Basic Computer Troubleshooting Exam

1. If you turn on a PC and the boot-up process halts, giving you the message: "Non-System disk or disk error....Replace and
press any key when ready", the problem is likely:

a. A non-bootable floppy disk is in the floppy-disk drive and you should remove it

b. The hard-drive has failed and you should replace it

c. RAM has failed and you should replace it

d. A key on the keyboard is stuck and the keyboard should be replaced

2. If you turn on a PC and the system unit is clearly ON, but the monitor is dark, the problem could be that:

a. The monitor is not turned ON

b. The monitor is not plugged in

c. The monitor is not connected to the PC

d. Any or all of the above

3. If a PC freezes or behaves otherwise erratically, and the system unit is very quiet, the most likely cause is:

a. A virus has infected the system

b. The hard-drive is almost out of space

c. The CMOS RAM is failing

d. The power-supply fan has failed and the system is overheating

4. What should you do if you receive the following message:
Cannot find a device file that may be needed to run Windows or a Windows application...zyvxd.386
Press any key to continue?

a. Power the machine OFF, then ON to resync the kernel

b. Replace the hard drive

c. Start Windows and run Scandisk to reload the missing file(s)

d. Press any key to continue loading Windows and, then, either reload the missing file or remove the line in
SYSTEM.INI that loads it
5. Which answer best describes the following:
"g:\progra~1\indexes\mydocs\gregfoot\bigbaby.doc"

a. A line of Grep programming code relating to the bigbaby time constant

b. The location of a file called BIGBABY.DOC which is located in the gregfoot subdirectory on drive g:

c. Programming code which defines a small footprint, mini tower PC

d. An illegal error from a document called Programming for UNIX, which the word processor, DOS, can't find
6. What is a GPF?

a. A hard drive with insufficient available space

b. Part of the Microsoft General Procedures For Windows operating systems

c. A Windows General Protection Fault

d. All of the above

7. The physical part of the PC that keeps track of the hardware resources on the system is the:

a. ROM BIOS Chip

b. CMOS RAM

c. Hard Drive

d. Power Supply
8. For ALL PC generations beyond the first, when most PCs are powered OFF, the clock and calendar in the system:

a. Continue to function because they are powered by an on-board battery

b. Continue to function because they are powered by wind-up spring like a wristwatch

c. Cease to function and must be reset after re-boot

d. None of the above

9. Which of the following contains the PATH variable in an MS-DOS environment?

a. AUTOEXEC.BAT

b. PATHSET.EXE

c. This cannot be set in MS-DOS

d. The PATH can only be set by the System Administrator during times of peak usage
10. What's likely to happen when Windows' System Resources drop below 60%?

a. Intel Pentium CPU chips run more efficiently

b. Anti-viral applications can safely scan system files

c. The system will crash

d. The system will overheat

11. If a user wants to add another adapter card into a PC, the first concern would be:

a. Is the card a "Plug-and-Play" card?

b. Would there be enough hard-drive space for the driver-software for the card?

c. Would the power supply be able to provide enough power for the card?

d. Is there a vacant slot available for the card?

12. Which Windows file loads applications that run when Windows opens?

a. AUTOEXEC.BAT

b. WIN.INI

c. SYSTEM.INI
d. Either A or C above

13. If, upon booting up a PC, you see a message that says: Keyboard error, it could very likely be:

a. The keyboard is not attached to the PC

b. The keyboard has failed

c. Either A or B above

d. Neither A nor B above

14. If, upon booting up a PC, you see a message that says: Invalid drive configuration, it could very likely be:

a. The hard drive cable within the system unit is not attached to the controller

b. The hard drive has failed

c. The hard drive has not been partitioned

d. Any of the above

15. If you add an internal modem to a PC and it does not function, the cause could be:

a. An interrupt conflict

b. A port conflict

c. A memory range conflict

d. Any of the above

16. An external modem connects to a PC via:

a. A docking port

b. A serial port

c. A mouse port

d. Either B or C above
17. What MS-DOS command will make the file SYSTEM.DOC Read Only?

a. MAKE SYSTEM.DOC RO

b. SYSTEM.DOC MAKE RO

c. ATTRIB +R SYSTEM.DOC

d. SYSTEM.DOC is a program file, so it can't be done

18. Which of the following describes the best approach to getting Windows 95/98 booted if it fails because you set the
screen display incorrectly?

a. Delete SYSTEM.DAT and USER.DAT, and restart Windows 95/98

b. Reboot the PC and change the CMOS video setting to low resolution until the problem is corrected

c. Switch OFF the Turbo switch on the PC's front panel and reboot Windows

d. Start Windows in Safe Mode and correct the setting

19. Which of the following best describes the proper way to shutdown Windows 95/98?

a. Close all applications and turn OFF the power switch

b. Press Ctrl-Alt-Del

c. Click Start->Shut Down->Shut down the computer?->Yes

d. Click File->Exit and double-click OK

20. What significance do the "beeps" have during the boot process of a PC?

a. The number of beeps describe the quality of the processor

b. The number of beeps describe the speed of the RAM Chips

c. The number of beeps describe the overall condition of the PC's hardware

d. You can tell how powerful the PC is by the loudness or intensity of the beeps
21. Which of the following best describes the relationship between a network Server and a network Client?

a. A Server executes commands on a Client

b. Servers control Distributed Area Value Independent Driver nodes and Clients control Critical Unified

Resource Transfer stations

c. A Server stores data and applications and may link one or more Clients together

d. Clients generate checksum values that Servers use to verify the accuracy of data
22. Approximately, how long should it take to download a 3 megabyte file from the Internet using a 56K bps modem?

a. 1 hour

b. 15 hours

c. 15 minutes

d. 45 seconds
23. Which of the following could be used to edit a text file on a PC.

a. DOS EDIT

b. Microsoft Windows NOTEPAD

c. Microsoft Windows Write or Windows 95/98 Wordpad

d. All of the above

24. Where is California?

a. Mars

b. The United States

c. Japan

d. Blue
25. What is 2+2?

a. 6
b. 24,232

c. 4

d. True

1. a ... CORRECT
2. d ... CORRECT
3. d ... CORRECT
4. d ... CORRECT
5. b ... CORRECT
6. c ... CORRECT
7. a ... CORRECT
8. a ... CORRECT
9. a ... CORRECT
10. c ... CORRECT
11. d ... CORRECT
12. b ... CORRECT
13. c ... CORRECT
14. d ... CORRECT
15. d ... CORRECT
16. d ... CORRECT
17. c ... CORRECT
18. d ... CORRECT
19. c ... CORRECT
20. c ... CORRECT
21. c ... CORRECT
22. c ... CORRECT
23. d ... CORRECT
24. b ... CORRECT
25. c ... CORRECT
http://mcqspcs.blogspot.com/

Que. Which of the following is not a part of the control panel?

a. Date and time

b. My documents

c. Add or remove program

d. Display

Answer:My documents

B. Remotely wipe the device

Your sales manager has contacted you to report that she recently misplaced her mobile device that may
contain sensitive information. What should you instruct her to do first?

A. Request a new one

B. Remotely wipe the device
C. Call the phone and ask to have it returned
D. Disable Bluetooth on the device
C. Shred them.
You are planning your training and awareness seminars. What should you tell employees to do with
sensitive documents that are no longer needed?

A. Store them in a pile on the right side of the desk.

B. Place them in the laptop bag when no longer needed.
C. Shred them.
D. Place them in the recycle bin for recycling.
A. Use a lockdown cable
Your manager is worried about employee laptops being stolen in the middle of the day when an employee
leaves their desk to get coffee or go to the washroom. What can you do to reduce the likelihood that a
passerby will take a laptop left on a desk?

A. Use a lockdown cable

B. Encrypt the drive
C. Disable booting from the CD/DVD.
D. Log off the workstation.
D. The drive could carry a virus from home to the office
Your company has a strict policy when it comes to USB thumb drive usage in the office. An employee asks
you why he is not allowed to use the thumb drive to carry files from his home computer to his office
computer. Which of the following is the best answer?

A. Thumb drives do not have the capacity to store the data needed
B. The data on a thumb drive cannot be encrypted
C. Thumb drives are too big to carry from location to location.
D. The drive could carry a virus from home to the office
B. A virus that disguises itself as a legitimate program but can actually open a port on the system
Which of the following best describes a Trojan horse?

A. Malicious software that is triggered by an event such as a specific date

B. A virus that disguises itself as a legitimate program but can actually open a port on the system
C. Malicious software that monitors your Internet activity
D. A virus that self-replicates
D. Logic bomb
Bob installed an application on ten computers in the office over six months ago, and the application worked
as expected. On February 12 of this year, the application deleted a number of critical files from the system.
What type of virus is this?

A. Trojan virus
B. Worm virus
C. Rootkit
D. Logic bomb
C. Key logger
While performing a security assessment, you notice one of the systems has a small device connected
between the keyboard and the computer. What is this device?

A. Trojan virus
B. Rootkit
C. Keylogger
D. Logic bomb
B. Kernel-level
What type of rootkit replaces an operating system driver file in hopes of hiding itself?

A. Library-level
B. Kernel-level
C. Application-level
D. Virtualized
D. Privilege escalation
A user logs on with a regular user account and then exploits a vulnerability in the operating system to gain
administrative access to the system. What type of attack is this?

A. Dictionary
B. Brute-force
C. Buffer overflow
D. Privilege escalation
C. Botnet
What is the term for a collection of systems that a hacker compromises and then uses to perform additional
attacks?

A. CompNet
B. HackNet
C. Botnet
D. SurfNet
B. Boot from the DVD/USB.
A user calls you to check out her system because it is performing slowly. You notice not only that the
system is performing slowly, but that the virus scan does not respond when you try to perform a virus scan.
Which of the following represents the best action to take next in order to run a virus scan?

