1) Which of the following is not an operating system?

a) Windows
b) Linux
c) Oracle
d) DOS

2) What is the maximum length of the filename in DOS?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 12

3) When was the first operating system developed?

a) 1948
b) 1949
c) 1950
d) 1951

4) Which of the following is the extension of Notepad?

a) .txt
b) .xls
c) .ppt
d) .bmp
e)

5) What else is a command interpreter called?

a) prompt
b) kernel
c) shell
d) command
6) What is the full name of FAT?

a) File attribute table

b) File allocation table
c) Font attribute table
d) Format allocation table

7) BIOS is used?

a) By operating system
b) By compiler
c) By interpreter
d) By application software

8) Which is the Linux operating system?

a) Private operating system

b) Windows operating system
c) Open-source operating system
d) None of these

9) What are the services operating System provides to both the users and to
the programs?

A. File System manipulation

B. Error Detection
C. Program execution
D. Resource Allocation
10) Which of the following few common services provided by an operating
system?

A. Protection
B. Program execution
C. I/O operations
D. All of the above

11)Which of the following is false about I/O Operation?

A. Operating system does not provides the access to the I/O device
B. I/O operation means read or write operation
C. An I/O subsystem comprises of I/O devices
D. None of the above

12) . What is operating system?

• A. collection of programs that manages hardware resources
• B. system service provider to the application programs
• C. link to interface the hardware and application programs
• D. all of the mentioned

13) To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the:
• A. system calls
• B. API
• C. library
• D. assembly instructions

14) Which of the following is not a type of user interface?

A. command line

B .system interface

c.design interface

d. both b & c

15) Which of the following is the master control program of a computer?

a. Operating System
b. MS Word
c. MS Excel
d. None of these

16 )Which of the following is/are popular operating system(s) for

mobile phones?
a. Android
b. Windows mobile
c. iOS
d. All of these

17 Which of the following interface is mostly used in modern

computers?
a. CUI
b. GUI
c. UI
d. None of these

18 Minimize button is located at the ________ corner of the window.

a. Top-right
b. Top-left
c. Bottom-left
d. Bottom-right
 19 ).We can work on more than one software in ________.
a. CUI
b. GUI
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

20) MULTIPROGRAMMING SYSTEMS:

A. are easier to develop than single programming system

B. execute each job faster
C. execute more jobs in the same time period
D. are used only on large mainframe computers
E. None of the above

23) Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating
system prompt on the first line of the display?
a. Cd
b. Md
c. Rename
d. cls

24) Which command is used to copy files?

a. Copy
b. Diskcopy
c. Type
d. All of the above

1. An entire path name, consisting of several sub-directory names can contain

upto
a. 13 character
b. 36 character
c. 63 character
d. 53 character
Correct Answer: c
2. In which year the first operating system was developed
a. 1910
b. 1940
c. 1950
d. 1980
Correct Answer: c

3. MS-DOS developed in
a. 1991
b. 1984
c. 1971
d. 1961
Correct Answer: b

4. Maximum length of DOS command using any optional parameter is

a. 26 characters
b. 87 characters
c. 127 characters
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

5. In which version of DOS. CHKDSK command has been changed to SCANDISK?

a. 5.0
b. 6.2
c. 6.0
d. 6.2
Correct Answer: d

6. CHKDSK command is used to

a. Analyze the hard disk error
b. Diagnose the hard disk error
c. Report the status of files on disk
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: d
7. Which file is the batch file that is read while booting a computer?
a. Autoexec.bat
b. Auto-batch
c. Autoexecutive.bat
d. Auto.bat
Correct Answer: a

8. Which command is used to backup in DOS 6+ Version

a. BACKUP
b. MSBACKUP
c. MSBACKEDUP
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b

9. Copy and Xcopy are same in the sense

a. Both are internal command of DOS
b. Both are external commands of DOS
c. Both can be used to copy file or group of files
d. Both a and b
Correct Answer: c

44. Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating
system prompt on the first line of the display?
a. Cd
b. Md
c. Rename
d. cls
Correct Answer: d

10. Which command is used to clear the screen

a. Cls
b. Clear
c. Clscreen
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a

11. internal command in Dos are

a. Cls, rd label
b. Dir, ren, sys
c. Time, type, dir
d. Del, disk copy, label
Correct Answer: c

12. Which command is used to copy files?

a. Copy
b. Diskcopy
c. Type
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

13. To copy the hidden system files of DOS to another disk you can use the
command
a. Copy
b. Ren
c. Sys
d. Diskcopy
Correct Answer: c

14. Disk copy command in DOS is used to

a. Copy a file
b. Copy contents of one floppy disk to another
c. Copy contents of CD-ROM to another
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b

15. SYS command is used to

a. Copy DOS system files to new disk
b. Copy DOS configuration files to a new disk
c. Update the DOS system files
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a

16. The command used to copy a file named temp.doc from drive C: to drive A:
is
a. Copy temp.doc to a:
b. Copy c:\temp.doc a:
c. Copy c: a:
d. Copy temp a: c:
Correct Answer: b

17. External command in DOS are

a. Copy, edit, sys, format
b. Edit, sys, chkdsk
c. Chkdsk, prompt, date
d. Sys, ver, vol
Correct Answer: b

18. Which keys can be pressed quit without saving in DOS

a. Ctrl + A
b. Ctrl + B
c. Ctrl + C
d. Ctrl + D
Correct Answer: c

19. Which command is used to get the current date only?

a. Date
b. Time
c. Second
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

20. Generally, the DATE is entered in the form

a. DD-YY-MM
b. YY-DD-MM
c. MM-YY-DD
d. MM-DD-YY
Correct Answer: d

21. DEL command is used to

a. Delete files
b. Delete directory
c. Delete labels
d. Delete contents of file
Correct Answer: a

22. Which command be used to ask you to confirm that you want to delete the
directory?
a. Deltree
b. Deltree/f
c. Del *.*/p
d. Erase *.*
Correct Answer: c

23. Which statement is correct?

a. Directories can be kept inside a file
b. Files can not be kept inside a directory
c. 1 millisec = 10 ^ 3 sec
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

24. CHKDSK can be used to find

a. Disk’s bad portion
b. Occupied space
c. Free space
d. All of above
Correct Answer: d

25. DIR command is used to

a. Display a list of files in a directory
b. Display contents of files in directory
c. Display type of files in a sub directory
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a

26. The deleted file in MS-DOS can be recovered if you use the command
mention below immediately, the command is:
a. DO NOT DELETE
b. NO DELETE
c. UNDELETE
d. ONDELETE
Correct Answer: c

27 To copy the file command.com from drive c: to drive a:

a. Drive c: copy drive a:\command.com
b. C:A: copy command.com
c. Copy c:\command.com a:
d. Both b and c
Correct Answer: c

28. While working with MS-DOS which key is used to get the p[revious
command used:
a. F3
b. F1
c. F6
d. F9
Correct Answer: a

29. FAT stands for

a. File Accomodation Table
b. File Access Tape
c. File Allocation Table
d. File Activity Table
Correct Answer: c
30. xcopy command can copy
a. individual files or group of files
b. directories including subdirectories
c. to diskette of a different capacity
d. all of above
Correct Answer: d

31. Which command is used to make a new directory?

a. Md
b. Cd
c. Rd
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a

32. Full form of MS-DOS is

a. Micro System Disk Operating System
b. Micro Simple Disk Operating System
c. Micro Soft Disk Operating System
d. Micro Sort Disk Operating System
Correct Answer: c

33. Operating System is like a

a. Parliament
b. Secretary
c. Government
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: c

34. Format command is used to

a. Prepare a blank disk
b. Create a new blank disk from a used one
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c
35. The following command set is correct according to their function
a. RD can MD
b. DEL and ERASE
c. CD and RD
d. COPY and RENAME
Correct Answer: b

36. Which command is used to change the file name?

a. Ren
b. Rename
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

37. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to copying the files to
transfer from one PC to another one?
a. Rename
b. Path
c. Dir
d. Copy
Correct Answer: d

38. RESTORE command is used to

a. Restore files from disks made using the BACKUP command
b. Restore files which are deleted
c. Restore files from recycle bin
d. Restore files which are deleted recently
Correct Answer: a

39. The vol command is used to

a. see the value of list
b. see the veriety of language
c. see the disk volume label
d. see the volume of largest
Correct Answer: c
40. In MS-DOS you can use small or capital letter of combination of both to
enter a command but internally MS-DOS work with.
a. Small letter
b. Capital letter
c. Both a and b
d. None of above
Correct Answer: b

41. The maximum length in DOS commands is

a. 80 chars
b. 127 chars
c. 100 chars
d. 8 chars
Correct Answer: b

42. The time command is used to display _____ time.

a. US time
b. Greenwich Mean Time
c. Julian Time
d. System Time

Correct Answer: d

43) To run the script, we should make it executable first by using _____
• A. chmod +x
• B. chmod +r
• C. chmod +w
• D. chmod +rwx
44) What are positional parameters?
• A. special variables for assigning arguments from the command line
• B. pattern matching parameters
• C. special variables for reading user input
• D. special variables and patterns

45) Unix is a
• A. Single User, Single tasking OS
• 0B. Single User, Multi-tasking OS
• C. Multi-User, Multi- tasking OS
• D. None

46) Which directory file system in UNIX is used?

A. tree directory
B. diamond directory
C. hierarchical directory
D. graph-structured director
 UNIT:2 Service & Components Of Operating System
1. Which of the following is/ are the part of operating system?

A) Kernel services

B) Library services

C) Application level services

D) All of the above

2. The system of ................ generally ran one job at a time. These were called single stream batch
processing.

A) 40's

B) 50's

C) 60's

D) 70's
3. In ..............generation of operating system, operating system designers develop the concept of
multiprogramming in which several jobs are in main memory at once.

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

4. State True or False.

i) In spooling high speed device like a disk is interposed between running program and low-speed device
in Input/output.

ii) By using spooling for example instead of writing directly to a printer, outputs are written to the disk.

A) i-True, ii-False

B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False
5. Which of the following is/are the functions of operating system?

i) Sharing hardware among users. ii) Allowing users to share data among themselves.

iii) Recovering from errors. iv) Preventing users from interfering with one another.

v) Scheduling resources among users.

A) i, ii, iii and iv only

B) ii, iii, iv and v only

C) i, iii, iv and v only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

6.executes must frequently and makes the fine grained decision of which process to
execute the next.

A) Long-term scheduling

B) Medium-term scheduling

C) Short-term scheduling

D) None of the above

7. With ................ a page is brought into main memory only when the reference is made to a location
on that page.

A) demand paging

B) main paging

C) prepaging

D) postpaging

8.provides a larger sized of virtual memory but require virtual memory which provides
multidimensional memory.

A) Paging method

B) Segmentation method

C) Paging and segmentation method

D) None of these

9.is a large kernel containing virtually the complete operating system, including,
scheduling, file system, device drivers and memory management.
A) Multilithic kernel

B) Monolithic kernel

C) Micro kernel

D) Macro kernel

10.is a large operating system core provides a wide range of services.

A) Multilithic kernel

B) Monolithic kernel

C) Micro kernel

D) Macro kernel

11. Which of the following is not the function of Microkernel?

A) File management

B) Low-level memory management

C) Inter-process communication

D) I/O interrupts management

12. Match the following.

i) Mutual exclusion a) A process may hold allocated resources while waiting assignment.

ii) Hold and wait b) No resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it.

iii) No preemption c) Only one process may use a resource at a time.

A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

13. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrences of ...................

A) Mutual exclusion

B) Hold and wait

C) Circular waits

D) No preemption

14. The methods or algorithms which are used to increase the performance of disk storage sub-system
is called .............
A) Disk performing

B) Disk scheduling

C) Disk storing

D) Disk extending

15.is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track.

A) Seek time

B) Rotational delay

C) Latency time

D) Access time

16. The ............... policy restricts scanning to one direction only.

A) SCAN

B) C-SCAN

C) N-Step SCAN

D) Both A and B
17.policy selects the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the disk arm
from its current position.

A) FSCAN

B) SSTF

C) SCAN

D) C-SCAN

18.refers to the ability of an operating system to support multiple threads of execution

with a single process.

A) Multithreading

B) Multiprocessing

C) Multiexecuting

D) Bi-threading

19. State whether the following statement is true.

i) It takes less time to terminate a thread than a process.

ii) Threads enhance efficiency in communication between different executing programs.

A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False

20.is a special type of programming language used to provide instructions to the monitor
simple batch processing schema.

A) Job control language (JCL)

B) Processing control language (PCL)

C) Batch control language (BCL)

D) Monitor control language (MCL)

21.The first batch operating system was developed in the ................ by General Motors for use on an
IBM 701.

A) mid 1940's

B) mid 1950's

C) mid 1960's

D) mid 1970's

22. Process is ........................

A) A program in execution

B) An instance of a program running on a computer.

C) The entity that can be assigned to and executed

D) All of the above.

23. is a facility that allows programmers to address memory from a logical point of view,
without regard to the main memory, physically available.

A) Visual memory

B) Real memory

C) Virtual memory

D) Secondary memory

24. is a large kernel, including scheduling file system, networking, device drivers, memory
management and more.
A) Monolithic kernel

B) Micro kernel

C) Macro kernel

D) Mini kernel

25. A .................... architecture assigns only a few essential functions to the kernel, including
address spaces, Inter process communication(IPC) and basic scheduling.

A) Monolithic kernel

B) Micro kernel

C) Macro kernel
D) Mini kernel

26. State whether true or false.

i) Multithreading is useful for application that perform a number of essentially independent tasks that
do not be serialized.

ii) An example of multithreading is a database server that listens for and process numerous client
request.

A) i-True, ii-False

B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False

27. ...................... With only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are
waiting for the processer. With more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a
different processer.

A) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming

B) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing

C) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing

D) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing

28. The two central themes of modern operating system are...............

A) Multiprogramming and Distributed processing

B) Multiprogramming and Central Processing

C) Single Programming and Distributed processing

D) None of above

29. ............. refers to the ability of multiple process (or threads) to share code, resources or data in
such a way that only one process has access to shared object at a time.

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion

C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

30. .................is the ability of multiple process to co-ordinate their activities by exchange of
information

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion
C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

31. ..............refers to a situation in which a process is ready to execute but is continuously denied
access to a processor in deference to other processes.

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion

C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

32. Which of the following is not the approach to dealing with deadlock?

A) Prevention

B) Avoidance

C) Detection

D) Deletion

33. Which of the following are the states of a five state process model?

i) Running ii) Ready iii) New iv) Exit v) Destroy

A) i, ii, iii and v only

B) i, ii, iv and v only

C) i, ii, iii, and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

34. State which statement is true for Suspended process?

i) The process is not immediately available for execution.

ii) The process may be removed from suspended state automatically without removal order.

A) i only

B) ii only

C) i and ii only

D) None

35. Following is/are the reasons for process suspension.

A) Swapping parent process

B) Inter request

C) Timing
D) All of the above

36. The different types of tables maintained by the operating system are .............

A) memory, logical , I/O file

B) memory, I/O, file, physical

C) memory, I/O, file, process

D) memory, logical, I/O, physical

37. Which of the following information not included in memory table?

A) The allocation of main memory to process.

B) The allocation of secondary memory to process

C) Any information needed to manage virtual memory

D) Any information about the existence of file

38. Process Management function of an operating system kernel includes.

A) Process creation and termination.

B) Process scheduling and dispatching

C) Process switching

D) All of the above

39. The typical elements of process image are .....................

i) User data ii) System Data iii) User program iv) System stack

A) i, iii and iv only

B) i, ii, and iv only

C) ii, iii, and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, and iv

40. Match the following mechanisms for interrupting the execution of a process and their uses.

i) Interrupt a) Call to an operating system function

ii) Trap b) Reaction to an asynchronous external event

iii) Supervisor Call c) Handling of a error or an exception condition

A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

B) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

41. The unit of dispatching is usually referred to as a …………..

A) Thread

B) Lightweight process

C) Process

D) Both A and B

42. ................is a example of an operating system that support single user process and single thread.

A) UNIX

B) MS-DOS

C) OS/2

D) Windows 2000

43. . State true or false.

i) Unix, support multiple user process but only support one thread per process.

ii) A java run time environment is an example of a system of one process with multiple threads.

A) True, False

B) True, True

C) False, True

D) False, False

44. are very effective because a mode switch is not required to switch from one thread to
another.

A) Kernel-level threads
B) User-level threads

C) Alterable threads

D) Application level threads

45. . is a condition in which there is a set of concurrent processes, only one of which is able to
access a given resource or perform a given function at any time.

A) Mutual Exclusion

B) Busy Waiting

C) Deadlock
D) Starvation

46. Techniques can be used to resolve conflicts, such as competition for resources, and to
synchronize processes so that they can cooperate.

