Answer keys : AIATS for Two Year Medical-2023 (XI Studying)_Test-02

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 1

A particle with initial velocity undergoes a constant acceleration a = 3 m s–2 at 37° with positive
direction of x-axis. What is particle's velocity at time t = 5 second?

Options:

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: for constant acceleration

Sol.:

⇒
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 2

A stuntman jumps from height of 4.9 m with initial horizontal velocity of 4.5 m/s and lands on ground. How much time stuntman
takes to reach ground?

(g = 9.8 m/s2)

Options:

2s

4.5 s

1s

1.2 s

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: For vertical motion,

Sol.: h = 4.9 m, t = ?, vy = 0

h=

⇒ 4.9 = 4.9 × t2
⇒t=1s

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 3

A ship is 690 m away from a port. A shell is fired from the port with initial velocity of v0 at an elevation of 45° with the horizontal.

The shell hits the ship. Initial velocity of the shell is (Assume ship is stationary and g = 10 m/s2)

Options:

83 m/s

62 m/s

45 m/s

97 m/s

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint:

Sol.:

⇒
You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 4

The initial speed of an arrow is 15 m/s at an elevation of 30°. What is its speed at the highest point of its trajectory?

Options:

Zero

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: At highest point of trajectory velocity is equal to horizontal component of initial velocity.

Sol.: v = vox = v0cosθ = 15 cos30° =

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 5

A stone is thrown with speed of 10 m s–1 at an angle of projection 60°. Its height above the point of projection, when it is at
horizontal distance of 3 m from point of projection? (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

3.4 m

2.4 m

4.2 m

1.9 m

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint:

Sol.: θ = 60°, u = 10 m s–1 x = 3 m

= 3.396 ≈ 3.4 m
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 6

A projectile is launched with initial velocity of (taking horizontal direction as x-axis and vertically upward as
positive y-axis). With what velocity it will reach the level of projection?

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Only vertical component of velocity reverses, horizontal component remains unchanged.

Sol.:

∴
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 7

A projectile is thrown into air with initial velocity of . If the range of the projectile is double to maximum

height reached, then is equal to

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.:

∴ tanθ = 2

But

∴
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 8

A projectile is moving along a parabolic path y = 2x – x2 in such a way that x component of velocity remains constant and equal
to 5 m/s. What is the magnitude of acceleration due to gravity at that place?

Options:

20 m/s2

60 m/s2

50 m/s2

40 m/s2

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: Equation of trajectory is

Sol.: y = 2x – x2

comparing with equation of trajectory,

we get,

⇒ g = 50 m s–2
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 9

A projectile is fired to have maximum range of 600 m. Maximum height attained by projectile in this case will be

Options:

300 m

150 m

600 m

1200 m

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For maximum range, θ = 45°

Sol.: ...(i)

...(ii)

dividing equation (i) and (ii)

, here θ = 45°

∴
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 10

A projectile is projected with initial velocity of 30 m/s at an angle . After 1 second, direction of motion of the

particle makes an angle α with horizontal, then angle α is given as

(g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

tanα = 1

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

⇒
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 11

An aeroplane is flying horizontally at height of 490 m above a point P on ground and a packet is to be dropped from it, which
should reach at a point Q on ground which is 1600 m away from point P. What should be the speed of plane at the time of
release of packet?

(g = 9.8 m s–2)

Options:

190 m/s

130 m/s

160 m/s

210 m/s

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For horizontal projection,

and R = uT

Sol.:

ux = u, uy = 0

ax = 0, ay = g

Horizontal distance R = uT
1600 = u × 10

⇒ u = 160 m/s

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 12

For the given figure, which of the following option is correct?

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol. From triangle law of vector addition:

⇒
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 13

A vector of magnitude 10 units makes an angle of 60° with a vector of magnitude 6 units. Then magnitude of
is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint:

Sol.: P = 10, Q = 6, θ = 60°

=
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 14

An aeroplane has to reach A to B and back again along straight line. The speed of aeroplane with respect to wind is v. The wind
blows perpendicular to line AB with speed u. The distance between A and B is l. The total time for the round trip is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: For no drift, component of velocity of plane perpendicular to AB should be equal to wind velocity.
Sol.: For no drift,

vsinθ = u

⇒ Total time (T) = tAB + tBC

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 15

For a projectile launched in air, the trajectory is shown in diagram. The angle of projection is 45°. The height h is

Options:

6m

8m

12 m

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Equation of trajectory of projectile is

Sol.: x = 24 m, R = (24 + 12) = 36 m

tanθ = tan45° = 1, y = h = ?

=
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 16

A ball rolls of the top of a stairway with horizontal velocity of . The steps are 25 cm high and 5 m wide, the ball hits

the edge of nth step where n is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Using equation of trajectory

x = ut,

x = nw and y = nH

Sol.:

For horizontal projectile

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 17

A body is projected horizontally from top of a building with velocity v0. What is its speed when it covers equal distances in
horizontal and vertical directions?

Options:

2v0

3v0

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.: As x = y

So,

⇒ (u = v0 given)

∴ vx = v0 and vy = gt =

You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 18

The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. The maximum horizontal distance that a ball, thrown with speed of 50 m s–1, can go
without hitting the ceiling of the hall, is (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

250 m

200 m

150 m

100 m

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For θ = 45°, check if maximum height is greater than 25 m.
Sol.: For θ = 45°,

so, angle of projection should be such that H = 25 m

and

Maximum horizontal distance,

You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 19

A swimmer can swim at a speed of 0.6 m/s with respect to water. She wants to cross a river which is 50 m wide and has a water
current of 0.36 m/s. If she wants to reach on other bank at a point directly opposite from her starting point, in which direction she
must swim?

Options:

At right angle to river flow

At 53° with river flow

At 127° with river flow

At 143° with river flow

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Vector analysis.

Sol.:

She should swim at certain angle θ with line AB.

θ = 37°

river flow is
Angle with
= 90° + 37° = 127°

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 20

For two vectors if and angle between is 90°, then angle between and is

Options:

60°

45°

90°

30°

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint:

where θ' = 180 – θ

Sol.:

By triangle law of vectors

β = 45°
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 21

A vector is changed if

Options:

Vector is translated parallel to itself

Vector is rotated by 360°

Frame of reference is rotated

Vector is rotated about tail with 0 < θ° < 360°

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: In translating a vector parallel to it or rotating through 360° vector is not changed but at other angle 0 < θ < 360° vector
gets changed due to change in direction.
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 22

Two cars A and B move in mutually perpendicular directions as shown in figure. Then velocity of B w.r.t. A is

Options:

5 m/s at 127° with

5 m/s at 120° with

7 m/s at 90° with

1 m/s at 150° with

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint:

Sol.:

Its direction with

θ = 37°

Direction of with will be

θ′ = 90° + θ = 90° + 37° = 127°

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 23

A man can swim at 4 m/s in still water. He enters 200 m wide river at one bank and swims w.r.t. water at an angle of 60° to river
flow. The river flow velocity is 5 m/s. In how much time does he cross the river?

Options:

50 s

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

This perpendicular component of velocity will be responsible to cross the river

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 24

There are two vectors , where and . If then value of a is

Options:

–3

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Multiplication of vector with a scalar gives another vector

Sol.:

⇒ a = –3
You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 25

A particle is thrown at an angle θ with speed v0 with horizontal. After sometime particle moves with speed v at an angle β with
horizontal. The correct relation between v0 and v is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Horizontal component of velocity of projectile remains constant.

Sol.:

Taking horizontal components of velocities equal

v0cosθ = vcosβ

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 26

A man standing on horizontal road has to hold his umbrella at 37° with vertical to keep away the rain. He finds that raindrops are
hitting him vertically when he starts running at 6 m/s. The speed of raindrops with respect to ground is

Options:

4 m/s

6 m/s

10 m/s

3 m/s

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint:

Sol.:

= 10 m/s
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 27

A projectile is launched with initial velocity . The equation of trajectory of particle is (g = 10 m/s2)

Options:

y = 4x – 6x2

4y = 6x – 5x2

4y = 3x – 10x2

y = 4x – 5x2

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

Also,

⇒ y = 3t – 5t2

⇒ 4y = 6x – 5x2
You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 28

A particle starts from origin and moves with velocity at time t = 0. The particle moves in x-y plane with an

acceleration of . The position co-ordinates at which velocity of the particle becomes parallel to y-axis, is

Options:

(16 m, 16 m)

(32 m, 8 m)

(16 m, 8 m)

(16 m, 32 m)

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: When x component of velocity will be zero, it will move parallel to y-axis

Sol.:

∴ ax = –2, ay = 4

∴ vx = 8 – 2t and vy = 4t

When vx = 0 particle moves along y-axis

∴ 8 – 2t = 0
⇒t=4s

x co-ordinate of particle

y co-ordinate of particle

y=
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 29

Two stones are thrown simultaneously from same point with equal speeds v0 at angles 20° and 60° respectively with positive
direction of x-axis. The speed with which stones move relative to each other in air is

Options:

2v0 sin30°

2v0 cos40°

2v0 sin20°

2v0 cos20°

Solution :

Answer (3)
Hint:

Sol.:

Angle between velocity vectors is (60° – 20°) = 40°

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 30

A shell is projected with velocity of 120 m/s at an angle of 37° with horizontal. The time after which velocity of the shell becomes
horizontal is (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

5.2 s

6.3 s

1.5 s

7.2 s

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: vy = 0 at highest point of flight.