A. Enable the firewall.

B. Boot from the DVD/USB.
C. Disable the NIC.
D. Disable the firewall.
A. Disable booting from CD/DVD
Your manager approaches you and says that she has been reading about the concept of live CDs and how
hackers are using them to bypass security systems. What would you do to help protect your system from
this type of threat?

A. Disable booting from CD/DVD

B. Remove the optical drive.
C. Set a strong administrative password.
D. Implement an account lockout policy.
B. If the NAS device is not configured properly, a security compromise could compromise all the data on
the device.
Which of the following is considered a valid security issue with network attached storage (NAS) devices?

A. The NAS device runs the SMB protocol.

B. If the NAS device is not configured properly, a security compromise could compromise all the data on
the device.
C. The NAS device runs the NFS protocol.
D. The NAS device has a web interface for configuration.
D. Bluesnarfing
Your manager has red that it is possible on older Bluetooth enabled phones for hackers to retrieve all the
data from the phone. What type of attack is this?

A. Bluejacking
B. Bruteforcing
C. Buffersnarfing
D. Bluesnarfing
netstat -na
Identify the command you would use on a Windows system to view all listening ports on the system.
A. lockdown cable
A(n) _____ is a small cable that is connected and locked to the device, which secures the device to the
desk.

A. lockdown cable
B. coax cable
C. CAT-5e cable
D. Ethernet cable
C. Bitlocker
A full drive encryption software feature built into Windows Vista and later OS that encrypts the contents of
the drive and acts as a boot password.

A. Cryptolocker
B. Locker
C. Bitlocker
D. Bitcoin
D. recovery plan
A(n) ____ involves a step-by-step procedures to recover the system, but also ensures that you have
adequate spare parts on the shelf in the server room.

A. emergency plan
B. evacuation plan
C. disaster plan
D. recovery plan
A. vertical privilege escalation
When someone with normal user access is able to raise their privileges to administrative access.

A. vertical privilege escalation

B. horizontal privilege escalation
C. privilege de-escalation
D. diagonal privilege escalation
B. horizontal privilege escalation
When the same level of access is maintained, but the resources being accessed is different.

A. vertical privilege escalation

B. horizontal privilege escalation
C. privilege de-escalation
D. diagonal privilege escalation
C. privilege de-escalation
When someone with administrative access is able to lower their privilege level so that they can access data
that is specific to a user.
A. executable virus
Viruses that are attached to an executable file and activated when the file was ran by a user. Typically
spread from system to system by sharing via floppy disk, flash drive or network drive.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
B. boot sector virus
A serious virus that attacks the boot sector code by overwriting this sector and preventing the system from
booting from the infected disk.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
C. macro virus
A virus that is written using a macro language that performs a malicious action and is triggered
automatically when someone opens the file.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
D. logic bomb
A virus that is planted on a system by installing a piece of software that acts as it is supposed to until a
certain event occurs, such as a specific date or time.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
E. worm virus
A virus that is able to replicate itself without needing a user to activate the virus.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
F. trojan virus
A program that a user is tricked into installing because it appears to be legit and useful, but in reality, it is a
virus that infects the system by typically opening a TCP/IP port on the system to act as a backdoor for the
hacker.

A. executable virus
B. boot sector virus
C. macro virus
D. logic bomb
E. worm virus
F. trojan virus
rootkit
A _____ is a software installed on the system by the hacker that is typically hidden from the administrator
and that gives the hacker privileged access to the system.
A. application-level
A rootkit that is a user mode executable file that gives the hacker access to the system.

A. application-level
B. library-level
C. kernel-level
D. virtualized
E. firmware
B. library-level
A rootkit that is not an executable file, but rather is a library of code that can be called by an application.

A. application-level
B. library-level
C. kernel-level
D. virtualized
E. firmware
C. kernel-level
A rootkit loaded by the operating system kernel and is typically planted on a system by replacing a device
driver file on the system.

A. application-level
B. library-level
C. kernel-level
D. virtualized
E. firmware
D. virtualized
A rootkit that loads instead of the operating system when the system starts.

A. application-level
B. library-level
C. kernel-level
D. virtualized
E. firmware
E. firmware
A rootkit that is stored in firmware code on a system or device and is hard to detect because it is not
present in the operating system.

A. application-level
B. library-level
C. kernel-level
D. virtualized
E. firmware
remote access Trojan (RAT)
is a malicious software, that the user typically installs without knowing it, that opens a backdoor for the
hacker to gain access to the system remotely at a later time.
A. keylogger
Either a software or hardware device that is designed to capture all of the keystrokes on a system.

A. keylogger
B. access point
C. decrypter
D. keystroker
A. bluesnarfing
A Bluetooth exploit that allows hackers to connect to a Bluetooth-enabled phone and retrieve data off the
phone.

A. bluesnarfing
B. bluejacking
C. bluebugging
D. bluenetting
B. bluejacking
The sending of unsolicited messages from one Bluetooth device to another Bluetooth device

A. bluesnarfing
B. bluejacking
C. bluebugging
D. bluenetting
C. bluebugging
A Bluetooth exploit that involves the hacker gaining access to the phone and leveraging its full capabilities,
including making calls, using the AT command set on the phone.

A. bluesnarfing
B. bluejacking
C. bluebugging
D. bluenetting
D. Physical

Shredding document prevents physical threats such as theft of those documents or acquiring information
from them.

A, B, and C are incorrect. Rootkits hide themselves from the OS while allowingprivileged access to a
malicious user. Spyware gathers user computing habits without
user knowledge. This can be valuable to marketing firms. Someone directly observing another person who
is accessing sensitive information is an example of shoulder surfing.
Which type of threat is mitigated by shredding paper documents?

A. Rootkit
B. Spyware
C. Shoulder Surfing
D. Physical
B. Worms propagate themselves to other systems.
C. Worms can carry viruses.

Worms are programs that multiply and self-propagate over the network, and they sometimes carry viruses
(the worm is the delivery mechanism, and viruses must be attached to a file).

A and D are incorrect. Keyloggers capture data as it is typed. Boot sector viruses infect the MBR, not
worms.
Which of the following statements are true? (Choose two).

A. Worms log all typed characters to a text file.

B. Worms propagate themselves to other systems.
C. Worms can carry viruses.
D. Worms infect the hard disk Master Boot Record (MBR).
C. Adware

Adware is responsible for displaying pop-up advertisements pertaining to a user's interest, usually as a
result of spyware.

A, B, and D are incorrect. Cross-site scripting attacks are malicious scripts that appear to be from a trusted
source. The script runs locally on a user station, usually in the form
of a malicious Uniform Resource Locator (URL) that a user is tricked into executing. Worms are self-
replicating programs that propagate themselves. Although spyware tracks personal user data, the
component that results in pop-up advertisements is referred to as adware.
One of your users, Christine, reports that when she visits web sites, pop-up advertisements appear
incessantly. After further investigation, you learn one of the web sites she had visited had infected Flash
code. Christine asks what the problem was. What do you tell her caused the problem?

A. Cross-site scripting attack

B. Worm
C. Adware
D. Spyware
D. A computer program that runs malicious actions

Viruses are applications that run malicious actions without user consent.
A, B, and C are incorrect. Worms replicate themselves. A .vbs file extension does not always mean the file
is malicious. Spyware is defined as a computer program that
gathers user information.
Which description best defines a computer virus?

A. A computer program that replicates itself

B. A file with a .vbs file extension
C. A computer program that gathers user information
D. A computer program that runs malicious actions
C. Privilege escalation

Privilege escalation occurs when a user gains higher rights than she should have, either because she was
given too many rights or because of a security flaw.

A, B, and D are incorrect. A botnet refers to a group of computers under the control of a malicious user. A
Trojan is malware that appears to be benign. Logic bombs are malware triggered by specific conditions or
dates.
An exploit connects to a specific TCP port and presents the invoker with an administrative command
prompt. What type of attack is this?

A. Botnet
B. Trojan
C. Privilege escalation
D. Logic bomb
A. Botnet

Botnets consist of computers infected with malware that are under hacker control.

B, C, and D are incorrect. DDoS attacks can be facilitated with botnets, but they do not gather personal
user information; they render network services unusable by legitimate users. Logic bombs are malware
triggered by specific conditions. Worms replicate and proliferate.
Ahmid is a software developer for a high-tech company. He creates a program that connects to a chat room
and waits to receive commands that will gather personal user information. Ahmid embeds this program into
an AVI file for a current popular movie and shares this file on a P2P file-sharing network. Once Ahmid's
program is activated as people download and watch the movie, what will be created?

A. Botnet
B. DDoS
C. Logic bomb
D. Worm
C. Keylogger

Hardware keyloggers capture every keystroke and store them in a chip.

A, B, and D are incorrect. Smartcards are the size of a credit card, contain a microchip, and are used to
authenticate a user. A Trojan is malware posing as legitimate software; the question is referring to
hardware. The question refers to a Universal Serial Bus (USB) keyboard and port, not a Personal System
(PS/2) keyboard.
A user reports USB keyboard problems. You check the back of the computer to ensure the keyboard is
properly connected and notice a small connector between the keyboard and the computer USB port. After
investigating, you learn that this piece of hardware captures everything a user types in. What type of
hardware is this?

A. Smartcard
B. Trojan
C. Keylogger
D. Personal System (PS/2) converter
B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
Rootkits conceal themselves from operating systems and allow remote access with escalated privileges.

A, C, and D are incorrect. Worms propagate themselves, not rootkits. Privilege escalation is the result of a
rootkit. Privilege escalation does not refer to network software
that uses a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port.
What is the difference between a rootkit and privilege escalation?

A. Rootkits propagate themselves.

B. Privilege escalation is the result of a rootkit.
C. Rootkits are the result of privilege escalation.
D. Each uses a different Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port.
A. They are malicious code.
C. They are made accessible through rootkits.

Malicious code produces undesired results, such as a rootkit providing access to a backdoor.

B and D are incorrect. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
port 25. Windows has an administrator account, while UNIX and Linux have a root account.
Which of the following are true regarding backdoors? (Choose two.)