A) Mutual Exclusion

B) Busy Waiting

C) Deadlock

D) Starvation

47. Can be defined as the permanent blocking of a set of processed that either complete for
system resources or communicate with each other.

A) Deadlock

B) Permanent lock

C) Starvation

D) Mutual exclusion

48. The following conditions of policy must be present for a deadlock to be possible.

i) Mutual exclusion ii) Hold and wait

iii) No preemption iv) Circular wait

A) i, ii and iii only

B) ii, iii and iv only

C) i, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

49. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrence of …………..

A) Mutual exclusion
B) Hold and wait

C) Circular waits

D) No preemption

50. State true of false.

i) With paging, each process is divided into relatively small, fixed-size pages.

ii) Segmentation provides for the use of pieces of varying size.

A) Partition management

B) Memory management

C) Disk management

D) All of the above

51. ......... Involves treating main memory as a resource to be allocated to and shared among a

number of active processes.

A) Partition management

B) Memory management

C) Disk management

D) All of the above

52. A process that execute only in main memory is referred to as .............. and that allocated in disk is
referred to a …………….

A) Virtual memory, true memory

B) Virtual memory, real memory

C) Real memory, virtual memory

D) Imaginary memory, real memory

53. In process scheduling, ................... determines when new processes are admitted to the system.

A) long term scheduling

B) medium term scheduling

C) short term scheduling

D) none of the above

54. ............................................... In process scheduling, determines which ready process will be

executed next by
processor.
 A) long term scheduling

B) medium term scheduling

C) short term scheduling

D) none of the above

55. The sum of the seek time, and the rotational delay is called the ………………..

A) reached time

B) access time

C) arrived time

D) common time
56. The ............... policy segments the disks request queue into sub queues of the length N.

A) SCAN

B) C-SCAN

C) N-Step SCAN

D) FSCAN

57. Which of the following are the functions of operating system?

i) recovering from errors ii) facilitating input/output

iii) facilitating parallel operation iv) sharing hardware among users

v) implementing user interface

A) i, ii, ii, and v only

B) i, ii, iii, and iv only

C) ii, iii, iv and v only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

58. File management function of the operating system includes

i) File creation and deletion ii) Disk scheduling

iii) Directory creation iv) Mapping file in secondary storage.

A) i, ii and iii only

B) i, iii and iv only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

59. ...................The Determines when a page should be brought into main memory.
 A) Fetch policy

B) Placement policy

C) Replacement policy

D) Resident set management

60. With.................... A page is written out to secondary memory only when it has been selected for
replacement.

A) pre-cleaning

B) demand cleaning

C) required cleaning

D) fast cleaning

61. The process is........

A) an instance of a program in execution

B) a program only

C) a processor state

D) the kernel state

62. The mechanism that brings a page into memory only when it is needed is called.....

A) segmentation

B) fragmentation

C) demand paging

D) page replacement

63. The two paradigms if IPC are ............ and.......

A) call, reply

B) shared memory, message passing

C) send, receive

D) call by value, call by reference

64. A program is passive while a process is..........

 A) inactive

B) spontaneous

C) active

D) impulse

65. FIFO scheduling is..........

A) preemptive scheduling

B) non preemptive scheduling

C) deadline scheduling

D) fair share scheduling

66. ………. ensures that once transaction completes successively, the results of the operations become
permanent.

A) serializability

B) synchronizability

C) atomicity

D) durability

67. A process is created and is initially put in the........

A) ready queue

B) device queue

C) i/o queue

D) waiting queue

68. Which directory implementation is used in most of the Operating System?

A) single level directory structure

B) two level directory structure

C) tree directory structure

D) acyclic directory structure

69. Isolation property is also known as.........

A) Performance

B) Serializability

C) Durability

D) Atomicity

70. A thread is a..........

A) task
B) process

C) program

D) light weight process

71. The interval from the fine submission of a process to the time of completion is the......

A) waiting time

B) blocked time

C) turnaround time

D) response time

72. The term "Operating System" means..........

A) a set of programs which controls computer working

B) the way a computer operator works

C) conversion of high-level language in to machine level language

D) the way a floppy disk drive operates

73. Generally we have user level threads and...........

A) Programmer level thread

B) kernel level thread

C) program level thread

D) process level thread

74. To ensure that the ......... condition never occurs in the system, we must guarantee that, whenever a
process requests a resource, it does not have any other resource.

A) mutual exclusion

B) no-preemption

C) circular waits

D) hold and wait

75. Resource locking........

A) allows multiple tasks to simultaneously use resource

B) forces only on takes to use any resource at any time

C) can easily cause a dead lock condition

D) in not used for disk drives

76. A program responsible for assigning the CPU to the process that has been selected by the short
term scheduler is known as.........

A) scheduler

B) dispatcher

C) debugger

D) compiler

77. The ..........instruct Kernel to do various operations of the calling program and exchange data
between the Kernel at the program.

A) shell

B) editors

C) system calls

D) commands

78. Which of the following buffering strategies are used in interprocess communication?

A) null pointer

B) single message buffer

C) multiple message buffer

D) all of the above

79. The process of splitting of data into equal size partitions over multiple disks is known as .....
 A) data stripping

B) array of disks

C) RAID

D) SCAN
80. Pipes allow transfer of data between processor in a ........ manner.

A) last in first out

B) shortest job first

C) multilevel queue

D) first in first out

81. The process of storing extra or duplicate information used for rebuilding the lost information in
event of disks failure is known as...

A. stripping

B. redundancy

C. disk array

D. RAID

82. A thread that is to be cancelled is often referred to as the....

A. target thread

B. thread cancellation

C. asynchronous cancellation

D. defined cancellation

83. ......... ensures the every message sent to a group of receivers will be delivered to either all of them
or none of them.

A. Ordered delivery

B. Atomicity

B. Survivability

D. Reliability

84. An arrangement of record in a sequence in which they arrive is known as a ...........

A. pile
 B. file

C. disk

D. directory

85. ......... also known as monitor mode.

A. User mode
B. System mode

C. Unprivileged mode

D. Process mode

86. The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so
rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called........

A. time sharing

B. time out

C. time domain

D. multitasking

87. For batch and payroll applications which of the following file organization is better........

A. random file

B. sequential file

C. indexed file

D. hashed file

88. Name the scheduler that selects among the processes that are ready to execute and allocates
the CPU to one of them.

A. Long term scheduler

B. Medium term scheduler

C. Job scheduler

D. Short term scheduler

89. Failure during inter-process communication may be due to.....

A. loss of request transfer unit

B. single datagram messages

C. multidatagram messages

D. message passing
90. The process of direct mapping by using some faster algorithms is called as.........

A. hashing

B. searching

C. sorting

D. indexing

91. Name the system in which the processors do not share memory and each processor that its
own local memory.

A. Tightly coupled system

B. Parallel processing system

C. Loosely coupled system

D. Batch processing system

92. Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and I/O
devices busy?

A. Time-sharing

B. Spooling

C. preemptive scheduling

D. Multiprogramming

93. Those directories in which the root directory has all system file and no other sub-directory is
known as ...

A. flat directory

B. single directory

C. hierarchical directory

D. indexed directory

94. Which is responsible for maintaining all the important abstractions of the operating system?
A. Kernel

B. System libraries

C. System utilities
D. Daemons

95. A four message reliable IPC protocol for client server communication works as........

A. request, reply, acknowledgement

B. reply, acknowledgement, request, acknowledgement

C. request, acknowledgement, reply, acknowledgement

D. request, request, reply, acknowledgement

96. A path name that starts at root directory is..........

A. absolute

B. relative

C. hybrid

D. hierarchical

97. Where does the problem of fragmentation occur?

A. Static storage allocation

B. Static allocation storage

C. Stack allocation with dynamic binding

D. Heap allocation

98. Idempotency basically means.........

A. reliability

B. repeatability

C. Survivability

D. flexibility

99. All path names are specified relative to the working directory........
 A. absolute path name

B. relative path name

C. hybrid path name

D. hierarchical path name

100. The time taken by the disk arm to locate the specific address of a sector for getting information
is called........

A. rotational latency

B. seek time

C. search time

D. response time
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?

a) Code

b) Stack

c) Bootstrap program

d) Data

2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________

a) Output

b) Throughput

c) Efficiency

d) Capacity

3. The state of a process is defined by __________

a) the final activity of the process

b) the activity just executed by the process

c) the activity to next be executed by the process

d) the current activity of the process

4. Which of the following is not the state of a process?

a) New

b) Old

c) Waiting

d) Running

5. What is a Process Control Block?

a) Process type variable

b) Data Structure

c) A secondary storage section

d) A Block in memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________

a) Process Register

b) Program Counter

c) Process Table

d) Process Unit

7. What is the degree of multiprogramming?

a) the number of processes executed per unit time

b) the number of processes in the ready queue

c) the number of processes in the I/O queue

d) the number of processes in memory

8. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________

a) only one task at a time

b) multiple tasks at a time

c) only two tasks at a time

d) all of the mentioned

9) The OS maintains all PCBs in?

A. Process Scheduling Queues

B. Job queue

C. Ready queue

D. Device queues

10. The processes which are blocked due to unavailability of an I/O device constitute this
queue.

A. Process Scheduling Queues

B. Job queue

C. Ready queue

D. Device queues
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
11) Two-state process model refers to?

A. running states

B. non-running states

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

12.Which is not a type of Schedulers?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. None of the above

13.Which scheduler is also called a job scheduler?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. All of the above

14.When the suspended process is moved to the secondary storage. This process is called?

A. process mix.

B. swapping

C. Swap-In

D. Swap-Out

15.Which scheduler Speed is fastest?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
D. Swapping

16.Which Schedular is a part of Time sharing systems?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. Swapping

17.A_________ is the mechanism to store and restore the state

A. PCB

B. Program Counter

C. Scheduling information

D. context switch

18. What is Inter process communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same
address space

b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same
address space

c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication

d) none of the mentioned

19. Message passing system allows processes to __________

a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data

b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data

c) share data

d) name the recipient or sender of the message

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
20. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?

a) write & delete message

b) delete & receive message

c) send & delete message

d) receive & send message

21. Messages sent by a process __________

a) have to be of a fixed size

b) have to be a variable size

c) can be fixed or variable sized

d) None of the mentioned

22. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________

a) communication link

b) message-passing link

c) synchronization link

d) all of the mentioned

23. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of

processes supported by system)

b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes

c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)

d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
24. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q

b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication

c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q

d) none of the mentioned

25. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________

a) Programmed buffering

b) Automatic buffering

c) User defined buffering

d) No buffering

26. Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

a) program counter

b) stack

c) both program counter and stack

d) none of the mentioned

27. A process can be ___________

a) single threaded

b) multithreaded

c) both single threaded and multithreaded

d) none of the mentioned

28. If one thread opens a file with read privileges then ___________

a) other threads in the another process can also read from that file

b) other threads in the same process can also read from that file
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
c) any other thread can not read from that file

d) all of the mentioned

28. The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is ___________

a) greater than the time required to create a new process

b) less than the time required to create a new process

c) equal to the time required to create a new process

d) none of the mentioned

29 When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs?

a) thread moves to the ready queue

b) thread remains blocked

c) thread completes

d) a new thread is provided

30.Termination of the process terminates ___________

a) first thread of the process

b) first two threads of the process

c) all threads within the process

d) no thread within the process

31.Which one of the following is not a valid state of a thread?

a) running
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
b) parsing

c) ready

d) blocked

32 The register context and stacks of a thread are deallocated when the thread?

a) terminates

b) blocks

c) unblocks

d) spawns

33.Thread synchronization is required because ___________

a) all threads of a process share the same address space

b) all threads of a process share the same global variables

c) all threads of a process can share the same files

d) all of the mentioned

34 . Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

a) program counter

b) stack

c) both program counter and stack

d) none of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

35.A process can be ___________

a) single threaded

b) multithreaded

c) both single threaded and multithreaded

d) none of the mentioned

36.If one thread opens a file with read privileges then ___________

a) other threads in the another process can also read from that file

b) other threads in the same process can also read from that file

c) any other thread can not read from that file

d) all of the mentioned

37.The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is ___________

a) greater than the time required to create a new process

b) less than the time required to create a new process

c) equal to the time required to create a new process

d) none of the mentioned

38.When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs?

a) thread moves to the ready queue

b) thread remains blocked.

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
c) thread completes

d) a new thread is provided

39 BIOS is used?

By operating system

By compiler

By interpreter

By application softwar

40. A thread is also called ___________

a) Light Weight Process(LWP)
b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
c) Process
d) None of the mentioned

41 .A thread shares its resources(like data section, code section, open files, signals) with
___________
a) other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to
b) other threads that belong to similar processes
c) other threads that belong to the same process
d) all of the mentioned

42.A heavy weight process ___________

a) has multiple threads of execution
b) has a single thread of execution
c) can have multiple or a single thread for execution
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

43 The systems which allows only one process execution at a time, are called:

• A. uniprogramming systems

• B. uniprocessing systems

• C. unitasking systems

• D. none of the mentioned

44. In operating system, each process has its own:

• A. address space and global variables

• B. open files

• C. pending alarms, signals and signal handlers

• D. all of the mentione

45. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?

• A. fork

• B. create

• C. new

• D. none of the mentioned

46. A process can be terminated due to:

• A. normal exit

• B. fatal error

• C. killed by another process

• D. all of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

47. What is the ready state of a process?

• A. when process is scheduled to run after some execution

• B. when process is unable to run until some task has been completed

• C. when process is using the CPU

• D. none of the mentioned

48. What is interprocess communication?

• A. communication within the process

• B. communication between two process

• C. communication between two threads of same process

• D. none of the mentioned

49. A set of processes is deadlock if:

• A. each process is blocked and will remain so forever

• B. each process is terminated

• C. all processes are trying to kill each other

• D. none of the mentioned

50. A process stack does not contain:

• A. function parameters

• B. local variables

• C. return addresses
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. PID of child process

51. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?

• A. wait

• B. exit

• C. fork

• D. get

52. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by
the:

• A. CPU registers

• B. program counter

• C. process stack

• D. pipe

53. . A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :

• A. code

• B. stack

• C. Process State

• D. I/O status information

• E. bootstrap program

54. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.

• A. output

• B. Throughput
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. Efficiency

• D. Capacity

55. The state of a process is defined by :

• A. the final activity of the process

• B. the activity just executed by the process

• C. the activity to next be executed by the process

• D. the current activity of the process

56. Which of the following is not the state of a process ?

• A. new

• B. old

• C. Waiting

• D. Running

• E. Terminate

57. The Process Control Block is :

• A. Process type variable

• B. Data Structure

• C. a secondary storage section

• D. a Block in memory

58. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. Process Register

• B. Program Counter

• C. Process Table

• D. Process Unit

59. The degree of multi-programming is :

• A. the number of processes executed per unit time

• B. the number of processes in the ready queue

• C. the number of processes in the I/O queue

• D. the number of processes in memory

60. A single thread of control allows the process to perform :

• A. only one task at a time

• B. multiple tasks at a time

• C. All of these

61. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes ?

• A. Job Queue

• B. PCB queue

• C. Device Queue

• D. Ready Queue

62 When the process issues an I/O request :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. It is placed in an I/O queue

• B. It is placed in a waiting queue

• C. It is placed in the ready queue

• D. It is placed in the Job queue

63 What is a long-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. No

64 .If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______, and the Short
term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.

• A. full,little

• B. full,lot

• C. empty,little

• D. empty,lot

65 . What is a medium-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. None of these
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

66 . What is a short-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. None of these

67 The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
:

• A. The length of their queues

• B. The type of processes they schedule

• C. The frequency of their execution

• D. None of these

68 The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is :

• A. block

• B. wakeup

• C. dispatch

• D. None of these

69 In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the :

• A. Blocked state

• B. Ready state

• C. Suspended state
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. Terminated state

70 In a multi-programming environment :

• A. the processor executes more than one process at a time

• B. the programs are developed by more than one person

• C. more than one process resides in the memory

• D. a single user can execute many programs at the same time

71. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the :

• A. Running state

• B. Ready state

• C. Suspended state

• D. Terminated state

72 .The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain :

• A. the value of the CPU registers

• B. the process state

• C. memory-management information

• D. context switch time

73 .Which of the following does not interrupt a running process ?

• A. A device

• B. Timer
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. Scheduler process

• D. Power failure

74 .Several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of
the execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called a(n)
____.

• A. Shared Memory Segments

• B. Entry Section

• C. Race condition

• D. Process Synchronization

. 75 . Which of the following state transitions is not possible ?

• A. blocked to running

• B. ready to running

• C. blocked to ready

• D. running to blocked

76 . Which of the following is not a characteristic of virus ?

• A. Virus destroy and modify user data

• B. Virus is a standalone program

• C. Virus is a code embedded in a legitimate program

• D. Virus cannot be detected.

