Ovary
(c) Placenta
(d) None of these
5. Identify the correct statement
(a) The development of child inside mother's body takes
apporoximately nine months
(b) Theovary releases two eggs per month
(c) The placenta contains villi on mother's side of the tissue
(d) The fertilized egg is called embryo and it divides to form zygote
Answer
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c)
4. (c) 5. (a)

135
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.

(CBSE-2018)

(CBSE-2018)

8.
9.
10.

12.
13.
14.

136
 (CBSE-2018)
(CBSE-2018)

6.

137
138
 Child who inherits X chromosome from his father : Girl (XX)
Child who inherits Y chromosome from his father : Boy (XY)
Phenotype: All Dominant
Genotype : Dominant

F1 Generation Male -22 +XY Female –22 +XX

22 Autosomes 22 Autosomes
XY Sex chromosomes XY Sex chromosomes
Law of Dominance

Monohybrid Cross
Law of Segregation
HEREDITY SEX DETERMINATION IN HUMANS

Dihybrid
Cross
Phenotype – 3:1
SPECIATION
Genotype – 1:2:1 HEREDITY
AND
Law of Independent EVOLUTION
Assortment Factors Affecting :
F1 Generation • Genetic Drift
F2 Generation
• Reproductive Isolation
• Geographical isolation
Phenotype: All • Natural selection
Dominant Phenotype–
Genotype : Dominant Dominant Traits
Genotype- 9:3:3:1

EVIDENCES OF EVOLUTION

Morphological and Anatomical Palaeontological

• Analogous organs Vestigeal :
• Organs present but • Study of Fossils
• Homologous organs
not functional

139
140
When ever organism multiply

of chromosomes,

141
 Mendel’s

142
143
144
 F1

F2
F2

F2

145
 RrYY

Mendel's Law of Inheritance

Based on his hybridisation experiments, mendal proposed the laws of
inheritance.
1. Law of dominance - This law states that when two alternative forms
of a trait or character (genes or alleles) are present in as organism, only

146
one facter expresses itself in F, progery and is called dominant while the
other that remains masked is called recessive.
Characters are controlled by discrete units called factors. Factors
occur in pairs.
2. Law of segregation or law of purity of gametes.
This law states that the facters ot alleles of a pair segregate from each
other durting gamete formation such that a example recieve only one of
the factors. They do not show any blending but simply remain together.
Homozygous parent produces all gametes that are similar,
heterozygous parent produces two types of gametes, each having one
allele in equal proportion.
3. Law of independent assortment - This law states that the two
factors of each character assort or separate out independent of the
factors of other characters at the time of gamete formation and get
randomly rearranged in the offsprings producing both parental and new
combination of characters.
When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segreration of one
pair of character is independent of the other pair of characters.

147
 of

SEX
CHROMOSOMES

148
149
150
151
152
153
 layer
of
Earth
Surface

bit over generations.

154
155
phenotypic characterstic

able of

156
(tt)

157
 6. A pregnent women has an equal chance of her baby being blood
group A or blood group AB. Which one of the following shows the
possible of the woman and the father of her child?
A A B B A B B O
a) I I &I I b) I I * I I
A O B O A B A O
c) I I &I I d) I I & I I
7. A normal cell of human body contains 23 pairs of chromosomes. The
number of chromosomes is a sex cell (sperm or ovum) of a human
being is most likely to be.
a) 46 b) 23
c) 21 d) 42
8. The visible charactertistics in an organism is known as
a) Prototype b) Sterotype
c) Phenotype d) Genotype
9. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four
possibler phenotypes of progeny. This is an example of a :
a) Dihybrid cross b) Monohybrid cross
c) Test cross d) None of these
10. Of what chromosomes are made up of
a) DNA b) DNA & RNA
c) DNA, RNA & proteis d) None of these

Answer
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c)
9. (a) 10. (a)

II Read the following passge and answer the given

questions
Specation is how a new kind of plant or animal species is created.
Speciation occurs when a group within a species separates from other
members of its species and develops its own unique characteristics. The
demands of a different environment or the characteristics of the members
of the new group will differentiate the new species from their ancestors.

158
 The reproductive isolation that is integral to the process of speciation
occurs due to reproductive barries behavioural or physical differences
arising between the new species.
1. The difference in the characeters among the individuals of a species
is called.
a) Speciation b) Variation
c) Evolution d) Heredity
2. What is the difference between genetic drift and natural selection?
3. Which factor of speciation is illustrated on the right?
a) Genetic drift
b) Geographical isolation
c) Varriations
d) All of them
4. The disappearance of a gene from a population is called?
a) Genetic code b) Genetic modification
c) Genetic drift d) Genetic mutation
5. The table below shows the survival rate of two types of beetles in the
save environment over a period of three years.
Survival Rate
Year Green Beetles (%) Brown Beetles (%)
1 78 45
2 83 42
3 77 40
Obeserve the above table carefully and choose the correct option for
the asked question below.
Why do you think green beetles have more survival percentage?
(a) Due to natural selection and high reproductive rate.
(b) Due to genetic drift and variations
(c) Due to protection from predators because of thir body colour
and natural selection
(d) Due to their longer life span than that of brown beetles

159
Read the assertion and reason carefully and then
mark the correct option out of the option given
below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is not correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
1. Asseration (A) : Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
Reason (R) : Pea in easy to grow and had distinctly easily
detectable contrastine varients of features.
2. Asseration (A) : Geographical isolation cannot be a major factor in
speciation of a sexually reproducing organisms.
Reason (R) : Asexually reproducing organisms do not require any
other organism for reproduction.
3. Asseration (A) : Variation is minimum is asexual reproduction.
Reason (R) : All variation in a species have equal chance of survival.
4. Asseration (A) : Evolution is the gradual change which takes place
in organism over millions of years and new species are product.
Reason (R) : Heredity is the transmissions of characters or traits
from parents to off springs.
5. Asseration (A) : Recessive trait can only be expressed in
homozygous condition.
Reason (R) : Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygous
condition.
7. Name of the following
(1) The formation of new species due to gradual over long period of
time.
(2) The carrier of heredity.
(3) The alternative form of gene controlling character of the same
trait.
(4) An animal having rudimentary eye.

160
 (5) Thread like structure present in the nucleus of a cell, containning
hereaditary information of the cell.
Very Short Answer Type Questions (1 Marks)
8. (1) Write the scientific name of garden pea.
(2) Where are genes located
(3) No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why?
(4) What are the chromosomes XY and XX known as?
(5) Name varieties of vegetables which have been produced form
'wild cabbage' by the process of artificial selection.
9. Give Reasons :
(1) Mendal chose pea plant for his experiments
(2) Human beings who look different from each other in terms of
size, colour and looks said to belong to same species.
Short Answer Type Question
1. Differentiate between homologous and analgous organs, with
examples.
2. What are fossils? How can the of fossils be determined?
3. Varriation is beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the
individual. Give three reasons to justify it.
4. The human hand, cat paw and horse foot, when studied in detail
show the same structure of bones and point towards a comoon
origin.
(a) What do you conclude from this?
(b) What is the term given to such structure
5. What is genetic drift. Explain with examples.
6. Write a short note on (a) gene flow (b) Natural selection
7. Distinguish between autosomes and sex chromosomes.
8. Distinguish between inherited traits and acquired traits giving
one example of each. Give reason why the traits acquired by an
individual during the life time are not inherited.
9. A cross is carried between pure bred tall plant and pure bred
dward pea plant.