A. They are malicious code.

B. They allow remote users access to Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 26.
C. They are made accessible through rootkits.
D. They provide access to the Windows root account.
C. Changing the boot order

Changing the boot order means having the ability to boot through alternative means, thus bypassing any
operating system controls.

A, B, and D are incorrect. Changing the amount of Random Access Memory (RAM), Central Processing
Unit (CPU) throttling settings, or power management settings would not compromise server security like
changing the
boot order would.
You are hosting an IT security meeting regarding physical server room security. A colleague, Syl, suggests
adding Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor (CMOS) hardening to existing server security policies.
What kind of security threat is Syl referring to?

A. Changing the amount of installed Random Access Memory (RAM)

B. Changing Central Processing Unit (CPU) throttling settings
C. Changing the boot order
D. Changing power management settings
B. Disable Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports.
C. Prevent corporate data from being copied to Universal Serial Bus (USB) devices unless Universal Serial
Bus (USB) device encryption is enabled.

Disabling USB ports on a system blocks malicious code on infected USB devices. Forcing USB device
encryption ensures data confidentiality of departmental data.

A and D are incorrect. Larger Universal Serial Bus (USB) drives do not pose more of a threat than smaller
Universal Serial Bus (USB) drives. Encryption is not enabled on Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports; it is
enabled on USB devices.
You are the IT security officer for a government department. You are amending the Universal Serial Bus
(USB) security policy. Which items apply to Universal Serial Bus (USB) security? (Choose two.)

A. Disallow external Universal Serial Bus (USB) drives larger than 1TB.
B. Disable Universal Serial Bus (USB) ports.
C. Prevent corporate data from being copied to USB devices unless Universal Serial Bus (USB) device
encryption is enabled.
D. Prevent corporate data from being copied to USB devices unless Universal Serial Bus (USB) port
encryption is enabled.
B. Having Bluetooth enabled
C. Changing the boot order

Enabling Bluetooth itself is not a threat any more than surfing the Web is. Most Bluetooth devices have
security options such as passwords and device trust lists. You cannot change the "boot order" on a cell
phone like you can on a computer system.

A and D are incorrect. Posing as a cell tower means cell phone information and conversations could be
compromised. Most modern cell phones store a lot of important data, and backups (including cloud sync)
should
be considered. Ransomware encrypts the victim's data and normally demands a form of payment from the
victim for data to be decrypted. This is a serious threat for servers, desktops, laptops, tablets, and smart
phones.
Which of the following are not considered serious cell phone threats? (Choosetwo.)

A. Hackers with the right equipment posing as cell towers

B. Having Bluetooth enabled
C. Changing the boot order
D. Ransomware
C. Spam

Spam affects business productivity by consuming enormous amounts of bandwidth and storage space for
unsolicited
messages.

A, B, and D are incorrect. Worms don't send unwelcome messages with the intent of being read (although
they do send themselves). Ping of death is an older denial-ofservice
attack executed by sending many large or malformed ping packets to a host, thus rendering it unusable.
Denial-of-service (DoS) attacks render systems unusable; spammers want our systems to work so we can
read their junk mail.
What is defined as the transmission of unwelcome bulk messages?

A. Worm
B. Ping of death
C. Spam
D. DOS
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)

Network attached storage (NAS) devices are network appliances that contain disks. Client and server
operating systems can access this NAS using various protocols such
as TCP/IP or Network File System (NFS).

A, B, and D are incorrect. Routers do not have disks. Routers route packets between networks. Switches
do not have disks; their primary purpose is to increase network
efficiency by making each port their own collision domain. Wireless routers have nothing to do with disk
storage.
Which technology separates storage from the server?

A. Router
B. Switch
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Wireless router
B. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)

A private branch exchange (PBX) offers telecommunication and data networking services in the form of
hardware or software. PBXs may exist at the customer's or provider's premises.

A, C, and D are incorrect. Ethernet switches do not offer a full range of telecommunications options such as
voice mailboxes and call waiting; instead, they increase the efficiency of a data network. Network attached
storage (NAS) is concerned with disk storage. Routers transmit data between networks.
You are responsible for determining what technologies will be needed in a new office space. Employees
will need a single network to share data, traditional voice calls, VoIP calls, voice mailboxes, and other
services such as call waiting
and call transfer. What type of service provides this functionality?

A. Ethernet switch
B. Private Branch Exchange (PBX)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Router
A. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Botnets (groups of computers under singular control) can be used to dispatch distributed denial-of-service
(DDoS) attacks against hosts or other networks.

B, C, and D are incorrect. Cross-site scripting attacks trick users into running malicious scripts, often in the
form of a Uniform Resource Locator (URL). Privilege escalation means a user having more rights than she
normally would have, usually by means of malware. Rootkits are malware and grant elevated rights while
remaining undetected by the Operating System (OS).
Botnets can be used to set what type of coordinated attack in motion?

A. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

B. Cross-site scripting
C. Privilege escalation
D. Rootkit
B. To prevent a hacker from receiving elevated privileges because of a compromised network service.

In the event that the Windows networking service is compromised, it is important that the service not have
full rights to the system.

A, C, and D are incorrect. Worms can enter networks in many ways, including through privilege escalation,
but this answer is not the best reason to run services with limited access. Depending on the service,
sometimes administrative permissions might be required; other times limited access is sufficient.
As a Windows administrator, you configure a Windows networking service to run with a specially created
account with limited rights. Why would you do this?

A. To prevent computer worms from entering the network.

B. To prevent a hacker from receiving elevated privileges because of a compromised network service.
C. Windows networking services will not run with administrative rights.
D. Windows networking services must run with limited access.
D. Logic bomb

Logic bombs trigger malicious code when specific conditions are satisfied, such as a date.

A, B, and C are incorrect. Zero-day exploits are not triggered by certain conditions; they are exploits that
are unknown to most others and therefore have no remedy. Worms are self-replicating and self-
propagating. Trojans are malicious code posing as legitimate code.
Discovered in 1991, the Michelangelo virus was said to be triggered to overwrite the first 100 hard disk
sectors with null data each year on March 6, the date of the Italian artist's birthday. What type of virus is
Michelangelo?

A. Zero day
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Logic bomb
A. Rootkit
C. Worm

Stuxnet replicates itself, like worms do, and masks itself while running, like rootkits do.
B and D are incorrect. Spam refers to the bulk sending of unsolicited e-mail. Adware monitors user
computing habits to display related advertisements.
The Stuxnet attack was discovered in June 2010. Its primary function was to hide its presence while
reprogramming industrial computer systems (called PLCs), specifically nuclear centrifuges in an Iranian
nuclear power plant. The malware was spread through USB flash drives, with which it transmits copies of
itself to other hosts. Which of the following apply to Stuxnet? (Choose two.)

A. Rootkit
B. Spam
C. Worm
D. Adware
B. Botnet

Botnets are collections of computers under the sole control of the attacker.

A, C, and D are incorrect. The term exploit does not best describe the scenario, although an exploit can
lead to the creation of a botnet. An exploit takes advantage of a vulnerability. A specific condition is not
triggering the code to run, as with logic bombs. Backdoors are typically open doors in computer code that
bypass normal authentication
mechanisms.
A piece of malicious code uses dictionary attacks against computers to gain access to administrative
accounts. The code then links compromised computers together for the purpose of receiving remote
commands. What term best applies
to this malicious code?

A. Exploit
B. Botnet
C. Logic bomb
D. Backdoor
A. Privilege escalation

UAC limits software to having only standard user rights and requires authorization for code needing
elevated rights.

B, C, and D are incorrect. Adware displays advertising messages to users without their permission.
Spyware is malicious code that monitors computer usage patterns and
personal information. Self-replicating worms should be detected by antivirus software.
Windows 8 User Account Control (UAC) enables users to change Windows settings but displays prompts
when applications attempt to configure the operating system. Which of the following is addressed by UAC?

A. Privilege escalation
B. Adware
C. Spyware
D. Worms
A. Memory
D. Network bandwidth

Spyware is software that gets installed covertly and gathers user information without the user's knowledge.
In some cases, users may suspect it is being installed, such as when free software is being installed.
Spyware consumes memory resources because it is normally running all the time. Network bandwidth is
used when the spyware sends data to an external source.

B and C are incorrect. Neither the IP address nor the computer name gets changed by spyware.
Which of the following items are affected by spyware? (Choose two.)

A. Memory
B. IP address
C. Computer name
D. Network bandwidth
D. Juanita's browser configuration is being changed by adware.

Adware attempts to expose users to advertisements in various ways, including by displaying pop-ups or by
changing the web browser home page. Spyware often analyzes user habits so that adware displays
relevant advertisements. Some antivirus software also scans for spyware, but not in this case.

A, B, and C are incorrect. Firefox on Linux does not change the home page every twodays. Denial-of-
service attacks prevent legitimate access to a network resource; Juanita
is not being denied access. The presence of spyware or adware does not imply the user account has been
compromised. Often these types of malware are silently installed when users visit web sites or install
freeware.
Juanita uses the Firefox web browser on her Linux workstation. She reports that her browser home page
keeps changing to web sites offering savings on consumer electronic products. Her virus scanner is
running and is up to date. What is causing this problem?

A. Firefox on Linux automatically changes the home page every two days.
B. Juanita is experiencing a denial-of-service attack.
C. Juanita's user account has been compromised.
D. Juanita's browser configuration is being changed by adware.
C. It can be propagated through peer-to-peer file-sharing networks.

A Trojan is malicious code that appears to be useful software. For example, a user might use a peer-to-
peer file-sharing network on the Internet to download pirated software illegally. The software may install
and function correctly, but a Trojan may also get installed. This Trojan could create a backdoor method for
attackers to gain access to the system.

A, B, and D are incorrect. Trojans don't secretly gather user information; spyware does. Trojans are not
self-replicating on Windows file and print sharing or any other network like worms are; they are spread
manually.
Which of the following is true regarding Trojan software?