Sol.: vy = usinθ – gt
0 = 120 sin 37° – 10 × t

72 – 10t = 0

t = 7.2 s
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 31

A ball is projected above the ground at angle 60° with vertical. Its velocity changes in air due to gravitational acceleration. Which
among the following statements is incorrect?

Options:

Velocity first decreases and then again increases in magnitude

At the highest point of trajectory angle between velocity vector and acceleration is 90°

The angle between acceleration vector and velocity vector is initially an acute and then changes to obtuse angle

The horizontal component of velocity throughout flight time remains constant

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Horizontal component of velocity remains constant because acceleration along horizontal direction is absent.

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 32

The maximum height reached by a projectile is equal to half of the range of projectile. If the initial velocity of projection was 20
m/s, then what was maximum height reached? (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

16 m

24 m

18 m

10 m

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: , where θ is angle of projection and

Sol.: Given that:

given

∴ tanθ = 2

=
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 33

A ball is thrown vertically upwards with velocity 10 m/s from a trolley moving horizontally with velocity of 8 m/s. A person
standing on ground observes its motion. The range observed by him is (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

40 m

20 m

16 m

8m

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: For ground observer, ball has two components of velocity, horizontal due to trolley and vertical with which it was projected.
Sol.: ux = 8 m/s, uy = 10 m/s (to ground observer)

Range
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 34

A body has initial velocity 3 m/s along and it is subjected to an acceleration 2 m s–2 perpendicular to . The magnitude
of displacement of body in time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 second will be

Options:

12 m

20 m

16 m

28 m

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

Along , equation of motion

Magnitude of displacement

= 20 m
You scored -1 of 4

Phy-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 35

Three unit vectors are arranged in a closed figure such that . The figure will be

Options:

Right angled triangle

An equilateral triangle

Isosceles triangle

All of these

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint & Sol.: The resultant of two vectors of equal magnitude is equal to either of them when angle between vectors is 120°

Figure is equilateral triangle

You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 36 skipped

A body is thrown horizontally from a building 200 m high, at t = 0 with initial speed of 19.6 m/s. The velocity of the body is
directed at an angle of 45° with vertical at a time equal to (g = 9.8 m s–2)

Options:

1s

2s

3s

4s

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Direction of velocity :

Sol.: ay = g m s–2

vy = 0 + ayt = gt

vx = 19.6 m/s      (ax= 0)

For direction

∴ gt = 19.6 or t = 2 s
You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 37 skipped

Consider projectile motion of two objects projected from ground. The maximum height attained above ground, should be

Options:

Greater for projectile with greater range

Greater for projectile with greater time of flight

Same for both projectile if angle of projections add upto 90° for same speed of projection

True for all above cases

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint: , where T is time of flight

Sol.: Maximum height achieved is more when time of flight is more.

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 38

In uniform circular motion, the angle between the acceleration and velocity vector will be

Options:

Acute

Obtuse

Right angle

All of these

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: When speed is constant then velocity vector and acceleration vector are perpendicular to each other in uniform circular
motion.
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 39

A boy whirls a stone tied to a thread, such that stone moved uniformly in a circle. What must be length of the thread, if stone
completes 42 revolution in a minute with uniform speed of 2.2 m s–1? (neglect gravity)

Options:

0.5 m

0.7 m

1.2 m

1.4 m

Solution :
Answer (1)

Hint:

Sol.: Frequency of revolution =

∴ =
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 40

The acceleration of a particle performing uniform circular motion on a circular path of radius 2 m and completing 120 revolutions
per minute is

Options:

4π2 m s–2

8π2 m s–2

16π2 m s–2

32π2 m s–2

Solution :
Answer (4)

Hint: where ω = 2π(n)

Sol.: Frequency

ω = 2πn = 2 × π × 2 = 4π rad s–1

acceleration ac = rω2 = (2) × (4π)2 = 32π2 m s–2

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 41

The ratio of angular velocity of hour hand of a wrist watch over the angular velocity of spin of earth about its own axis is

Options:

365

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Earth takes 24 hour for one rotation and hour hand takes 12 hours.

Sol.: ∴

You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 42 skipped

An object moves on circular path, with constant speed in x-y plane, with centre at origin. When the object is at x = –2 m, its
velocity is . Then object velocity at y = 2 m is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint and Sol.:

At y = 2; particle is moving towards negative x-axis

You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 43 skipped

A man is standing on the edge of a horizontal circular uniformly rotating platform of radius 5 m. If man can withstand maximum
radial acceleration of magnitude 7g, then what is maximum number of permissible revolutions per second? (g = 10 m s–2)

Options:

0.6 rev/s

0.9 rev/s

3.2 rev/s

1.2 rev/s

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: amax = ω2r

Sol.: amax = 7g

ω2r = 7g

∴ (2πn)2 × r = 7g

4π2n2 × 5 = 7g

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 44

A car is moving on a circular path and its speed is increasing with time. Then which among the following is incorrect statement?

Options:

Car has centripetal and tangential acceleration

The angle between acceleration vector and velocity vector of car is an acute angle

The angle between acceleration vector and velocity vector of car is an obtuse angle

The acceleration of the car is variable

Solution :

Answer (3)
Hint: When car is speeding up, tangential acceleration is along velocity vector. Acceleration is variable due to change in direction.

Sol.:

tanθ =

Here θ is angle between .

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 45

Ratio of ranges of the bullets fired from a gun with same speed at angle θ, 2θ and 4θ respectively is found to be in the ratio of
. Then the value of x will be

Options:

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: When two projectile are fired with same speed at angle θ and (90 – θ), range of both projectile will be equal.
Sol.: Range is same for 2θ and 4θ

So, 2θ + 4θ = 90°

6θ = 90°

⇒ θ = 15°
Then ratio
of ranges will be

⇒x=1
You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 46

If the coordinates of point P is (1, 2, 2), then unit vector along the position vector of P, will be

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 47

The resultant of two perpendicular vectors has magnitude 30. If resultant is inclined with at an angle of 37° then the
magnitude of vectors respectively are

Options:

24, 20

24, 18

12, 18

16, 18

Solution :

Answer (2)
Hint: Resultant makes 37° with and 53° with vector

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 48

A light rod of length 5 m, slides on a smooth vertical wall and horizontal surface as shown. At the given instant when speed of
end A is 5 m/s along horizontal, the speed of point B along the vertical wall will be

Options:

4 m/s

3 m/s

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Velocity along the length of rod remains constant because rod is rigid.
Sol.: At point A

At point B,
vBcos53° =
vR

You scored 4 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 49

A particle is moving in x-y plane. Position of the particle is given as x = 4t2 + 3 and y = 3t2 + 5 (where x and y are in metre and t

in second). The magnitude of velocity at second will be

Options:

7 m/s

5 m/s

6 m/s

3 m/s

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.: x = 4t2 + 3, y = 3t2 + 5

You scored 0 of 4

Phy-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 50 skipped

In circular motion, which of the following is directed along axis of rotation?

Options:

Velocity

Centripetal acceleration

Angular velocity

Tangential acceleration

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint & Sol.: Angular velocity is an axial vector and is directed along axis of rotation.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 51

Which among the following is not linear in shape?