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
77 .Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

• A. program counter

• B. stack

• C. both (a) and (b)

• D. none of the mentioned

78 .A process can be:

• A. single threaded

• B. multithreaded

• C. both (a) and (b)

• D. none of the mentioned

78 .If one thread opens a file with read privileges then:

• A. other threads in the another process can also read from that file

• B. other threads in the same process can also read from that file

• C. any other thread can not read from that file

• D. all of the mentioned

79 .The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is:

• A. greater than the time required to create a new process

• B. less than the time required to create a new process

• C. equal to the time required to create a new process

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. none of the mentioned

. 80 .When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs,

• A. thread moves to the ready queue

• B. thread remains blocked

• C. thread completes

• D. a new thread is provided

81 Termination of the process terminates:

• A. first thread of the process

• B. first two threads of the process

• C. all threads within the process

• D. no thread within the process

82 .Which one of the following is not a valid state of a thread?

• A. running

• B. parsing

• C. ready

• D. blocked

83 .The register context and stacks of a thread are deallocated when the thread:

• A. terminated

• B. blocks
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. unblocks

• D. spawns

84 . Thread synchronization is required because:

• A. all threads of a process share the same address space

• B. all threads of a process share the same global variables

• C. all threads of a process can share the same files

• D. all of the mentioned

85 .A thread is also called :

• A. Light Weight Process(LWP)

• B. Heavy Weight Process(HWP)

• C. process

• D. None of these

86 .A thread shares its resources(like data section, code section, open files, signals) with :

• A. other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to

• B. other threads that belong to similar processes

• C. other threads that belong to the same process

• D. All of these

87 .A heavy weight process :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. has multiple threads of execution

• B. has a single thread of execution

• C. can have multiple or a single thread for execution

• D. None of these

89 . process having multiple threads of control implies :

• A. it can do more than one task at a time

• B. it can do only one task at a time, but much faster

• C. it has to use only one thread per process

• D. None of these

90. Multithreading an interactive program will increase responsiveness to the user by :

• A. continuing to run even if a part of it is blocked

• B. waiting for one part to finish before the other begins

• C. asking the user to decide the order of multithreading

• D. None of these

91 . Multithreading on a multi – CPU machine :

• A. decreases concurrency

• B. increases concurrency

• C. doesnt affect the concurrency

• D. can increase or decrease the concurrency

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

92 The kernel is _______ of user threads.

• A. a part of

• B. the creator of

• C. unaware of

• D. aware of

93 . If the kernel is single threaded, then any user level thread performing a blocking system call
will :

• A. cause the entire process to run along with the other threads

• B. cause the thread to block with the other threads running

• C. cause the entire process to block even if the other threads are available to run

• D. None of these

94 . Because the kernel thread management is done by the Operating System itself :

• A. kernel threads are faster to create than user threads

• B. kernel threads are slower to create than user threads

• C. kernel threads are easier to manage as well as create then user threads

• D. None of these

95 If a kernel thread performs a blocking system call, ____________________.

• A. the kernel can schedule another thread in the application for execution.
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• B. the kernel cannot schedule another thread in the same application for execution.

• C. the kernel must schedule another thread of a different application for execution.

• D. the kernel must schedule another thread of the same application on a different
processor.

96 Which of the following is FALSE ?

• A. Context switch time is longer for kernel level threads than for user level threads

• B. User level threads do not need any hardware support

• C. Related kernel level threads can be scheduled on different processors in a

multiprocessor system

• D. Blocking one kernel level thread blocks all other related threads

97 The model in which one kernel thread is mapped to many user-level threads is called :

• A. Many to One model

• B. One to Many model

• C. Many to Many model

• D. One to One model

98 The model in which one user-level thread is mapped to many kernel level threads is called
:
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. Many to One model

• B. One to Many model

• C. Many to Many model

• D. One to One model

. 99. In the Many to One model, if a thread makes a blocking system call :

• A. the entire process will be blocked

• B. a part of the process will stay blocked, with the rest running

• C. the entire process will run

• D. None of these

100 . In the Many to One model, multiple threads are unable to run in parallel on
multiprocessors because :

• A. only one thread can access the kernel at a time

• B. many user threads have access to just one kernel thread

• C. there is only one kernel thread

• D. None of these

101 .The One to One model allows :

• A. increased concurrency

• B. decreased concurrency

• C. increased or decreased concurrency

• D. concurrency equivalent to other models

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

102 In the One to One model when a thread makes a blocking system call :

• A. other threads are strictly prohibited from running

• B. other threads are allowed to run

• C. other threads only from other processes are allowed to run

• D. None of these

103 . Which of the following is the drawback of the One to One Model ?

• A. increased concurrency provided by this model

• B. decreased concurrency provided by this model

• C. creating so many threads at once can crash the system

• D. creating a user thread requires creating the corresponding kernel thread

104 . When is the Many to One model at an advantage ?

• A. When the program does not need multi-threading

• B. When the program has to be multi-threaded

• C. When there is a single processor

• D. None of these

105 . in the Many to Many model when a thread performs a blocking system call :

• A. other threads are strictly prohibited from running

• B. other threads are allowed to run

• C. other threads only from other processes are allowed to run

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. None of these

106 .Thread cancellation is :

• A. the task of destroying the thread once its work is done

• B. the task of removing a thread once its work is done

• C. the task of terminating a thread before it has completed

• D. None of these

107 . When a web page is loading, and the user presses a button on the browser to stop loading
the page :

• A. the thread loading the page continues with the loading

• B. the thread loading the page does not stop, but continues with another task

• C. the thread loading the page is paused

• D. the thread loading the page is cancelled

108 . When one thread immediately terminates the target thread, it is called :

• A. Asynchronous cancellation

• B. Systematic cancellation

• C. Sudden Termination

• D. Deferred cancellation
Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm

1. What are reusable resources?

A. that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
B. that can be used by more than one process at a time
C. that can be shared between various threads
D. none of the mentioned
1. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
A. mutual exclusion
B. a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of
other resources
C. no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
D. all of the mentioned
3. A system is in the safe state if:
A. the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still
avoid a deadlock
B. there exist a safe sequence
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the mentioned
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by:
A. defining a linear ordering of resource types
B. using thread
C. using pipes
D. all of the mentioned
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
A. banker’s algorithm
B. round-robin algorithm
C. elevator algorithm
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
D. karn’s algorithm
6. For effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
A. every time a resource request is made
B. at fixed time intervals
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the mentioned
7. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually
denied necessary resources is called:
A. deadlock
B. starvation
C. inversion
D. aging
8. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine
the deadlock occurrence?
A. resource allocation graph
B. starvation graph
C. inversion graph
D. none of the mentioned
9. To avoid deadlock:
A. there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
B. resource allocation must be done only once
C. all deadlocked processes must be aborted
D. inversion technique can be used
10. The number of resources requested by a process :
A. must always be less than the total number of resources available in the
system
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
B. must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the
system
C. must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
D. must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
11. The request and release of resources are ___________.
A. command line statements
B. interrupts
C. system calls
D. special programs
12. Multithreaded programs are :
A. lesser prone to deadlocks
B. more prone to deadlocks
C. not at all prone to deadlocks
D. None of these
13. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :
A. at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
B. the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
C. there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
D. All of these
14. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail :
A. A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be
freed, and then request to acquire it
B. A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire
additional resources that are being held by other processes
C. A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire
additional resources
D. None of these
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
15. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :
A. to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
B. to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
C. to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
D. to recover from a deadlock
16. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion :
A. must exist
B. must not exist
C. may exist
D. None of these
17. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion :
A. is required
B. is not required
C. A & B
D. None of these
18. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system,
it must be ensured that :
A. whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any
other resources
B. each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it
begins its execution
C. a process can request resources only when it has none
D. All of these
19. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before
beginning its execution is :
A. Low CPU utilization
B. Low resource utilization
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
C. Very high resource utilization
D. None of these
20. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and
requests another resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it :
A. then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
B. the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
C. the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
D. then all resources currently being held are pre-empted
21. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to :
A. impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether
one precedes another in the ordering
B. to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
C. to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
D. All of these
22. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A. dispatcher
B. interrupt
C. scheduler
D. none of the mentioned
23. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called:
A. job queue
B. ready queue
C. execution queue
D. process queue
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
24. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?
A. first-come, first-served scheduling
B. shortest job scheduling
C. priority scheduling
D. none of the mentioned
25. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as:
A. waiting time
B. turnaround time
C. response time
D. throughput
26. In priority scheduling algorithm:
A. CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
B. CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
C. equal priority processes can not be scheduled
D. none of the mentioned
27. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of:
A. all process
B. currently running process
C. parent process
D. init process
28. Time quantum is defined in:
A. shortest job scheduling algorithm
B. round robin scheduling algorithm
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
C. priority scheduling algorithm
D. multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
29. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm:
A. a process can move to a different classified ready queue
B. classification of ready queue is permanent
C. processes are not classified into groups
D. none of the mentioned
30. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
A. kernel level thread
B. user level thread
C. process
D. none of the mentioned
31. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is
called :
A. process switch
B. task switch
C. context switch
D. All of these
32. Dispatch latency is :
A. the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
B. the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and
keeping the CPU idle
C. the time to stop one process and start running another one
D. None of these
33. Scheduling is done so as to :
A. increase CPU utilization
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
B. decrease CPU utilization
C. keep the CPU more idle
D. None of these
34. Turnaround time is :
A. the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
35. Waiting time is :
A. the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
36. Response time is :
A. the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
B. the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is
produced
C. the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
D. None of these
37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of :
A. Non preemptive scheduling
B. Preemptive scheduling
C. FCFS
D. None of these
38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system,
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
A. using very large time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
B. using very small time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
C. using extremely small time slices increases performance
D. using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
39. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with :
A. assigning ready processes to CPU
B. assigning ready processes to waiting queue
C. assigning running processes to blocked queue
D. All of these
40. Complex scheduling algorithms :
A. are very appropriate for very large computers
B. use minimal resources
C. use many resource
D. All of these
41.The FIFO algorithm :
A. first executes the job that came in last in the queue
B. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
C. first executes the job that needs minimal processo
D. first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
42. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called :
A. Non preemptive scheduling
B. Preemptive scheduling
C. Shortest job first
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
D. First come First served
43. Scheduling is :
A. allowing a job to use the processor
B. making proper use of processor
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
44. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle
processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes
are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the
processes have a short run-time, e.g. less than 10ms ?
A. tQ = 15ms
B. tQ = 40ms
C. tQ = 45ms
D. tQ = 50ms
45. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule
sequences the jobs.
A. earliest due date
B. slack time remaining
C. first come, first served
D. critical ratio
46. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time ?
A. First come First served
B. Shortest Job First
C. Earliest Deadline First
D. Longest Job First
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
47. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually
________ and that for long jobs is slightly ___________.
A. Lengthened; Shortened
B. Shortened; Lengthened
C. Shortened; Shortened
D. hortened; Unchanged
48.

Answer: B
49.

Answer: A
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
50.

Answer: C

51.

Answer: E
52.

Answer: D
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
53.

Answer: C
54.

Answer: C
55.

Answer: B
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
Chapter no 5

1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of

____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word

2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called

____________
a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer

3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?

a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned

4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________

a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned

5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned

6. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________

a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter

7. Program always deals with ____________

a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address

8. The page table contains ____________

a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

9. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error

10. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________

a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address

11.In Process Address Space, The loader generates these addresses at the time
when a program is loaded into main memory is ?

A. Symbolic addresses
B. Relative addresses
C. Physical addresses
D. None of the above

12 In Process Address Space, The variable names, constants, and instruction labels
are the basic elements of ____________.

A. Symbolic addresses
B. Relative addresses
C. Physical addresses
D. None of the above
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
13. The set of all physical addresses corresponding to these logical addresses is
referred to as?

A. Logical address space.

B. Physical address space.
C. MMU address space
D. Virtual address space.

14. With ________, the absolute program (and data) is loaded into memory in
order for execution to start.

A. Static loading
B. Dynamic Loading
C. Static Linking
D. Dynamic Linking

15. when ________ is used, the linker combines all other modules needed by a
program into a single executable program to avoid any runtime dependency.

A. Static loading
B. Dynamic Loading
C. Static Linking
D. Dynamic Linking

16. Swapping is also known as a

A. technique for memory management

B. technique for memory compaction
C. technique for memory addresse
D. technique for dynamic linking
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
17 How many types of Fragmentation are there?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer

18. In which type of Fragmentation, Memory block assigned to process is bigger.

Some portion of memory is left unused, as it cannot be used by another process.

A. External fragmentation
B. Internal fragmentation
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
View Answer

19. __________ is a memory management technique in which process address

space is broken into blocks of the same size

A. Fragmentation
B. Frames
C. Paging
D. Address Translation
View Answer

20. A computer can address more memory than the amount physically installed
on the system. This extra memory is actually called ______________.

A. Virtual Memory
B. Physical Memory
C. Logical Memory
D. Secondary Memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

21. MMU stands for?

A. memory mapping unit

B. memory management unit
C. main memory unit
D. None of the above

22. While executing a program, if the program references a page which is not
available in the main memory then it is known as?

A. Demand Paging
B. Frame Fault
C. page fault
D. processor fault

23. Which of the following are the advantage of Demand Paging?

A. Large virtual memory.

B. More efficient use of memory.
C. There is no limit on degree of multiprogramming.
D. All of the above

24. Which algorithm is based on the argument that the page with the smallest
count?

A. Least frequently Used

B. Page Buffering algorithm
C. Most frequently Used
D. Least Recently Used
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
25. Swap space exists in ____________

A. Primary Memory
B. secondary memory
C. virtual memory
D. CPU

26. Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among ____________
a) processes
b) threads
c) instructions
d) none of the mentioned

27._____ is the concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from
the secondary memory according to the requirement.
a) Paging
b) Demand paging
c) Segmentation
d) Swapping.

28 The pager concerns with the ____________

a) individual page of a process
b) entire process
c) entire thread
d) first page of a process

29. . Swap space exists in ____________

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) primary memory
b) secondary memory
c) cpu
d) none of the mentioned

30. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but
not loaded in physical memory, then ____________
a) segmentation fault occurs
b) fatal error occurs
c) page fault occurs
d) no error occurs

31. Effective access time is directly proportional to ____________

a) page-fault rate
b) hit ratio
c) memory access time
d) none of the mentioned

32. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced

____________
a) oldest page is chosen
b) newest page is chosen
c) random page is chosen
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

34. What a virtual-memory miss is called?

a)Hit miss
b)Page hit
c)Page miss
d)Page fault

35 .a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory
a) Swapping
b) Paging
c) Segmentation
d) Demand paging

36. process is trash

a) it spends more time paging than executing
b) it spends less time paging than executing
c) page fault occurs
d)swapping can not take place

37. Virtual Memory is commonly implemented by __________.

a.segmentation

B Swapping

c. Demand Paging

d. None of the above

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

38. Virtual memory is __________.

A An extremely large main memory

B An extremely large secondary memory

C An illusion of extremely large main memory

D A type of memory used in super computers

39.

The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________.

a.
a)Virtual Memory

b)Interrupts

c)Main memory

D)Cache memory

40. The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called
_____________

A Segmentation

B Fragmentation
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

C Demand Paging

D Page Replacement

41. Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among:

• A. processes
• B. threads
• C. instructions
• D. none of the mentioned

42 _____ is the concept in which a process is copied into main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

• A. Paging
• B. Demand paging
• C. Segmentation
• D. Swapping
43 . The pager concerns with the:

• A. individual page of a process

• B. entire process
• C. entire thread
• D. first page of a process

44 Swap space exists in:

• A. primary memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
• B. secondary memory
• C. CPU
• D. none of the mentioned

45. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but
not loaded in physical memory, then?

• A. segmentation fault occurs

• B. fatal error occurs
• C. page fault occurs
• D. no error occurs

46. Effective access time is directly proportional to:

• A. page-fault rate
• B. hit ratio
• C. memory access time
• D. none of the mentioned
47. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:

• A. oldest page is chosen

• B. newest page is chosen
• C. random page is chosen
• D. none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
48. . Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest
period of time whenever the page required to be replaced?

• A. first in first out algorithm

• B. additional reference bit algorithm
• C. least recently used algorithm
• D. counting based page replacement algorithm

49. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:

• A. modularity
• B. locality
• C. globalization
• D. random access

50. Fragmentation is

A fragments of memory words unused in a page

B fragments of memory words used in a page
C dividing the main memory into equal-sized fragments
D dividing the secondary memory into equal sized fragments

51 . When using counters to implement LRU, we replace the page with the
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
____________
a) smallest time value
b) largest time value
c) greatest size
d) none of the mentioned

52 In the stack implementation of the LRU algorithm, a stack can be maintained

in a manner ____________
a) whenever a page is used, it is removed from the stack and put on bottom
b) the bottom of the stack is the LRU page
c) the top of the stack contains the LRU page and all new pages are added to the
top
d) none of the mentioned

53 . There is a set of page replacement algorithms that can never exhibit Belady’s
Anomaly, called ____________
a) queue algorithms
b) stack algorithms
c) string algorithms
d) none of the mentioned

54 . Applying the LRU page replacement to the following reference string.