A. It secretly gathers user information.

B. It is self-replicating.
C. It can be propagated through peer-to-peer file-sharing networks.
D. It automatically spreads through Windows file- and print-sharing networks.
D. Ransomware

Ransomware makes data or an entire system inaccessible until a ransom is paid.

A, B, and C are incorrect. There are no such things as encryptionware and criminalware. Malware refers to
malicious software.
While attempting to access documents in a folder on your computer, you notice all of your files have been
replaced with what appear to be random filenames. In addition, you notice a single text document
containing payment instructions that
will result in the decryption of your files. What type of malicious software is described in this scenario?

A. Encryptionware
B. Malware
C. Criminalware
D. Ransomware
B. Polymorphic malware

Polymorphic malware dynamically adjusts itself to avoid detection while maintaining its original functionality.

A, C, and D are incorrect. There are no such things as chameleon malware and changeling malware.
Armored viruses prevent software engineers from decompiling the program to reveal the programming
code that makes it run.
What type of malware dynamically alters itself to avoid detection?

A. Chameleon malware
B. Polymorphic malware
C. Changeling malware
D. Armored virus
C. Encrypting hard disk contents
D. Using NAT-capable routers

Encrypting hard disk contents maintains data confidentiality but does not prevent malware infections.
Network address translation (NAT) routers send all internal network traffic to a public network after
translating the source IP address to match that of the NAT router's public interface address. This does not
prevent malware infections.

A and B are incorrect. Keeping virus definitions up to date and scanning removable media will certainly
reduce the likelihood of malware infection.
Which of the following actions would NOT reduce the likelihood of malware infection? (Choose all that
apply.)

A. Keeping virus definitions up to date

B. Scanning removable media
C. Encrypting hard disk contents
D. Using Network Address Translation (NAT)-capable routers
A. Clicking a web search result
B. Viewing a web page
C. Watching a movie in AVI file format
D. Inserting a USB flash drive

All listed items have the potential of infecting a computer. Certain controls might be in place, such as which
web sites can be viewed or which files can execute, but this type of preventative measure must have
existed in place first.
A user complains that his system has suddenly become unresponsive and ads for various products and
services are popping up on the screen and cannot be closed. Which user actions could have led to this
undesirable behavior? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Clicking a web search result

B. Viewing a web page
C. Watching a movie in AVI file format
D. Inserting a USB flash drive
C. Crypto-malware

Crypto-malware gains access to a computer system and encrypts all files.

A, B, and D are incorrect. A virus is an application that performs malicious actions without the user's
consent. A worm is a piece of malicious software that can replicate
itself. A keylogger intercepts and stores every keystroke from the machine it is installed on.
A server at your place of work has had all of its files encrypted after an attacker compromised a device on
the network. Which attack has taken place?

A. Virus
B. Worm
C. Crypto-malware
D. Keylogger
A. Remote administration tool
D. Backdoor

A remote administration tool (RAT) enables an attacker to use the victim's machine as if the attacker had
physical access to it. Most modern backdoors have RAT functionality built into them.

Adware is a program that bombards the victim with advertisements. A logic bomb is a program that
functions normally until a predetermined condition is met, which will cause its malicious functionality to
start.
 After installing a new piece of software from an online web site and then reviewing system logs, you notice
that programs have been running without your consent. You also realize that files have also been added
and removed at times
when you were not using the computer. Which of the following items were most likely used to result in
these logged messages? (Choose two.)

A. Remote administration tool

B. Adware
C. Logic bomb
D. Backdoor

Related questions

Computer General Knowledge Questions

1.       In cyber crimes,

(A) The computer is a tool (B) The computer is a target

(C) Both (A) and (B)   (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Ans: C

2.       Which of the following is not an operating system?

(A) Linux (B) Mozilla

(C) Macintosh (D) Windows

Ans: B

3.       Statistical calculations and preparation of tables and graphs can be done

using

(A) Adobe Photoshop (B) Excel

(C) Notepad     (D) Power Point

Ans: B

4.       Nod 32, Norton and Panda are

(A) Search engines     (B) Operating Systems

(C) Antivirus software    (D) Internet browsers

Ans: C

5.       EDUCOMP

(A)    Reaches out to the entire education cycle – preschool toddlers to post graduate
students

(B)    Delivers the core curriculum subjects at school and college levels as well as
vocational and employability skills

(C)    Empowers with IT education and IT enabled learning

(D)    All of the above

Ans: D

6.       Identify a web browser from the following

(A) Yahoo (B) Internet Explorer

(C) Bing  (D) DuckDuckGo

Ans: B

7.       Which is not a social networking site?

(A) Google Plus  (B) Wink

(C) LinkedIn    (D) Buzz

Ans: B

8.       Which of the following is a wrong direction to guard against a ‘Phishing’

attack?

(A)    Log on to a site by typing the proper URL in the address bar

(B)    Ensure that the URL of the login page starts with http:// and not https://

(C)    Give user id and password only at authenticated login page

(D)    Look for the lock sign/icon and verisign certificate

Ans: B

9.       Which of the following is not suitable for preparation of learning materials?

(A) NETLOG (B) ERIC

(C) PROQUEST (D) UTUBE

Ans: A

10.  Nimbuz, Pidgin and Trillion are software used for

(A) Blogging (B) Chatting

(C) Surfing (D) All of the above

Ans: B

11.  WWWW, in computer parlance, stands for

(A) World Wide Web Worm  (B) World Wide Wildlife Web

(C) World Wide Women’s Web (D) World Wide Women’s Week

Ans: A

12.  One kilobyte (KB) is equal to

(A) 1000 bytes (B) 1024 bytes

 (C) 1024 bits  (D) 1023 bytes

Ans: B

13.  One megabyte (MB) is equal to

(A) 1023 kilobytes (B) 1000 bytes

(C) 100 kilobytes (D) 1024 kilobytes

Ans: D

14.  One Gigabyte (GB) is equal to

(A) 1000 megabytes (B) 2048 megabytes

(C) 2023 megabytes (D) 1024 megabytes

Ans: D

15.  8 bits forms a

(A) byte  (B) nibble

(C) kilobyte (D) None of the above

Ans: A
16.       The Institution set up by the Government of India to provide computer
based information services to government departments

(A) C-DIT       (B) CDAC

(C) NIC       (D) DOEACC

Ans: C

17.       Information Communication Technology (ICT) involves primarily

(A)    Enrichment of existing knowledge

(B)    Installation of equipments

(C)    Storage and communication of information

(D)    Use of technology for teaching

Ans: C

18.       For use of ICT, teachers should be familiar with

(A) Programming        (B) Browsing

(C) Planning       (D) Handling of audio-visual aids

Ans: B

19.       Cloud computing means

(A)    Computing using the satellite

(B)    Computing using cloud chamber technology

(C)    Computing which results in errors

(D)    Shifting computing power from offline PCs and Laptops onto the Web

Ans: D

20.       URL is a term associated with

(A) Computer hardware       (B) Internet

(C) Laser printer        (D) Fax

Ans: B

21.       1 GB is equal to

(A) 10000 KB       (B) 1073741824 KB

(C) 1048576 KB        (D) 100000 KB

Ans: C

22.       Computer virus is

(A)    A micro organism

(B)    A useful computer component

(C)    Electro magnetic waves entering the computer from internet

(D)    A programme

Ans: D

23.       Rohith was asked to prepare a multimedia presentation as part of a seminar.

Which of the following software can be made use of?

(A) Notepad             (B) Excel

(C) Power Point          (D) Adobe Reader

Ans: C

24.       In internet terminology IP means

(A) Internet Provider       (B) Internet Protocol

(C) Internet Procedure     (D) Internet Processor

Ans: B

25.  Which one of the following is not a search engine?

(A) Bing      (B) Google

(C) Yahoo          (D) Windows

Ans: D

26.  CLASS is the acronym for

(A)    Computer, Language and School Studies

(B)    Computer, Literacy and Studies in Schools

(C)    Computer, Language and Secondary Schools

(D)    Computer, Learning and School Studies

Ans: B

27.  SITE stands for

(A)    Satellite Instructional Technology and Engineering

(B)    State Institute of Teacher Education

(C)    Satellite Instructional Television Experiment

(D)    State Institute of Technology and Engineering

Ans: C

28.  ICT (Information and Communication Technology) includes:

(A) E-mail           (B) Internet

(C) Educational TV     (D) All the above

Ans: D

29.  Where was the first computer installed in India?

(A)    Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata

(B)    Indian Institute of Statistics, Delhi

(C)    Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

(D)    Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad

Ans: A

30.  A network that links across metropolitan, regional and national boundaries is
called:

(A) MAN  (B) LAN

(C) WAN  (D) VAN

Ans: C
31.       LAN stands for

(A) Local And National       (B) Local Area Network

(C) Large Area Network        (D) Live Area Network

Ans: B

32.       Which of the following statement is correct?

(A)    Modem is a software

(B)    Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage

(C)    Modem is the operating system

(D)    Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice-versa

Ans: D

33.       Which of the following is the appropriate definition of a computer ?

(A)    Computer is a machine that can process information.

(B)    Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and process both
qualitative and quantitative data quickly and accurately.

(C)    Computer is an electronic device that can store, retrieve and quickly process
only quantitative data.