Options:

BeCl2

CO2

H2O

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: The species in which central atom is sp hybridised will be linear in shape.
Sol.:

Species Structure Hybridisation

Cl – Be – Cl
BeCl2 sp
Linear

sp
Linear
O=C=O
CO2 sp
Linear

H2O sp3
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 52

Bond order of is

Options:

1.5

2.5

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 53

The species in which central atom is sp3d hybridised, is

Options:

SF4

SiF4

XeOF4

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: If sum of σ bond and lone pair around central atom is five then the hybridization will be sp3d.
Sol.:

Species No. of σ bonds + lone pairs of electron on central atom Hybridisation

4+0=4 sp3

SF4 4+1=5 sp3d

SiF4 4+0=4 sp3
XeOF4 5+1=6 sp3d2
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 54

Non-polar molecule among the following is

Options:

H2O

BF3

CHCl3

NH3

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: If vector sum of bond moments of a molecule is zero then the molecule will have zero dipole moment and will be non-polar

Sol.:

The three bond moments in BF3 give a net sum of zero as the resultant of any two is equal and opposite to the third.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 55

Correct order of bond length of the given species is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Higher is the bond order, shorter is the bond length.
Sol.:

Species Bond order

C2 2

2. 5

1. 5

• C – C bond length order will be

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 56

Which of the following is paramagnetic in nature?

Options:

NO

H2

N2

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: The species which contains unpaired electron(s) is paramagnetic in nature.
Sol.:

• NO has one unpaired electron so paramagnetic in nature.

• , H2 and N2 have no unpaired electrons so are diamagnetic in nature.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 57

During change of N2 to ion, the added electron goes to

Options:

σ orbital

σ* orbital

π* orbital

π orbital

Solution :
Answer (3)

Hint: Electronic configuration of

Sol.: Electronic configuration of

You scored -1 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 58

Total number of π-bond electrons present in the given molecule is

CH2 = CH – CH = CH – CH2 – CN

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: π bond electrons will be twice the number of π-bonds.

Sol.:

Number of π bonds = 4
Number of π electrons =
4 × 2 = 8
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 59

Axial bonds and equatorial bonds are present in which of the given species?

Options:

XeF2

PCl5

CO2

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Axial and equatorial bonds are observed in the species which is sp3d hybridised.

Sol.:

In PCl5 there are three equatorial bonds and two axial bonds.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 60

Shape and hybridization of SF2Cl2 are

Options:

Tetrahedral and sp3

Square planar and sp3d2

See-saw and sp3d

Square pyramidal and sp3d2

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Total number of lone pair and bond pairs on ‘S’ in SF2Cl2 is five.

Sol.:

SF2Cl2 has see-saw shape and central atom is sp3d hybridised

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 61

The species which does not exist, is

Options:

He2

F2

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: If bond order is zero then the species does not exist.
Sol.:

Species Bond order

He2 0

F2 1
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 62

In [ICl2]–, number of lone pair of electrons on central atom is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: I is sp3d hybridised in

Sol.:

Number of lone pairs on central atom = 3

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 63

The molecule which does not contain π bond, is

Options:

SO2

H2S

CS2

C2H4

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Hydrogen does not form π bond.
Sol.: π bonds are present in SO2, CS2
and C2H4 but only σ-bond is present in H2S.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 64

Which among the following has longest bond length?

Options:

C–H

N–O

C–C

C–N

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Larger is the size of atom, longer is the bond length.
Sol.:

Bond type Covalent bond length (pm)

C–H 107
N–O 136
C–C 154
C–N 143
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 65

Total number of resonating structures of ion and O3 respectively are

Options:

2 and 3

4 and 2

3 and 2

3 and 3

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Different resonating structures are obtained by delocalisation of π electrons.

Sol.:

Bond order

has three canonical structures

Bond order

O3 has two canonical structures.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 66

Formal charge on N in the given structure of is

Options:

Zero

+1

–1

+2

Solution :
Answer (2)

Hint:

Sol.:

= +1
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 67

In which of the given molecules octet rule is not followed?

Options:

CO2

S2Cl2

H2SO4

N2

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Octet rule is not applied to the molecule in which the central atom has more than eight valence electrons around the central
atom.

Sol.:

12-electrons around S atom

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 68

The species, having bond angles of 120° is

Options:

NF3

XeO3

BrF3

SO3

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: If central atom is sp2 hybridised then the molecule will be trigonal planar.

Sol.:
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 69

The pair of species having same bond order is

Options:

C2 and N2

O2 and B2

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Isoelectronic species have same bond order.

Sol.: N2 and NO+ are isoelectronic species hence both have same bond order. Bond order of both N2 and NO+ is 3.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 70

Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(species) (shape)
a. NF3 (i) Square planar

b. [ICl4]– (ii) Pyramidal

c. (iii) Bent-T-Shape

d. ClF3 (iv) Tetrahedral

Options:

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Shape of molecule is determined by counting lone pairs and bond pairs around central atom.
Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 71

Which among the following is isostructural with ?

Options:

XeO2F2

XeF4

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: B in is sp3 hybridised (tetrahedral)

Sol.: In 3
central atom is sp hybridised and tetrahedral in shape.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 72

Correct order of lattice energy of the given compounds is

Options:

RbCl > KCl > NaCl

NaCl > KCl > RbCl

KCl > NaCl > RbCl

NaCl > RbCl > KCl

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For a given anion, smaller is the size of cation, higher is the value of lattice energy of ionic compound.

Sol.: Order of ionic size : Na+ < K+ < Rb+;

Lattice energy order : NaCl > KCl > RbCl

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 73

P – O bond order in is

Options:

1.75

1.5

1.66

1.25

Solution :
Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 74

Highest occupied molecular orbital of ion is

Options:

π* orbital

σ* orbital

π orbital

σ orbital

Solution :

Answer (3)
Hint: Electronic configuration of

Sol.: Occupied orbital in ion which has highest energy is: π-orbital .

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 75

The molecule which contains only π-bond(s) is

Options:

N2

O2

C2

H2

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: If the highest occupied bonding electrons are present in π molecular orbitals then the molecule will form π-bond.
Sol.: Bond order of C2 is 2 and consists of both π bonds because of the presence of four electrons in two π molecular
orbitals.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 76

pπ – dπ bond is present in

Options:

SO2

NO2

N2O5

Solution :

Answer (1)
Hint: Central atom containing d orbital can form pπ-dπ bond with oxygen.

Sol.:

In SO2 one of the π bond with oxygen and sulphur is pπ-pπ and other one is pπ-dπ.
You scored -1 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 77

The compound which does not form intramolecular hydrogen bond is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Intramolecular hydrogen bond is formed when hydrogen atom is in between the two highly electronegative (F, O, N) atoms
present within the same molecule.

Sol.: In , intramolecular hydrogen bond does not take place as hydrogen atom is not present between two

electronegative atoms (F, O, N).

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 78

Which among the following is an acidic oxide?

Options:

Na2O

SO3

CO

Al2O3

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: The oxides formed with electronegative elements are generally acidic in nature.
Sol.:

Oxide Nature
Na2O Basic

SO3 Acidic

CO Neutral
Al2O3 Amphoteric

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 79

Correct order of atomic radii of the given elements is

Options:

S > P > Si

Si > P > S

P > S > Si

P > Si > S

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Generally, higher is the value of Zeff, smaller is the atomic size of an element in the period.

Sol.: Zeff is maximum for S and minimum for Si. So, the correct order of atomic radii is, Si > P > S
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 80

Which among the following has positive value of electron gain enthalpy?

Options:

Se

Br

He

Na

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Inert gases have positive value of electron gain enthalpy.
Sol.:

Elements ΔegH (kJ mol–1)

Se –195
Br –325
He +48
Na –53

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 81

Most electronegative element among the following is

Options:

Si

Al

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Along the period, electronegativity increases and down the group electronegativity decreases.
Sol.: Electronegativity order is

C > B > Si > Al

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 82

Correct order of ionisation enthalpy of the given elements is

Options:

B > Be > Li > C

C > B > Li > Be

C > Be > B > Li

Be > C > B > Li

Solution :

Answer (3)
Hint: Because of filled s-subshell, it is difficult to ionise beryllium atom.
Sol.:

Elements Ionisation enthalpy (kJ mol–1)

C 1086
B 801
Be 899
Li 520

 
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 83

Which among the following is not a representative element?

Options:

Sn

Ga

Sr

Sc

Solution :

Answer (4)
Hint: s-block and p-block elements are called representative elements.
Sol.: Scandium (Sc) is d-block element.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 84

Number of anti-bonding electrons in a F2 molecule is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Electronic configuration of

Sol.: Total number of antibonding electrons is F2 = 8

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 85

In SF6, the maximum number of atoms present in a plane is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: SF6 has octahedral shape.

Sol.:

Maximum number of atoms in a plane = 5

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 86

An element X having atomic number 33 belongs to

Options:

s-block

p-block

d-block

f-block

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: The orbital in which the last electron enters determines the block of the element.