12452124
The main memory can accommodate 3 pages and it already has pages 1 and 2.
Page 1 came in before page 2.
How many page faults will occur?
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

55 . Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because

____________
a) Virtual memory increases
b) Larger RAMs are faster
c) Fewer page faults occur
d) None of the mentioned

56 The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are ____________

a) Virtual page number
b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame number
d) Access right information

57 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running

process in a virtual memory environment is determined by ____________
a) the instruction set architecture
b) page size
c) physical memory size
d) number of processes in memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

58 . What is the reason for using the LFU page replacement algorithm?
a) an actively used page should have a large reference count
b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned

59 . What is the reason for using the MFU page replacement algorithm?
a) an actively used page should have a large reference count
b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned

60 . The implementation of the LFU and the MFU algorithm is very uncommon
because ____________
a) they are too complicated
b) they are optimal
c) they are expensive
d) all of the mentioned

61. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s
Anomaly?
a) Optimal replacement
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
b) LRU
c) FIFO
d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO
62. A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C,
D, E. If the page replacement algorithm is FIFO, the number of page transfers with
an empty internal store of 3 frames is?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 9
d) 7
63. In question 62, if the number of page frames is increased to 4, then the
number of page transfers ____________
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains the same
d) none of the mentioned
64. A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very
early and is in constant use is removed, then the page replacement algorithm
used is ____________
a) LRU
b) LFU
c) FIFO
d) None of the mentioned
65. A virtual memory system uses First In First Out (FIFO) page replacement policy
and allocates a fixed number of frames to a process. Consider the following
statements.
P : Increasing the number of page frames allocated to a process sometimes
increases the page fault rate
Q : Some programs do not exhibit locality of reference
Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Both P and Q are true, and Q is the reason for P
b) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not the reason for P
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
c) P is false but Q is true
d) Both P and Q are false
66. Users _______ that their processes are running on a paged system.
a) are aware
b) are unaware
c) may unaware
d) none of the mentioned
67. If no frames are free, _____ page transfer(s) is/are required.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
68. When a page is selected for replacement, and its modify bit is set
____________
a) the page is clean
b) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk
c) the page is dirty
d) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk & page is dirty
68. The aim of creating page replacement algorithms is to ____________
a) replace pages faster
b) increase the page fault rate
c) decrease the page fault rate
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes
69. A FIFO replacement algorithm associates with each page the _______
a) time it was brought into memory
b) size of the page in memory
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
70. What is the Optimal page – replacement algorithm?
a) Replace the page that has not been used for a long time
b) Replace the page that has been used for a long time
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
c) Replace the page that will not be used for a long time
d) None of the mentioned
71. Optimal page – replacement algorithm is difficult to implement, because
____________
a) it requires a lot of information
b) it requires future knowledge of the reference string
c) it is too complex
d) it is extremely expensive
72. LRU page – replacement algorithm associates with each page the ______
a) time it was brought into memory
b) the time of that page’s last use
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
73. For 3 page frames, the following is the reference string:
70120304230321201701
How many page faults does the LRU page replacement algorithm produce?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 11
d) 12
74. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be
implemented in hardware?
a) Counters
b) RAM & Registers
c) Stack & Counters
d) Registers
75. __________ has the lowest fault rate of all the page replacement algorithms.
a) Optimal page replacement algorithm
b) LRU replacement algorithm
c) FIFO
d) Counting based
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
76. Optimal page replacement algorithm is also called as __________
a) LIFO
b) NRU
c) Clairvoyant replacement algorithm
d) Page buffering
77. In a optimal page replacement algorithm, when a page is to be replaced,
which of the following pages is chosen?
a) Oldest page
b) Newest page
c) Frequently occurred page in the future
d) Not frequently occurred page in the future
78. A page that is not going to be used for the next 7 seconds will be swapped out
over a page that is going to be used within the next 0.7 seconds.
a) True
b) False
79. Analysis of the optimal paging problem has been done through___________
a) Deterministic algorithm
b) Online algorithm
c) Euclid algorithm
d) Optimal algorithm
80. Optimal page replacement algorithm is implemented in __________
a) General-purpose operating system
b) Special-purpose operating system
c) In any kind of operating system
d) In Windows only
81. Optimal page replacement algorithm is said to satisfy __________
a) Online algorithm
b) Stack algorithm
c) Queue algorithm
d) Array algorithm
82. In a stack algorithm, the set of pages in a k-frame memory is always a subset
of pages in a __________ frame memory.
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) k-1
b) k
c) k+1
d) k(k+1)
83. When all software that runs on a system is known beforehand, optimal page
replacement algorithm can be used in a general-purpose operating system.
a) True
b) False
84. Consider a reference string 7,0,1,2,0,3,0,4,2,3,0,3,2,1,2,0,1,7,0,1 of frame size
3. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.
a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) 7
85. Consider a reference string 7,0,1,2,0,3,0,4,2,3,0,3,2,1,2,0,1,7,0,1 of frame size
4. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.

a) 7
b) 9
c) 8
d) 6
86. Consider a reference string 1,2,3,2,1,5,2,1,6,2,5,6,3,1,3,6,1,2,4,3 of frame size
3. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.

a) 12
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
b) 16
c) 14
d) 15
87. Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest
period of time whenever the page required to be replaced?
A. first in first out algorithm
B. additional reference bit algorithm
C. least recently used algorithm
D. counting based page replacement algorithm
88. A process is thrashing if:
A. it is spending more time paging than executing
B. it is spending less time paging than executing
C. page fault occurs
D. swapping can not take place
89. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:
A. modularity
B. locality
C. globalization
D. random access
90. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:
A. oldest page is chosen
B. newest page is chosen
C. random page is chosen
D. none of the mentioned
91. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of:
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
A. program counter
B. status register
C. instruction register
D. program status word
92. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
A. physical address
B. absolute address
C. logical address
D. none of the mentioned
93. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by:
A. memory management unit
B. CPU
C. PCI
D. none of the mentioned
94. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called:
A. fragmentation
B. paging
C. Mapping
D. none of the mentioned
95. Program always deals with:
A. logical address
B. absolute address
C. physical address
D. relative address
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
96. The page table contains:
A. base address of each page in physical memory
B. page offset
C. page size
D. none of the mentioned
97. What is compaction?
A. a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
B. a paging technique
C. a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
D. a technique for overcoming fatal error
98. Operating System maintains the page table for:
A. each process
B. each thread
C. each instruction
D. each address
99. In contiguous memory allocation :
A. each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
B. all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
C. the memory space is contiguous
D. None of these
100. In fixed sized partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by
___________.
A. the number of partitions
B. the CPU utilization
C. the memory size
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
D. All of these
Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
1. Which of the following is/are the technique(s) for performing I/O
management function.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) All of the above

2. In ………………., the processor issues an I/O command, on behalf of a process,

to an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

3. In ……………….., the processor issues an I/O command on behalf of a process,

continues to execute subsequent instructions and interrupted by the I/O
module when the latter has completed it’s work.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

4. A ………………. module controls the exchange of data between main memory

and an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
D) Virtual Memory Access

5. The ……………… unit is capable of mimicking the processor and indeed of

taking over control of the system from the processor.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access
6. The ………………… module deals with t he device as a logical resource and is
not concerned with the details of actually controlling the device.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

7. In ……………………, the requested operations and data are converted into

appropriate sequences of I/O instructions, channel commands and controller
orders.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

8. At the layer of ……………………, symbolic file names are

converted to identifiers that either reference the file directory or
indirectly through a file descriptor or index table.
A) Directory Management
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

9. ………………. layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.
A) Physical organization
B) File system
C) Directory management
D) Scheduling and control

10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called …………..
A) Double buffer
B) Single buffer
C) Linear buffer
D) Circular buffer

11. …………….. may be inadequate if the process performs rapid bursts of I/O.
A) Double buffering
B) Single buffering
C) Linear buffering
D) Circular buffering

12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as …………
A) seek time
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

13. The time disk controller takes for the beginning of the sector to reach the
head is known as ……………..
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

14. The ……………….. consists of two key components: the initial startup time,
and the time taken to traverse the tracks that have to be crossed once the
access arm is up to speed.
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

15. The ……………… policy is to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) Priority by process
D) Random scheduling
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
16. In ………………. policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction,
the arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) SCAN
D) Circular SCAN
17. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of RAID architecture.
i) RAID is set of physical disk drives viewed by the operating system as a single
logical drive
ii) Data are distributed across the physical drives of an array
iii) It is used to store parity information, which guarantees data recoverability
in case of disk failure.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii

18. …………….. is not a true member of RAID family, because it does not include
redundancy to improve performace.
A) RAID Level 0
B) RAID Level 1
C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3

19. ………….. would only be an effective choice in a environment in which many

disk errors occur.
A) RAID Level 0
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) RAID Level 1

C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3

20. In the ………………… scheme, two different parity calculations are carried out
an stored in separate blocks on different disks.
A) RAID Level 4
B) RAID Level 5
C) RAID Level 6
D) RAID Level 3
21. Reliability of files can be enhanced by :
a)by keeping duplicate copies of the file
b) making a different partition for the files
c) by keeping them in external storage
d) keeping the files safely in the memory
22. security is only provided at the _____ level.
a) none of the mentioned
b) high
c) central
d) lower
23. The major issue with access control lists is :
a) their maintenance
b) all of the mentioned
c) their permissions
d) their length

24. Many systems recognize three classifications of users in connection with

each file (to condense the access control list) :
a) ) Universe
b) Group
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
c) owner
d) All of the mentioned
25. 5.in a group, All users get _______ access to a file.
a) different
b)same
c) similar
d) none of the mentioned

26. The universe consists of :

a) all users in the system
b) all users that are not owners
c)all users that aren’t included in the group or owners
d) none of the mentioned

27. groups can be modified and created In UNIX by :

a) any user
b)superuser
c) the people in the group only
d) a programmer only

28. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a

______

a) file

b) swap space

c) directory

d) text format

29. File attributes consist of ____________

a) name

b) type

c) identifier

d) all of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
30. The information about all files is kept in ____________

a) swap space

b) operating system

c) seperate directory structure

d) none of the mentioned

31. Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
a) name & identifier
b) identifier & type
c) extension & name
d) type & extension

32. RAID level 3 supports a lower number of I/Os per second, because
_______________.

A. every disk has to participate in every I/O request

B. only one disk participates per I/O request

C. I/O cycle consumes a lot of CPU time

D. All of these

33. RAID level _____ is also known as block interleaved parity organisation and
uses block level striping and keeps a parity block on a seperate disk.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

34. A performance problem with _________ is the expense of computing and

writing parity.
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
A. non-parity based RAID levels

B. parity based RAID levels

C. all RAID levels

D. None of these

35. In RAID level 4, one block read, accesses __________.

A. only one disk

B. all disks simultaneously

C. all disks sequentially

D. None of these

36. The overall I/O rate in RAID level 4 is :

A. low
B. very low
C. high
D. None of these

37. RAID level 5 is also known as :

A. bit-interleaved parity organization

B. block-interleaved parity organization
C. block-interleaved distributed parity
D. memory-style ECC organization

38. RAID level ____ spreads parity and data among all N+1 disks rather than
storing data in N disks and parity in 1.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
D. 6

39. RAID level 0+1 is used because, RAID level 0 provides ______ whereas RAID
level 1 provides ________.

A. performance, redundancy
B. performance, reliability
C. redundancy, performance
D. None of these

40. If a disk fails in RAID level ___ rebuilding lost data is easiest.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

41. RAID stands for :

A. Redundant Allocation of Inexpensive Disks

B. Redundant Array of Important Disks
C. Redundant Allocation of Independent Disks
D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks

42. RAID level ______ is also known as memory style error correcting
code(ECC) organization.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

43. RAID level 3 does not have _________ as in RAID level 1.

A. efficiency
B. enough storage space for data
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
C. storage overhead
D. time consumption overhead View Answer

44. The solution to the problem of reliability is the introduction of __________.

A. aging
B. scheduling
C. redundancy
D. disks

45. RAID level ________ refers to disk arrays with striping at the level of blocks,
but without any redundancy.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

46. RAID level _______ refers to disk mirroring.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

47. RAID level ______ is also known as bit interleaved parity organisation.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
48. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a
______
a) file
b) swap space
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
c) directory
d) text format
49. A file is a/an _______ data type.
a) abstract
b) primitive
c) public
d) private
50. In UNIX, what will the open system call return?
a) pointer to the entry in the open file table
b) pointer to the entry in the system wide table
c) a file to the process calling it
d) none of the mentioned
1) Which of the following is not an operating system?

a) Windows
b) Linux
c) Oracle
d) DOS

2) What is the maximum length of the filename in DOS?

a) 4
b) 5
c) 8
d) 12

3) When was the first operating system developed?

a) 1948
b) 1949
c) 1950
d) 1951

4) Which of the following is the extension of Notepad?

a) .txt
b) .xls
c) .ppt
d) .bmp
e)

5) What else is a command interpreter called?

a) prompt
b) kernel
c) shell
d) command
6) What is the full name of FAT?

a) File attribute table

b) File allocation table
c) Font attribute table
d) Format allocation table

7) BIOS is used?

a) By operating system
b) By compiler
c) By interpreter
d) By application software

8) Which is the Linux operating system?

a) Private operating system

b) Windows operating system
c) Open-source operating system
d) None of these

9) What are the services operating System provides to both the users and to
the programs?

A. File System manipulation

B. Error Detection
C. Program execution
D. Resource Allocation
10) Which of the following few common services provided by an operating
system?

A. Protection
B. Program execution
C. I/O operations
D. All of the above

11)Which of the following is false about I/O Operation?

A. Operating system does not provides the access to the I/O device
B. I/O operation means read or write operation
C. An I/O subsystem comprises of I/O devices
D. None of the above

12) . What is operating system?

• A. collection of programs that manages hardware resources
• B. system service provider to the application programs
• C. link to interface the hardware and application programs
• D. all of the mentioned

13) To access the services of operating system, the interface is provided by the:
• A. system calls
• B. API
• C. library
• D. assembly instructions

14) Which of the following is not a type of user interface?

A. command line

B .system interface

c.design interface

d. both b & c

15) Which of the following is the master control program of a computer?

a. Operating System
b. MS Word
c. MS Excel
d. None of these

16 )Which of the following is/are popular operating system(s) for

mobile phones?
a. Android
b. Windows mobile
c. iOS
d. All of these

17 Which of the following interface is mostly used in modern

computers?
a. CUI
b. GUI
c. UI
d. None of these

18 Minimize button is located at the ________ corner of the window.

a. Top-right
b. Top-left
c. Bottom-left
d. Bottom-right
 19 ).We can work on more than one software in ________.
a. CUI
b. GUI
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of these

20) MULTIPROGRAMMING SYSTEMS:

A. are easier to develop than single programming system

B. execute each job faster
C. execute more jobs in the same time period
D. are used only on large mainframe computers
E. None of the above

23) Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating
system prompt on the first line of the display?
a. Cd
b. Md
c. Rename
d. cls

24) Which command is used to copy files?

a. Copy
b. Diskcopy
c. Type
d. All of the above

1. An entire path name, consisting of several sub-directory names can contain

upto
a. 13 character
b. 36 character
c. 63 character
d. 53 character
Correct Answer: c
2. In which year the first operating system was developed
a. 1910
b. 1940
c. 1950
d. 1980
Correct Answer: c

3. MS-DOS developed in
a. 1991
b. 1984
c. 1971
d. 1961
Correct Answer: b

4. Maximum length of DOS command using any optional parameter is

a. 26 characters
b. 87 characters
c. 127 characters
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

5. In which version of DOS. CHKDSK command has been changed to SCANDISK?

a. 5.0
b. 6.2
c. 6.0
d. 6.2
Correct Answer: d

6. CHKDSK command is used to

a. Analyze the hard disk error
b. Diagnose the hard disk error
c. Report the status of files on disk
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: d
7. Which file is the batch file that is read while booting a computer?
a. Autoexec.bat
b. Auto-batch
c. Autoexecutive.bat
d. Auto.bat
Correct Answer: a

8. Which command is used to backup in DOS 6+ Version

a. BACKUP
b. MSBACKUP
c. MSBACKEDUP
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b

9. Copy and Xcopy are same in the sense

a. Both are internal command of DOS
b. Both are external commands of DOS
c. Both can be used to copy file or group of files
d. Both a and b
Correct Answer: c

44. Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating
system prompt on the first line of the display?
a. Cd
b. Md
c. Rename
d. cls
Correct Answer: d

10. Which command is used to clear the screen

a. Cls
b. Clear
c. Clscreen
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a