(D)    Computer is a machine that can store, retrieve and process quickly and
accurately only qualitative information

Ans: B

34.       Information and Communication Technology includes

(A)    On line learning  

(B)    Learning through the use of EDUSAT

(C)    Web Based Learning

(D)    All the above

Ans: D

35.       Which of the following is the appropriate format of URL of e-mail?

(A) www_mail.com (B) [email protected]

(C) [email protected] (D) www.mail.com

Ans: B

36.       Line access and avoidance of collision are the main functions of

(A) the CPU   (B) the monitor

(C) network protocols (D) wide area networks

Ans: C

37.       In the hypermedia database, information bits are stored in the form of

(A) signals (B) cubes

(C) nodes (D) symbols

Ans: A
38.       Communications bandwidth that has the highest capacity and is used by
microwave, cable and fibre optic lines is known as ------

(A) hyper-link  (B) broadband

(C) bus width (D) carrier wave

Ans: B

39.       An electronic bill board that has a short text or graphical advertising
message is referred to as

(A) bulletin    (B) strap

(C) bridge line  (D) banner

Ans: B

40.  Which of the following is not the characteristic of a computer?

(A)    computer is an electrical machine

(B)    computer cannot think at its own

(C)    computer processes information error free

(D)    computer can hold data for any length of time

Ans: A

41.  ICT Stands for

(A)    International Communication Technology

(B)    Intera Common Terminology

(C)    Information and Communication Technology

(D)    Inter Connected Terminals

Ans: C

42.  Which of the following statement is not correct?

(A)    Computer is capable of processing only digital signal

(B)    Computer is capable of analysing both quantitative and qualitative data

(C)    Appropriate software is required for processing the data

(D)    Computer is capable of processing digital as well as analog signals

Ans: A

43.  Which of the following is the appropriate definition of Information Technology?

(A)    Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for

processing information
(B)    Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for
distribution of useful information

(C)    Information Technology refers to the use of hardware and software for storage,
retrieval, processing and distributing information of many kinds

(D)    Information Technology refers to the use of principles of Physical sciences and

Social sciences for processing of information of many kinds

Ans: C

44.  Which of the following statement is correct?

(A)    Virus improves the speed of processing information through computer

(B)    Internet does not allow the virus to spread

(C)    Virus is a part of software

(D)    Virus is an operating system

Ans: C

45.  Which of the following is correct statement?

(A)    Computers can be used for diagnosing the difficulty of a student in learning a

subject

(B)    Psychological testing can be done with the help of computer provided a software
is available

(C)    A set of instructions is called a programme

(D)    All of the above

Ans: D

46.       A parallel port is most often used by

(A) Mouse     (B) Monitor

(C) Printer     (D) Keyboard

Ans: C

47.       Blue tooth technology allows:

(A)    Landline phone to mobile phone communication

(B)    Wireless communication between equipments

(C)    Signal transmission on mobile phones only

(D)    Satellite television communication

Ans: B
48.       Which of the following is an example of an optical disk?

(A) Memory disk      (B) Magnetic disk

(C) Hard disk      (D) Digital versatile disk

Ans: D

49.       Which of the following is(are) an example of storage devices?

(A) Tapes               (B) DVDs

(C) Magnetic disks      (D) All of these

Ans: D

50.       IC chips used in computers are made of

(A) Silicon      (B) Chromium

(C) Lead           (D) Silver

Ans: A

51.       Which of the following is not an example of Operating System?

(A) Microsoft Office     (B) Windows Vista

(C) Unix           (D) Ubuntu Linux

Ans: A

52.       Which supercomputer is developed by the Indian Scientists?

(A) Sequoia      (B) Param

(C) Mira      (D) Jaguar

Ans: B

53.       'OS' in computer system means ?

(A) Open System         (B) Open Software

(C) Operating System     (D) All of these

Ans: C

54.       '.MOV' extension refers to:

(A) Word file     (B) Text file

(C) Image file (D) Movie file

Ans: D

55.  '.MPG' extension refers to:

 (A) Word file     (B) Text file

(C) Image file (D) Movie file

Ans: D

56.  '.INI' extension refers to:

(A) Image file (B) System file

(C) Movie file (D) Word file

Ans: B

57.  Select the odd term out?

(A) Windows        (B) Linux

(C) Unix      (D) Internet

Ans: D

58.  What is the full form of WWW in Internet?

(A) World Wide Web     (B) World Wide Word

(C) World Wide Wood     (D) None of these

Ans: A

59.  Which Command is used to reboot the computer?

(A) Ctrl+Shift+Del     (B) Ctrl+Del+End

(C) Ctrl+Alt+Del       (D) Both (A) and (C)

Ans: C

60.  The blinking symbol on the computer screen:

(A) Mouse          (B) Cursor

(C) Character     (D) Blinker

Ans: B
61.  Father of the computer

(A) Charles Babbage     (B) Vint Cerf

(C) Bob Khan       (D) David Filo

Ans: A

62.  Inventer of Email system?

(A) Alan Turing     (B) Zuckerburg

(C) Vint Cerf     (D) Ray Tomilson

Ans: D

63.  ROM Stands for

 (A) Range Of Motion     (B) Read On Memory

(C) Read Only Memory     (D) None of these

Ans: C

64.  One Terabyte (TB) is equal to

(A) 1000 megabytes (B) 2048 megabytes

(C) 1024 gigabytes (D) 1024 megabytes

Ans: C

65.  Super computer developed by Indian scientists?

(A) Param (B) Cray I

(C) Blue Gene (D) IBM Sequoia

Ans: A

66.  A process used by large retailers to study trends

(A) data selection   (B) data mining

(C) both (A) and (B)   (D) None of the above

Ans: B

67.  Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone

(A) Proprietary (B) Open

(C) Private     (D) Either (A) or (B)

Ans: B

68.  Computers use -------- language to process data

(A) English (B) powerful

(C) decimal (D) binary

Ans: D

69.  The term ‘bit’ is a short for

(A) binary digit (B) binary number

(C) digit (D) byte

Ans: A

70.  Which of the following is not an example of input device?

(A) Keyboard    (B) mouse

(C) Printer     (D) scanner

Ans: C
71.  DSL is an example for --------- connection
 (A) network     (B) wireless

(C) internet    (D) broadband

Ans: D

72.  ------------ is the program that manages  CPU, memory, storage devices and
input/output devices.

(A) Super system (B) Application software

(C) Operating system (D) Control system

Ans: C

73.  Binary language consists of  -------

(A) 2 digits (B) 3 digits

(C) 4 digits (D) 10 digits

Ans: A

74.  What combination of short cut keys will you use to change a text in upper case
to lower case in MS Word?

(A) Ctrl+L              (B) Shift+F3

(C) Ctrl+Shift+A       (D) Shift+Alt+F5

Ans: B

75.  Which Nobel Laureate is also known as the Father of Artificial Intelligence?

(A) Herbert A. Simon       (B) Howard Aiken

(C) Charles Babbage        (D) Alan Turing

Ans: A
76.  The Father of Modern Computer is:

(A) Charles Babbage     (B) Blaize Pascal

(C) Howard Icons          (D) Shanon

Ans: A

77.  UNIX, DOS and Windows are examples of:

(A) Application Programmes    (B) Operating Systems

(C) Word Processing         (D) Commercial Computer Brands

Ans: B

78.  Which is not a search engine?

(A) Microsoft     (B) Alta Vista

(C) Google         (D) Search Bug

 Ans: A

79.  The presentation package and slides are usually presented by:

(A) Power Point          (B) Excel

(C) MS Word           (D) All the above

Ans: A

80.  What is the storage capacity of a single layered Blue Ray disc?

(A) 80 GB        (B) 50 GB

(C) 10 GB        (D) 25 GB

Ans: D
81.  What is the storage capacity of a dual layered Blue Ray disc?

(A) 80 GB        (B) 50 GB

(C) 10 GB        (D) 25 GB

Ans: B

82.  What is the storage capacity of a CD ROM?

(A) 700 MB         (B) 500 MB

(C) 7000 MB        (D) 4.7 GB

Ans: A

83.  What is the storage capacity of a DVD?

(A) 700 MB         (B) 500 MB

(C) 7000 MB        (D) 4.7 GB

Ans: D

84.  Education combined with entertainment is called —————

(A) Simulation  (B) CAI

(C) Edutainment (D) Synchronization

Ans: C

85.  Pick out E-commerce application from the following

(A) DTP   (C) SQL

(C) Tally (D) ATM

Ans: D

86.  Which of the following is not a browser program ?

(A) MOSAIC (B) Windows Explorer

 (C) Internet Explorer (D) Netscape Navigator.

Ans: B

87.  A kiosk offers —————

(A) Digital Certificate (B) Touch Screen Application

(C) Internet Services    (D) None of these

Ans: C

88.  VAN refers to—————

(A) Virtual Analog Network (B) Value Added Network

(C) Variable Address Network (D) Virtual Additional Network

Ans: B

89.  A Laser printer is:

(A) an input device     (B) an output device

(C) both (A) and (B)     (D) None of these

Ans: B

90.  Which one of the following is not a computer language?

(A) Java      (B) COBOL

(C) ASP       (D) LOTUS

Ans: D

http://girdhargopalbansal.blogspot.com/2013/01/computer-general-knowledge-questions.html

Software Testing MCQ

Software Testing MCQs : This section focuses on "Software Testing" of Software Engineering. These Multiple Choice
Questions (MCQ) should be practiced to improve the Software Engineering skills required for various interviews
(campus interview, walk-in interview, company interview), placements, entrance exams and other competitive
examinations.

1. Which of the following is not true about Software Validation?

A. Validation ensures the product under development is as per the user requirements.

B. Validation do not emphasizes on user requirements.

C. Validation emphasizes on user requirements.

D. Validation is carried out at the end of the SDLC.

View Answer
Ans : B

Explanation: Validation do not emphasizes on user requirements is not true about Software Validation.

2. Which of the following is true about Software Verification?

A. Verification ensures the product being developed is according to design specifications.

B. Verifications concentrates on the design and system specifications.

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

View Answer

Ans : C

Explanation: Both option A And B are correct.

3. How many types of software testing exist?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

View Answer

Ans : B

Explanation: Testing can either be done manually or using an automated testing tool.

4. Which of the following is also known as "Behavioral" testing?

A. Black-box testing

B. White-box testing

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

View Answer

Ans : A

Explanation: Black-box testing is carried out to test functionality of the program. It is also called "Behavioral" testing.

5. SRS stands for?

A. System requirements specification

B. System respond software

C. Software respond system

D. Software requirements specification

View Answer

Ans : D

Explanation: Software requirements specification(SRS) document : Functional Requirements document

6. In which type of testing : software is compiled as product and then it is tested as a whole?

A. Integration Testing

B. Acceptance Testing

C. Regression Testing
D. None of the above

View Answer

Ans : B

Explanation: System Testing : The software is compiled as product and then it is tested as a whole.