161
 (a) What is the phenotype of F1 progeny and why
(b) What is the phenotype of F2 progeny when F is selfed.
10. Why a small population of surviving genes faces a greater
thread of extinction. provide a suitable explanation from the
point of view of genetics.

2 Marks
1. Explain sex determination.
2. What are geres? Where are they located?
3. What is meant by dominant genes and recessive genes? Give
one example of each.
4. What are sex chromosomes?
5. How many sex chromosomes are there? Name them.
6. Name the four blood groups in human.
7. Why did Mendel choose pea plants for conducting his
expiriments or inheritance?
8. What does law of segregation states?
9. Differentitate between somatic varriation and genetic
variation?
10. Write down the phenotypic ratio and gertypic rarto in
monohybrid cross.
Long Answer Type of Questions (5 Marks)
1. Evolution should not be equated with progress Explain.
2. Explain few mechanism of sex determination in human being.
3. (a) What are homologous structure ! Give an example.
(b) What are fossils. How the age of fossils is determined.
4. What is speciation. List the factors responsible for speciation
and mention how they could lead to the rise of a new species.
5. (a) What are dominant and recessive traits?
(b) Is it possible that a trait is inherited but may not be
expressed in the next generation? Give a suitable example
to justify this statement.

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163
ECNALUBMA

164
165
 i

At
infintiy

166
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168
:

169
170
171
172
 Y

173
174
Spherical lens

Biconcave

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176
On the basis of this position, this
lens is also known as magnifying
lens.

177
S.No. Ray diagram

1. Parallel to
the principal
axis

2. Passing
through a
principal
focus

3. Passing
through the
optical center
of a lens

178
179
180
X
Y

20 cm Screen Screen
25 cm

181
182
3 Marker Questions

slowest and why?

5.

6.

183
5 Marker Questions
1.

2.

3.

4.

S. No. Object Distance-u(cm) Image Distance-v(cm)

1. -100 +25
2. -60 +30
3. -40 +40
4. -30 +60
5. -25 +100
6. -15 +120

184
3.

4.

6.

185
Reflection And Refraction/Source based Question
If there is no light, there is no sight!
Apart from looking directly at a light source, most of what we see is as a
result of the process of reflection.
Reflection is when light bounces off an object. If the surface is smooth
and shiny, like glass, water or polished metal, the light will reflect at the
same angle as it hit the surface. This is called specular or regular
reflection.
If you look at a bird, light has reflected off that bird and travelled in
nearly all directions.This is diffuse reflection. If some of that light enters
your eyes, it hits the retina at the back of your eyes. An electrical signal is
passed to your brain, and your brain interprets the signals as an image.
1. Light is a phenomenon which makes things-
a) happen
b) visible
c) bounce off
d) hit the surface.
2. Light follows -
a) Laws of Reflection
b) Laws of Refraction

186
 c) Both Laws
d) Neither (a) nor (b)
3.

This picture shows-

a) Regular Reflection b) Diffuse Reflection
c) Refraction of light d) Internal Reflection
4. Mirror reflection
Incident ray Normal Reflected ray
Angle of Angle of
incidence relection

a) Angle of incidence> Angle of reflection

b) Angle of incidence= Angle of refraction
c) Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection
d) Angle of incidence< Angle of reflection
5.

A B
a) A shows refraction, B shows reflection
b) A shows reflection , B shows refraction
c) A shows diffuse reflection, B shows internal diffusion
d) A is regular reflection, B shows diffuse reflection

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190
191
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195
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Human Eye and the colourful world
6. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect
can be corrected by using lens of power-

(a) +0.5 D (b) -0.5 D

(c) +0.2 D (d) -0.2 D

7. A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the
blackboard but is not able to read / the letters written in his textbook.
Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.

(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.

(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.

(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away.

8. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A

narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism as shown in the
Figures given below. In which of the following cases, after dispersion,
the third colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky?

200
 A C B C C

A A

B C A B B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(a) (i) (b) (ii)

(c) (iii) (d) (iv)
9. At noon the sun appears white as

(a) light is least scattered.

(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away.

(c) blue colour is scattered the most.

(d) red colour is scattered the most.

10. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation

of light of different colours of white light in air?

(a) Red light moves fastest.

(b) Blue light moves faster than green light.

(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed.

(d) Yellow light moves with the same speed as that of the red and the
violet light.

Answers. 6.(b) 7. (a) 8.(b) 9. (a) 10. (c)

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202
 reason to
justify your answer.

203
204
 Electric Current
SI unit
Ampere
What is it

Experimentaly Mathematically

Measured by an Q
I= t
ammeter

How is it connected Where

always in series in a circuit through

which we measure current

What is a circuit

Electric circuit is a continuous and

closed path of an electric current.

Positive terminal of the cell

to the negative terminal

205
 Human Eye and the colourful world/Source based
Question
1. Which natural phenomena is being shown here?
Light
from sun

Refraction

Internal
reflection
Refraction

a) Twinkling of stars
b) Rainbow formation
c) reddish appearance of the sun early in the morning
d) blue colour of sky
2. Which of the following conditions are necessary for this
phenomenon?
a) The Sun should be behind us.
b) It should have rained and the Sun should be present.
c) None of A and B
d) Both A and B
3. What colour will be at no. 1 and 2-
a) blue, red

b) blue, black

c) violet, red

d) blue, violet

206
 4. Dispersion of white light by the glass prism shows-
a) Spectrum

b) Tyndall effect

c) Twinkling of stars

d) Delayed sunset

5. The phenomena which is/are responsible for such kind of

formation are-

a) atmospheric refraction and internal reflection

b) dispersion

c) refraction internal reflection and dispersion

d) atmospheric refraction and reflection

Answers
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. a 5.a

207
208
209
210
211
212
213
 is

7. How the ammeter is connected in a circuit?

8.
9.
10.

214
 21. When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current.
Answer. (b)

215
22.

216
1.

2.

3.
4.

5.

217
6.

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219
 Domestic Safety measure
electric circuits
Magnet and its
Fuse Earth
properties
wire

MAGNETIC
Fleming right hand rule. EFFECT OF
Electromagnetic induction. ELECTRIC
Generator CURRENT

Electro magnet Solenoid

Fleming left hand rule
Electric motor

220
 The Government of India ordered a nationwide lockdown for 3 weeks irons
25cn March. 2020 to control the spread of COVID-19. The lockdown has been
extended a few ennesto date with gradual relaxation. It had a significant impact
on the electricit) demanddne to rcdaakn in commercial and industrial activities.
The all India electricity consumption dropped fey 22% in the first week
oflockdown as compared to the peak of the previous week. In the initial lockdown
period, the daily electricity consumption was 25-30% lower than its
corresponding value in 2019 (see Figure 1). The residential electricity
consumption, on the other hand, is expected to have increased during the
lockdown as people spent more time at home.

