Abdulkareem Physics - English translation

Translated by: 12th graders - 2018 alumni

Designed and compiled by: Ghadah Ali AlQarni

Page 1
All work done by students, and intended to help students.

All Questions translated from Al-Abdulkareem’s book by “dar alharf

publications”. Due to time constraints, minor errors may be present.

To report any errors, give suggestions or If any queries

Contact: [email protected]

Revised, edited and compiled by:

Ghadah Ali AlQarni

Translated by:

1. Rayan AlGhanem [1/1 , 20/2]

2. Ahad AlHamrani [21/2 , 58/2]

3. Mozah AlMulhim [1/3 , 39,3]

4. Ghadah AlQarni [1/4 , 38/4 ]

5. Maryam AlNajjar [39/4 , 55/5]

6. Maryam BuKhamseen [21/5 , 26/6]

7. Maryam AlRamadan [27/6 , 19/7]

8. Reema BuKhamseen [20/7 , 57/7]

9. Sara AlMussa [58/7 , 28/8]

10. Nura AlJafaari [29/8 , 27/9]

11. Raghad AlIbrahim [28/9 , 6/10]

12. Noura Bo Khamsin [7/10 , 39/10]

Page 2
 [1] : Physics

1 The field of science that studies matter and energy and their relationship is ..
1
A. Chemistry B. Biology
C. Geology D. Physics

2 𝑽.𝑺
Which of the following functions is equivalent to this function t=𝑴𝟐
1

3 Testable explanation ..
1
A. Hypothesis B. Scientific law
C. Principle D. Scientific theory

4 To prove a hypothesis we need ..

1
A. Experiment B. Observation
C. Analysis D. Conclusion

5 " Energy is not created nor destroyed " this is considered as ..

1
A. Theory B. Law
C. Conclusion D. Hypothesis

6 Scientific explanation of an event based on knowledge gained by many observation and

1 experiment
A. Scientific theory B. Scientific law
C. Hypothesis D. True value

7 A comparsion between an unknown quantity and a standard ..

1
A. measurement B. precision
C. Accuracy D. Scientific Law

8 The precision of the measurement of an instrument is ..

1
A. One half the smallest division B. One half the greatest division
C. One quarter the smallest division D. One quarter the greatest division

Page 3
9 A common method for checking the accuracy of an instrument is called ..
1
A. The angle B. One-point calibration
C. Two-point calibration D. Zeroing an instrument

10 Which of the following is a vector quantity?

1
A. Time B. Displacement
C. Mass D. Distance

11 All the following are scalar quantities except ..

1
A. Time B. Force
C. Temperature D. Volume

12 The symbol -short cut- of Systeme International D’Unites is ..

1
A. SI B. MI
C. Tr D. Gl

13 Which of the following is an SI unit for a basic physical quantity

1
A. Tesla (T) B. Volt (V)
C. Ampere (A) D. Ohm (Ω)

14 Which of the following is a derived unit physical quantity

1
A. Electric current B. Volt (V)
C. Time D. Luminous intensity

Page 4
15 Which of the following is a derived unit
1
A. s B. kg
C. m D. J

16 The distance between Al-Taeif city and Jeddah is 180km the distance in meters equals
1
A. 180 × 10-3 B. 1800
C. 18 × 104 D. 180 × 106

17 How much Hz are there in 0.6 MHz

1
A. 6 × 107 B. 6 × 106
C. 6 × 105 D. 0.6 × 105

18 Which of the following equals 86.2 cm?

1
A. 8.62 m B. 0.862 mm
C. 862 dm D. 8.62 × 10-4 km

Final Answers

Physics

Page 5
 [2] : Mechanics

1 Displacement represents a change in…………..of a body in a certain direction.

2
A. motion B. position
C. Speed D. Acceleration

𝟐
The diagram shows the motion of two objects; in 4s what is the difference between them in meters?
𝟐

This diagram shows a body’s motion through a certain time interval,

𝟑 which statement is true?
𝟐

A. After 3s the body B. After 4s the body has

has passed 45m passed 5m

C. After 5s the body D. After 6s the body has

has passed 20m passed 30m

The diagram represents the motion of a student according to his

𝟒 school which is true?
𝟐

A. The student started B. The student remained

moving from his in his position for 10 s
school
C. the student reached D. The student was about
the school after 15 s 10 m away after 10 s of
moving

Page 6
 5 The change in position divided by the time it took to cause this change
2
A. Linear displacement B. Angular displacement
C. Average velocity D. Instantaneous velocity

The diagram represents the motion of a runner; his speed is ..