7. Which of the following white-box testing technique is to set up test cases which covers all statements and branch
conditions?

A. Data-flow testing

B. Boundary testing

C. Control-flow testing

D. Pair-wise testing

View Answer

Ans : C

Explanation: Control-flow testing : The purpose of the control-flow testing to set up test cases which covers all
statements and branch conditions. The branch conditions are tested for both being true and false, so that all
statements can be covered.

8. Exhaustive testing is?

A. always possible

B. practically possible

C. impractical but possible

D. impractical and impossible

View Answer

Ans : C
Explanation: Exhaustive testing is the testing where we execute single test case for multiple test data.It means if we
are using single test case for different product or module under manual testing.

9. Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software?

A. Size of module

B. Function Points

C. KLOC

D. None of the above

View Answer

Ans : C

Explanation: KLOC and function points both can be used as size measurement for measuring the size of the software.

10. Test cases should uncover errors like

A. Nonexistent loop termination

B. Comparison of different data types

C. Incorrect logical operators or precedence

D. All of the above

View Answer

Ans : D

Explanation: Test cases should uncover errors such as all the explained options and much more.

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MCQ on DBMS ( Database Management System MCQ )
October 25, 2021

Database Management System (DBMS) MCQ Questions : 

In this article, we will discuss the most important MCQ on DBMS to acquaint you with the type
of questions asked on Database Management System (DBMS). Here below we provide a list of
Important MCQ on DBMS outlined by our experts who suggest the most important concepts of
Database Management System MCQ for various competitive exams. The Multiple choice
questions on DBMS listed below range from the basic to the most advanced MCQ in simple
words with examples for your simple understanding.

Our DBMS MCQ Question add value to your exam preparation plan and completely transform
your revision process. Practicing the DBMS MCQ online test will not only help you analyze the
examination pattern, question types, marking scheme but also enhance your time management
skills. It is again an important component from the exam point of view. This article will help
you find the vital Introduction to DBMS MCQ Pdf.

Important Points to Remember about DBMS  : 

1. DBMS, commonly known as Database Management System, is an application system

whose main purpose revolves around data. It is a system that allows its users to store data,
define it, retrieve it and update information about the data inside the database. 
2. Charles Bachman along with his team invented the first DBMS known as Integrated Data
Store (IDS).
3. Simply a database is a collection of data in some organized way to facilitate its user's easy
access, management and uploading of data.
4. The reason for creating the database management system was to store large data and these
data can be of any form image, text, audio, or video files, etc. DBMS allows the users to
store and access the data of any format.
5. Basically, DBMS has 3 types of languages as mentioned below: DDL: DDL is the data
definition language used to define database and schema structure using certain sets of
SQL Queries Create, age, truncate, drop and RENAME.
6. DCL: DCL is a data control language used to control users' access to a database, such as
grants and withdrawals using certain sets of SQL Queries.
7. DML: DML is a language manipulation language that is used to manipulate a database,
including select, insert, delete, and update using certain sets of SQL queries such as entry,
deletion, etc.
8. RDBMS is a relational database management system that contains data in the form of
tables and the data is accessed based on common fields between tables.
DBMS MCQ Questions and Answers  : 
1. A database is an organized collection of_______________

(a) data

(b) Attributes

(c) Record

(d) None of the above

Answer: A

2. A database management system (DBMS) is a________

(a) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide controlled access to a database

(b) Hardware system used to create, maintain and provide uncontrolled access to a database

(c) Software systems used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database

(d) Software systems used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database

Answer: D

Read : MCQ on Computer Hardware and Software 

3. Database management system (DBMS) is a___________

(a) DBMS is a collection of queries

(b) DBMS is a high-level language

(c) DBMS is a programming language

(d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data

(e) None of the above

Answer: D

4. A Database Management System (DBMS) is_____________

(a) collection of data describing one particular enterprise

(b) collection of programs to access data

(c) collection of interrelated data

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Read : MS Word Quiz 

5. What is the full form of DBMS?

(a) Data of Binary Management System

(b) Database Management System

(c) Database Management Service

(d) Data Backup Management System

Answer: B

6. Which of the following is not a database programs?

(a) MySQL

(b) Oracle

(c) Writer

(d) OObase

Answer: C
Read : MCQ on Internet of Things (IoT)

7. What is DBMS?

(a) DBMS is a collection of queries

(b) DBMS is a high-level language

(c) DBMS is a programming language

(d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data

Answer: D

8. Which of the following is not the advantage of database?

(a) Sharing of Data

(b) Reduce Data Redundancy

Related: MS Word MCQ with Answers Pdf

(c) Increase Data Inconsistency

(d) Data Security

Answer: C

Read : MCQ on Operating System 

9. Who created the first DBMS?

(a) Edgar Frank Codd

(b) Charles Bachman

(c) Charles Babbage

(d) Sharon B. Codd

Answer: B

10. When data is stored, maintained and retrieved from multiple tables then special
database software are required called______
(a) DBMS

(b) RDBMS

(c) Special DBMS

(d) All of the above

Answer: B

11. Which type of data can be stored in the database?

(a) Image oriented data

(b) Text, files containing data

(c) Data in the form of audio or video

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

12. SQL stands for_________________

(a) Structured Queue Language

(b) Structured Query Language

(c) Structured Query Lang

(d) None of the above

Answer: B

13. In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system?

(a) Image

(b) Text

(c) Table

(d) Graph
Answer: C

14. _______________ are the basic building blocks of a database.

(a) Tables

(b) Record

(c) Fields

(d) All of the above

Answer: A

15. Which of the following is not a type of database?

(a) Hierarchical

(b) Network

(c) Distributed

(d) Decentralized

Answer: D

16. A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ____

(a) Oracle Corporation’s Oracle

(b) Microsoft’s SQL Server

(c) Microsoft’s Access

(d) None of these

Answer: C

17. __________ are used to identify which type of data we are going to store in the
database.
Related: Multiple Choice Questions on IoT with Answers

(a) Datatype

(b) Record

(c) Table

(d) Attributes

Answer: A

18. DBMS helps to achieve_________

(a) Data independence

(b) More redundancy

(c) Centralized manner to control of data

(d) Both a and c

Answer: D

19. Which of the following is not an example of DBMS?

(a) MySQL

(b) Microsoft Acess

(c) IBM DB2

(d) Google

Answer: D

20. Which of the following is / are the primary features of a DBMS?

(a) To provide an environment that is congenial to the user

(b) To store the information

(c) To retrieve information

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

21. Which of the following is a feature of DBMS?

(a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data

(b) High Level of Security

(c) Single-user Access only

(d) Support ACID Property

Answer: C

22. A database management system____________

(a) Allows simultaneous access to multiple files

(b) Can do more than a record management system

(c) Is a collection of programs for managing data into a single file

(d) Both a and b

Answer: D

23. Which data type will be appropriate to store information as Salary, Fees, Price etc.

(a) Alphanumeric Data types

(b) Numeric Data type

(c) Binary Data types

(d) Date Time

Answer: B
24. External database is_________

(a) Database created using DBMS package

(b) Database created in MS-Word

(c) Database created in EXCEL

(d) All of the above

Answer: A

25. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?

(a) Storing data

(b) Providing multi-users access control

(c) Data Integrity

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

Related: Digital Electronics MCQs For GATE

26. The method of file organization in which data records in a file are arranged in a
specified order according to key field is known as the

(a) Sequential access method

(b) Queuing method

(c) Predetermined method

(d) Direct access method

Answer: A

27. _______ data types are used for storing photos, music files etc

(a) Binary
(b) Alphanumeric

(c) Numeric

(d) Special

Answer: A

28. A logical schema_____________

(a) Is the entire database.

(b) describe data in terms of relational tables and columns, object-oriented classes, and XML
tags.

(cl Describes how data is actually stored on disk.

(d) Both (A) and (C)

Answer: A

29. SET concept is used in_____________

(a) Network Model

(b) Hierarchical Model

(c) Relational Model

(d) None of these

Answer: A

30. An advantage of the database management approach is___________

(a) Data is dependent on programs.

(b) Data redundancy increases.

(c) Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.

(d) None of the above

Answer: C

31. The database environment has all of the following components except:

(a) Users.

(b) Separate files

(c) Database.

(d) Database administrator

Answer: B

32. DBMS helps to achieve____________

(a) Data independence.

(b) Centralized control of data.

(c) Control redundancy.

(d) All of the above.

Answer: D

33. Conceptual design____________

(a) Is a documentation technique.

(b) Needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the database.

(c) Involves modeling independent of the DBMS

(d) Is designing the relational model.

Answer: C

34. A DBMS query language is designed to___________

(a) Support end users who use English-like commands

(b) Support in the development of complex applications software.

Related: MCQ on Digital Signature with Answers Pdf

(c) Specify the structure of a database.

(d) All of the above.

Answer: D

35. The property / properties of a database is / are:

(a) It is an integrated collection of logically related records.

(b) It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.

(c) Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it.

(d) All of the above

Answer: D

36. Which one of the following statements is false?

(a) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.

(b) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

(c) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.

(d) The data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

Answer: B

37. It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are______________

(a) Stringent real-time requirements

(b) Multiple users wish to access the data

(c) Complex relationships among data

(d) All of the above.

Answer: B

38. Given the basic ER and relational model which of the following is incorrect?

(a) An entity can have more than one attribute

(b) An attribute of an entity can be composite.

(c) In row of a relational table, an attribute have more than one value.

(d) In row of a relational table, an attribute can have exactly one value or a NULL value.

Answer: C

Important Points to Remember about DBMS ( Database

Management System)
Definition  of DBMS : 

A database management system (DBMS) is a Software systems used to create, maintain, and
provide controlled access to a database.