3500
Energy consumption (MU)

3000
2500
2000
1500
1000
500
PL1

PL2

PL3

11

12

13

14

15

15

Figure 1: Daily all India electricity consumption (MUs)

1. What is the probable reason of fluctuation in electricity consumption in

2020 as compared to 2019.
a) reduction in commercial and industrial activities
b) people spent more time at home.
c) both of these
d) There is no change in electricity consumption.

221
 Appliance watts hours/Month kWh/Month
Ceiling Fan 65 15-730 1-47
Electric Heater 1200 30-90 36-108
Iron 1000 1-10 1-10
Washing Machine 1800 7-40 13-72
Computer (Monitor 200 25-160 5-32
& Printer)
2. 'watt is the S.I. unit of-
a) electric current b) power
c) potential difference d) Energy
3. Electricity bills come in terms of units of etectricity which have been
consumed.
Here, 1 Unit = .........................
a) 3.6x 105 joules
b) 3.6x 105 watts
c) 3.6x 106 watts
d) 3.6x 106 joules
4. Total energy consumed is given by-
a) E = QXt b) E = Q/t
c) E = PX t d) E = P/t
5. A 4kW electric heater is connected to a 220V source of power.The amount of
energy ,it wil consume in 2hrs is-
a) 8 unit
b) 4 unit
c) 16 unit
d) 2 unit
Answers:
1. c      2. b    3. d     4. c     5.a

222
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224
225
226
227
228
229
230
231
232
233
234
17.

18.

235
19.

6.

7.

8.

236
4. (a) State Fleming's left hand rule.
(b) Write the principle of working of an electric motor.
(c) Explain the function
(i) Armature (ii) Brushes (iii) Split ring. (CBSE 2018)

237
 Concept map
Sources of Energy

Environmental Life span of Energy Source

Consequences Good sources of
Energy
Conventional None Conventional
Sources Source

Fossil Hydro Biomass Solar Geothermal Nuclear

fuel power Energy energy energy

Energy from the Sea

Coal Petroleum
Tidal Oceanthermal
energy energy
Natural gas

Renewable Nonrenewable

Solar Ocean Bio Geothermal Coal Petroleum Natural

Mechanical
energy energy mass gas
energy of
water

238
 Magnetic effects of electric currrent-case study
By nature, electricity seeks to return to ground, and in a properly functioning
circuit, this means that the current Hows through the established wiring circuit
back to the service panel, and onward back through the utility wires. However, if
the connections within the wiring loosen or break, electrical current may "leak." In
this instance, the electrical current instantly seeks to flow back to ground by a
shorter pathway. That pathway may very well be through flammable materials or
even through a human being, which is why a short circuit presents the danger of
fire or lethal shock.
The reason this happens is that these other materials offer a pathway of lesser
resistance than is present in the copper wiring of a circuit.
Live wire

Sparks
Short Circuit
Neutral Wire (Wire Crossed)

Earting

Short circuit is prevented by using a device known as fuse.

1. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuital
a) Reduces substansially b) Doesnot change
c) Increases heavily d) Vary continously
2. During short circuit, live wire and neutral wire comes in direct contact with
each other. What may be the reason behind this-
i) faulty circuit wire insulation
ii) loose wire connections
iii) faulty appliance wiring
239
 a) (i) and (ii) only b) (ii) and (iii) only
c) (i) and (iii) only d) (i),(ii) and (iii) all.
3. What is a fuse?
a) Safety device
b) circuit breaker
c) both
d) none of these

Live wire

Fuse wire Molten Fuse wire

4. With the device, the fuse wire is placed -

a) in series b) in parallel
c) anywhere d) nowhere
5. The fuse is an application of-
a) Right hand thumb Rule
b) Left hand thumb Rule
c) Fleming's left-hand Rule
d) Joule's law of heating
Answers: 1.c    2. d   3. c    4. a    5. d

240
 Photosynthesis
For cooking food
(CFL, LED, bulb)

fuels. e.g. wood, coal, LPG, kerosene.

241
Sources of energy which are used by people: e.g., fossil fuels, bio mass, water
energy, wind energy etc.,

Used in several areas.

Release oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur (acidic in nature) which

242
 Heat Energy Kinetic Energy

Turbine Generator Electricity

Elements present in fly ash increases crop production.

Hydro power plants are associated with dams.

irrigation, and possibility for fish farming.

settlements get submerged in the water reservoir formed by the dam.

(iii) Vegetation that submerge under water rots in anaerobic conditions and

243
 Improvements in the Technology for Using
Conventional Sources of Energy

man is called Biomass.

Wood : It is a biomass and used as a fuel since long time.

which is harmful for health and environment.

It burns without producing smoke

yet

produces less heat

By

present in slurry of cattle dung and water.

It takes a few days

244
Limitations of bio gas plant:
  (i) High initial cost
   (ii) Large amount of cattle dung is required.
  (iii) High maintenance cost.

(i)
(ii)
(iii)

15-20 Kmph

245
 Kmph.

among top 10 countries

for the production of electricity.

no less than

has increased, os there is a need for

exploring other source of energy.

Fossil

} to collect solar energy and use it in the

form of heat energy

246
 Use of glass plate because it allows in frared radiations to enter through it but does
not allow the radiations to exitthrough it, causing more greenhouse effect that
result in increase in temperature.

Solar cookers are covered with glass plate and have mirror to focus the rays of the
sun and achieve higher temperature.

Sun rays

purposes.

247
 Limitations:

248
Limitations

several

249
 In nuclear fusion, two nuclei of light elements (lke hydrogen)
combine to form heavy nucleus (like helium). Enormous amount
of energy is released.

Extremely

all the stars including sun.

250
e.g., chernobyl accident

251
 QUESTIONS
Multiple Choice Questions (1 mark)

1. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?

a. CNG b. Coal
c. LPG d. Sun
2. In which of the following kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy?
a. Tidal energy b. Hydro-electricity
c. Wind energy d. In all the above
3. In which process maximum amount of energy is released?
a. Nuclear fusion b. Nuclear fission
c. Reaction of sodium with water d. Respiration
4. Which of the following acts as reflector in a solar cooker?
a. Solar panel b. Mirror
c. Glass lid d. Silicon ceil
5. Along with nitrogen which other element is in rich amount in slurry inside a
biogas plant?
a. Oxygen b. Sulphur
c. Iodine d. Phosphorus
6. On the basis of use of various sources of energy, choose the correct option in
increasing order
a. Nuclear < Water < Petroleum and Natural Gas< Coal
b. Coal < Water < Nuclear< Wind
c. Nuclear < Petroleum and Natural Gas < Water < Coal
d. Solar < Water < Wind < Ocean Thermal Energy
7. On which principle is the hydrogen bomb based:
a. Controlled fission b. Uncontrolled fission
c. Controlled fusion d. Uncontrolled fusion
8. Main constituent of biogas is
a. Hydrogen b. Carbon dioxide
c. Methane d. Hydrogen sulphide