𝟔
𝟐

A. 3 m/s B. 5 m/s

C. 15 m/s D. 25 m/s

7 Acceleration is ..
2
A. Change in position divided by time B. Change in velocity divided by time
interval interval
C. Change in position divided by certain D. Change in displacement divided by
direction time interval

8 What is the acceleration of a body that its velocity changed about 30 m/s during 2s?
2
A. 60m/s2 B. 30m/s2
C. 15m/s2 D. 5m/s2

9 A body moves in an increasing speed of 2m/s for every second which of the
2 following is true?
A. Total distance=2m B. Velocity=2m/s
C. Acceleration = 2m/s2 D. Total time=2s

10 A racing car increases its velocity (speed) from 4m/s into 36m/s in a time interval =4s
2 the acceleration of the car in m/s2 unit equals?
A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 10

11 Car A changed its velocity from 10m/s into 30m/s in 4 s , and car B changed its velocity
2 from 22m/s to 33m/s in 11s. The acceleration of car A is .......... acceleration of car B .
A. greater than B. less than
C. equals D. half

Page 7
 The diagram shows the velocity and time , find the acceleration with
𝟏𝟐 the unit m/s2?
𝟐

A. 2 B. 8

C. 18 D. 18

In the diagram, the car moved in 4 stages,each stages has a different

𝟏𝟑 velocity (speed) which stage has the greatest acceleration ?
𝟐

A. 1 B. 2

C. 3 D. 4

14
The body in the dot diagram is..
2

A. accelerating B. slowing down (deaccelerating)

C. constant speed D. its acceleration equals to zero

15 A car moves from at rest with an acceleration of 2.5m/s2 . what is the

2 velocity of the car after 10s from moving?
A. 0.25 m/s B. 25 m/s
C. 5m/s D. 50 m/s

a car moves from at rest with an acceleration of 6m/s 2 during how many
16
2 seconds the car velocity reaches 24m/s ?
A. 3 B. 4
C. 12 D. 16

Page 8
 A car moves with a velocity of 30m/s then it starts to slow down for
17 about 6m/s2 what would its velocity in the unit of m/s after 4s ?
2
A. 6 B. 26
C. 36 D. 54

If a body start moving from at rest with acceleration of 5m/s2 what is the
18 body velocity after it traveled for 10m?
2
A. 2m/s B. 5m/s
C. 8m/s D. 10 m/s

When throwing a body upward the body ..

19
2
A. acceleration decreases B. stops for a while
C. positive acceleration D. the acceleration is zero at
maximum height

A body falls from a building and after 10s it reached the ground; its velocity
20 the moment it hits the ground equals ..
2
A. 9.8m/s B. 98m/s
C. 980 m/s D. 9800m/s

21 A body is thrown upwards with an initial velocity of 100m/s, what is its velocity after
2 5s?
A. (5)m/s B. (100+5)m/s
C. (100-5*9.8)m/s D. (100+5*9.8)m/s

a body is thrown upwards at a speed 49m/s, if the acceleration

due to gravity is 9.8m/s 2 ; what is the time it reaches its maximum
22
2 height?
A. 9.8s B. 2.5s
C. 4s D. 5s

Page 9
23 A fountain pours the water vertically upwards at a speed of 30m/s, what’s the time
2 needed in seconds for the water to reach it’s starting point? G=10m/s2
A. 0.5 B. 3
C. 6 D. 12

24 The tendency of an object to resist changes in velocity is..

2
A. reaction B. law of conservation of momentum
C. friction D. inertia

25 A rider fell of his bike when he took a sudden break, this is an example of..
2
A. reaction B. law of conservation of momentum
C. friction D. inertia

26 The gained acceleration of a body is ..

2
A. directly related to the force acting on it B. inversely related to the force acting on it
C. directly related to the square of its mass D. inversely related to the square of its mass

27 A 100n horizontal force is applied on a 20kg body and moved it with the same
2 direction of the force, the gained acceleration of the body in m/s2 is ..
A. 0.2 B. 2
C. 5 D. 9.8

28 What’s the weight of a space probe that has a mass of 225kg on the moon?
2 Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is 1.62m/s2
A. 139n B. 364n
C. 1.35 × 103 n D. 2.21 × 103 n

29 A person has a mass of 100kg on the earth, what’s its mass on the moon?
2
A. 0 kg B. 100 kg
C. 160 kg D. 980 kg

30 Mohammad went from east to west 20m and came back to east 15m, calculate the
2 displacement and distance?
A. distance:5m displacement:35m B. distance:5m displacement:5m
C. distance:35m displacement:5m D. distance:35m displacement:35m

Page 10
31 A group of bodies have different forces acted on, which of these bodies is at
2 equilibrium?