Sol.: X[Z = 33] : [Ar]4s23d104p3

X, belongs to p-block

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 87

Correct order of covalent character of the given compounds is

Options:

CaCl2 > MgCl2 > BeCl2

BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2

BeCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2

MgCl2 > CaCl2 > BeCl2

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: For a given anion, higher is the charge by radius value of cation, higher is the polarization of anion and hence greater will be
the covalent character in ionic compound.
Sol.: Correct order of covalent character:

BeCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 88

IUPAC official name of element having atomic number 104 is

Options:

Rutherfordium

Lawrencium

Bohrium

Mendelevium

Solution :

Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.:

IUPAC official name Atomic number

Rutherfordium 104
Lawrencium 103
Bohrium 107
Mendelevium 101

 
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 89

If dipole moment of A-B molecule is 4.8 D and the bond length is 167 pm then the percentage ionic character of A-B bond is
approximately

Options:

40%

80%

70%

60%

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint:

Sol.: μcal = 167 × 10–12 × 1.6 × 10–19 Cm

60%
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 90

Consider the following statements

(a) Br in BrF5 is sp3d2 hybridised

(b) All F – Br – F bond angles in BrF5 are 90°

(c) Percentage s character in sp3d2 hybridisation is 16.67%

The correct statements are

Options:

(a) and (b) only

(b) and (c) only

(a) and (c) only

(a), (b) and (c)

Solution :

Answer (3)
Hint: Lone pair of electrons present on the central atom distorts the structure of the molecule.

Sol.:

• In BrF5, the lone pair present on bromine atom repels Br-F bonds so that none of F – Br – F bond angle is 90°.

• % s character
You scored -1 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 91

Total number of lone pairs of electrons present in SCl2 is

Options:

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Structure of SCl2 is

Sol.:

Total number of lone pairs = 8

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 92

Statement I: O2– and Mg2+ are isoelectronic species.

Statement II: Ionic radius of O2– is larger than Mg2+.

answer from the options given below.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct

Options:

Statement I is false but statement II is true

Both statement I and statement II are true

Both statement I and statement II are false

Statement I is true but statement II is false

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Higher is the effective nuclear charge, smaller is the size of ion.

Sol.: O2– and Mg2+ both have 10 electrons hence they are isoelectronic species.

Effective nuclear charge of Mg2+ is higher than O2– hence ionic size of Mg2+ is smaller than O2–.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 93

Consider the following statements about octet theory

(a) The rule is not applied in BeH2 molecule

(b) This theory explains the relative stability of the molecules

(c) It does not account for the shape of molecule

The correct statements is/are

Options:

(a) only

(a) and (b) only

(a) and (c) only

(a), (b) and (c)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: In octet theory, relative position of lone pairs and bond pairs have not been explained.
Sol.: Since relative positions of lone pairs and bond pairs in a molecule are not known hence
the theory does not explain the relative
stability of the molecules.

You scored 0 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 94 skipped

Cl–O bond is strongest in

Options:

ClO–

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: More the Cl – O bond order, stronger is the bond.

Sol.: Cl – O bond order in is 1.75 which is maximum for the given ions hence Cl – O bond will be strongest.
You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 95

Correct order of repulsive interaction of electron pairs is

Options:

Lone pair – lone pair > bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair

Lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair

Bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair

Bond pair – bond pair > lone pair – bond pair > lone pair – lone pair

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Lone pair-lone pair causes highest repulsion.
Sol.: Repulsive interaction order:

lone pair – lone pair > lone pair – bond pair > bond pair – bond pair.

You scored 4 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 96

The element which shows diagonal relationship with beryllium is

Options:

Lithium

Magnesium

Silicon

Aluminium

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with the element of third period which is present diagonal to it.
Sol.: Li, Be and B show diagonal relationship respectively with Mg, Al and Si.

You scored 0 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 97 skipped

Which among the following elements is called Eka-Aluminium?

Options:

Ge

Ga

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Element present below aluminium in periodic table is called Eka-aluminium.
Sol.: Gallium is Eka-aluminium while germanium is called Eka-silicon.

You scored 0 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 98 skipped

Which among the following is not a metalloid?

Options:

Si

As

In

Ge

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Elements which lie at the border line between metals and non-metals are called metalloids.
Sol.: Si, As, Ge are metalloids while In is a metal.

You scored 0 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 99 skipped

Consider the following statements

a. As2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.

b. Melting point of caesium is 290 K.

c. Metallic radius of sodium is greater
than magnesium.
The correct statement(s) is/are

Options:

a only

b and c only

a and c only

a, b and c

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Melting point of Cs is 302 K
Sol.:

• Metallic radius decreases as the Z-effective increases, Z-effective of magnesium is greater than sodium hence metallic radius of
magnesium is smaller than sodium.
• As2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.

You scored 0 of 4

Chem-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 100 skipped

Which among the following elements belong to Chalcogen family?

Options:

Br

Se

As

Kr

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Group-16 elements belong to chalcogen family.

family.
Sol.: Se is group-16 element, so belongs to chalcogen
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 101

Who classified animals into two groups, on the basis of presence and absence of RBCs?

Options:

Theophrastus

Aristotle

R.H. Whittaker

Leeuwenhoek

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: The earlier systems of classification were based on one or two characters.
Sol.: Aristotle divided plants into trees, shrubs and herbs. He classified animals
into two groups on the basis of presence and
absence of RBCs.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 102

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

Two kingdom classification system was developed by Aristotle

Bacteria are the sole members of kingdom Protista

Members of kingdom Monera exhibit heterotrophic mode of nutrition

Two kingdom classification distinguishes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Unicellular eukaryotes are included in kingdom Protista.
Sol.:

• Two
kingdom classification system was proposed by Linnaeus.

• Members of kingdom Monera exhibit autotrophic as well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

• Bacteria are sole members of kingdom Monera.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 103

R.H. Whittaker proposed

Options:

Three Kingdom classification

Four Kingdom classification

Five Kingdom classification

Six Kingdom classification

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: R.H. Whittaker divided organism into kingdom Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
Sol.: R.H. Whittaker proposed five Kingdom classification system.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 104

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Prokaryotic cell type (i) Methanogens
b. Cell wall with chitin (ii) Plantae
c. Organ level body organisation (iii) Monera
d. Present in guts of several ruminants (iv) Fungi

Options:

a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)

Solution :
Answer (4)
Sol.:

• Methanogens are present in gut of several ruminants.

• Monera includes only prokaryotes.

• Cell wall is chitinous in members of fungi.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 105

Identify the feature present in members of Kingdom Animalia but absent in Kingdom Plantae.

Options:

Multicellularity

Cellulosic cell wall

Holozoic nutrition

Eukaryotic cell

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Animals are heterotrophs.

of Plantae and it is absent in Animalia. Holozoic nutrition is feature of kingdom Animalia and it is
Sol.: Cellulosic cell wall is feature
absent in kingdom Plantae.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 106

Which Kingdom is divided into two domains by Carl Woese while proposing three domain system of classification?

Options:

Monera

Protista

Fungi

Plantae

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Archaea, Bacteria and Eukarya are three domains.

Sol.: Monera was divided into two domain archaea and bacteria.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 107

Members of which of the given groups are simple in structure but very complex in behaviour?

Options:

Fungi

Protista

Monera

Animalia

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Bacteria are soul members of kingdom Monera.

complex in behaviour.
Sol.: Bacterial structure is very simple but they are very

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 108

(i) Presence of Chlorophyll a

(ii) Autotrophic mode of nutrition

(iii) Colonies with gelatinous sheath

(iv) Decomposers

How many of the above features is/are associated with cyanobacteria?

Options:

One

Three

Two

Four

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Cyanobacteria are similar to green plants.
Sol.: Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a and are
photosynthetic autotrophs. Their colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous
sheath.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 109

In which of the given algae, food is stored in the form which is structurally similar to amylopectin and glycogen?

Options:

Dictyota

Laminaria

Gelidium

Volvox

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Floridean starch is structurally similar to amylopectin and glycogen.

Sol.: In members of red algae e.g., Gelidium, stored food is Floridean starch.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 110

Which of the following often form blooms in polluted water bodies?

Options:

Archaebacteria

Cyanobacteria

Desmids

Protists

Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Cyanobacteria often form bloom in polluted water bodies.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 111

Which of the given is a pteridophyte?

Options:

Marsilea

Cedrus

Ginkgo

Sphagnum

Solution :
Answer (1)
Sol.: Marsilea is a pteridophyte.

Ginkgo and Cedrus are gymnosperms.

Sphagnum is a bryophyte.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 112

Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different _______ and this feature is responsible for their survival in
extreme conditions.
Choose the correct
option to fill in the blank.