252
MCQ correct options:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
D D A B D C D C
1. What process is the source of sun's energy?
2. Name two elements used in solar cells
3. Cow dung is not a good fuel. Why?
4. How is charcoal different from wood?
5. Expand CNG.
6. Name the fuel used in thermal power plant.
7. How is hydroelectric power generated?
8. Which two types of energy don't relate to solar energy?
9. What are the two advantages of nuclear energy?
In the following questions , two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A)
and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
1. Assertion: Methane and hydrogen sulphide gases are produced in digester of
bio-gas plant.
Reason: Aerobic respiration occurs in digester.
2. Assertion: Thermal power plants are established near coal and oil fields.
Reason: The transmission of electricity is more efficient than transporting coal
or petroleum over the same distance
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Oceans are huge reservoirs of water and energy. The energy from oceans is
available in different forms Of total surface of our planet, about 70.8% is covered by
oceans, which are the largest source of water for living organisms. They act as energy
storehouse because of the large volume of water present in them. Wave energy is one

253
of such forms. Due to limitations, developing technology to tap these forms of
energy is a challenge.
i) The generation of electricity from water energy
a. will not cause pollution
b. is renewable source of energy
c. will always be available
d. all the above are correct
ii) Which is not a form of ocean energy that can be harnessed easily?
a. Ocean thermal energy
b. Wave energy
c. Wind energy
d. Tidal energy
iii) What is the use of ammonia in OTEC plant?
iv) How many times does the rise and fall of tidal waves occur daily?
2 Marks
1. Compare wind energy and water energy.
2. What is the cause of ocean thermal energy?
3. Enlist the limitations of a solar cooker.
4. Why are several thermal power plants set up near coal or oil fields?
5. Describe how electricity is generated from geothermal energy.
6. Forests get replenished, still wood should not be used as a fuel. Why?
3 Marks
1. What are the limitation of using energy from the wind, tides and waves.
2. Enlist the advantages and disadvantages of building dams on rivers.
3. How can you reduce pollution caused by burning fossil fuels?
4. Write four features of ideal source of energy. Examine nuclear energy as
an ideal source of energy.
5. Correlate burning of fossil fuels with acid rain and green-house effect.
6. Name any six places where nuclear reactors have been established in
India.

254
5 Marks
1. a) Draw a labelled diagram of solar cooker.
b) Write the functions of the following in a solar cooker * Mirror * Glass lid
c) Why is the inner surface of a solar cooker painted with black colour?
2. a) What is meant by bio-mass?
b) How is the biogas plant helpful in reducing the pollution?
c) Write any two components of biogas.
HINTS FOR 5 MARK QUESTIONS
1. Mirror- reflector, to concentrate solar energy Glass lid: green house effect
inside the box Black absorbs heat better.
2. Organic matter including waste material from living beings like cattle dung
and dead parts of living beings like plants, trees, animals, wood, agricultural
wastes, bagasse.
Burning dung cakes cause pollution, while biogas combustion is not. The
slurry left in digester is rich in nitrogen and phosphorus, can be used in fields.
Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide and hydrogen

255
 Producer Ecosystem Natural Ecosystem
Produce Components All the interacting Which exist in nature
their own organisms in an on its own.
food area together with Eg-forest, lake, ocean
Biotic Abiotic the living and non-
Consumer Compon- Compon- living things depend
Cannot Make directly or indirectly Artificial Ecosystem
ents ents
their own food. Man made Ecosystem
Primary Eg-Cropfield,
Biodegradable aquarium, garden.
Secondary
Wastes Our
Tertiary Environment
Organic Wastes
which can be Food Web
broken into In nature large number
Decomposer of food chains are
Decompose simpler form by Wastes
microbes. Unwanted, unus- inter connected forming
dead plants a feed web.
and animals able, discarded
Non-Biodegr- things are waste.
adable Wastes Energy Flow
Cannot be broken i. Unidirectional
Disposal Methods ii. 1% of total solar energy
down by natural There are–
organisms and is absorbed by plants.
Landfills iii. Transfer of energy
mostly the source Incineration
of pollution. through various trophic
Composting level is in accordance
Sewage with 10% law.
Treatment
Recycling

Food Chain
The unidirectional, sequential events by which nutrients and
energy are transferred from are group of organisms to the next.
• Bio magnification is the accumulation of chemicals
at the successive trophic level.
• Each step in the food chain is called trophic level.

256
257
258
259
260
 (g) Incineration: It is a waste treatment process that are described as themal
treatment, it converts the waste into ash mainly it is used to transforms
medical wastes.

Mutiple Choice Question

1. Which pollutant released into the air during refrigeration and
airconditioning is the greatest contribute to the depletion of ozone layer?
(a) BHC (b) DDT
(c) CFC (d) NEP
2. What percentage of sun's energy falling on the leaves of green plants is
utilised by the plants in the process of photosynthesis and stored as
chemical energy of food?
(a) 99% (b) 10%
(c) 1% (d) 20%
3. The flow of energy is an ecosystem is always
(a) Unidirectional (b) Bidirectional
(c) Cyclic (d) Multidirectional
4. If the energy transformed to a tertiary consumer in a feed chain is 10J. How
much enegy was available to the primary consumer?

261
 (a) 100J (b) 500J
(c) 1000J (d) 5000J
5. The ten percent law is associated with
(a) Transfer of energy from various trophic to decomposers in a foodchain.
(b) Transfer of ATP energy into muscular enerrgy
(c) Transfer of chemical energy from one organism to another
(d) Transfer of sun's energy to the organisms called producers.
6. O2 converted into O3 by the action of
(a) Infrared radiations (b) Ultraviolet radiations
(c) Gamma radiations (d) Cosmic radiations
7. As human being occupy the top level in any food chain, the maximum
concentration of insecticides get accumulated in our bodies. This
phenomeon is known as.
(a) Pollution (b) Eutrophication
(c) Biological magnification (d) None of these
8. Which one of the following is as artificial ecosystem?
(a) Pond (b) Crop field
(c) Lake (d) Forest
9. What provides the energy which then flows through a food chain?
(a) Glucose (b) Oxygen
(c) Respiration (d) Sunlight
10. Which of the following is the best method to dispose of biological wastes
from hospitals?
(a) Landfill (b) recycling
(c) incineration (d) composting
Answers
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)

II Read the following Passage & Answer the Given Questions:

Ultraviolet radiation could destroy the organic matter Plants and planktons
cannot thrive, both act as food for and sea animals respectively. For humans
excessive exposure to ultraviolet radition leads to higher risk of skin cancer and