11. internal command in Dos are

a. Cls, rd label
b. Dir, ren, sys
c. Time, type, dir
d. Del, disk copy, label
Correct Answer: c

12. Which command is used to copy files?

a. Copy
b. Diskcopy
c. Type
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

13. To copy the hidden system files of DOS to another disk you can use the
command
a. Copy
b. Ren
c. Sys
d. Diskcopy
Correct Answer: c

14. Disk copy command in DOS is used to

a. Copy a file
b. Copy contents of one floppy disk to another
c. Copy contents of CD-ROM to another
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: b

15. SYS command is used to

a. Copy DOS system files to new disk
b. Copy DOS configuration files to a new disk
c. Update the DOS system files
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a

16. The command used to copy a file named temp.doc from drive C: to drive A:
is
a. Copy temp.doc to a:
b. Copy c:\temp.doc a:
c. Copy c: a:
d. Copy temp a: c:
Correct Answer: b

17. External command in DOS are

a. Copy, edit, sys, format
b. Edit, sys, chkdsk
c. Chkdsk, prompt, date
d. Sys, ver, vol
Correct Answer: b

18. Which keys can be pressed quit without saving in DOS

a. Ctrl + A
b. Ctrl + B
c. Ctrl + C
d. Ctrl + D
Correct Answer: c

19. Which command is used to get the current date only?

a. Date
b. Time
c. Second
d. All of the above
Correct Answer: a

20. Generally, the DATE is entered in the form

a. DD-YY-MM
b. YY-DD-MM
c. MM-YY-DD
d. MM-DD-YY
Correct Answer: d

21. DEL command is used to

a. Delete files
b. Delete directory
c. Delete labels
d. Delete contents of file
Correct Answer: a

22. Which command be used to ask you to confirm that you want to delete the
directory?
a. Deltree
b. Deltree/f
c. Del *.*/p
d. Erase *.*
Correct Answer: c

23. Which statement is correct?

a. Directories can be kept inside a file
b. Files can not be kept inside a directory
c. 1 millisec = 10 ^ 3 sec
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

24. CHKDSK can be used to find

a. Disk’s bad portion
b. Occupied space
c. Free space
d. All of above
Correct Answer: d

25. DIR command is used to

a. Display a list of files in a directory
b. Display contents of files in directory
c. Display type of files in a sub directory
d. All of above
Correct Answer: a

26. The deleted file in MS-DOS can be recovered if you use the command
mention below immediately, the command is:
a. DO NOT DELETE
b. NO DELETE
c. UNDELETE
d. ONDELETE
Correct Answer: c

27 To copy the file command.com from drive c: to drive a:

a. Drive c: copy drive a:\command.com
b. C:A: copy command.com
c. Copy c:\command.com a:
d. Both b and c
Correct Answer: c

28. While working with MS-DOS which key is used to get the p[revious
command used:
a. F3
b. F1
c. F6
d. F9
Correct Answer: a

29. FAT stands for

a. File Accomodation Table
b. File Access Tape
c. File Allocation Table
d. File Activity Table
Correct Answer: c
30. xcopy command can copy
a. individual files or group of files
b. directories including subdirectories
c. to diskette of a different capacity
d. all of above
Correct Answer: d

31. Which command is used to make a new directory?

a. Md
b. Cd
c. Rd
d. None of above
Correct Answer: a

32. Full form of MS-DOS is

a. Micro System Disk Operating System
b. Micro Simple Disk Operating System
c. Micro Soft Disk Operating System
d. Micro Sort Disk Operating System
Correct Answer: c

33. Operating System is like a

a. Parliament
b. Secretary
c. Government
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: c

34. Format command is used to

a. Prepare a blank disk
b. Create a new blank disk from a used one
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c
35. The following command set is correct according to their function
a. RD can MD
b. DEL and ERASE
c. CD and RD
d. COPY and RENAME
Correct Answer: b

36. Which command is used to change the file name?

a. Ren
b. Rename
c. Both of above
d. None of above
Correct Answer: c

37. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to copying the files to
transfer from one PC to another one?
a. Rename
b. Path
c. Dir
d. Copy
Correct Answer: d

38. RESTORE command is used to

a. Restore files from disks made using the BACKUP command
b. Restore files which are deleted
c. Restore files from recycle bin
d. Restore files which are deleted recently
Correct Answer: a

39. The vol command is used to

a. see the value of list
b. see the veriety of language
c. see the disk volume label
d. see the volume of largest
Correct Answer: c
40. In MS-DOS you can use small or capital letter of combination of both to
enter a command but internally MS-DOS work with.
a. Small letter
b. Capital letter
c. Both a and b
d. None of above
Correct Answer: b

41. The maximum length in DOS commands is

a. 80 chars
b. 127 chars
c. 100 chars
d. 8 chars
Correct Answer: b

42. The time command is used to display _____ time.

a. US time
b. Greenwich Mean Time
c. Julian Time
d. System Time

Correct Answer: d

43) To run the script, we should make it executable first by using _____
• A. chmod +x
• B. chmod +r
• C. chmod +w
• D. chmod +rwx
44) What are positional parameters?
• A. special variables for assigning arguments from the command line
• B. pattern matching parameters
• C. special variables for reading user input
• D. special variables and patterns

45) Unix is a
• A. Single User, Single tasking OS
• 0B. Single User, Multi-tasking OS
• C. Multi-User, Multi- tasking OS
• D. None

46) Which directory file system in UNIX is used?

A. tree directory
B. diamond directory
C. hierarchical directory
D. graph-structured director
 UNIT:2 Service & Components Of Operating System
1. Which of the following is/ are the part of operating system?

A) Kernel services

B) Library services

C) Application level services

D) All of the above

2. The system of ................ generally ran one job at a time. These were called single stream batch
processing.

A) 40's

B) 50's

C) 60's

D) 70's
3. In ..............generation of operating system, operating system designers develop the concept of
multiprogramming in which several jobs are in main memory at once.

A) First

B) Second

C) Third

D) Fourth

4. State True or False.

i) In spooling high speed device like a disk is interposed between running program and low-speed device
in Input/output.

ii) By using spooling for example instead of writing directly to a printer, outputs are written to the disk.

A) i-True, ii-False

B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False
5. Which of the following is/are the functions of operating system?

i) Sharing hardware among users. ii) Allowing users to share data among themselves.

iii) Recovering from errors. iv) Preventing users from interfering with one another.

v) Scheduling resources among users.

A) i, ii, iii and iv only

B) ii, iii, iv and v only

C) i, iii, iv and v only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

6.executes must frequently and makes the fine grained decision of which process to
execute the next.

A) Long-term scheduling

B) Medium-term scheduling

C) Short-term scheduling

D) None of the above

7. With ................ a page is brought into main memory only when the reference is made to a location
on that page.

A) demand paging

B) main paging

C) prepaging

D) postpaging

8.provides a larger sized of virtual memory but require virtual memory which provides
multidimensional memory.

A) Paging method

B) Segmentation method

C) Paging and segmentation method

D) None of these

9.is a large kernel containing virtually the complete operating system, including,
scheduling, file system, device drivers and memory management.
A) Multilithic kernel

B) Monolithic kernel

C) Micro kernel

D) Macro kernel

10.is a large operating system core provides a wide range of services.

A) Multilithic kernel

B) Monolithic kernel

C) Micro kernel

D) Macro kernel

11. Which of the following is not the function of Microkernel?

A) File management

B) Low-level memory management

C) Inter-process communication

D) I/O interrupts management

12. Match the following.

i) Mutual exclusion a) A process may hold allocated resources while waiting assignment.

ii) Hold and wait b) No resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it.

iii) No preemption c) Only one process may use a resource at a time.

A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

B) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

D) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

13. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrences of ...................

A) Mutual exclusion

B) Hold and wait

C) Circular waits

D) No preemption

14. The methods or algorithms which are used to increase the performance of disk storage sub-system
is called .............
A) Disk performing

B) Disk scheduling

C) Disk storing

D) Disk extending

15.is the time required to move the disk arm to the required track.

A) Seek time

B) Rotational delay

C) Latency time

D) Access time

16. The ............... policy restricts scanning to one direction only.

A) SCAN

B) C-SCAN

C) N-Step SCAN

D) Both A and B
17.policy selects the disk I/O request that requires the least movement of the disk arm
from its current position.

A) FSCAN

B) SSTF

C) SCAN

D) C-SCAN

18.refers to the ability of an operating system to support multiple threads of execution

with a single process.

A) Multithreading

B) Multiprocessing

C) Multiexecuting

D) Bi-threading

19. State whether the following statement is true.

i) It takes less time to terminate a thread than a process.

ii) Threads enhance efficiency in communication between different executing programs.

A) i-True, ii-False
B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False

20.is a special type of programming language used to provide instructions to the monitor
simple batch processing schema.

A) Job control language (JCL)

B) Processing control language (PCL)

C) Batch control language (BCL)

D) Monitor control language (MCL)

21.The first batch operating system was developed in the ................ by General Motors for use on an
IBM 701.

A) mid 1940's

B) mid 1950's

C) mid 1960's

D) mid 1970's

22. Process is ........................

A) A program in execution

B) An instance of a program running on a computer.

C) The entity that can be assigned to and executed

D) All of the above.

23. is a facility that allows programmers to address memory from a logical point of view,
without regard to the main memory, physically available.

A) Visual memory

B) Real memory

C) Virtual memory

D) Secondary memory

24. is a large kernel, including scheduling file system, networking, device drivers, memory
management and more.
A) Monolithic kernel

B) Micro kernel

C) Macro kernel

D) Mini kernel

25. A .................... architecture assigns only a few essential functions to the kernel, including
address spaces, Inter process communication(IPC) and basic scheduling.

A) Monolithic kernel

B) Micro kernel

C) Macro kernel
D) Mini kernel

26. State whether true or false.

i) Multithreading is useful for application that perform a number of essentially independent tasks that
do not be serialized.

ii) An example of multithreading is a database server that listens for and process numerous client
request.

A) i-True, ii-False

B) i-True, ii-True

C) i-False, ii-True

D) i-False, ii-False

27. ...................... With only one process can execute at a time; meanwhile all other process are
waiting for the processer. With more than one process can be running simultaneously each on a
different processer.

A) Multiprocessing, Multiprogramming

B) Multiprogramming, Uniprocessing

C) Multiprogramming, Multiprocessing

D) Uniprogramming, Multiprocessing

28. The two central themes of modern operating system are...............

A) Multiprogramming and Distributed processing

B) Multiprogramming and Central Processing

C) Single Programming and Distributed processing

D) None of above

29. ............. refers to the ability of multiple process (or threads) to share code, resources or data in
such a way that only one process has access to shared object at a time.

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion

C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

30. .................is the ability of multiple process to co-ordinate their activities by exchange of
information

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion
C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

31. ..............refers to a situation in which a process is ready to execute but is continuously denied
access to a processor in deference to other processes.

A) Synchronization

B) Mutual Exclusion

C) Dead lock

D) Starvation

32. Which of the following is not the approach to dealing with deadlock?

A) Prevention

B) Avoidance

C) Detection

D) Deletion

33. Which of the following are the states of a five state process model?

i) Running ii) Ready iii) New iv) Exit v) Destroy

A) i, ii, iii and v only

B) i, ii, iv and v only

C) i, ii, iii, and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

34. State which statement is true for Suspended process?

i) The process is not immediately available for execution.

ii) The process may be removed from suspended state automatically without removal order.

A) i only

B) ii only

C) i and ii only

D) None

35. Following is/are the reasons for process suspension.

A) Swapping parent process

B) Inter request

C) Timing
D) All of the above

36. The different types of tables maintained by the operating system are .............

A) memory, logical , I/O file

B) memory, I/O, file, physical

C) memory, I/O, file, process

D) memory, logical, I/O, physical

37. Which of the following information not included in memory table?

A) The allocation of main memory to process.

B) The allocation of secondary memory to process

C) Any information needed to manage virtual memory

D) Any information about the existence of file

38. Process Management function of an operating system kernel includes.

A) Process creation and termination.

B) Process scheduling and dispatching

C) Process switching

D) All of the above

39. The typical elements of process image are .....................

i) User data ii) System Data iii) User program iv) System stack

A) i, iii and iv only

B) i, ii, and iv only

C) ii, iii, and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii, and iv

40. Match the following mechanisms for interrupting the execution of a process and their uses.

i) Interrupt a) Call to an operating system function

ii) Trap b) Reaction to an asynchronous external event

iii) Supervisor Call c) Handling of a error or an exception condition

A) i-a, ii-b, iii-c

B) i-c, ii-a, iii-b

C) i-b, ii-c, iii-a

D) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

41. The unit of dispatching is usually referred to as a …………..

A) Thread

B) Lightweight process

C) Process

D) Both A and B

42. ................is a example of an operating system that support single user process and single thread.

A) UNIX

B) MS-DOS

C) OS/2

D) Windows 2000

43. . State true or false.

i) Unix, support multiple user process but only support one thread per process.

ii) A java run time environment is an example of a system of one process with multiple threads.

A) True, False

B) True, True

C) False, True

D) False, False

44. are very effective because a mode switch is not required to switch from one thread to
another.

A) Kernel-level threads
B) User-level threads

C) Alterable threads

D) Application level threads

45. . is a condition in which there is a set of concurrent processes, only one of which is able to
access a given resource or perform a given function at any time.

A) Mutual Exclusion

B) Busy Waiting

C) Deadlock
D) Starvation

46. Techniques can be used to resolve conflicts, such as competition for resources, and to
synchronize processes so that they can cooperate.

A) Mutual Exclusion

B) Busy Waiting

C) Deadlock

D) Starvation

47. Can be defined as the permanent blocking of a set of processed that either complete for
system resources or communicate with each other.

A) Deadlock

B) Permanent lock

C) Starvation

D) Mutual exclusion

48. The following conditions of policy must be present for a deadlock to be possible.

i) Mutual exclusion ii) Hold and wait

iii) No preemption iv) Circular wait

A) i, ii and iii only

B) ii, iii and iv only

C) i, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

49. A direct method of deadlock prevention is to prevent the occurrence of …………..

A) Mutual exclusion
B) Hold and wait

C) Circular waits

D) No preemption

50. State true of false.

i) With paging, each process is divided into relatively small, fixed-size pages.

ii) Segmentation provides for the use of pieces of varying size.

A) Partition management

B) Memory management

C) Disk management

D) All of the above

51. ......... Involves treating main memory as a resource to be allocated to and shared among a

number of active processes.

A) Partition management

B) Memory management

C) Disk management

D) All of the above

52. A process that execute only in main memory is referred to as .............. and that allocated in disk is
referred to a …………….

A) Virtual memory, true memory

B) Virtual memory, real memory

C) Real memory, virtual memory

D) Imaginary memory, real memory

53. In process scheduling, ................... determines when new processes are admitted to the system.

A) long term scheduling

B) medium term scheduling

C) short term scheduling

D) none of the above

54. ............................................... In process scheduling, determines which ready process will be

executed next by
processor.
 A) long term scheduling

B) medium term scheduling

C) short term scheduling

D) none of the above

55. The sum of the seek time, and the rotational delay is called the ………………..

A) reached time

B) access time

C) arrived time

D) common time
56. The ............... policy segments the disks request queue into sub queues of the length N.

A) SCAN

B) C-SCAN

C) N-Step SCAN

D) FSCAN

57. Which of the following are the functions of operating system?

i) recovering from errors ii) facilitating input/output

iii) facilitating parallel operation iv) sharing hardware among users

v) implementing user interface

A) i, ii, ii, and v only

B) i, ii, iii, and iv only

C) ii, iii, iv and v only

D) All i, ii, iii, iv and v

58. File management function of the operating system includes

i) File creation and deletion ii) Disk scheduling

iii) Directory creation iv) Mapping file in secondary storage.

A) i, ii and iii only

B) i, iii and iv only

C) ii, iii and iv only

D) All i, ii, iii and iv

59. ...................The Determines when a page should be brought into main memory.
 A) Fetch policy

B) Placement policy

C) Replacement policy

D) Resident set management

60. With.................... A page is written out to secondary memory only when it has been selected for
replacement.

A) pre-cleaning

B) demand cleaning

C) required cleaning

D) fast cleaning

61. The process is........

A) an instance of a program in execution

B) a program only

C) a processor state

D) the kernel state

62. The mechanism that brings a page into memory only when it is needed is called.....

A) segmentation

B) fragmentation

C) demand paging

D) page replacement

63. The two paradigms if IPC are ............ and.......

A) call, reply

B) shared memory, message passing

C) send, receive

D) call by value, call by reference

64. A program is passive while a process is..........

 A) inactive

B) spontaneous

C) active

D) impulse

65. FIFO scheduling is..........

A) preemptive scheduling

B) non preemptive scheduling

C) deadline scheduling

D) fair share scheduling

66. ………. ensures that once transaction completes successively, the results of the operations become
permanent.