Options:

Nucleus structure

Mode of nutrition

Cell wall structure

Cytoplasm composition

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Archaebacterial cell wall consists of NAT and NAG.
Sol.: Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a
different cell wall structure and this feature is responsible for their survival
in extreme conditions.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 113

Read the following features.

a. Smallest living cell

b. Lack of cell wall

c. Many are pathogenic

d. No survival without oxygen

Choose correct option w.r.t. characteristics of Mycoplasma.

Options:

a, b and c

Only a

Only c and d

a, c and d

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Mycoplasma are facultative anaerobes.

Sol.: Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 114

Heterocysts are thick walled cells especially for nitrogen fixation, present in

Options:

Anabaena

Azospirillum

Nitrococcus

Rhizobium

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Heterocysts are present in cyanobacteria.

Sol.: Some cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the specialised cells called heterocysts e.g., Anabaena, Nostoc.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 115

Sexual reproduction by adopting primitive type of DNA transfer from one organism to the other is observed in the members of

Options:

Protista

Fungi

Euglenoids

Monera

Solution :
Answer (4)
Sol.: Bacteria exhibit a primitive form of sexual reproduction. It involves transfer of DNA form one organism to the other.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 116

Pteridophytes are used

Options:

As source of iodine

For medicinal purposes and as soil binders

As source of antibiotics

For extraction of agar and algin

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Agar is extracted from red algae.

Sol.: Ferns are used for medicinal purposes and as soil binders.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 117

Chrysophytes

Options:

Include diatoms and dinoflagellates

Are found in marine environments only

Are microscopic planktons

Have well defined nucleus without nuclear membrane and nucleolus

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Chrysphytes include diatoms and desmids.

Sol.: Chrysophytes are microscopic and float passively in water currents.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 118

Choose the incorrect match.

Options:

Archaebacteria – Spirulina

Red tides of sea – Gonyaulax

Chief producers in the oceans – Diatoms

Pellicle makes the body flexible – Euglena

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Spirulina is a blue green alga.
Sol.: Spirulina is a cyanobacterium.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 119

Euglena are characterised by all of the given, except

Options:

Found in fresh and stagnant water

They are only autotrophic

Cell wall is absent

Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b pigments are present

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Euglena is mixotrophic in nature.

Sol.: Euglena is photosynthetic in presence of light and heterotrophic when deprived of sunlight.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 120

The spores of slime mould possess and they are dispersed by .

A and B respectively are

Options:

True wall and water currents

Non-cellulosic wall and water currents

True wall and air currents

Non-cellulosic cell wall and air currents

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Slime moulds are wall-less protists.

Sol.: Spores of slime moulds have true walls made up of cellulose. These spores are dispersed by air currents.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 121

The most notorious sporozoan is Plasmodium which causes

Options:

Sleeping sickness

Malaria

Amoebiasis

Influenza

Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Malaria is caused by malarial parasite (Plasmodium species)

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 122

The sexual cycle in fungi involves all of the following steps, except

Options:

Plasmogamy

Karyogamy

Zygotic meiosis

Embryogenesis

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Process of embryo formation is called embryogenesis.

formation is absent in fungi.
Sol.: Plasmogamy leads to the formation of dikaryon. Embryo
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 123

Choose the correct match w.r.t. plant diseases and their causal agents.

(1) White rust of mustard – Ustilago

(2) Wheat rust disease – Albugo
(3) Citrus exocortis – Virusoids
(4) Chrysanthemum stunt – Viroids

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Virusoids are non pathogenic.
Sol.: Ustilago causes smut disease.
Puccinia causes rust disease in wheat. White rust of mustard is caused by Albugo.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 124

Read the following characteristics and identify the class of algae.

a. Chloroplast may be spiral, cup-shaped, discoid or reticulate.

b. Pyrenoids contain protein besides starch.

c. Some members may store food in the form of oil droplets.

Options:

Phaeophyceae

Chlorophyceae

Rhodophyceae

Cyanophyceae

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Chloroplasts are of various shapes in green algae.
Sol.: Some members of Chlorophyceae may store food in
the form of oil droplets.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 125

Which of the given is devoid of protein?

Options:

TMV

Viroids

Prions

Bacteriophage

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Virus contains both nucleic acid and protein.

Prions are infectious protein particles without nucleic acid.
Sol.: Viroids have free RNA and it lack protein coat.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 126

Double fertilisation is a unique event to which of the given plant groups?

Options:

Bryophytes

Angiosperms

Algae

Gymnosperms

Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Double fertilization is an unique event of angiosperms.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 127

Which of the following diseases is not caused by prions?

Options:

Mad cow disease

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)

Potato spindle tuber disease (PSTD)

CJD (Cr-Jacob disease)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Prions causes BSE, Mad cow disease and Cr-Jacob disease.
Sol.: PSTD is caused by viroids.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 128

Identify the correct statement for lichens.

Options:

These are symbiotic associations of fungus and roots of higher plants

Mycobiont and phycobiont partners are autotrophs

They do not grow in polluted areas

Phycobionts are fungal partner of lichen

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Lichens are symbiotic associations of fungi and algae.
Sol.: Lichens are very good pollution indicators. Mycobiont is
fungal partner of lichen which is heterotroph whereas phycobiont is
algal partner which is autotroph.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 129

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Randle et.al. (i) Contagium vivum fluidum
b. M.W. Beijerinek (ii) Crystallisation of TMV
c. W.M. Stanley (iii) Discovered Viroids
d. T.O. Diener (iv) Discovered Virusoids

Options:

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)

a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Sol.:

• Virusoids were discovered by Randle et al

• Viroids were discovered by T.O. Diener

time.
• W.M. Stanley crystallised TMV for the first
• M.W. Beijerinek demonstrated that the extract of
infected plants of tobacco could cause infection in healthy plants and called
Contagium vivum fluidum.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 130

Select the odd one w.r.t. structure of tobacco mosaic virus.

Options:

Capsid

Capsomeres

Tail fibres

Single stranded RNA

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: TMV contains RNA and capsid.

Sol.: Tail fibres are present in bacteriophage.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 131

How many kingdoms of Whittaker’s five kingdom classification system exhibit both autotrophic as well as heterotrophic mode of
nutrition?

Options:

Two

Three

Four

Five

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Members of kingdom Fungi and Animalia are only heterotrophic while members of kingdom Plantae are autotrophic.

Sol.: According to Whittaker’s kingdom system of classification, members of kingdom Monera and Protista exhibit both autotrophic
as well as heterotrophic mode of nutrition.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 132

Site of meiosis in club fungi is

Options:

Ascus

Zygote

Basidium

Basidiospore

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Members of Basidiomycetes are called club fungi.
Sol.: Karyogamy and meiosis occurs in basidium of club
fungi.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 133

Natural classification system were based on natural affinities among the organisms and consider all the below given features,
except

Options:

Chromosome behavior

Phylogeny

Anatomy and morphology

Embryology

Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Natural system of classification of organism is based on natural affinities and consider not only external but also internal
features like ultrastructure, anatomy, embryology, and phytochemistry. Phylogenetic system focuses phylogeny.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 134

Number and codes are assigned to all the characteristics and the data are then processed using sophisticated computers, in
which of the given branches of taxonomy?

Options:

Cytotaxonomy

Chemotaxonomy

Numerical taxonomy

Karyotaxonomy

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Numerical taxonomy involves usages of numerical methods for evaluation of similarities and differences between species with
the help of computers.
Sol.: Numbers and codes
are assigned to all observable characters in numerical taxonomy (Phenetics).

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 135

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. algae

Options:

They are largely aquatic organisms

These are chlorophyll bearing thallophytes

They are heterotrophic in nature

They are highly variable in size and form

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Algae are photosynthetic.

bearing, thalloid organisms.
Sol.: Algae are simple, chlorophyll
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 136

Which of the given is a colonial alga?

Options:

Ulothrix

Spirogyra

Chlamydomonas

Volvox

Solution :
Answer (4)
Sol.: Volvox is a colonial green alga. Chlamydomonas is unicellular and Ulothrix and Spirogyra are filamentous algae.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 137

Read the statements and select the correct ones.

a. Zoospores are planospores.

b. Spirogyra are filamentous algae.

c. Sexual reproduction is oogamous
in Eudorina.

d. The algae is also reproduce by vegetative method.

Options:

a, b and d

a, b and c

c and d

a and c

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Zoospores are motile spores.

Sol.: Sexual reproduction is anisogamous in Eudorina.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 138

Which one is correctly matched?

Options:

Polysiphonia – Mannitol as stored food

Porphyra – Fucoxanthin

Laminaria – Cell wall with algin

Sargassum – Red algae

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Sargassum is a brown alga.