262
cataracts. it is calculated that 1% decreases in ozone layer results in a 2–5 percent
increase in the occurrence of skin cancer. other ill-effects of the reduction of
protective ozone layer include-increase and suppression of the immune system.
a. How is ozone formed in the atmosphere?
b. What damages ozone layer?
(a) Cholorofluro carbons (b) Nitric oxide
(c) Free radicals of chlorine (d) All of them
c. Which of the following is global step that has been taken by the world to
reduce ozone depletion?
(a) KYOTO protocol (b) Gothenberg protocol
(c) Montreal protocol (d) Aarhus protocol
d. In which layer of the atmosphere ozone layer is delpleting?
(a) Ionospehere (b) Stratosphere
(c) Lithosphere (d) Thermosphere
e. In the following graph shown, the magnitude of global decline in
consumption of ozone deplecting substances (ODS) is shown. Study the
graph and state during which period there is a sharp rise and a rapid decline
seen in their consumption.
(a) During 1986–87 and 2000–2005
(b) During 1987–88 and 2016–2017
(c) During 2000–2001 and 2010
(d) During 1990–91 and 2016
Consumption of ozone-depleting

120
100
substances

80
60
40
20
0
1986 1990 1995 2000 2005 2010 2016
Year
Read the assertion and reason carefully and then mark the
correct option out of the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion

263
 (b) Both (A) and (R) are trrue but (R) is not correct explanation of the
assertion
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1. Asseration (A) : Decomposers act as cleaning system of envioronment
Reason (R) : The decomposers cycle waste material only in hydrosphere.
2. Asseration (A) : Human beings occupy the tap chain is unidirectional
Reason (R) : The flow of energy in a food chain is unidirectional.
3. Asseration (A) : Some substances in nature are biodegradable while some
are non-biodegradable.
Reason (R) : The bacteria acting on the substances breakdown only the
substances made from natural materials.
4. Asseration (A) : All green plants and certain blue-green algae can produce
food by photosynthesis.
Reason (R) : Due Presence of cholorophyll.
5. Asseration (A) : The disposal of waste we generate in occuring is causing
serious environment problems.
Reason (R) : We should reduce the waste generated.
1 Maker Question
1. Classify the following into biotic and abiotic components: Water, air,
animals, Temperature, Plants, Soil.
2. Make a food chain with following organism-
Snake, Grass, Eagle, Frog, Grass Hopper.
3. How much energy is transferred to the next trophic level
(a) 1% (b) 90%
(c) 10% (d) 100%
4. CFC Causes depletion of
(a) Ozone (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) None of these
5. The concentration of harmful chemicals increases with energy next trophic
level in a food chain. Name this process.
6. Name two materials which can be recyled.

264
 7. Define trophic level.
8. What is the full form of CFC and UNEP?
9. Name the radiations that are absorbed by the ozone layer.
10. Which will get more energy secondary consumers or tertiary consumers?
11. What is the functional unit of environment.
12. Which of the following are not biodegradable.
Wool, Glass, Silver foil, Leather
13. Name any two parasites
14. What is KYOTO protocol?
Answers
1. Abiotic-Soil air, water temperature Biotic- Plants, animals
2. Grass ® grasshopper ® frog ® snakes ® eagle
3. 3.10%
4. a
5. Biological magnification
6. Paper, Plastic
2 Marks
1. Explain how does making of Kulhads affects ourt environment?
(CBSE 2013)
2. What will happen if all the phytoplanktons are eliminated from pond?
3. State two differences between a consumer and producer.
4. Draw the line diagram showing flow of energy is an ecosystem.
5. Define a food web. State its significance for ecosystem.
6. What are phytoplanktons.
7. Name two natural ecosystem.
8. What is an ecosystem? List its two main components.
9. We do not clean ponds or lakes, but an aquarium. needs to be cleaned
regularly explain.
10. In the following food chain 20J of energy was available to the hawks. How
much would have been present in the plants?
Plants ® Rats ® Snakes ® hawks.

265
SHORT ANSWER TYPER QUESTIONS
1. Why are green plants called producers?
2. Name two matrerials which can be recyled.
3. What will happen if we kill all the organisms of a trophical level?
4. Why only 10% energy is transferred to the next trophic level?
5. Which bag will you prefer for shopping and why?
(a) Jute bag        (b) Polythene bag
6. Why is ozone layer important for the existence of life on earth?
7. What is the role of decomposers in ecosystem?
8. Draw an energy pyramid showing different trophic level.
9. Differentiate betweem biodegradable waste and non-biodegradable waste.
10. How ozone molecule is formed in the atmosphere?
11. Define consumers. What are its further divisions?
12. Why natural ecosystem is more stable than artificial ecosystem?
13. Why some materials are not decomposed by the action of micro-organisms?
14. What is a food web? Explain with example.
15. Give any two ways in which non-biodegradable wastes would affect the
environment.
16. How the components of an ecosystem are dependent on each other?
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. What are different methods for disposal of garbage?
2. What is food chain? Give its characteistics. Explain how energy flows
through different trophic levels a food chain.
3. Explain how harmful chemicals enter our body.
Hints to Long Answer Type Questions
1. Methods for Garbage disposal :
Land filling Compositing
Recycling Resuse
Biogas plant Sewage treatment plant
2. Food Chain : Trannsfer of energy through various trophic level in an
ecosystem.
Characteristics : (i) Unidirectional

266
 Refuse

Exhaustible Manage 5R's Reduce

Types ment to
Present in of
limited of Save
Resources Reuse
quantity. Natural Environ-
Eg. coal, Resources ment
Repurpose
petroleum
Forest and Wildlife Recycle
Inexhaustible Conservation
present in
Unlimited
quantity. Biodiversity Hotshots Stake holder
Eg. Air, Number of plant Area of A person
water and animal full of having
species found biological Interest
in particular diversity or concern
area. for something
Eg. bacteria, is called
furgi insects, stakeholder
birds plants etc.

Local Forest Industrialist

People Department Wild life

267
 5 R’s to Save the Enivronment

Refuse Reduce Reuse Repurpose Recycle

To say 'No' to Use less Use Again To use a product Segregate waste
things you for some other that can be
don't need. useful purpose recycled.
For example: For example: For example: For example: For example:
Say 'No' to single (i) Switching off (i) Instead of throwing Cracked crockery Plastic, glass, metal
use plastic carry unnecessary things away they can can be used to items can be
bags. lights and fans. be used again. grow plants. recycled.
(ii) Repairing leaky Water after washing
taps dal etc. can be used
(iii) Not wasting for watering plants.
food

268
Industrialist Wildlife
and nature enthersibast
who use various forest
produce

269
270
Advantages of Dams

271
272
1. Which of the following bacteria contaminates river water and is found
in river Ganga.
a) Streptocoreus b) Coliform
c) Diplococus d) Stapylococcus.
2. ‘Kulhs’ System of irrigation is common in
a) Himachal Pradesh b) Rajasthan
c) Bihar d) Madhya Pradesh
3. Large Scale deforestation causes
a) Rainfall b) Soil erosson
c) Global Warming d) Drought
4. ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ is given in memory for her work
in -
a) Protection of Ganga from pollution
b) Protection of trees in Reni Village of Garhwal
c) Protection of Khejri trees in Khejarli village near jodhpur is Rajasthan
d) Protection of sal forest
5. Ground water will not be depleted due to
a) Afforestation b) Thermal power plants
c) Less of forest d) Cropping of high water demanding crops.
6. Opposition to the construction of large dams is due to
(a) Social reasons (b) Economic reasons
(c) Environmental reasons (d) All of the above
7. Which on of the following is green house gas?
(a) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
8. Hoods can be prevented by
(a) afforestation (b) Removing the top soil
(c) Cutting the forest (d) Tilling the land