32 Mohammad walked 8m north then 12m east then 8m north what’s his displacement in m?
2
A. 10 B. 14
C. 20 D. 28

𝟑𝟑
The figure shown represents a projectile’s motion, which of the following is true regarding its speed?
𝟐

A. va = vb B. vb = vc
C. va = vc D. va = vb =vc

34 An object is shot 30 degrees with the horizontal with velocity of 39.2m/s, what’s the time
2 in s for it to reach its maximum height? G=9.8m/s2
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

35 A bee is standing on the edge of a rotating wheel 2m away from the center, if the bee’s
2 speed is 3m/s what’s its Centripetal acceleration?
A. 18 m/s2 B. 6 m/s2
C. 4.5 m/s2 D. 1.2 m/s2

Page 11
 36 A body with a mass of 3kg is rotating around its axis at a constant speed, and completes
2 one round in 20s what’s its angular speed in rad/s?
𝝅 𝝅
A. 𝟐𝟎 B. 𝟏𝟎
C. 𝟐𝟎𝝅 D. 𝟒𝟎𝝅

37 A 1m rope is holding an object with a mass of 0.2kg, what’s the central force acting on the
2 object if it finishes a round in 3.14s?
A. 0.2 n B. 0.4 n
C. 0.6 n D. 0.8 n

𝟑𝟖
In the figure shown, an object with a weight of w is sliding on an inclined plane with no
𝟐
friction, which of the arrows represents the perpendicular force fn?

A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 3

39 A student pushes a table with a mass of 10kg on a horizontal plane that has a friction
2 coefficient of 0.2, what’s its frictional force? G=9.8m/s2
A. 10 n B. 20 n
C. 25 n D. 100 n

𝟒𝟎
In the figure shown is a rope with a mass of 0.5kg and is pulled in two opposite forces, it
𝟐
moved to the right with an acceleration of 2m/s2 what’s the force f in n ?

A. 22 B. 19
C. 12 D. 10

Page 12
41 According to kepler’s first law, the orbits of planets are ..
2
A. circular B. linear
C. elliptical D. spherical

42 According to kepler’s third law, the period of revolution (t) for a planet around the sun is
2 proportional with its distance from the sun (r) is represented by ..
A. 𝑻𝟐 ∝ 𝒓𝟑 B. 𝑻𝟑 ∝ 𝒓𝟐
𝟏 𝟏
C. 𝑻𝟑 ∝ D. 𝑻𝟐 ∝
𝒓𝟐 𝟑

43 One of the factors affecting the period of revolution for a planet around the sun is ..
2
A. Radius of the planet’s orbit B. Mass of the planet
C. Volume of the sun D. Volume of the planet

44 If the earth’s mass is doubled the acceleration due to gravity will ..

2
A. Decrease to its half B. Decrease to its quarter
C. Double D. Not change

45 What’s the acceleration due to gravity of the earth at a height of 9.6 × 106m from the
2 center of the earth in m/s2? [radius of earth = 6.4 × 106m ]
2 4
A. 𝑔 B. 𝑔
3 9
3 9
C. 𝑔 D. 𝑔
2 4

46 If the earth’s mass is doubled the acceleration due to gravity will ..

2
A. Increase B. Decrease
C. Stay constant D. Oscillate

47 The angular displacement of the clock’s minute hand during half a round in rad is?
2
A. 2𝜋 B. 𝜋
𝜋 𝜋
C. D.
6 120

Page 13
48 A clock’s seconds hand moved for 5 minutes, what’s the angular displacement?
2
A. 5𝜋 B. 10𝜋
C. 2.5𝜋 D. 25𝜋

49 If the angular displacement for an object is 𝟓𝟎𝝅 rad then it completed ..

2
A. 50 rounds B. 25 rounds
C. 5 rounds D. 0.5 rounds

50 Angular velocity in rad/s for an outer edge of a car wheel with a radius of 0.4m and speed
2 of 40m/s equals ..
A. 1 B. 10
C. 100 D. 1600

51 Unit of angular velocity is ..

2
A. M/s B. M/s2
C. Rad/s D. Rad/s2

52 Change of angular velocity divided by time is ..

2
A. Angular displacement B. Angular frequency
C. Angular acceleration D. Linear velocity

53 A 20n force is acted on a door vertically, at a distance of 0.5m from axis of rotation, what’s
2 the torque in its si unit?
A. 10 B. 10.5
C. 20.5 D. 40

54 What’s the torque of a 260n force acting vertically on a point that’s vertically 10cm away
2 from the axis of rotation in n.m?
A. 0 B. 26
C. 260 D. 2600

Page 14
 𝟓𝟓
In the figure shown, are four handles, a,b,c,d, which handle will open the door with the least
𝟐
force?