A) serializability

B) synchronizability

C) atomicity

D) durability

67. A process is created and is initially put in the........

A) ready queue

B) device queue

C) i/o queue

D) waiting queue

68. Which directory implementation is used in most of the Operating System?

A) single level directory structure

B) two level directory structure

C) tree directory structure

D) acyclic directory structure

69. Isolation property is also known as.........

A) Performance

B) Serializability

C) Durability

D) Atomicity

70. A thread is a..........

A) task
B) process

C) program

D) light weight process

71. The interval from the fine submission of a process to the time of completion is the......

A) waiting time

B) blocked time

C) turnaround time

D) response time

72. The term "Operating System" means..........

A) a set of programs which controls computer working

B) the way a computer operator works

C) conversion of high-level language in to machine level language

D) the way a floppy disk drive operates

73. Generally we have user level threads and...........

A) Programmer level thread

B) kernel level thread

C) program level thread

D) process level thread

74. To ensure that the ......... condition never occurs in the system, we must guarantee that, whenever a
process requests a resource, it does not have any other resource.

A) mutual exclusion

B) no-preemption

C) circular waits

D) hold and wait

75. Resource locking........

A) allows multiple tasks to simultaneously use resource

B) forces only on takes to use any resource at any time

C) can easily cause a dead lock condition

D) in not used for disk drives

76. A program responsible for assigning the CPU to the process that has been selected by the short
term scheduler is known as.........

A) scheduler

B) dispatcher

C) debugger

D) compiler

77. The ..........instruct Kernel to do various operations of the calling program and exchange data
between the Kernel at the program.

A) shell

B) editors

C) system calls

D) commands

78. Which of the following buffering strategies are used in interprocess communication?

A) null pointer

B) single message buffer

C) multiple message buffer

D) all of the above

79. The process of splitting of data into equal size partitions over multiple disks is known as .....
 A) data stripping

B) array of disks

C) RAID

D) SCAN
80. Pipes allow transfer of data between processor in a ........ manner.

A) last in first out

B) shortest job first

C) multilevel queue

D) first in first out

81. The process of storing extra or duplicate information used for rebuilding the lost information in
event of disks failure is known as...

A. stripping

B. redundancy

C. disk array

D. RAID

82. A thread that is to be cancelled is often referred to as the....

A. target thread

B. thread cancellation

C. asynchronous cancellation

D. defined cancellation

83. ......... ensures the every message sent to a group of receivers will be delivered to either all of them
or none of them.

A. Ordered delivery

B. Atomicity

B. Survivability

D. Reliability

84. An arrangement of record in a sequence in which they arrive is known as a ...........

A. pile
 B. file

C. disk

D. directory

85. ......... also known as monitor mode.

A. User mode
B. System mode

C. Unprivileged mode

D. Process mode

86. The technique, for sharing the time of a computer among several jobs, which switches jobs so
rapidly such that each job appears to have the computer to itself, is called........

A. time sharing

B. time out

C. time domain

D. multitasking

87. For batch and payroll applications which of the following file organization is better........

A. random file

B. sequential file

C. indexed file

D. hashed file

88. Name the scheduler that selects among the processes that are ready to execute and allocates
the CPU to one of them.

A. Long term scheduler

B. Medium term scheduler

C. Job scheduler

D. Short term scheduler

89. Failure during inter-process communication may be due to.....

A. loss of request transfer unit

B. single datagram messages

C. multidatagram messages

D. message passing
90. The process of direct mapping by using some faster algorithms is called as.........

A. hashing

B. searching

C. sorting

D. indexing

91. Name the system in which the processors do not share memory and each processor that its
own local memory.

A. Tightly coupled system

B. Parallel processing system

C. Loosely coupled system

D. Batch processing system

92. Which technique was introduced because a single job could not keep both the CPU and I/O
devices busy?

A. Time-sharing

B. Spooling

C. preemptive scheduling

D. Multiprogramming

93. Those directories in which the root directory has all system file and no other sub-directory is
known as ...

A. flat directory

B. single directory

C. hierarchical directory

D. indexed directory

94. Which is responsible for maintaining all the important abstractions of the operating system?
A. Kernel

B. System libraries

C. System utilities
D. Daemons

95. A four message reliable IPC protocol for client server communication works as........

A. request, reply, acknowledgement

B. reply, acknowledgement, request, acknowledgement

C. request, acknowledgement, reply, acknowledgement

D. request, request, reply, acknowledgement

96. A path name that starts at root directory is..........

A. absolute

B. relative

C. hybrid

D. hierarchical

97. Where does the problem of fragmentation occur?

A. Static storage allocation

B. Static allocation storage

C. Stack allocation with dynamic binding

D. Heap allocation

98. Idempotency basically means.........

A. reliability

B. repeatability

C. Survivability

D. flexibility

99. All path names are specified relative to the working directory........
 A. absolute path name

B. relative path name

C. hybrid path name

D. hierarchical path name

100. The time taken by the disk arm to locate the specific address of a sector for getting information
is called........

A. rotational latency

B. seek time

C. search time

D. response time
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
1. A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following?

a) Code

b) Stack

c) Bootstrap program

d) Data

2. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________

a) Output

b) Throughput

c) Efficiency

d) Capacity

3. The state of a process is defined by __________

a) the final activity of the process

b) the activity just executed by the process

c) the activity to next be executed by the process

d) the current activity of the process

4. Which of the following is not the state of a process?

a) New

b) Old

c) Waiting

d) Running

5. What is a Process Control Block?

a) Process type variable

b) Data Structure

c) A secondary storage section

d) A Block in memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
6. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in __________

a) Process Register

b) Program Counter

c) Process Table

d) Process Unit

7. What is the degree of multiprogramming?

a) the number of processes executed per unit time

b) the number of processes in the ready queue

c) the number of processes in the I/O queue

d) the number of processes in memory

8. A single thread of control allows the process to perform __________

a) only one task at a time

b) multiple tasks at a time

c) only two tasks at a time

d) all of the mentioned

9) The OS maintains all PCBs in?

A. Process Scheduling Queues

B. Job queue

C. Ready queue

D. Device queues

10. The processes which are blocked due to unavailability of an I/O device constitute this
queue.

A. Process Scheduling Queues

B. Job queue

C. Ready queue

D. Device queues
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
11) Two-state process model refers to?

A. running states

B. non-running states

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

12.Which is not a type of Schedulers?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. None of the above

13.Which scheduler is also called a job scheduler?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. All of the above

14.When the suspended process is moved to the secondary storage. This process is called?

A. process mix.

B. swapping

C. Swap-In

D. Swap-Out

15.Which scheduler Speed is fastest?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
D. Swapping

16.Which Schedular is a part of Time sharing systems?

A. Long-Term Scheduler

B. Short-Term Scheduler

C. Medium-Term Scheduler

D. Swapping

17.A_________ is the mechanism to store and restore the state

A. PCB

B. Program Counter

C. Scheduling information

D. context switch

18. What is Inter process communication?

a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same
address space

b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same
address space

c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication

d) none of the mentioned

19. Message passing system allows processes to __________

a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data

b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data

c) share data

d) name the recipient or sender of the message

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
20. Which of the following two operations are provided by the IPC facility?

a) write & delete message

b) delete & receive message

c) send & delete message

d) receive & send message

21. Messages sent by a process __________

a) have to be of a fixed size

b) have to be a variable size

c) can be fixed or variable sized

d) None of the mentioned

22. The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages is called __________

a) communication link

b) message-passing link

c) synchronization link

d) all of the mentioned

23. Which of the following are TRUE for direct communication?

a) A communication link can be associated with N number of process(N = max. number of

processes supported by system)

b) A communication link can be associated with exactly two processes

c) Exactly N/2 links exist between each pair of processes(N = max. number of processes
supported by system)

d) Exactly two link exists between each pair of processes

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
24. In indirect communication between processes P and Q __________

a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q

b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication

c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q

d) none of the mentioned

25. Bounded capacity and Unbounded capacity queues are referred to as __________

a) Programmed buffering

b) Automatic buffering

c) User defined buffering

d) No buffering

26. Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

a) program counter

b) stack

c) both program counter and stack

d) none of the mentioned

27. A process can be ___________

a) single threaded

b) multithreaded

c) both single threaded and multithreaded

d) none of the mentioned

28. If one thread opens a file with read privileges then ___________

a) other threads in the another process can also read from that file

b) other threads in the same process can also read from that file
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
c) any other thread can not read from that file

d) all of the mentioned

28. The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is ___________

a) greater than the time required to create a new process

b) less than the time required to create a new process

c) equal to the time required to create a new process

d) none of the mentioned

29 When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs?

a) thread moves to the ready queue

b) thread remains blocked

c) thread completes

d) a new thread is provided

30.Termination of the process terminates ___________

a) first thread of the process

b) first two threads of the process

c) all threads within the process

d) no thread within the process

31.Which one of the following is not a valid state of a thread?

a) running
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
b) parsing

c) ready

d) blocked

32 The register context and stacks of a thread are deallocated when the thread?

a) terminates

b) blocks

c) unblocks

d) spawns

33.Thread synchronization is required because ___________

a) all threads of a process share the same address space

b) all threads of a process share the same global variables

c) all threads of a process can share the same files

d) all of the mentioned

34 . Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

a) program counter

b) stack

c) both program counter and stack

d) none of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

35.A process can be ___________

a) single threaded

b) multithreaded

c) both single threaded and multithreaded

d) none of the mentioned

36.If one thread opens a file with read privileges then ___________

a) other threads in the another process can also read from that file

b) other threads in the same process can also read from that file

c) any other thread can not read from that file

d) all of the mentioned

37.The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is ___________

a) greater than the time required to create a new process

b) less than the time required to create a new process

c) equal to the time required to create a new process

d) none of the mentioned

38.When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs?

a) thread moves to the ready queue

b) thread remains blocked.

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
c) thread completes

d) a new thread is provided

39 BIOS is used?

By operating system

By compiler

By interpreter

By application softwar

40. A thread is also called ___________

a) Light Weight Process(LWP)
b) Heavy Weight Process(HWP)
c) Process
d) None of the mentioned

41 .A thread shares its resources(like data section, code section, open files, signals) with
___________
a) other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to
b) other threads that belong to similar processes
c) other threads that belong to the same process
d) all of the mentioned

42.A heavy weight process ___________

a) has multiple threads of execution
b) has a single thread of execution
c) can have multiple or a single thread for execution
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

43 The systems which allows only one process execution at a time, are called:

• A. uniprogramming systems

• B. uniprocessing systems

• C. unitasking systems

• D. none of the mentioned

44. In operating system, each process has its own:

• A. address space and global variables

• B. open files

• C. pending alarms, signals and signal handlers

• D. all of the mentione

45. In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?

• A. fork

• B. create

• C. new

• D. none of the mentioned

46. A process can be terminated due to:

• A. normal exit

• B. fatal error

• C. killed by another process

• D. all of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

47. What is the ready state of a process?

• A. when process is scheduled to run after some execution

• B. when process is unable to run until some task has been completed

• C. when process is using the CPU

• D. none of the mentioned

48. What is interprocess communication?

• A. communication within the process

• B. communication between two process

• C. communication between two threads of same process

• D. none of the mentioned

49. A set of processes is deadlock if:

• A. each process is blocked and will remain so forever

• B. each process is terminated

• C. all processes are trying to kill each other

• D. none of the mentioned

50. A process stack does not contain:

• A. function parameters

• B. local variables

• C. return addresses
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. PID of child process

51. Which system call returns the process identifier of a terminated child?

• A. wait

• B. exit

• C. fork

• D. get

52. The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by
the:

• A. CPU registers

• B. program counter

• C. process stack

• D. pipe

53. . A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :

• A. code

• B. stack

• C. Process State

• D. I/O status information

• E. bootstrap program

54. The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.

• A. output

• B. Throughput
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. Efficiency

• D. Capacity

55. The state of a process is defined by :

• A. the final activity of the process

• B. the activity just executed by the process

• C. the activity to next be executed by the process

• D. the current activity of the process

56. Which of the following is not the state of a process ?

• A. new

• B. old

• C. Waiting

• D. Running

• E. Terminate

57. The Process Control Block is :

• A. Process type variable

• B. Data Structure

• C. a secondary storage section

• D. a Block in memory

58. The entry of all the PCBs of the current processes is in :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. Process Register

• B. Program Counter

• C. Process Table

• D. Process Unit

59. The degree of multi-programming is :

• A. the number of processes executed per unit time

• B. the number of processes in the ready queue

• C. the number of processes in the I/O queue

• D. the number of processes in memory

60. A single thread of control allows the process to perform :

• A. only one task at a time

• B. multiple tasks at a time

• C. All of these

61. Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes ?

• A. Job Queue

• B. PCB queue

• C. Device Queue

• D. Ready Queue

62 When the process issues an I/O request :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. It is placed in an I/O queue

• B. It is placed in a waiting queue

• C. It is placed in the ready queue

• D. It is placed in the Job queue

63 What is a long-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. No

64 .If all processes I/O bound, the ready queue will almost always be ______, and the Short
term Scheduler will have a ______ to do.

• A. full,little

• B. full,lot

• C. empty,little

• D. empty,lot

65 . What is a medium-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. None of these
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

66 . What is a short-term scheduler ?

• A. It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue

• B. It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU

• C. It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping

• D. None of these

67 The primary distinction between the short term scheduler and the long term scheduler is
:

• A. The length of their queues

• B. The type of processes they schedule

• C. The frequency of their execution

• D. None of these

68 The only state transition that is initiated by the user process itself is :

• A. block

• B. wakeup

• C. dispatch

• D. None of these

69 In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the :

• A. Blocked state

• B. Ready state

• C. Suspended state
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. Terminated state

70 In a multi-programming environment :

• A. the processor executes more than one process at a time

• B. the programs are developed by more than one person

• C. more than one process resides in the memory

• D. a single user can execute many programs at the same time

71. Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the
service is completed, it goes to the :

• A. Running state

• B. Ready state

• C. Suspended state

• D. Terminated state

72 .The context of a process in the PCB of a process does not contain :

• A. the value of the CPU registers

• B. the process state

• C. memory-management information

• D. context switch time

73 .Which of the following does not interrupt a running process ?

• A. A device

• B. Timer
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. Scheduler process

• D. Power failure

74 .Several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of
the execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called a(n)
____.

• A. Shared Memory Segments

• B. Entry Section

• C. Race condition

• D. Process Synchronization

. 75 . Which of the following state transitions is not possible ?

• A. blocked to running

• B. ready to running

• C. blocked to ready

• D. running to blocked

76 . Which of the following is not a characteristic of virus ?

• A. Virus destroy and modify user data

• B. Virus is a standalone program

• C. Virus is a code embedded in a legitimate program

• D. Virus cannot be detected.

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
77 .Which one of the following is not shared by threads?

• A. program counter

• B. stack

• C. both (a) and (b)

• D. none of the mentioned

78 .A process can be:

• A. single threaded

• B. multithreaded

• C. both (a) and (b)

• D. none of the mentioned

78 .If one thread opens a file with read privileges then:

• A. other threads in the another process can also read from that file

• B. other threads in the same process can also read from that file

• C. any other thread can not read from that file

• D. all of the mentioned

79 .The time required to create a new thread in an existing process is:

• A. greater than the time required to create a new process

• B. less than the time required to create a new process

• C. equal to the time required to create a new process

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. none of the mentioned

. 80 .When the event for which a thread is blocked occurs,

• A. thread moves to the ready queue

• B. thread remains blocked

• C. thread completes

• D. a new thread is provided

81 Termination of the process terminates:

• A. first thread of the process

• B. first two threads of the process

• C. all threads within the process

• D. no thread within the process

82 .Which one of the following is not a valid state of a thread?

• A. running

• B. parsing

• C. ready

• D. blocked

83 .The register context and stacks of a thread are deallocated when the thread:

• A. terminated

• B. blocks
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• C. unblocks

• D. spawns

84 . Thread synchronization is required because:

• A. all threads of a process share the same address space

• B. all threads of a process share the same global variables

• C. all threads of a process can share the same files

• D. all of the mentioned

85 .A thread is also called :

• A. Light Weight Process(LWP)

• B. Heavy Weight Process(HWP)

• C. process

• D. None of these

86 .A thread shares its resources(like data section, code section, open files, signals) with :

• A. other process similar to the one that the thread belongs to

• B. other threads that belong to similar processes

• C. other threads that belong to the same process

• D. All of these

87 .A heavy weight process :

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. has multiple threads of execution

• B. has a single thread of execution

• C. can have multiple or a single thread for execution

• D. None of these

89 . process having multiple threads of control implies :

• A. it can do more than one task at a time

• B. it can do only one task at a time, but much faster

• C. it has to use only one thread per process

• D. None of these

90. Multithreading an interactive program will increase responsiveness to the user by :

• A. continuing to run even if a part of it is blocked

• B. waiting for one part to finish before the other begins

• C. asking the user to decide the order of multithreading

• D. None of these

91 . Multithreading on a multi – CPU machine :

• A. decreases concurrency

• B. increases concurrency

• C. doesnt affect the concurrency

• D. can increase or decrease the concurrency

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

92 The kernel is _______ of user threads.

• A. a part of

• B. the creator of

• C. unaware of

• D. aware of

93 . If the kernel is single threaded, then any user level thread performing a blocking system call
will :

• A. cause the entire process to run along with the other threads

• B. cause the thread to block with the other threads running

• C. cause the entire process to block even if the other threads are available to run

• D. None of these

94 . Because the kernel thread management is done by the Operating System itself :

• A. kernel threads are faster to create than user threads

• B. kernel threads are slower to create than user threads

• C. kernel threads are easier to manage as well as create then user threads

• D. None of these

95 If a kernel thread performs a blocking system call, ____________________.

• A. the kernel can schedule another thread in the application for execution.
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• B. the kernel cannot schedule another thread in the same application for execution.