What is DBMS : 

1. A DBMS is computer software that defines, edits, receives and manages the received data
on the basis of available parameters. Generally a DBMS handles the data format, field
name, record structure and file structure etc. like; MySQL, Microsoft Access, Oracle etc.
2. The full form of DBMS is Database Management System. 
3. The importance of database has increased in this present information age. Therefore,
databases are prepared in banks, railways, schools, business and various government
offices.
4. With a database, we can easily analyze the data, so that both the user and the programmer
can organize the available data in a better way. By analyzing which it becomes easy to
arrive at a problem or prediction.
5. In meteorology, space science, medical field, data plays an important role in predicting
and catching a particular pattern. It acts as a fuel in these areas.
6. The size, capacity and performance of the database are increasing in their respective
orders of magnitude. The main reason for the increase in the performance of the database
was the progress in computer processor, memory and technology.
Read : A database management system is MCQ 

Properties of Database  : 

Based on the data-model or structure of the technological development of the database, it can be
divided into three properties: navigational, relational, post-relational.

1. The Navigational Data Model in its early stages consisted of two main Hierarchical
Models and the CODASYL (Network Model).
2. The relational model was first proposed in 1970. The relational model employs a ledger-
style table set to be used for different types of entity.
3. Relational systems began to be used in large-scale data processing experiments in the
1990s. And by the year 2018, IBM, DBM2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server
are the most searched DBMS servers.

Object databases were developed to overcome the inconvenience of impedance mismatches.

Due to which the development of object-relational-database was also done along with post-
relational. After that till the year 2000, the new generation of relational database was recognized
as NoSQL database. NoSQL databases provide fast Value-Store as well as Document-
Orientation. To fully understand the Database Management System, it is very important for us to
know the definitions of its other elements. which is the following.

1. Database – This is a well organized collection of similar data. By which data can be
easily obtained, created, edited. Also it is possible to store it in the format of table,
schema, report etc.
2. Data – Various types of information about any object or idea is called data. This
information is uncertain which is processed and converted into information. It doesn't
make much sense. It is also called raw information in common language.

Physically database servers are called dedicated computers, which run only DBMS software
based on the actual database. Generally database servers are multiprocessor computers. In which
Raid Disk arrays are used for storage as well as fixed memory. Raid Disk is used for data
recovery when a disk fails.

Types of DBMS : 

1. Network Database
2. Hierarchical Database
3. Relational Database
4. Object-Oriented Database

1. Network Database : 

The network database is represented as a record. In which the relationship between one data to
another data is shown as a link. In this model it is possible to represent a record with different
categories. That is, a child has many fathers. These models are used to represent complex
relationships.

2. Hierarchical Database : 

This database is managed in the form of a tree-structure (father-son) with nodes connected
through links. top-bottom or top-bottom. In this model, the parent can handle multiple children.
But, a child has only one father.

3. Relational Database : 

Relational databases are also known as structure databases. In which data is represented in table
format like Excel Rows & Columns. This database model is the most commonly used. Because
it is the easiest model. It stores data in a fixed-structure that can be edited by SQL.

4. Object-Oriented Database : 

This model stores the data in object form. Its structure is called class which represents the data.
It displays data as a collection of objects.

Functions of a DBMS : 

Various types of functions are present in DBMS, with the help of which the database and the
data in it are managed. There are mainly four functions. The details of which are as follows.

1. Data Defining – Tasks like creation, modification, etc., by which data can be organized in
a better way.
2. Updating data – The actual data can be inserted, modified and deleted by the functions
present in the DBMS.
3. Data Backup – DBMS is a powerful software with which we can easily backup the stored
file.
4. Administration – With the help of this function, the user registers, monitors, data security,
etc., as well as recovers that data, which sometimes suddenly gets lost in the event of
System Failure.

Set:- 1 MCQ on DBMS

Instruction: From the four options, choose the most appropriate answer.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark (Total 96 marks)
1. In the relational model, cardinality is termed as:
(A) A number of tuples.
(B) A number of attributes.
(C) A number of tables.
(D) A number of constraints.

Ans: A
2. Relational calculus is a
(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non- Procedural language.
(C) Data definition language.
(D) High-level language.

Ans: B
3. The view of total database content is
(A) Conceptual view.
(B) Internal view.
(C) External view.
(D) Physical View.

Ans: A
4. Cartesian product in relational algebra is
(A) a Unary operator.
(B) a Binary operator.
(C) a Ternary operator.
(D) not defined.

Ans: B 
5. DML is provided for
(A) Description of the logical structure of a database.
(B) The addition of new structures in the database system.
(C) Manipulation & processing of the database.
(D) Definition of a physical structure of the database system.

Ans: C
6.  ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for
(A) Selection operation.
(B) Rename operation.
(C) Join operation.
(D) Projection operation.

Ans: B
7.  ODBC stands for
(A) Object Database Connectivity.
(B) Oral Database Connectivity.
(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.
(D) Open Database Connectivity.

Ans: D
Q.8 Architecture of the database can be viewed as
(A) two levels.
(B) four levels.
(C) three levels.
(D) one level.

Ans: C
Q.9 In a relational model, relations are termed as
(A) Tuples.
(B) Attributes
(C) Tables.
(D) Rows.

Ans: C
Q.10 The database schema is written in
(A) HLL
(B) DML
(C) DDL
(D) DCL

Ans: C
Q.11 In the architecture of a database system external level is the
(A) physical level.
(B) logical level.
(C) conceptual level
(D) view level.

Ans: D
Q.12 An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
(A) strong entity set.
(B) weak entity set.
(C) simple entity set.
(D) primary entity set.

Ans: B
Q.13 In Hierarchical model records are organised as
(A) Graph.
(B) List.
(C) Links.
(D) Tree.

Ans: D
Q.14 In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
(A) rectangle.
(B) square.
(C) ellipse.
(D) triangle.

Ans: C
Q.15 In case of entity integrity, the primary key maybe
(A) not Null
(B) Null
(C) both Null & not Null.
(D) any value.

Ans: A
Q.16 In tuple relational calculus P1 ®P2 is equivalent to
(A) ¬P1 Ú P2
(B) P1 Ú P2
(C) P1 Ù P2
(D) P1 Ù¬P2
Ans: A
Q.17 The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as
the
(A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) VDL
(D) SDL

Ans: A
Q.18 A logical schema
(A) is the entire database.
(B) is a standard way of organising information into accessible parts.
(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
(D) both (A) and (C)

Ans: A
Q.19 Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
(A) data file.
(B) data record.
(C) menu.
(D) bank.

Ans: B
Q.20 The database environment has all of the following components except:
(A) users.
(B) separate files.
(C) database.
(D) database administrator.

Ans: A.
Set:- 2 MCQ on DBMS.

Q.21 The language which has recently become the defacto standard for interfacing application
programs with relational database system is
(A) Oracle.
(B) SQL.
(C) DBase.
(D) 4GL.

Ans: B
Q.22 The way a particular application views the data from the database that the application uses
is a
(A) module.
(B) relational model.
(C) schema.
(D) subschema.

Ans: D
Q.23 In an E-R diagram an entity set is represented by a
(A) rectangle.
(B) ellipse.
(C) diamond box.
(D) circle.

Ans: A
Q.24 A report generator is used to
(A) update files.
(B) print files on paper.
(C) data entry.
(D) delete files.

Ans: B
Q.25 The property/properties of a database is/are:
(A) It is an integrated collection of logically related records.
(B) It consolidates separate files into a common pool of data records.
(C) Data stored in a database is independent of the application programs using it.
(D) All of the above.

Ans: D
Q.26 The DBMS language component which can be embedded in a program is
(A) The data definition language (DDL).
(B) The data manipulation language (DML).
(C) The database administrator (DBA).
(D) A query language.

Ans: B
Q.27 A relational database developer refers to a record as
(A) Criteria.
(B) a relation.
(C) a tuple.
(D) an attribute.

Ans: C
Q.28 The relational model feature is that there
(A) is no need for primary key data.
(B) is much more data independence than some other database models.
(C) are explicit relationships among records.
(D) are tables with many dimensions.

Ans: B
Q.29 Conceptual design
(A) is a documentation technique.
(B) needs data volume and processing frequencies to determine the size of the database.
(C) involves modelling independent of the DBMS.
(D) is designing the relational model.

Ans:C
Q.30 The method in which records are physically stored in a specified order according to a key
field in each record is
(A) hash.
(B) direct.
(C) sequential.
(D) all of the above.

Ans: A
Q.31 A subschema expresses
(A) the logical view.
(B) the physical view.
(C) the external view.
(D) all of the above.
Ans: C
Q.32 Count function in SQL returns the number of
(A) values.
(B) distinct values.
(C) groups.
(D) columns.

Ans: A
Q.33 Which one of the following statements is false?
(A) The data dictionary is normally maintained by the database administrator.
(B) Data elements in the database can be modified by changing the data dictionary.
(C) The data dictionary contains the name and description of each data element.
(D) A data dictionary is a tool used exclusively by the database administrator.

Ans: B
Q.34 An advantage of the database management approach is
(A) data is dependent on programs.
(B) data redundancy increases.
(C) data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs.
(D) none of the above.

Ans: C
Q.35 A DBMS query language is designed to
(A) support end-users who use English-like commands.
(B) support in the development of complex applications software.
(C) specify the structure of a database.
(D) all of the above.

Ans: D
Q.36 Transaction processing is associated with everything below except
(A) producing detail, summary, or exception reports.
(B) recording a business activity.
(C) confirming an action or triggering a response.
(D) maintaining data.

Ans: C
Q.37 It is possible to define a schema completely using
(A) VDL and DDL.
(B) DDL and DML.
(C) SDL and DDL.
(D) VDL and DML.

Ans: B
Q.38 The method of access which uses key transformation is known as
(A) direct.
(B) hash.
(C) random.
(D) sequential.

Ans: B
Q.39 Data independence me Ans
(A) data is defined separately and not included in programs.
(B) programs are not dependent on the physical attributes of data.
(C) programs are not dependent on the logical attributes of data.
(D) both (B) and (C).