A. A B. B
C. C D. D

56 A child is trying to tilt a water barrel, which of the choices will have the least force (f)
2 needed to tilt the barrel?

𝟓𝟕
In the figure, if b and a are balanced, which of the choices is true ..
𝟐

A. A is closer to the center and has a greater mass than b B. Mass of a = mass of b
C. A is closer to the center and has less mass than b D. Weight of a = weight of b

58 When is a body at equilibrium?

2
A. Sum of torque=0 and sum of forces=0 B. Sum of torque=0 and sum of forces≠0
C. Sum of torque≠0 and sum of forces=0 D. Sum of torque≠0 and sum of forces≠0

Page 15
Mechanics

Page 16
 [3] : Work and Machines

01 The system that can’t gain or lose mass is called ..

3
A. Open system. B. Closed system.
C. Elastic system. D. Inelastic system.

02 Under what conditions is the momentum of the system of two balls becomes constant
3 and conserved? When the system is…
A. Open and closed. B. Closed and isolated.
C. Open and isolated. D. Open.

Two cars with the same mass and are moving at the same direction, but one car is slow
03 and the other car is faster, if they collided and got stuck together then their speed together
3 is ..
A. Equal. B. equal to the speed of the faster car.
C. Zero. D. equal to the speed of the slower car.

04 The product of the mass of the body with its velocity..

3
A. acceleration. B. momentum.
C. kinetic energy. D. Potential energy

05 Momentum equals to the product of body’s mass with...

3
A. its angular velocity. B. its velocity.
C. angular acceleration. D. angular displacement.

06 If the body’s speed doubles then its momentum...

3
A. Doubles. B. quadruples
C. Decreases to half. D. decreases to quarter

07 A bicycle has a mass of 50 kg and a momentum of 250 kg.m/s, its speed equals…
3
A. 0.25 m/s. B. 25 m/s
C. 5 m/s. D. 50 m/s.

Page 17
 08 The area under the curve of (force-time) equals..
3
A. speed. B. acceleration.
C. momentum. D. impulse.

𝟎𝟗
𝟑
In this graph, if an object is displaced under the influence of a varying force then what is
the value of the work?

A. 16 J. B. 12 J.
C. 8 J. D. 6 J.

10
A person pushed a box with a mass of 40 kg for a distance of 10 m with a constant
3
speed on a horizontal surface its kinetic energy coefficient is μ=0.1. , calculate the work of
friction in J.(assume that the acceleration of gravity g= 10m/s2).

A. -4 B. -40
C. -400 D. -4000

11 The kinetic energy of a body is proportional ..

3
A. inversely with the square of its speed. B. directly with the square of its speed.
C. inversely with the square of its mass. D. directly with the square of its mass.

12 A body with a mass of 2 kg and a speed of 1 m/s, what is its kinetic energy in J.
3
A. 0.25. B. 0.5
C. 0.75. D. 1.

Page 18
13 A body with a kinetic energy of 100 J and a speed of 5 m/s , then its mass in kg is..
3
A. 8. B. 10
C. 20 D. 500.

14 A simple pendulum with a mass of 5kg and an energy of 10 J at the maximum height,
3 what is the simple pendulum maximum speed during its swing?
A. 0 B. 2 m/s.
C. 4 m/s. D. 10 m/s.

The kinetic energy of two bodies became equal, and the mass of the second body is double
15 the mass of the first body, if the speed of the first is (v) then what is the speed of the
3 second?
A. v2. B. 2v
𝑣 𝑣
C. D.
2 √2

16 a work with 125 J is exerted in a body that moves in a horizontal path, which statement is
3 correct?
A. its speed increases by 125 m/s. B. its potential energy changes by 125 J.
C. its height increases by 125 m. D. it kinetic energy changes by 125 J.