• C. the kernel must schedule another thread of a different application for execution.

• D. the kernel must schedule another thread of the same application on a different
processor.

96 Which of the following is FALSE ?

• A. Context switch time is longer for kernel level threads than for user level threads

• B. User level threads do not need any hardware support

• C. Related kernel level threads can be scheduled on different processors in a

multiprocessor system

• D. Blocking one kernel level thread blocks all other related threads

97 The model in which one kernel thread is mapped to many user-level threads is called :

• A. Many to One model

• B. One to Many model

• C. Many to Many model

• D. One to One model

98 The model in which one user-level thread is mapped to many kernel level threads is called
:
 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• A. Many to One model

• B. One to Many model

• C. Many to Many model

• D. One to One model

. 99. In the Many to One model, if a thread makes a blocking system call :

• A. the entire process will be blocked

• B. a part of the process will stay blocked, with the rest running

• C. the entire process will run

• D. None of these

100 . In the Many to One model, multiple threads are unable to run in parallel on
multiprocessors because :

• A. only one thread can access the kernel at a time

• B. many user threads have access to just one kernel thread

• C. there is only one kernel thread

• D. None of these

101 .The One to One model allows :

• A. increased concurrency

• B. decreased concurrency

• C. increased or decreased concurrency

• D. concurrency equivalent to other models

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management

102 In the One to One model when a thread makes a blocking system call :

• A. other threads are strictly prohibited from running

• B. other threads are allowed to run

• C. other threads only from other processes are allowed to run

• D. None of these

103 . Which of the following is the drawback of the One to One Model ?

• A. increased concurrency provided by this model

• B. decreased concurrency provided by this model

• C. creating so many threads at once can crash the system

• D. creating a user thread requires creating the corresponding kernel thread

104 . When is the Many to One model at an advantage ?

• A. When the program does not need multi-threading

• B. When the program has to be multi-threaded

• C. When there is a single processor

• D. None of these

105 . in the Many to Many model when a thread performs a blocking system call :

• A. other threads are strictly prohibited from running

• B. other threads are allowed to run

• C. other threads only from other processes are allowed to run

 Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
• D. None of these

106 .Thread cancellation is :

• A. the task of destroying the thread once its work is done

• B. the task of removing a thread once its work is done

• C. the task of terminating a thread before it has completed

• D. None of these

107 . When a web page is loading, and the user presses a button on the browser to stop loading
the page :

• A. the thread loading the page continues with the loading

• B. the thread loading the page does not stop, but continues with another task

• C. the thread loading the page is paused

• D. the thread loading the page is cancelled

108 . When one thread immediately terminates the target thread, it is called :

• A. Asynchronous cancellation

• B. Systematic cancellation

• C. Sudden Termination

• D. Deferred cancellation
Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
Sub: OSY Unit-3 Process management
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm

1. What are reusable resources?

A. that can be used by one process at a time and is not depleted by that use
B. that can be used by more than one process at a time
C. that can be shared between various threads
D. none of the mentioned
1. Which of the following condition is required for deadlock to be possible?
A. mutual exclusion
B. a process may hold allocated resources while awaiting assignment of
other resources
C. no resource can be forcibly removed from a process holding it
D. all of the mentioned
3. A system is in the safe state if:
A. the system can allocate resources to each process in some order and still
avoid a deadlock
B. there exist a safe sequence
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the mentioned
4. The circular wait condition can be prevented by:
A. defining a linear ordering of resource types
B. using thread
C. using pipes
D. all of the mentioned
5. Which one of the following is the deadlock avoidance algorithm?
A. banker’s algorithm
B. round-robin algorithm
C. elevator algorithm
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
D. karn’s algorithm
6. For effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?
A. every time a resource request is made
B. at fixed time intervals
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the mentioned
7. A problem encountered in multitasking when a process is perpetually
denied necessary resources is called:
A. deadlock
B. starvation
C. inversion
D. aging
8. Which one of the following is a visual ( mathematical ) way to determine
the deadlock occurrence?
A. resource allocation graph
B. starvation graph
C. inversion graph
D. none of the mentioned
9. To avoid deadlock:
A. there must be a fixed number of resources to allocate
B. resource allocation must be done only once
C. all deadlocked processes must be aborted
D. inversion technique can be used
10. The number of resources requested by a process :
A. must always be less than the total number of resources available in the
system
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
B. must always be equal to the total number of resources available in the
system
C. must not exceed the total number of resources available in the system
D. must exceed the total number of resources available in the system
11. The request and release of resources are ___________.
A. command line statements
B. interrupts
C. system calls
D. special programs
12. Multithreaded programs are :
A. lesser prone to deadlocks
B. more prone to deadlocks
C. not at all prone to deadlocks
D. None of these
13. For Mutual exclusion to prevail in the system :
A. at least one resource must be held in a non sharable mode
B. the processor must be a uniprocessor rather than a multiprocessor
C. there must be at least one resource in a sharable mode
D. All of these
14. For a Hold and wait condition to prevail :
A. A process must be not be holding a resource, but waiting for one to be
freed, and then request to acquire it
B. A process must be holding at least one resource and waiting to acquire
additional resources that are being held by other processes
C. A process must hold at least one resource and not be waiting to acquire
additional resources
D. None of these
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
15. Deadlock prevention is a set of methods :
A. to ensure that at least one of the necessary conditions cannot hold
B. to ensure that all of the necessary conditions do not hold
C. to decide if the requested resources for a process have to be given or not
D. to recover from a deadlock
16. For non sharable resources like a printer, mutual exclusion :
A. must exist
B. must not exist
C. may exist
D. None of these
17. For sharable resources, mutual exclusion :
A. is required
B. is not required
C. A & B
D. None of these
18. To ensure that the hold and wait condition never occurs in the system,
it must be ensured that :
A. whenever a resource is requested by a process, it is not holding any
other resources
B. each process must request and be allocated all its resources before it
begins its execution
C. a process can request resources only when it has none
D. All of these
19. The disadvantage of a process being allocated all its resources before
beginning its execution is :
A. Low CPU utilization
B. Low resource utilization
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
C. Very high resource utilization
D. None of these
20. To ensure no preemption, if a process is holding some resources and
requests another resource that cannot be immediately allocated to it :
A. then the process waits for the resources be allocated to it
B. the process keeps sending requests until the resource is allocated to it
C. the process resumes execution without the resource being allocated to it
D. then all resources currently being held are pre-empted
21. One way to ensure that the circular wait condition never holds is to :
A. impose a total ordering of all resource types and to determine whether
one precedes another in the ordering
B. to never let a process acquire resources that are held by other processes
C. to let a process wait for only one resource at a time
D. All of these
22. Which module gives control of the CPU to the process selected by the
short-term scheduler?
A. dispatcher
B. interrupt
C. scheduler
D. none of the mentioned
23. The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and
waiting to execute are kept on a list called:
A. job queue
B. ready queue
C. execution queue
D. process queue
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
24. Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that
requests the CPU first?
A. first-come, first-served scheduling
B. shortest job scheduling
C. priority scheduling
D. none of the mentioned
25. The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of
completion is termed as:
A. waiting time
B. turnaround time
C. response time
D. throughput
26. In priority scheduling algorithm:
A. CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
B. CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
C. equal priority processes can not be scheduled
D. none of the mentioned
27. In priority scheduling algorithm, when a process arrives at the ready
queue, its priority is compared with the priority of:
A. all process
B. currently running process
C. parent process
D. init process
28. Time quantum is defined in:
A. shortest job scheduling algorithm
B. round robin scheduling algorithm
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
C. priority scheduling algorithm
D. multilevel queue scheduling algorithm
29. In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm:
A. a process can move to a different classified ready queue
B. classification of ready queue is permanent
C. processes are not classified into groups
D. none of the mentioned
30. Which one of the following can not be scheduled by the kernel?
A. kernel level thread
B. user level thread
C. process
D. none of the mentioned
31. The switching of the CPU from one process or thread to another is
called :
A. process switch
B. task switch
C. context switch
D. All of these
32. Dispatch latency is :
A. the speed of dispatching a process from running to the ready state
B. the time of dispatching a process from running to ready state and
keeping the CPU idle
C. the time to stop one process and start running another one
D. None of these
33. Scheduling is done so as to :
A. increase CPU utilization
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
B. decrease CPU utilization
C. keep the CPU more idle
D. None of these
34. Turnaround time is :
A. the total waiting time for a process to finish execution
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
35. Waiting time is :
A. the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
B. the total time spent in the ready queue
C. the total time spent in the running queue
D. the total time from the completion till the submission of a process
36. Response time is :
A. the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
B. the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is
produced
C. the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
D. None of these
37. Round robin scheduling falls under the category of :
A. Non preemptive scheduling
B. Preemptive scheduling
C. FCFS
D. None of these
38. With round robin scheduling algorithm in a time shared system,
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
A. using very large time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
B. using very small time slices converts it into First come First served
scheduling algorithm
C. using extremely small time slices increases performance
D. using very small time slices converts it into Shortest Job First algorithm
39. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that
dispatches processes is concerned with :
A. assigning ready processes to CPU
B. assigning ready processes to waiting queue
C. assigning running processes to blocked queue
D. All of these
40. Complex scheduling algorithms :
A. are very appropriate for very large computers
B. use minimal resources
C. use many resource
D. All of these
41.The FIFO algorithm :
A. first executes the job that came in last in the queue
B. first executes the job that came in first in the queue
C. first executes the job that needs minimal processo
D. first executes the job that has maximum processor needs
42. The strategy of making processes that are logically runnable to be
temporarily suspended is called :
A. Non preemptive scheduling
B. Preemptive scheduling
C. Shortest job first
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
D. First come First served
43. Scheduling is :
A. allowing a job to use the processor
B. making proper use of processor
C. Both a and b
D. None of these
44. There are 10 different processes running on a workstation. Idle
processes are waiting for an input event in the input queue. Busy processes
are scheduled with the Round-Robin time sharing method. Which out of the
following quantum times is the best value for small response times, if the
processes have a short run-time, e.g. less than 10ms ?
A. tQ = 15ms
B. tQ = 40ms
C. tQ = 45ms
D. tQ = 50ms
45. Orders are processed in the sequence they arrive if _______ rule
sequences the jobs.
A. earliest due date
B. slack time remaining
C. first come, first served
D. critical ratio
46. Which of the following algorithms tends to minimize the process flow
time ?
A. First come First served
B. Shortest Job First
C. Earliest Deadline First
D. Longest Job First
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
47. Under multiprogramming, turnaround time for short jobs is usually
________ and that for long jobs is slightly ___________.
A. Lengthened; Shortened
B. Shortened; Lengthened
C. Shortened; Shortened
D. hortened; Unchanged
48.

Answer: B
49.

Answer: A
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
50.

Answer: C

51.

Answer: E
52.

Answer: D
 Sub: OSY Unit-4 CPU Scheduling & Algorithm
53.

Answer: C
54.

Answer: C
55.

Answer: B
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
Chapter no 5

1. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of

____________
a) program counter
b) status register
c) instruction register
d) program status word

2. A memory buffer used to accommodate a speed differential is called

____________
a) stack pointer
b) cache
c) accumulator
d) disk buffer

3. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?

a) physical address
b) absolute address
c) logical address
d) none of the mentioned

4. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by ____________

a) Memory management unit
b) CPU
c) PCI
d) None of the mentioned

5. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called?
a) fragmentation
b) paging
c) mapping
d) none of the mentioned

6. The address of a page table in memory is pointed by ____________

a) stack pointer
b) page table base register
c) page register
d) program counter

7. Program always deals with ____________

a) logical address
b) absolute address
c) physical address
d) relative address

8. The page table contains ____________

a) base address of each page in physical memory
b) page offset
c) page size
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

9. What is compaction?
a) a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
b) a paging technique
c) a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
d) a technique for overcoming fatal error

10. Operating System maintains the page table for ____________

a) each process
b) each thread
c) each instruction
d) each address

11.In Process Address Space, The loader generates these addresses at the time
when a program is loaded into main memory is ?

A. Symbolic addresses
B. Relative addresses
C. Physical addresses
D. None of the above

12 In Process Address Space, The variable names, constants, and instruction labels
are the basic elements of ____________.

A. Symbolic addresses
B. Relative addresses
C. Physical addresses
D. None of the above
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
13. The set of all physical addresses corresponding to these logical addresses is
referred to as?

A. Logical address space.

B. Physical address space.
C. MMU address space
D. Virtual address space.

14. With ________, the absolute program (and data) is loaded into memory in
order for execution to start.

A. Static loading
B. Dynamic Loading
C. Static Linking
D. Dynamic Linking

15. when ________ is used, the linker combines all other modules needed by a
program into a single executable program to avoid any runtime dependency.

A. Static loading
B. Dynamic Loading
C. Static Linking
D. Dynamic Linking

16. Swapping is also known as a

A. technique for memory management

B. technique for memory compaction
C. technique for memory addresse
D. technique for dynamic linking
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
17 How many types of Fragmentation are there?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
View Answer

18. In which type of Fragmentation, Memory block assigned to process is bigger.

Some portion of memory is left unused, as it cannot be used by another process.

A. External fragmentation
B. Internal fragmentation
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
View Answer

19. __________ is a memory management technique in which process address

space is broken into blocks of the same size

A. Fragmentation
B. Frames
C. Paging
D. Address Translation
View Answer

20. A computer can address more memory than the amount physically installed
on the system. This extra memory is actually called ______________.

A. Virtual Memory
B. Physical Memory
C. Logical Memory
D. Secondary Memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

21. MMU stands for?

A. memory mapping unit

B. memory management unit
C. main memory unit
D. None of the above

22. While executing a program, if the program references a page which is not
available in the main memory then it is known as?

A. Demand Paging
B. Frame Fault
C. page fault
D. processor fault

23. Which of the following are the advantage of Demand Paging?

A. Large virtual memory.

B. More efficient use of memory.
C. There is no limit on degree of multiprogramming.
D. All of the above

24. Which algorithm is based on the argument that the page with the smallest
count?

A. Least frequently Used

B. Page Buffering algorithm
C. Most frequently Used
D. Least Recently Used
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
25. Swap space exists in ____________

A. Primary Memory
B. secondary memory
C. virtual memory
D. CPU

26. Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among ____________
a) processes
b) threads
c) instructions
d) none of the mentioned

27._____ is the concept in which a process is copied into the main memory from
the secondary memory according to the requirement.
a) Paging
b) Demand paging
c) Segmentation
d) Swapping.

28 The pager concerns with the ____________

a) individual page of a process
b) entire process
c) entire thread
d) first page of a process

29. . Swap space exists in ____________

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) primary memory
b) secondary memory
c) cpu
d) none of the mentioned

30. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but
not loaded in physical memory, then ____________
a) segmentation fault occurs
b) fatal error occurs
c) page fault occurs
d) no error occurs

31. Effective access time is directly proportional to ____________

a) page-fault rate
b) hit ratio
c) memory access time
d) none of the mentioned

32. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced

____________
a) oldest page is chosen
b) newest page is chosen
c) random page is chosen
d) none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

34. What a virtual-memory miss is called?

a)Hit miss
b)Page hit
c)Page miss
d)Page fault

35 .a process is copied into the main memory from the secondary memory
a) Swapping
b) Paging
c) Segmentation
d) Demand paging

36. process is trash

a) it spends more time paging than executing
b) it spends less time paging than executing
c) page fault occurs
d)swapping can not take place

37. Virtual Memory is commonly implemented by __________.

a.segmentation

B Swapping

c. Demand Paging

d. None of the above

 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

38. Virtual memory is __________.

A An extremely large main memory

B An extremely large secondary memory

C An illusion of extremely large main memory

D A type of memory used in super computers

39.