273
 9. Which of the following is the best method from environment point of view?
(a) Recycle (b) Reduce
(c) Reuse (d) None of the above
10. To keep air pollution in control, we should
(a) Plast more trees (b) Use CNG in vehicles
(c) Use plastic bottles (d) Construct more buildings

Answer
1. (b) 2. (a)
3. (d) 4. (c)
5. (a) 6. (d)
7. (b) 8. (a)
9. (c) 10. (c)
ASSERTION REASON QUESTIONS

Read the assertion and reason carefully and then mark the
correct option out of the options given below :-
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of the assertion
(b) Both (A) and (R) are trrue but (R) is not correct explanation of the
assertion
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
1. Asseration (A) : About 70% of earth's volume is water.
Reason (R) : Water is easily available for all the population living on the
earth.
Answer - (b)
2. Asseration (A) : Vast tracts of forests have been cleared and converted to
monocultures.
Reason (R) : There monocultures are important source of revenue for the
fortest department.
Answer - (b)
3. Asseration (A) : Coal is one of the source for the production of electricity.
Reason (R) : Coal is a non-renewable source of energy.

274
Answere - (a)
4. Asseration (A) : Water harvesting is as age-old concept in India.
Reason (R) : Khadin, tanks, nadis, Kulhs, bandharas etc some ancient water
harvesting structure of India.
Answer - (a)
5. Asseration (A) : Forest cover balances the temperature level of the area.
Reason (R) : Forest reduces atmosphere pollution abosorbing carbon
dioxide from the atmosphere.
Answer - (a)
Read the following and answer the given questions :
A recent report Uttar Pradesh pollution control board (UPPCB) has reported
extreme level of pollution in the two most mportant rivers of the country the Ganga
and the Yamuna.
Against maximum permissible limit of 2500 MPN (most probable number) the
bacteria for faecal coliform bacteria, a staggering 220 lakh MPN/100 ml of was
delected in Varuna river in Varanasi before meeting Ganga followed by Hindon
river in Noida having second highest court of 1.40 lakh MPN/100ml of the
bacteria. the third highest court of 98000 MPN/100ml of the deadly bacteria which
causes water borne pathogenic disease resulting in ear infections dyserty, typhoid,
fever, viral and bacteria gastroenteritis besides hepatitis A was found in the
Yamuna in Mathura.
1400
Total coliform (MPN/100 mL)

1200

1000

800

600

400

200

0
u/s Rishikesh
d/s Haridwar
Garhmuketeshwar
Narora
u/s Kannauj
d/s Kannauj
Bithoor
u/s Kanpur
d/s Kanpur
Dalmau
u/s Allahbad
d/s Allahbad
u/s Varansi
d/s Varansi
Trighat
Buxar
u/s Patna
d/s Patna
Rajmahal
Garden Reach
Serampoe
Howrah-shivpur
Diamond Harbour

Maximum/ Minimum
Annual mean
Minimum Desired level

MPN: most probable number mL: millilitre

u/s : upstream d/s: downstream

275
 1. What is coliform and where it is found?
(a) A group of bacteria in human intestine
(b) A group of virus in water
(c) A group of decomposers in humans
(d) A group of bacteria is animals
2. Two factors which can be used to final whether river water has been
contaminated or not are
(a) Presece of chloride and pH value.
(b) Sweet taste of water and pH value.
(c) Alkalinity and acidity of water.
(d) Presence of coliform bacteria and pH value.
3. What could be the cause of such high coliform count in rivers?
4. A disease caused by polluted water is
(a) Cholera (b) T.B
(c) Pneumonia (d) Malaria
5. The adjacent graph shows total coliform count levels in the Ganga river,
state at which place the river water is
(1) Cleanest
(b) Highly contaminated
QUESTIONS
VERY SHORT ANSWE TYPE QUIESTIONS
1. Name a clean fuel other than LPG natural gas.
2. Name two fossil fuels.
3. Name the most common practice used to recharge ground water.
4. Name any two inexhaustible resources.
5. Name any bacteria whose presence in water indicate contamination of
water.
6. Write full form of CFC.
7. What is biodiversity.
8. Why is resus better than recycle.
9. Name the person who is remembered for protection of Khejri trees in
Rajasthan.
10. Who are called stake holders.

276
Question
1. State the advantages of storing water in the ground.
2. What are steps talkes to conserve energy where as.
3. Suggest any two ways to strike a balance between environment and
development.
4. What is coliform and where it is found.
5. What do you understand by pH of water.
6. Explain why, despite good rains we are not able to meet the demand for
water of all the people in our country.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. What is meant by sustainable development.
2. Name two measures you would take to conserve electricity in your house.
3. Why should fossil fuels be used judiciously.
4. List three advantage of water harvesting.
5. List three disvantage of building dams.
6. Why should we conserve forest and wild life.
7. What are the 5R's to save our affecting our environment.
8. How is burning of fossil fuels affecting our environmenr?
9. What are the uses coal and petroleum products?
10. Name the rivers with which following dams are associated :
(a) Tehri Dam         (b) Bhakra Dam
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Write a short note on 'Chipko Adolan'.
2. (a) What is rain water harvesting?
(b) What are the advantages of storing water in the ground?
3. Explain the four main stake holders in the management of forest resource.
4. (a) What is natural resource?
(b) Why do we need to manage our natural resources?
5. List five methods that can be taken to conserve energy resources.
6. What is meant by inploitation of resources with short term aims? List its
advantages.
7. State an instance where human intervention saved the forests from
destruction.