Ans: D both (B) and (C)

Q.40 The statement in SQL which allows changing the definition of a table is
(A) Alter.
(B) Update.
(C) Create.
(D) select.

Ans: A.
Set:- 3 MCQ on DBMS

Q.41 E-R model uses this symbol to represent a weak entity set?
(A) Dotted rectangle.
(B) Diamond
(C) Doubly outlined rectangle
(D) None of these
Ans: C
Q.42 SET concept is used in:
(A) Network Model
(B) Hierarchical Model
(C) Relational Model
(D) None of these

Ans: A
Q.43 Relational Algebra is
(A) Data Definition Language.
(B) Meta Language
(C) Procedural Query Language
(D) None of the above

Ans: C
Q.44 Key to represent the relationship between tables is called
(A) Primary key
(B) Secondary Key
(C) Foreign Key
(D) None of these

Ans: C
Q.45 _______ produces the relation that has attributes of R1 and R2
(A) Cartesian product
(B) Difference
(C) Intersection
(D) Product

Ans: A
Q.46 The file organisation that provides very fast access to any arbitrary record of a file is
(A) Ordered file
(B) Unordered file
(C) Hashed file
(D) B-tree

Ans: C
Q.47 DBMS helps achieve
(A) Data independence
(B) Centralised control of data
(C) Neither (A) or (B)
(D) both (A) and (B)

Ans: D
Q.48 Which of the following are the properties of entities?
(A) Groups
(B) Table
(C) Attributes
(D) Switchboards

Ans: C
Q.49 In a relation
(A) Ordering of rows is immaterial
(B) No two rows are identical
(C) (A) and (B) both are true
(D) None of these.

Ans: C
Q.50 Which of the following is correct:
(A) a SQL query automatically eliminates duplicates.
(B) SQL permits attribute names to be repeated in the same relation.
(C) a SQL query will not work if there are no indexes on the relations
(D) None of these

Ans: D
Q.51 It is better to use files than a DBMS when there are
(A) Stringent real-time requirements.
(B) Multiple users wish to access the data.
(C) Complex relationships among data.
(D) All of the above.

Ans: B
Q.52 The conceptual model is
(A) dependent on hardware.
(B) dependent on software.
(C) dependent on both hardware and software.
(D) independent of both hardware and software.

Ans: D
Q.53 What is a relationship called when it is maintained between two entities?
(A) Unary
(B) Binary
(C) Ternary
(D) Quaternary

Ans: B
Q.54 Which of the following operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a
table?
(A) PROJECTION
(B) SELECTION
(C) UNION
(D) JOIN

Ans: A
Q.55 Which of the following is a valid SQL type?
(A) CHARACTER
(B) NUMERIC
(C) FLOAT
(D) All of the above

Ans: D
Q.56 The RDBMS terminology for a row is
(A) tuple.
(B) relation.
(C) attribute.
(D) degree.

Ans: A
Q.57 Which of the following operations need the participating relations to be union compatible?
(A) UNION
(B) INTERSECTION
(C) DIFFERENCE
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
Q.58 The full form of DDL is
(A Dynamic Data Language
(B) Detailed Data Language
(C) Data Definition Language
(D) Data Derivation Language

Ans: C
Q.59 Which of the following is an advantage of view?
(A) Data security
(B) Derived columns
(C) Hiding of complex queries
(D) All of the above

Ans: D
Q.60 Which of the following is a legal expression in SQL?
(A) SELECT NULL FROM EMPLOYEE;
(B) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE;
(C) SELECT NAME FROM EMPLOYEE WHERE SALARY = NULL;
(D) None of the above

Ans: B
Set:- 4 MCQ on DBMS

Q.61 The users who use the easy-to-use menu are called
(A) Sophisticated end users.
(B) Naïve users.
(C) Stand-alone users.
(D) Casual end users.

Ans: B
Q.62 Which database level is closest to the users?
(A) External
(B) Internal
(C) Physical
(D) Conceptual

Ans: A
Q.63 Which are the two ways in which entities can participate in a relationship?
(A) Passive and active
(B) Total and partial
(C) Simple and Complex
(D) All of the above

Ans: B
Q.64 The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes
(A) all the tuples of R1
(B) all the tuples of R2
(C) all the tuples of R1 and R2
(D) all the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns

Ans: D
Q.65 Which of the following is a comparison operator in SQL?
(A) =  
(B) LIKE
(C) BETWEEN
(D) All of the above

Ans: D
Q.66 A set of possible data values is called
(A) attribute.
(B) degree.
(C) tuple.
(D) domain.

Ans: D
Q.67 Which of the operations constitute a basic set of operations for manipulating relational
data?
(A) Predicate calculus
(B) Relational calculus
(C) Relational algebra
(D) None of the above
Ans:C
Q.68 Which of the following is another name for the weak entity?
(A) Child
(B) Owner
(C) Dominant
(D) All of the above

Ans: A
Q.69 Which of the following database object does not physically exist?
(A) base table
(B) index
(C) view
(D) none of the above

Ans: C
Q.70 NULL is
(A) the same as 0 for integer
(B) the same as blank for character
(C) the same as 0 for integer and blank for character
(D) not a value

Ans: D
Q.71 Which of the following is a record based logical model?
(A) Network Model
(B) Object-oriented model
(C) E-R Model
(D) None of these

Ans: A
Q.72 A data dictionary is a special file that contains:
(A) The name of all fields in all files.
(B) The width of all fields in all files.
(C) The data type of all fields in all files.
(D) All of the above.

Ans: D
Q.73 A file manipulation command that extracts some of the records from a file is called
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT

Ans: A
Q.74 The physical location of a record is determined by a mathematical formula that transforms
a file key into a record location is:
(A) B-Tree File
(B) Hashed File
(C) Indexed File
(D) Sequential file.

Ans: B
Q.75 Using Relational Algebra the query that finds customers, who have a balance of over 1000
is
(A) P Customer_name (S balance >1000 (Deposit))
(B) S Customer_name (P balance >1000 (Deposit))
(C) P Customer_name (S balance >1000 (Borrow))
(D) S Customer_name (P balance >1000 (Borrow))

Ans: A
Q.76 A primary key is combined with a foreign key creates
(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
(B) Many to many relationships between the tables that connect them.
(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.
(D) None of the above.

Ans: A
Q.77 In E-R Diagram derived attribute is represented by
(A) Ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle

Ans: B
Q.78 Cross Product is a:
(A) Unary Operator
(B) Ternary Operator
(C) Binary Operator
(D) Not an operator

Ans: C
Q.79 An instance of relational schema R (A, B, C) has distinct values of A, including NULL values.
Which one of the following is true?
(A) A is a candidate key
(B) A is not a candidate key
(C) A is a Primary Key
(D) Both (A) and (C)

Ans: B
Q.80 Consider the join of a relation R with relation S. If R has m tuples and S has n tuples, then
the maximum size of join is:
(A) mn
(B) m+n
(C) (m+n)/2
(D) 2(m+n)

Ans: A.
Set:- 5 MCQ on DBMS

Q.81 The natural join is equal to:

(A) Cartesian Product
(B) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
(C) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
(D) Combination of projection and Cartesian product

Ans: D
Q.82 Which one of the following is not true for a view:
(A) A view is derived from other tables.
(B) A view is a virtual table.
(C) A view definition is permanently stored as part of the database.
(D) The view never contains derived columns.

Ans: C
Q.83 A primary key, if combined with a foreign key, creates
(A) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connect them.
(B) Many to many relationships between the tables that connect them.
(C) Network model between the tables that connect them.
(D) None of the above.

Ans: A
Q.84 In E-R Diagram relationship type is represented by
(A) Ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle
(D) Diamond

Ans: D
Q.85 Hierarchical model is also called
(A) Tree structure
(B) Plex Structure
(C) Normalise Structure
(D) Table Structure

Ans: A
Q.86 To delete a particular column in a relation the command used is:
(A) UPDATE
(B) DROP
(C) ALTER
(D) DELETE

Ans: C
Q.87 The ______ operator is used to compare a value to a list of literals values that have been
specified.
(A) BETWEEN
(B) ANY
(C) IN
(D) ALL
Ans: A
Q.88 A logical schema
A) is the entire database
B) is a standard way of organising information into an accessible part
C) describe how data is actually stored on disk
D) None of these

Ans: A
Q.89 A B-tree of order m has maximum of _____________ children
(A) m
(B) m+1
(C) m-1
(D) m/2

Ans: A
Q.90 _____________ function divides one numeric expression by another and returns the remainder.
(A) POWER
(B) MOD
(C) ROUND
(D) REMAINDER

Ans: B
Q.91 A data manipulation command the combines the records from one or more tables is called
(A) SELECT
(B) PROJECT
(C) JOIN
(D) PRODUCT

Ans: C
Q.92 In E-R diagram generalisation is represented by
(A) Ellipse
(B) Dashed ellipse
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle

Ans: D
Q.93 _________ is a virtual table that draws its data from the result of an SQL SELECT statement.
(A) View
(B) Synonym
(C) Sequence
(D) Transaction

Ans: A
Q.94 The method of access which uses key transformation is known as
(A) Direct
(B) Hash
(C) Random
(D) Sequential

Ans: B
Q.95 A table joined with itself is called
(A) Join
(B) Self Join
(C) Outer Join
(D) Equi Join

Ans: B
Q.96 _________ data type can store unstructured data
(A) RAW
(B) CHAR
(C) NUMERIC
(D) VARCHAR

Ans: A

Increasing the cellpadding means

A. Increase the softness of your site

B. Increase the space between cells

C. Increase the distance between cell and content

D. All of the above

Answer: Option C

Q. Which of the following is the correct syntax for referring the external
style sheet?
A. <style src = example.css>

B. <style src = "example.css" >

C. <stylesheet> example.css </stylesheet>

D. <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="example.css">

Answer» B. <style src = "example.css" >