The principle of locality of reference justifies the use of ________.

a.
a)Virtual Memory

b)Interrupts

c)Main memory

D)Cache memory

40. The mechanism that bring a page into memory only when it is needed is called
_____________

A Segmentation

B Fragmentation
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

C Demand Paging

D Page Replacement

41. Because of virtual memory, the memory can be shared among:

• A. processes
• B. threads
• C. instructions
• D. none of the mentioned

42 _____ is the concept in which a process is copied into main memory from the
secondary memory according to the requirement.

• A. Paging
• B. Demand paging
• C. Segmentation
• D. Swapping
43 . The pager concerns with the:

• A. individual page of a process

• B. entire process
• C. entire thread
• D. first page of a process

44 Swap space exists in:

• A. primary memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
• B. secondary memory
• C. CPU
• D. none of the mentioned

45. When a program tries to access a page that is mapped in address space but
not loaded in physical memory, then?

• A. segmentation fault occurs

• B. fatal error occurs
• C. page fault occurs
• D. no error occurs

46. Effective access time is directly proportional to:

• A. page-fault rate
• B. hit ratio
• C. memory access time
• D. none of the mentioned
47. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:

• A. oldest page is chosen

• B. newest page is chosen
• C. random page is chosen
• D. none of the mentioned
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
48. . Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest
period of time whenever the page required to be replaced?

• A. first in first out algorithm

• B. additional reference bit algorithm
• C. least recently used algorithm
• D. counting based page replacement algorithm

49. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:

• A. modularity
• B. locality
• C. globalization
• D. random access

50. Fragmentation is

A fragments of memory words unused in a page

B fragments of memory words used in a page
C dividing the main memory into equal-sized fragments
D dividing the secondary memory into equal sized fragments

51 . When using counters to implement LRU, we replace the page with the
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
____________
a) smallest time value
b) largest time value
c) greatest size
d) none of the mentioned

52 In the stack implementation of the LRU algorithm, a stack can be maintained

in a manner ____________
a) whenever a page is used, it is removed from the stack and put on bottom
b) the bottom of the stack is the LRU page
c) the top of the stack contains the LRU page and all new pages are added to the
top
d) none of the mentioned

53 . There is a set of page replacement algorithms that can never exhibit Belady’s
Anomaly, called ____________
a) queue algorithms
b) stack algorithms
c) string algorithms
d) none of the mentioned

54 . Applying the LRU page replacement to the following reference string.

12452124
The main memory can accommodate 3 pages and it already has pages 1 and 2.
Page 1 came in before page 2.
How many page faults will occur?
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

55 . Increasing the RAM of a computer typically improves performance because

____________
a) Virtual memory increases
b) Larger RAMs are faster
c) Fewer page faults occur
d) None of the mentioned

56 The essential content(s) in each entry of a page table is/are ____________

a) Virtual page number
b) Page frame number
c) Both virtual page number and page frame number
d) Access right information

57 The minimum number of page frames that must be allocated to a running

process in a virtual memory environment is determined by ____________
a) the instruction set architecture
b) page size
c) physical memory size
d) number of processes in memory
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management

58 . What is the reason for using the LFU page replacement algorithm?
a) an actively used page should have a large reference count
b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned

59 . What is the reason for using the MFU page replacement algorithm?
a) an actively used page should have a large reference count
b) a less used page has more chances to be used again
c) it is extremely efficient and optimal
d) all of the mentioned

60 . The implementation of the LFU and the MFU algorithm is very uncommon
because ____________
a) they are too complicated
b) they are optimal
c) they are expensive
d) all of the mentioned

61. Which of the following page replacement algorithms suffers from Belady’s
Anomaly?
a) Optimal replacement
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
b) LRU
c) FIFO
d) Both optimal replacement and FIFO
62. A process refers to 5 pages, A, B, C, D, E in the order : A, B, C, D, A, B, E, A, B, C,
D, E. If the page replacement algorithm is FIFO, the number of page transfers with
an empty internal store of 3 frames is?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 9
d) 7
63. In question 62, if the number of page frames is increased to 4, then the
number of page transfers ____________
a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains the same
d) none of the mentioned
64. A memory page containing a heavily used variable that was initialized very
early and is in constant use is removed, then the page replacement algorithm
used is ____________
a) LRU
b) LFU
c) FIFO
d) None of the mentioned
65. A virtual memory system uses First In First Out (FIFO) page replacement policy
and allocates a fixed number of frames to a process. Consider the following
statements.
P : Increasing the number of page frames allocated to a process sometimes
increases the page fault rate
Q : Some programs do not exhibit locality of reference
Which of the following is TRUE?
a) Both P and Q are true, and Q is the reason for P
b) Both P and Q are true, but Q is not the reason for P
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
c) P is false but Q is true
d) Both P and Q are false
66. Users _______ that their processes are running on a paged system.
a) are aware
b) are unaware
c) may unaware
d) none of the mentioned
67. If no frames are free, _____ page transfer(s) is/are required.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
68. When a page is selected for replacement, and its modify bit is set
____________
a) the page is clean
b) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk
c) the page is dirty
d) the page has been modified since it was read in from the disk & page is dirty
68. The aim of creating page replacement algorithms is to ____________
a) replace pages faster
b) increase the page fault rate
c) decrease the page fault rate
d) to allocate multiple pages to processes
69. A FIFO replacement algorithm associates with each page the _______
a) time it was brought into memory
b) size of the page in memory
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
70. What is the Optimal page – replacement algorithm?
a) Replace the page that has not been used for a long time
b) Replace the page that has been used for a long time
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
c) Replace the page that will not be used for a long time
d) None of the mentioned
71. Optimal page – replacement algorithm is difficult to implement, because
____________
a) it requires a lot of information
b) it requires future knowledge of the reference string
c) it is too complex
d) it is extremely expensive
72. LRU page – replacement algorithm associates with each page the ______
a) time it was brought into memory
b) the time of that page’s last use
c) page after and before it
d) all of the mentioned
73. For 3 page frames, the following is the reference string:
70120304230321201701
How many page faults does the LRU page replacement algorithm produce?
a) 10
b) 15
c) 11
d) 12
74. What are the two methods of the LRU page replacement policy that can be
implemented in hardware?
a) Counters
b) RAM & Registers
c) Stack & Counters
d) Registers
75. __________ has the lowest fault rate of all the page replacement algorithms.
a) Optimal page replacement algorithm
b) LRU replacement algorithm
c) FIFO
d) Counting based
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
76. Optimal page replacement algorithm is also called as __________
a) LIFO
b) NRU
c) Clairvoyant replacement algorithm
d) Page buffering
77. In a optimal page replacement algorithm, when a page is to be replaced,
which of the following pages is chosen?
a) Oldest page
b) Newest page
c) Frequently occurred page in the future
d) Not frequently occurred page in the future
78. A page that is not going to be used for the next 7 seconds will be swapped out
over a page that is going to be used within the next 0.7 seconds.
a) True
b) False
79. Analysis of the optimal paging problem has been done through___________
a) Deterministic algorithm
b) Online algorithm
c) Euclid algorithm
d) Optimal algorithm
80. Optimal page replacement algorithm is implemented in __________
a) General-purpose operating system
b) Special-purpose operating system
c) In any kind of operating system
d) In Windows only
81. Optimal page replacement algorithm is said to satisfy __________
a) Online algorithm
b) Stack algorithm
c) Queue algorithm
d) Array algorithm
82. In a stack algorithm, the set of pages in a k-frame memory is always a subset
of pages in a __________ frame memory.
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
a) k-1
b) k
c) k+1
d) k(k+1)
83. When all software that runs on a system is known beforehand, optimal page
replacement algorithm can be used in a general-purpose operating system.
a) True
b) False
84. Consider a reference string 7,0,1,2,0,3,0,4,2,3,0,3,2,1,2,0,1,7,0,1 of frame size
3. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.
a) 10
b) 9
c) 8
d) 7
85. Consider a reference string 7,0,1,2,0,3,0,4,2,3,0,3,2,1,2,0,1,7,0,1 of frame size
4. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.

a) 7
b) 9
c) 8
d) 6
86. Consider a reference string 1,2,3,2,1,5,2,1,6,2,5,6,3,1,3,6,1,2,4,3 of frame size
3. Calculate the number of page faults using optimal page replacement algorithm.

a) 12
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
b) 16
c) 14
d) 15
87. Which algorithm chooses the page that has not been used for the longest
period of time whenever the page required to be replaced?
A. first in first out algorithm
B. additional reference bit algorithm
C. least recently used algorithm
D. counting based page replacement algorithm
88. A process is thrashing if:
A. it is spending more time paging than executing
B. it is spending less time paging than executing
C. page fault occurs
D. swapping can not take place
89. Working set model for page replacement is based on the assumption of:
A. modularity
B. locality
C. globalization
D. random access
90. In FIFO page replacement algorithm, when a page must be replaced:
A. oldest page is chosen
B. newest page is chosen
C. random page is chosen
D. none of the mentioned
91. CPU fetches the instruction from memory according to the value of:
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
A. program counter
B. status register
C. instruction register
D. program status word
92. Which one of the following is the address generated by CPU?
A. physical address
B. absolute address
C. logical address
D. none of the mentioned
93. Run time mapping from virtual to physical address is done by:
A. memory management unit
B. CPU
C. PCI
D. none of the mentioned
94. Memory management technique in which system stores and retrieves data
from secondary storage for use in main memory is called:
A. fragmentation
B. paging
C. Mapping
D. none of the mentioned
95. Program always deals with:
A. logical address
B. absolute address
C. physical address
D. relative address
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
96. The page table contains:
A. base address of each page in physical memory
B. page offset
C. page size
D. none of the mentioned
97. What is compaction?
A. a technique for overcoming internal fragmentation
B. a paging technique
C. a technique for overcoming external fragmentation
D. a technique for overcoming fatal error
98. Operating System maintains the page table for:
A. each process
B. each thread
C. each instruction
D. each address
99. In contiguous memory allocation :
A. each process is contained in a single contiguous section of memory
B. all processes are contained in a single contiguous section of memory
C. the memory space is contiguous
D. None of these
100. In fixed sized partition, the degree of multiprogramming is bounded by
___________.
A. the number of partitions
B. the CPU utilization
C. the memory size
 Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
D. All of these
Sub: OSY Unit-5 Memory Management
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
1. Which of the following is/are the technique(s) for performing I/O
management function.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) All of the above

2. In ………………., the processor issues an I/O command, on behalf of a process,

to an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

3. In ……………….., the processor issues an I/O command on behalf of a process,

continues to execute subsequent instructions and interrupted by the I/O
module when the latter has completed it’s work.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access

4. A ………………. module controls the exchange of data between main memory

and an I/O module.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
D) Virtual Memory Access

5. The ……………… unit is capable of mimicking the processor and indeed of

taking over control of the system from the processor.
A) Programmed I/O
B) Interrupt driven I/O
C) Direct Memory Access
D) Virtual Memory Access
6. The ………………… module deals with t he device as a logical resource and is
not concerned with the details of actually controlling the device.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

7. In ……………………, the requested operations and data are converted into

appropriate sequences of I/O instructions, channel commands and controller
orders.
A) Directory Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

8. At the layer of ……………………, symbolic file names are

converted to identifiers that either reference the file directory or
indirectly through a file descriptor or index table.
A) Directory Management
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) Logical I/O
C) Device I/O
D) Scheduling and control

9. ………………. layer deals with the logical structure of files and with the
operations that can be specified by users such as open, close, read and write.
A) Physical organization
B) File system
C) Directory management
D) Scheduling and control

10. When a user process issues an I/O request, the operating system assigns a
buffer in the system portion of main memory to the operation is called …………..
A) Double buffer
B) Single buffer
C) Linear buffer
D) Circular buffer

11. …………….. may be inadequate if the process performs rapid bursts of I/O.
A) Double buffering
B) Single buffering
C) Linear buffering
D) Circular buffering

12. On a movable head system, the time it takes to position the head at the
track is known as …………
A) seek time
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

13. The time disk controller takes for the beginning of the sector to reach the
head is known as ……………..
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

14. The ……………….. consists of two key components: the initial startup time,
and the time taken to traverse the tracks that have to be crossed once the
access arm is up to speed.
A) seek time
B) rotational delay
C) access time
D) Transfer time

15. The ……………… policy is to select the disk I/O request that requires the least
movement of the disk arm from its current position.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) Priority by process
D) Random scheduling
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
16. In ………………. policy, when the last track has been visited in one direction,
the arm is returned to the opposite end of the disk and the scan begins again.
A) Last in first out
B) Shortest service time first
C) SCAN
D) Circular SCAN
17. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of RAID architecture.
i) RAID is set of physical disk drives viewed by the operating system as a single
logical drive
ii) Data are distributed across the physical drives of an array
iii) It is used to store parity information, which guarantees data recoverability
in case of disk failure.
A) i and ii only
B) ii and iii only
C) i and iiii only
D) All i, ii and iii

18. …………….. is not a true member of RAID family, because it does not include
redundancy to improve performace.
A) RAID Level 0
B) RAID Level 1
C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3

19. ………….. would only be an effective choice in a environment in which many

disk errors occur.
A) RAID Level 0
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
B) RAID Level 1

C) RAID Level 2
D) RAID Level 3

20. In the ………………… scheme, two different parity calculations are carried out
an stored in separate blocks on different disks.
A) RAID Level 4
B) RAID Level 5
C) RAID Level 6
D) RAID Level 3
21. Reliability of files can be enhanced by :
a)by keeping duplicate copies of the file
b) making a different partition for the files
c) by keeping them in external storage
d) keeping the files safely in the memory
22. security is only provided at the _____ level.
a) none of the mentioned
b) high
c) central
d) lower
23. The major issue with access control lists is :
a) their maintenance
b) all of the mentioned
c) their permissions
d) their length

24. Many systems recognize three classifications of users in connection with

each file (to condense the access control list) :
a) ) Universe
b) Group
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
c) owner
d) All of the mentioned
25. 5.in a group, All users get _______ access to a file.
a) different
b)same
c) similar
d) none of the mentioned

26. The universe consists of :

a) all users in the system
b) all users that are not owners
c)all users that aren’t included in the group or owners
d) none of the mentioned

27. groups can be modified and created In UNIX by :

a) any user
b)superuser
c) the people in the group only
d) a programmer only

28. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a

______

a) file

b) swap space

c) directory

d) text format

29. File attributes consist of ____________

a) name

b) type

c) identifier

d) all of the mentioned

 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
30. The information about all files is kept in ____________

a) swap space

b) operating system

c) seperate directory structure

d) none of the mentioned

31. Which of the following are the two parts of the file name?
a) name & identifier
b) identifier & type
c) extension & name
d) type & extension

32. RAID level 3 supports a lower number of I/Os per second, because
_______________.

A. every disk has to participate in every I/O request

B. only one disk participates per I/O request

C. I/O cycle consumes a lot of CPU time

D. All of these

33. RAID level _____ is also known as block interleaved parity organisation and
uses block level striping and keeps a parity block on a seperate disk.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

34. A performance problem with _________ is the expense of computing and

writing parity.
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
A. non-parity based RAID levels

B. parity based RAID levels

C. all RAID levels

D. None of these

35. In RAID level 4, one block read, accesses __________.

A. only one disk

B. all disks simultaneously

C. all disks sequentially

D. None of these

36. The overall I/O rate in RAID level 4 is :

A. low
B. very low
C. high
D. None of these

37. RAID level 5 is also known as :

A. bit-interleaved parity organization

B. block-interleaved parity organization
C. block-interleaved distributed parity
D. memory-style ECC organization

38. RAID level ____ spreads parity and data among all N+1 disks rather than
storing data in N disks and parity in 1.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
D. 6

39. RAID level 0+1 is used because, RAID level 0 provides ______ whereas RAID
level 1 provides ________.

A. performance, redundancy
B. performance, reliability
C. redundancy, performance
D. None of these

40. If a disk fails in RAID level ___ rebuilding lost data is easiest.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

41. RAID stands for :

A. Redundant Allocation of Inexpensive Disks

B. Redundant Array of Important Disks
C. Redundant Allocation of Independent Disks
D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks

42. RAID level ______ is also known as memory style error correcting
code(ECC) organization.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

43. RAID level 3 does not have _________ as in RAID level 1.

A. efficiency
B. enough storage space for data
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
C. storage overhead
D. time consumption overhead View Answer

44. The solution to the problem of reliability is the introduction of __________.

A. aging
B. scheduling
C. redundancy
D. disks

45. RAID level ________ refers to disk arrays with striping at the level of blocks,
but without any redundancy.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

46. RAID level _______ refers to disk mirroring.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

47. RAID level ______ is also known as bit interleaved parity organisation.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
48. Data cannot be written to secondary storage unless written within a
______
a) file
b) swap space
 Sub: OSY Unit-6 File Management
c) directory
d) text format
49. A file is a/an _______ data type.
a) abstract
b) primitive
c) public
d) private
50. In UNIX, what will the open system call return?
a) pointer to the entry in the open file table
b) pointer to the entry in the system wide table
c) a file to the process calling it
d) none of the mentioned