277
 Practice Paper-2021-22
Class-X
Science (086)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80
General instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises four sections A,B,C and D. There are 36 ques-
tions in the question paper all questions are compulsory.
(ii) Section A- Question numbers 1 to 20 all questions and their parts are of one
mark each. These questions contain multiple choice questions ( MCQs), very
short answer questions and assertion-reason type questions. Answers to these
questions should be given in one word or one sentence.
(iii) Section B- Question numbers 21 to 26 are short answer type questions carry-
ing 2 marks each. Answers to these questions should be in the range of 30 to
50 words.
(iv) Section C- Question numbers 27-33- are short answer type questions carrying
3 marks each. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80
words.
(v) Section D- Question number 34 to 36 -are long answer type questions carry-
ing 5 marks. Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120
words.
(vi) There is no overall choice .However, internal choices have been provided in
some questions, a student has to attempt only one of the alternative in such
questions.
(vii) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

Section-A
1. How plaster of Paris is prepared from Gypsum?
OR
Define neutralisation reaction. 1
2. An element X is placed in group 14, What will be the formula and nature of
bonding of its chloride? 1

278
 3. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow dung slurry in the
biogas plant? 1
(a) aerobic bacteria (b) anaerobic bacteria
(c) protozoa (d) fungi
4. An ammeter is always connected in series across a circuit. What happens when
it is connected in parallel with a circuit? 1
3 4
5. The refractive indices of glass and water are and respectively. In which
2 3
medium will the speed of light be maximum? 1

6. Name any two forest products, each of which is the basis for some industry.
OR
Why must we conserve our forests? 1
7. Name the physical quantities which are indicated by the direction of thumb and
forefinger in the Fleming's right hand rule? 1
8. There are two solar cookers , one covered with plane glass and other kept
open. Which of the two cooker would be more efficient and why? 1
9. The power of lens is -2D. What will be the focal length of the lens?
OR
A ray of light enters from medium A to medium B (going away from the normal)
as shown in figure. In which medium the velocity of light be more?

1
10. What is the function of pancreas in digestion of food ? 1
11. Name the junction of two neurons.
OR
Name the two sets of nerves that constitute the peripheral nervous system. 1
12. Why coal is called a fossil fuel?
OR
Define recycling. Give one example also. 1
13. What are dominant genes? 1

279
For question number 14,15 and 16, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion
(A) and the other labeled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes a), b), c) and d) as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of the asser-
tion.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
14. Attempt any one from 14(I) and 14(II).
(I) Assertion(A) : HC1, HNO3, and H2SO4 show acidic characters in aqueous
solutions
Reason (R ) : H+ ions in aqueous solution are responsible for acidic character.
OR
(II) Assertion(A) : A solution "X" has more hydrogen ion concentration
Reason (R ) : Solution X is a basic solution. 1
15. Assertion(A) : Lateral displacement is the distance between incident ray and
the emergent ray.
Reason (R ) : The wider the glass slab , the larger the lateral displacement.
16. Assertion(A) : Clones of sheep are carbon copy of each other except physi-
cal health
Reason(R) : It is a kind of genotypic variation.
Answer Q.No. 17-20 contain five (5) sub-parts each . You are expected to answer
any FOUR sub-parts in these questions.
17. Read the following and answer any FOUR questions from 17 (i) to 17 (v)
The reproductive parts of angiosperms are located in the flower. You have
already studied the different parts of a flower - sepals, petals, stamens and
pistil. Stamens and pistil are the reproductive parts of a flower which contain
the germ-cells. The flower may be unisexual ,when it contains either stamens or
pistil or bisexual, when it contains both stamens and pistil.Stamen is male re-
productive organ which produce pollen grains. Pistil is present in the centre of
a flower and is the female reproductive part.. Pistil is present in the centre of a
flower and is the female reproductive part. 1 x4
(i) A flower is unisexual if it has
(a) Stamen only (b) Pistil only
(c) Either Stamen or Pistil (d) Both Stamen and Pistil

280
 (ii) The correct sequence of reproductive stages seen in flowering plants is
(a) seedling, zygote, embryo, gametes
(b) zygote, embryo, seedling, gametes
(c) gametes, zygote ,embryo, seedling
(d) embryo, gametes, zygote , seedling
(iii) The diagram shows the cross section through the carpel of a flower just before
fertilization.
Where will the male and female gamete be just before fertilization?
Male gametes Female gametes
(a) A D
(b) C E
(c) D E
(d) E D
(iv) Compare the given diagrams A and B and answer Pistil and Ovule of a flower
resemble -

(a) Ovary and Oviduct (b) Oviduct and Ovary .

(c) Ovule and Oviduct (d) Ovary and Uterus
(v) In the given diagram , P,Q,R and S are
(a) Sepal, Stamen Ovary , Stigma
(b) Stamen , Sepal Ovary , Stigma
(c) Stigma ,Sepal, Stamen .Ovary
(d) Stigma ,Sepal, Stamen ,Ovary

281
 18. Read the following and answer any FOUR questions from 18 (i) to 18 (v)
Alkanes are not very reactive hydrocarbons ; all alkanes are colourless and
odourless non-polar compounds. Short carbon chains of alkanes are gaseous
substances, moderate carbon chains are liquids and long carbon chains are
solids. The differences in the physical states occurs because there is a direct
relationship between the size and shape of molecules and the strength of the
intermolecular forces (IMFs).
Boiling Points:
Given table describes some of the properties of the first 10 straight-chain al-
kanes. Because alkane molecules are nonpolar, they are insoluble in water,
which is a polar solvent, but are soluble in nonpolar and slightly polar solvents.
Consequently, alkanes themselves are commonly used as solvents for organic
substances of low polarity, such as fats, oils, and waxes. Nearly all alkanes
have densities less than 1.0 g/mL and are therefore less dense than water (the
density of H2O is 1.00 g/mL at 20°C). These properties explain why oil and
grease do not mix with water but rather float on its surface.

Molecular Formula Melting Boiling Physical

name Point (°C) Point (°C) State
(at 20°C)
methane CH4 –182 –164 gas
ethane C 2H 6 –183 –89 gas
propane C 3H 8 –190 –42 gas
butane C4H10 –138 –1 gas
pentane C5H12 –130 36 liquid
hexane C6H14 –95 69 liquid

The boiling points for the "straight chain" isomers and iso-alkanes isomers demon-
strate that branching decreases the surfaces area, weakens the IMFs, and lowers the
boiling point. The boiling points of the three isomers of C5H12 are:
• pentane: 309.2 K
• 2-methylbutane: 301.0 K
• 2,2-dimethylpropane: 282.6 K

282
 (i) The general formula of alkanes is
(a) CnH2n (b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH2n-i (d) CnH2n-2
(ii) Look at the bar graph and then answer: The first four alkanes are -

(a) Solids (b) Liquids

(c) Gases (d) Plasma
(iii) Oil and grease do not mix with water but rather float on its surface because
(a) all alkanes have densities more than 1.0 g/mL
(b) all alkanes have densities less than 1.0 g/mL
(c) all alkanes have densities equal to 1.0 g/mL
(d) all alkanes have densities less than 1.0 kg/mL
(iv) The iso-alkanes have lower boiling point than straight chain because-

(a) branching increases the surfaces area and strengthen the intermolecular
force.
(b) branching increases the surfaces area and weakens the intermolecular force.