Laminaria is a brown alga which have cell wall with coating of algin. Polysiphonia has floridean
Sol.: Porphyra have r-phycoerythrin.
starch.

You scored 0 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 139 skipped

Read the following features.

a. They also occur in well lighted regions close to surface of water.

b. They occur at great depths in ocean.

c. Some of them have complex body organisation.

d. Primary photosynthetic pigment is chlorophyll a.

How many is/are correct for red algae?

Options:

Four

Three

Two

One

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Chlorophyll a is primary photosynthetic pigment in all algae.
Sol.: Red algae occur in both well-lighted regions close to surface
of water and also in regions at great depths in oceans where
relatively little light penetrates.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 140

The thallus is dorsiventral and closely appressed to the substratum in

Options:

Funaria

Sphagnum

Marchantia

Polytrichum

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: The plant body of liverwort is thalloid.

and closely appressed to the substratum.
Sol.: In Marchantia, the thallus is dorsiventral

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 141

All of the given pteridophytes belong to class-Pteropsida, except

Options:

Dryopteris

Pteris

Adiantum

Equisetum

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Dryopteris, Pteris and Adiantum belong to Pteropsida.
Sol.: Equisetum belongs to class Sphenopsida.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 142

Select the incorrectly matched pair.

Options:

Mycorrhiza – Pinus

Coralloid root – Cycas

Heterosporous pteridophyte – Dryopteris

Homosporous pteridophyte – Lycopodium

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint.: Homosporous pteridophytes produce single kind of spores while heterosporous pteridophytes produce two kinds of spores.
Sol.: Lycopodium and Dryopteris are homosporous pteridophytes whereas Selaginella and Salvinia are heterosporous

pteridophytes.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 143

Match the columns and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Embryo sac (i) Pinnate leaves
b. Cycas (ii) Aquatic fern
c. Salvinia (iii) Female gametophyte in angiosperms
d. Sequoia (iv) Red wood tree

Options:

a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Sol.:

• Embryo sac is female gametophyte in angiosperms.

• In Cycas, pinnate leaves are seen.

• Salvinia is an aquatic fern.

• Sequoia is also called red

wood tree.
You scored 0 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 144 skipped

Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are
borne on different trees.
Statement B: In Pinus, megasporophylls are clustered to form male cone.

Options:

Both statements are true

Both statements are false

A is true and B is false

A is false and B is true

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Cycas is dioecious.

Sol.: In Pinus, megasporophylls are clustered to form female cone.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 145

The terminal receptive part of pistil which functions as landing platform for pollen grains is

Options:

Style

Stigma

Ovary

Ovule

Solution :
Answer (2)
Sol.: Stigma is the terminal receptive part of the pistil which functions as landing platform for the pollen grains.
You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 146

The transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is known as

Options:

Pollination

Syngamy

Triple fusion

Double fertilisation

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: This phenomenon is seen in spermatophytes.
Sol.: The transfer of pollen from anther to stigma is
known as pollination.

You scored 4 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 147

Life cycle of Funaria and china rose respectively are

Options:

Haplontic and diplontic

Diplontic and haplontic

Haplontic and haplo-diplontic

Haplo-diplontic and diplontic

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Haplo-diplontic life cycle is seen in bryophytes and pteridophytes.
Sol.: Haplo-diplontic life-cycle is seen in Funaria (Bryophyte).

Diplontic life-cycle is seen in china rose (Angiosperm).

You scored 0 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 148 skipped

Which one of the following statements is wrong?

Options:

Algae are primary producers of energy-rich compounds

Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria

Selaginella belongs to Psilopsida

Hydrocolloids are produced by red algae

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Psilotum belongs to Psilopsida.

Sol.: Selaginella and Lycopodium belong to Lycopsida.

You scored 0 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 149 skipped

Read the following features.

a. Ascospores are produced
endogenously.

b. Meiopores are produced in fruiting bodies.

c. Used in biochemical and genetic work.

d. Ascocarps are present.

How many above given features are true for Neurospora?

Options:

Four

Three

Two

One

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Neurospora is a member of Ascomycetes.

Sol.: All of the given features are seen in Neurospora.

You scored 0 of 4

Bot-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 150 skipped

Match the different forms of bacteria with their shapes and select the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Bacillus (i) Spiral shaped
b. Coccus (ii) Spherical shaped
c. Vibrio (iii) Comma shaped
d. Spirilla (iv) Rod shaped

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)

a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Sol.:

are spherical bacteria
• Cocci

• Bacilli are rod shaped bacteria

• Vibrio are comma shaped bacteria

• Spirilla are spiral bacteria

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 151

Radially symmetrical, exclusively marine group of animals belong to the phylum

Options:

Cnidaria

Porifera

Ctenophora

Mollusca

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Possess comb plates

Sol.: Cnidarians and ctenophores possess radial symmetry. Poriferans are mostly asymmetrical and molluscs usually exhibit
bilateral symmetry. Members of the phylum Ctenophora, Echinodermata and Hemichordata are exclusively marine.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 152

Choose the coelomate, dioecious organism among the following given organisms.

Options:

Hirudinaria

Ascaris

Taenia

Apis

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Economically important arthropod

Sol.: Ascaris – Pseudocoelomate, dioecious

Hirudinaria – Coelomate, monoecious

Apis – Coelomate, dioecious

Taenia – Acoelomate, monoecious

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 153

Mesoderm is present between the ectoderm and endoderm in organisms belonging to the phylum

Options:

Porifera

Aschelminthes

Ctenophora

Coelenterata

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Possess pseudocoelom

Sol.: Mesoglea is present between the ectoderm and the endoderm in phylum Coelenterata and Ctenophora. From phylum
Platyhelminthes to Chordata, the mesoderm is present between ectoderm and endoderm.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 154

Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. arthropods.

Options:

All are multicellular

All exhibit organ system level of organisation

All are triploblastic and coelomate

All respire through gills

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Insects respire through tracheal tubes

Sol.: In different groups of arthropods, different types of respiratory organs/ structures such as gills, book gills, book lungs and
tracheal system are present.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 155

When any longitudinal plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two identical halves, it is
called

Options:

Radial symmetry

Bilateral symmetry

Biradial symmetry

Asymmetry

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Exhibited by coelenterates.

of organism can be divided into two identical right and left halves in only one plane.
Sol.: In bilateral symmetry, the body
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 156

Choose the correct match w.r.t. animals and their features.

Animals Features
(1) Physalia – Choanocytes
(2) Euspongia – Metagenesis
(3) Ancylostoma – Muscular pharynx
(4) Pheretima – Statocyst

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Female is longer than male
Sol.: Physalia – Metagenesis

Euspongia – Choanocytes

Statocyst – Aquatic arthropods

Pheretima (Earthworm) – Metamerism

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 157

Annelids are characterised by the presence of

A. Metameres

B. Nephridia for excretion and osmoregulation

C. Dorsal hollow nerve cord

Choose the correct option.

Options:

A and B are correct

B and C are correct

A and C are incorrect

B and C are incorrect

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: True segmentation

Sol.: Annelids possess metameres and nephridia. Presence of dorsal, hollow and single nerve cord is a characteristic feature of
chordates.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 158

Which of the following statement is incorrect for Pila?

Options:

Mantle cavity is present between the hump and the mantle

Respiration occurs through feather-like gills

Body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton

The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Characteristic of arthropods

Sol.: In molluscs, the body is covered by a calcareous shell. Molluscs are usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect
development. In arthropods, the body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 159

All of the following organisms possess water vascular system, except

Options:

Sea lily

Sea cucumber

Sea hare

Sea urchin

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a mollusc
Sol.: Presence of water
vascular system is a characteristic feature of echinoderms. Sea hare belongs to phylum Mollusca.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 160

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. hemichordates.

Options:

Animals possess stomochord which is similar to notochord

Animals are monoecious and fertilisation is internal

Circulatory system is of open type

Respiration takes place through gills

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Zygote is formed in water

Sol.: In hemichordates, the animals are dioecious and fertilisation is external.

Hemichordates are a small group of worm-like marine animals with organ system
level of organisation.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 161

Excretion takes place though malpighian tubules in all of the following animals, except

Options:

Loligo

Anopheles

Culex

Aedes

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Identify a mollusc
Sol.: Loligo belongs to
phylum Mollusca, rest other animals belong to phylum Arthropoda. The Malpighian tubules are present in
insects as excretory structures.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 162

Consider the following statements.

a. Commonly known as sea walnuts
or comb jellies

plates
b. The body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb
c. Digestion is only extracellular

How many statements mentioned above are associated with ctenophores?