17 The stored energy is called..

3
A. potential. B. Kinetic.
C. optical. D. electric.

18 If you knew that g=10 m/s2 , then what is the energy needed to raise a ball with a mass of
3 2kg from the ground with a height of 3 m above the earth surface?
A. 200 J. B. 60 J.
C. 10 J. D. 6 J

19 A player lifts a weight with a mass of 10 kg with a height of 10 m , what is the potential
3 energy that the weight gains in Joules? ( g=9.8 m/s2)
A. 10. B. 20.
C. 196. D. 980.

Page 19
20 What is the mass in kg of a body that is placed on the top of building with a height of 10 m,
3 knowing that the potential energy of the body is 196 J? (g=9.8 m/s2)
A. 1. B. 2.
C. 4. D. 8

𝟐𝟏
𝟑
In this figure, if the simple pendulum moved from B to C , then the potential energy..

22 The sum of the kinetic energy and the potential energy of the object in the system..
3
A. Latent energy. B. seismic energy.
C. static energy. D. mechanical energy.

23 One of the following laws expresses the mechanical energy of the body...
3
A. E= KE + 2PE. B. E= KE + PE.

C. E= √𝐾𝐸 2 + 𝑃𝐸 2 D. E= KE2 + PE2

24 A body with a kinetic energy of 19 J and potential energy of 11 J, it mechanical energy

3 equals…
A. 30 J. B. 19 J.
C. 11 J. D. 8 J.

25 The work done divided by the time it took to be done..

3
A. momentum. B. Energy.
C. impulse D. Power.

26 The unit of power..

3
A. Watt. B. Volt.
C. Ampere. D. Joules.

Page 20
27 The unit of power..
3
A. kg.m/s2. B. kg.m2/s2.
C. kg.m2/s3. D. kg.m3/s3.

28 The power of an electric motor with work of 30000 J during 30 s..

3
A. 100 W. B. 1000 W.
C. 3000 W. D. 900000 W.

29 A container with a weight of 3× 𝟏𝟎3 N was lifted by an engine with a distance of 9 m

3 vertically during 10 s, calculate the power of the engine in Watt.
A. 27. B. 7× 103.
C. 27 × 102. D. 27× 104.

𝟑𝟎
𝟑
The following figure shows three workers, each of whom wants to raise a box to a height
of 10 meters, if it is written under each box its mass and the time it takes to raise each of
them. Which box has the largest power? (assume that the gravitational acceleration
g=10m/s2)

A. c. B. a.
C. b. D. their impulses are equal.

31 Machine A does a work in 130 min, and machine B does the same work in 65 min…
3
A. power of A is double the power of B. B. power of B is double the power of A.

C. power of A = power of B. D. power of B < power of A.

32 The machine makes tasks easier by changing either the ………..… that causes the work or the
3 direction of work.
A. Speed. B. energy.
C. force. D. displacement.

33 The ratio of the resistance force to the effort force..

3
A. Machine efficiency. B. Ideal Mechanical Advantage.
C. friction coefficient. D. Mechanical Advantage.

Page 21
34 The ideal Mechanical Advantage for a machine is equal to the force displacement divided
3 by…
A. Resistance force. B. Force.
C. Resistance force displacement. D. lever arm.

35 A compound machine that is made of two simple machines: the mechanical advantage of the
3 first is 10 and the second is 2, then the Mechanical advantage of the compound machine ..
A. 5. B. 8.
C. 12. D. 20.

36 The ratio of the output work to the input work ..

3
A. Mechanical Advantage. B. actual mechanical advantage.
C. Ideal Mechanical Advantage. D. Efficiency.

A mold with a weight of 20 N swing from the end of the rope that is wrapped around a
37 pulley, when its other end is pulled for a distance of 2 m , the mold rose 0.4 m , then the ideal
3 mechanical advantage of the pulley …
A. 2.5. B. 5.
C. 4. D. 10

38 The efficiency of a machine with a mechanical advantage of 0.2 and an ideal mechanical
3 advantage of 0.4..
A. 20%. B. 80%.
C. 60%. D. 50%

39 The efficiency of a machine with an output work of 35 J and an input work of 50 J..
3
A. 35%. B. 50%.
C. 70%. D. 90%.

Energy and machines

Page 22
 [4] : States of Matter

01 A measure of the movement of the object’s internal particles ..

4
A. temperature B. thermal energy
C. thermal equilibrium D. thermal energy transfer(flow)

02 Temperature depends on ..
4
A. average kinetic energy of the object
B. number of atoms in the object
C. average kinetic energy of the particles in the object
D. number of particles in the object