283
 (c) branching decreases the surfaces area and weakens the intermolecular
force.
(d) branching decreases the surfaces area and strengthen the intermolecular
force.
(v) Pentane has
(a) 2 isomers (b) 3 isomers
(c) 4 isomers (d) 5 isomers
19. Read the following and answer any FOUR questions from 19 (i) to 19 (v)
Light can be examined entirely from its source. When light passes from one
medium to any other medium like air, a glass or water then a part of the light is
absorbed by particles of the medium preceded (coming before) by its subse-
quent radiation in a particular direction. This phenomenon is termed as a scat-
tering of light. The intensity of scattered light depends on the size of the particles
and the wavelength of the light. Shorter wavelength and high frequency scatter
more. Any light that gives a spectrum similar to that of sunlight is often referred
to as white light. A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a
rain shower. It is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present
in the atmosphere. A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of
the Sun.
1x4
(i) Which natural phenomena is being shown here?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Rainbow formation
(c) reddish appearance of the sun early in the morning
(d) blue colour of sky
(ii) Which of the following conditions are necessary for this phenomenon?
(a) The Sun should be behind us.
(b) It should have rained and the Sun should be
present.
(c) None of A and B
(d) Both A and B
(iii) What colour will be at no. 1 and 2-
(a) blue, red (b) blue, black
(c) violet, red (d) blue, violet

284
(iv) Dispersion of white light by the glass prism shows-
(a) Spectrum (b) Tyndall effect
(c) Twinkling of stars (d) Delayed sunset
(v) The phenomena which is/are responsible for such kind of formation are-
(a) Atmospheric refraction and Internal reflection
(b) Dispersion, and Internal reflection
(c) Refraction , Internal reflection and Dispersion
(d) Atmospheric refraction and reflection
20. Read the following and answer any four questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v)
The electrical energy (E) used can be reduced ei-
ther by reducing the time of use or by reducing the
power consumption of that appliance or fixture. This
will not only reduce the cost, but it will also result in
a reduced impact on the environment. Improve-
ments to lighting are some of the fastest ways to
reduce the electrical energy used in a home or busi-
ness. About 20% of a home's use of energy goes
to lighting, while the number for commercial estab-
lishments is closer to 40%. Fluorescent lights are
about four times more efficient than incandescent
lights-this is true for both the long tubes and the
compact fluorescent lights (CFL). Thus, a 60-W incandescent bulb can be
replaced by a 15-W CFL, which has the same brightness and color. CFLs
have a bent tube inside a globe or a spiral-shaped tube, all connected to a
standard screw-in base that fits standard incandescent light sockets. The heat
transfer from these CFLs is less, and they last up to 10 times longer. 1 × 4
(i) Name a device which is a source of electrical energy
(a) battery (b) cell
(c) both cell and battery (d) none of the above
(ii) Energy supplied to the circuit by the source in time t
(a) P x t (b) Pxl
(c) I Rt
2
(d) All the above

285
(iii) 60W incandescent bulb which has the same brightness and color can be re-
placed by a
(a) 60-W CFL (b) 15-W CFL
(c) 10-WCFL (d) 5-W CFL.
(iv) Heat produced in a resistor
(a) directly proportional to the square of current.
(b) directly proportional to the square of resistance
(c) directly proportional to the square of potential difference across the resistor.
(d) All the above
v. CFLs are better than traditional bulbs because,
(a) CFLs use less electricity than traditional lighLhulbs
(b) they reduce demand for electricity
(c) emissions of less greenhouse gas
(d) All the above
Section-B
21. If we touch a thorn accidently ,we move our hand away at once. What is the
type of this response. Give its brief explanation.
OR
Which type of signals will get disrupted in case of spinal cord injury? 2
22. Justify the statement "Why is fertilization not possible without pollination?'* 2
23. How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their physi-
cal and chemical properties?
OR
Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3CI.2
24. Arrange the metals involved in the given reactions in increasing order of reac-
tivity. Give reason for your answer. 2
(a) Zn + CuS04  ZnSO4 + Cu
(b) Cu + Ag(N03)2  Cu(NO3)2 + Ag
(c) Zn + FeSO4  ZnSO4 + Fe
(d) Fe + CuSO4  FeS04 + Cu

286
25. Make a diagram to show how hypermetropia is corrected. The near point of a
hypermetropic eye is lm. What is the power of the lens required to correct this
defect? 2
26. State the different ways ,three resistors each having resistance ‘r’ can be
connected so that they will draw maximum and minimum current from the circuit.
Give reason to your answer. 2
Section-C
27. If a trait A exists in 10% of a population of an asexually reproducing species
and a trait B exists in 60% of the same population, which trait is likely to have
arisen earlier?
OR
Will geographical isolation be a major factor in the speciation of an organism
that reproduces asexually? Why or why not? 3
28. What is biological magnification? Will the levels of this magnification be different
at different levels of the ecosystem? 3
29. Name two organs which shows dual function as exocrine and endocrine gland
. Name the hormones secreted by them and their functions also. 3
30. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal ? Illustrate with
an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas? 3
31. Two elements P and Q belong to the 3rd period of the modern periodic table
and are in Group-1 and Group -2 respectively. Compare their following
characteristics in tabular form 3
(i) The number of electrons in their atoms
(ii) The size of their atoms
(iii) The metallic characters
(iv) Their tendencies to loose electrons
(v) The formula of their oxides
(vi) The formula of their halides
32. a. Explain the formation of Sodium chloride with the help of electron dot structure.
(At. number : Na = 11 ;C1= 17)
b. Draw a labelled diagram for electrolytic refining of copper metal.
33. The values of absolute refractive indices of different material mediums are
given.Study the table and answer the questions that follow.

287
 Material Refractive Material Refractive
medium index medium index
Air 1.0003 Canada Balsam 1.53
Ice 1.31 ------- -------
Water 1.33 Rock salt 1.54
Alcohol 1.36 ------- -------
Kerosene 1.44 Carbon disulphide 1.63
Fused quartz 1.46 Dense flint glass 1.65
Turpentine oil 1.47 Ruby 1.71
Benzene 1.5 Sapphire 1.77
Crown glass 1.52 Diamond 2.42

a. Name the medium having highest optical density.

b. Name the medium with lowest optical density.
c. You are given kerosene, turpentine and water. In which of these will the speed
of light be maximum?
Section-D
31. (a) Can we place Silver nitrate solution in an iron bottle ?Why or why not ?
(b) Can oxidation or reduction take place alone? Justify your answer.
(c) Identify the substance oxidised and substance reduced in the given reaction.
ZnO(S) + C(S)  Zn(S) + CO(g)
OR
(a) Why is it essential to balance a chemical reaction?
(b) Why does milky colour disappear when carbon dioxide is passed through
lime water in excess?
(c) Why cannot a chemical change be reversed?
35. (a) What is transpiration? Write its importance .
(b) Write two differences between xylem and phloem (One difference from their
structures and second difference from their functions .)
(c) Draw a labelled diagram of the part of plant which helps in exchange of gases.
OR
(a) What advantage over an aquatic organism does a terrestrial organism have
with regard to obtaining oxyge? for respiration?

288
 (b) How is haemoglobin associated with respiration ? explain it.
(c) Veins and arteries carry blood .Which of these carry blood?
(i) Away from the heart.
(ii) Back to the heart.
36. (a) A coil of insulated copper wire is connected to a galvanometer. What will
happen if a bar magnet is-
(i) pushed into the coil,
(ii) withdrawn from inside the coil
(iii) held stationary inside the coil?
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of an electric motor. Explain its principle and working.
What is the function of a split ring in an electric motor?

289