Options:

One

Two

Three

Zero

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Digestion is similar to coelenterates
Sol.: In ctenophores the digestion is both
extracellular and intracellular. Comb plates help in locomotion in ctenophores.
Due to more mesoglea, ctenophores are also called comb jellies.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 163

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct answer.

Column I Column II
a. Hooks and suckers (i) Sycon
b. Tissue level of organisation (ii) Meandrina
c. Metagenesis (iii) Obelia
d. Spongocoel (iv) Taenia

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Liver fluke belongs to the same phylum
Sol.:

Hooks and suckers – Taenia

Tissue level of organisation –
Meandrina
Metagenesis – Obelia

Spongocoel – Sycon

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 164

Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.

Statement A: Cnidarians have a central gastro-vascular cavity
with a single opening, mouth on hypostome.
Statement B: Adamsia is sessile and exhibits cylindrical form.

Options:

Both statements are correct

Both statements are incorrect

Only statement A is correct

Only statement B is correct

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Polyp form

Sol.: Adamsia exhibits polyp form only. In coelenterates, the central gastro-vascular cavity is present where extracellular digestion
occurs.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 165

How many animals given in the box below show bilateral symmetry in adult stage and closed circulatory system?

Nereis, Taenia, Wuchereria, Locusta, Branchiostoma, Dentalium

Options:

One

Two

Three

Four

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Character of annelids and chordates.

Sol.: Closed circulatory system is a characteristic feature of members of phylum Annelida and Chordata.
All given animals exhibit bilateral symmetry.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 166

Choose the mismatch w.r.t. scientific name and common name of animals.

Options:

Dentalium – Tusk shell

Balanoglossus – Roundworm

Pleurobrachia – Sea gooseberry

Gorgonia – Sea-fan

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Tongue worm

Sol.: Members of phylum Aschelminthes are commonly called roundworms and Hemichordates are commonly called tongue worms.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 167

Complete the analogy and choose the correct option.

Anopheles: Tracheal system : : Hirudinaria : ______

Options:

Book lungs

Moist skin

Book gills

Gills

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Highly vascularised skin
Sol.:

Annelids – Moist skin

Aquatic arthropods –
Gills

Coelenterates and ctenophores – Body surface

Limulus – Book gills

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 168

Oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed in the ventricle of heart in

Options:

Birds and Mammals

Amphibians and Reptiles

Bony fishes and Cartilaginous fishes

Amphibians and Bony fishes

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Incomplete double circulation

oxygenated and deoxygenated blood get mixed in single ventricle. Birds and mammals
Sol.: In amphibians and reptiles, the
possess complete double circulation and fishes possess single circulation.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 169

Choose the odd one w.r.t. oviparity.

Options:

Macropus

Labeo

Naja

Myxine

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Identify a mammal
Sol.: Labeo is included in
bony fishes.
Myxine is included in cyclostomes.

Naja is included in reptiles.

Macropus is included in mammals.

Mostly mammals are viviparous.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 170

Complete the analogy.

: : Egestion of faeces : ______
Intake of food : Ingestion

Options:

Assimilation

Excretion

Deglutition

Defaecation

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Metabolic wastes are excreted out of the body

Sol.: Defaecation is the egestion of faeces to the outside through anal opening. It is a voluntary process. Deglutition is another term
used for swallowing. Assimilation is the utilisation of nutrients by the body cells.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 171

Identify the incorrect match w.r.t. digestive glands and their location.

Digestive glands Location

(1) Parotid glands – Cheek
(2) Sub-lingual glands – Below the tongue
(3) Submandibular glands – Above upper jaw
(4) Gastric glands – Stomach

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Also called as submaxillary glands
Sol.: Submaxillary/submandibular glands
are present below the lower jaw. They are medium-sized salivary glands. Parotid glands
are the largest salivary glands whereas sublingual glands are smallest salivary glands.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 172

Observe the following given figure of human stomach with labellings A, B, C and D.

Choose the option which correctly labels the pyloric region of the human stomach.

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: It is closer to the superior portion of duodenum.
Sol.: The stomach, located in the upper left portion of
the abdominal cavity, has four major parts – a cardiac portion into which the
oesophagus opens, a fundic region, body (main central region) and a pyloric portion which opens into the first part of small intestine.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 173

Colon of large intestine is divided into which of the following mentioned parts?
a. Sigmoid

b. Transverse
c. Descending

d. Ascending

Select the correct option.

Options:

Only b and c

Only a and b

Only b, c and d

a, b, c and d

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Divided into four parts
Sol.: The caecum opens into
colon which divides into four parts – an ascending, a transverse, descending part and a sigmoid colon.
Colon is the second part of large intestine (largest part of alimentary canal).

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 174

Tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached to the floor of the oral cavity by

Options:

Uvula

Superior labial frenulum

Lingual frenulum

Papillae

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Superior labial frenulum attaches upper lip to maxillary gingiva (upper gums).

cavity by the frenulum. The upper surface of
Sol.: The tongue is a freely movable muscular organ attached to the floor of the oral
the tongue has small projections called papillae, some of which bear taste buds.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 175

_______ is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency.

Fill the blank with a suitable option.

Options:

Marasmus

Kwashiorkor

Jaundice

Constipation

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen.

Sol.: Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories.

pigments.
Jaundice: The liver is affected, skin and eyes turn yellow due to the deposition of bile
Constipation: In this disorder, the faeces are retained within the colon as the bowel movements
occur irregularly.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 176

Castle’s intrinsic factor is required for the absorption of

Options:

Cholecalciferol

Retinol

Cyanocobalamin

Phylloquinone

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Its deficiency can lead to anaemia.

HCl and Castle’s intrinsic factor which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B
Sol.: Parietal cells of the stomach release 12
(cyanocobalamin).

Vitamin D3 – Cholecalciferol

Vitamin A – Retinol

Vitamin K – Phylloquinone
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 177

Identify the structure among the following given options which is a part of large intestine and harbours certain symbiotic micro-
organisms.

Options:

Jejunum

Ileum

Caecum

Duodenum

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: It is the first part of large intestine.
Sol.: Ileum of small intestine opens into
caecum of large intestine through ileo-caecal valve. Caecum is the first part of large
intestine. Caecum harbours few symbiotic micro-organisms.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 178

Select a statement which is not correct w.r.t. liver.

Options:

It is involved in carbohydrate metabolism

It is involved in protein metabolism

Bile is secreted by hepatocytes

Hepatocyte is the structural and functional unit of liver

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Glisson’s capsule covers it.

and functional unit of liver. It consists of a portal triad, hepatocytes arranged in linear cords
Sol.: Hepatic lobule is the structural
between sinusoids and a central vein.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 179

Assertion (A): In a normal adult human, in spite of highly acidic medium in stomach, gastric mucosal epithelium remains intact
and functional.

Reason (R): The mucus present in the gastric juice plays role in lubrication and protection.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

Options:

(A) is false but (R) is true

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(A) is true but (R) is false

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Role of mucus neck cells.
Sol.: The mucosa of stomach has
gastric glands. Gastric glands have three major types of cells namely –
(i) Mucus neck cells which secrete mucus.

(ii) Peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme pepsinogen.

factor (factor essential for absorption of vitamin B ).
(iii) Parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HCl and Castle’s intrinsic 12

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 180

Which one of the following juices secreted in human body is devoid of enzymes?

Options:

Bile juice

Gastric juice

Pancreatic juice

Intestinal juice

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Helps in emulsification of fat

Bile juice activates lipases. Bile juice helps in breaking down of fats into very small micelles.
Sol.: Bile juice is devoid of enzymes.
Succus entericus is also known as intestinal juice.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 181

Lactase breaks down lactose into

Options:

Glucose and fructose

Glucose and glucose

Galactose and glucose

Fructose and galactose

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Only aldohexoses are produced
Sol.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 182

A cartilaginous flap called prevents the entry of food into the .

Fill the blanks A and B with a suitable option.

A B
(1) Epiglottis Gullet
(2) Glottis Gullet
(3) Glottis Epiglottis
(4) Epiglottis Glottis

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Gullet is the opening of oesophagus.

Sol.: A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis – opening of the wind pipe – during swallowing or
deglutition.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 183

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Vomiting (i) The food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness
b. Indigestion (ii) The abnormal frequency of bowel movement and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge
c. Diarrhoea (iii) It is the ejection of stomach contents through mouth

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

a(iii), b(ii), c(i)

a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Diarrhoea reduces the absorption of food.
Sol.:

a. Vomiting – It is the ejection of stomach contents through the mouth

b. Indigestion – The food is not properly digested leading to a feeling of fullness
c. Diarrhoea – The abnormal frequency of bowel movements and increased liquidity of the faecal discharge
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 184

What will be the gross calorific value and physiological calorific value of the food containing 10 g carbohydrates, 5 g proteins
and 15 g fats respectively?

Options:

170 kcal; 195 kcal

180 kcal; 200 kcal

200 kcal; 175 kcal

211 kcal; 195 kcal

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Gross calorific value > Physiological calorific value

+ (9.45 × 15)]
Sol.: Gross calorific value of food = [(10 × 4.1) + (5 × 5.65)
= [41 + 28.25 + 141.75] = 211 kcal

Physiological calorific value of food = [(10 × 4) + (5 × 4) + (15 × 9)]

= [40 + 20 + 135] = 195 kcal

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section A
This section contains 35 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which only
one is correct.

Question : 185

Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
a. Hydrolysis of cane sugar (i) Submaxillary gland
b. Salivary gland (ii) Bile pigments
c. Bilirubin and biliverdin (iii) Sucrase

Options:

a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

a(i), b(iii), c(ii)

a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

a(i), b(ii), c(iii)

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Sucrose is cane sugar.
Sol.:

a. Hydrolysis of cane sugar – Sucrase

b. Salivary gland – Submaxillary gland
c. Bilirubin and biliverdin – Bile pigments
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 186

How many of the following enzymes given in the box below are present in the digestive juice produced by composite gland
located below stomach in upper left region of abdomen?

Trypsinogen, Chymotrypsinogen, Amylases, Lipases, Nucleases

Options:

Two

Three

Five

Four

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Procarboxypeptidase is present in the same juice.

Sol.: Pancreas is the composite gland located below stomach in upper left region of abdomen. The pancreatic juice contains
inactive enzymes – trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, amylases, lipases and nucleases.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 187

Select the incorrect match.

Options:

Brunner’s glands – Sub-mucosal glands

Liver – Possesses two lobes

Crypts of Lieberkuhn – Mucosal glands

Rugae in stomach – Formed mainly by muscularis layer

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Villi in small intestine are formed by the same layer.
Sol.: The innermost layer, lining the lumen of alimentary canal
is mucosa. This layer forms irregular folds (rugae) in the stomach and
small finger-like foldings called villi in the small intestine.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 188

Identify the statement which does not hold true w.r.t. histology of human gut.

Options:

Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which secrete mucus that helps in lubrication

Submucosa is formed of loose connective tissue containing nerves, blood and lymph vessels

Muscularis is formed by smooth muscles

Serosa is made up of a thick endothelium with some connective tissue

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Epithelial cells of outermost layer are mesodermal in origin.

Sol.: Serosa is the outermost layer and is made up of a thin mesothelium (epithelium of visceral organs) with some connective
tissues.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 189

Observe the following given figure and identify the option which correctly labels A and B.

A B
(1) Common bile duct Cystic duct
(2) Common hepatic duct Cystic duct
(3) Common hepatic duct Common bile duct
(4) Common bile duct Common hepatic duct

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Cystic duct arises from gall bladder
Sol.: Cystic duct along with the common
hepatic duct from the liver forms the common bile duct (ductus choledochus).
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 190

The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains

a. Cl–

b.

c. Na+
d. Lysozyme

e. K+

the correct option w.r.t. composition of saliva.
Choose

Options:

Only a, b and c

Only b, c and d

Only a, b, c and d

a, b, c, d and e

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Salivary amylase is also present

Sol.: The saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains electrolytes (Na+, K+, Cl–, ) and enzymes, salivary amylase and
lysozyme. The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity by the hydrolytic action of the carbohydrate splitting
enzyme, the salivary amylase.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 191

Identify the statement which is not correct w.r.t. stomach.

Options:

Pepsin converts proteins into proteoses and peptones

HCl provides acidic pH for the optimum functioning of pepsin

Rennin is a fat digesting enzyme found in gastric juice of adults

Small amounts of lipases are also secreted by gastric glands

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Found in infants

Sol.: Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins. Pepsin is a
proteolytic enzyme. HCl produced by oxyntic/ parietal cells which also helps to kill germs entering the stomach.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 192

Which one of the following statement does not hold true regarding digestion and absorption of food in humans?

Options:

Diglycerides and monoglycerides are broken into fatty acids and glycerol by the action of lipases in small intestine

Chief cells in human stomach secrete pepsinogen

About 70% of starch is hydrolysed by salivary amylase in mouth

Micelles are small droplets containing fatty acids and glycerol

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Optimum pH is 6.8

Sol.: Saliva contains salivary amylase.

Remaining 70% starch is hydrolysed in small intestine, under the action of pancreatic amylase.

Chief/Peptic cells release proenzyme, pepsinogen which upon activation acts as proteolytic enzyme.

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 193

Select the reaction which is correct w.r.t. digestion in small intestine.

Options:

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: It is a disaccharide.

Sol.:

You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 194

How many statements given below are correct w.r.t. the activities of GI tract under neural and hormonal control?
a. The sight, smell and/or the presence of food in the oral cavity can stimulate the secretion of saliva.

b. Gastric and intestinal secretions are also, similarly, stimulated by neural signals.

c. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and intestinal
submucosa.

Options:

Zero

Three

One

Two

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Innermost layer of the alimentary canal secretes them.

canal can also be moderated by neural mechanisms, both local and
Sol.: The muscular activities of different parts of the alimentary
through CNS. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by local hormones produced by the gastric and
intestinal mucosa.
You scored 4 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 195

Read the following statements and state them as true (T) or false (F).
A. Cyclostomes are devoid of scales and paired fins.

B. Members of superclass Pisces possess streamlined body.

C. In Osteichthyes, the male bears claspers.

Choose the correct option.

Options:

A-(T), B-(T), C-(F)

A-(T), B-(T), C-(T)

A-(F), B-(T), C-(T)

A-(F), B-(F), C-(T)

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Fertilisation is external
Sol.: Presence of claspers on
pelvic fins of males is a characteristic feature of cartilaginous fishes. In cyclostomes, unpaired fins are
present but scales are absent. Fishes possess streamlined body.

You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 196 skipped

Choose the correct statement w.r.t. characteristics of Salamandra.

Options:

External ear openings are present

Respiration is carried out exclusively by lungs

Alimentary canal possesses crop and gizzard additionally

Eyelids and cloaca are present

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Lack additional chambers in digestive tract

Sol.: External ear openings are absent in amphibians. In amphibians, the respiration occurs through skin, lungs and gills. Crop and
gizzard are present in alimentary canal of birds.
You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 197 skipped

Match the column I with column II and choose the correct answer.

Column I Column II
a. Air bladder present (i) Bangarus
b. Mammary glands (ii) Ornithorhynchus
c. Neck absent (iii) Bufo
d. Skin cast (iv) Betta

Options:

a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)

Solution :
Answer (2)
Hint: Osteichthyes possess air bladder
Sol.: Air bladder present – Betta

Mammary glands – Ornithorhynchus

Neck absent – Bufo

Skin cast – Bangarus

You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 198 skipped

Read the following given statements and choose the correct answer.
A. Petromyzon is marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.

B. Mammals have two pairs of limbs, adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing, swimming or flying.

Options:

Both statements are correct

Both statements are incorrect

Only statement A is correct

Only statement B is correct

Solution :
Answer (1)
Hint: Bears 6-15 pairs of gill slits
Sol.: Petromyzon shows anadromous
migration. Mammals like Pteropus can fly.
You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 199 skipped

Tympanum represents ear in

a. Calotes

b. Hemidactylus
c. Hyla

d. Rana

e. Pterophyllum

option.
Select the correct

Options:

Only a, b and e

Only a, b and c

Only a, b, c and d

a, b, c, d and e

Solution :
Answer (3)
Hint: Animals with two chambered heart lack tympanum.

Calotes and Hemidactylus are included in class Reptilia whereas Hyla
Sol.: Tympanum represents ear in reptiles and amphibians.
and Rana are included in class Amphibia. Petrophyllum belongs to class Osteichthyes which lacks tympanum.
You scored 0 of 4

Zoo-Section B
This section contains 15 SINGLE CORRECT TYPE questions. Out of these 15 questions candidate can choose to attempt any 10
questions

Question : 200 skipped

Choose the correct statement for saw fish.

Options:

Present in fresh water

Sexes are separate and fertilisation is external

Belongs to superclass Tetrapoda

Notochord is persistent throughout life

Solution :
Answer (4)
Hint: Fundamental character of chordates
Sol.: Saw fish is a cartilaginous fish which
is present in marine water.
In saw fish, the fertilisation is internal.

All fishes are included in superclass Pisces..