03 The state in which the rates of thermal energy transfer between two objects are equal ..
4
A. thermal energy B. thermal equilibrium
C. thermal gradient D. specific heat

04 When thermal equilibrium between two objects occur then the temperature of the first
4 object is …………… the temperature of the other object.
A. quarter B. half
C. equal to D. double

05 Temperature equivalent to 50°c in kelvin is ..

4
A. 18 B. 82
D
C. 223 323.

06 Water boiling point on the kelvin scale ..

4
A. 0k B. 100 k
C. 273 k D. 373 k

07 Which temperature conversion following is incorrect?

4
A. -273 °c = 0 k B. 273 °c = 546 k
c. 298 °c = 571 k D. 88 k = -185 °c

Page 23
08 One of the following liquids is used in thermometers ..
4
A. bromine B. iodine
C. alcohol D. chromium

09 Conduction is faster in ..
4
A. metals B. liquids
C. gases D. vacuum (empty space)

10 Thermal energy transfer by convection caused by fluid motion is due to ..

4
A. electromagnetic waves B. mechanical waves
C. equal temperatures D. temperature differences

11 Radiation is the transfer of thermal energy by ……………………. Waves.

4
A. electromagnetic B. mechanical
C. longitudinal D. standing

12 To measure the change in thermal energy we use ..

4
A. alcoholic thermometer B. mercury thermometer
C. joules measuring device D. calorimeter

13 What is the amount of energy that must be added to a unit of mass of the material to
4 raise its temperature by one temperature unit?
A. specific heat B. temperature
C. heat of fusion D. heat of vaporization

14 The heat absorbed or released from an object does not depend on its ..
4
A. shape B. mass
C. specific heat D. change in its temperature

15 A 200kg of copper gained a 385j of heat, its temperature increased from 30°c to 35°c
4 calculate the specific heat of the copper.
A. 385 × 103 j/kg °c B. 3850 j/kg °c
C. 385 j/kg °c D. 3.85 j/kg °c

Page 24
16 If the specific heat of zinc is 388 j/kg °c then 97j of heat is enough to ..
4
A
increase
. the temperature of 97kg of zinc by 1k B. increase the temperature of 1kg of zinc by 97k
C
increase
. the temperature of 0.25kg of zinc by 1k D. increase the temperature of 1kg of zinc by 1k

17 The temperature at which matter changes from solid to liquid is ,,

4
A. freezing point B. melting point
C. boiling point D. vaporization point

18 Ice’s heat of fusion 3.34 × 105 j/kg, calculate the amount of heat needed to melt 20kg of
4 ice ..
A. 3.34 × 106 j B. 1.67 × 106 j
C. 6.68 × 106 j D. 1.336 × 107 j

19 To convert 1kg of a substance from liquid to gas, then the amount of required heat is
4 called the heat of ..
A. Freezing B. Vaporization
C. adaptation D. fusion

20 Water’s heat of vaporization 2.26 × 106 j/kg, calculate the amount of heat needed to
4 vaporize 30kg of water ..
A. 6.78 × 107 j B. 6.78 × 106 j
C. 2.26 × 107 j D. 2.26 × 106 j

21 According to the first law of thermodynamics the change in thermal energy of an object is
4 equal to the heat that is added to the object ……………..… the work done by the object.
A. minus B. plus
C. multiplied by D. divided by

22 In a heat engine 2000j of heat is transferred from the hot reservoir, the cold reservoir
4 absorbs 1500j, calculate its efficiency ..
A. 3500 B. 500
C. 0.75 D. 0.25

23 Calculate the amount of change in entropy for a sample of water that gained 600j of heat
4 at 27°c ..
A. 22.22 j/k B. 2 j/k
C. 0.5 j/k D. 20 j/k

Page 25
24 Fluids are ..
4
A. gases only B. gases and liquids
C. liquids only D. liquids and solids

25 The density of a substance is ..

4
A. the ratio of its mass to its volume B. the ratio of its volume to its mass
C. the mass of the substance D. earths gravitational force on the substance

26 If the maximum pressure a room’s floor could stand is 9.8 × 103 pa for each 1 m2 ; then
4 the maximum weight the same area could stand it ..
A. 9.8 × 106 n B. 9.8 × 103 n
C. 103 n D. 9.8 n

27 So that the car tires wont sink in the sand we must increase its ..
4
A. weight B. mass
C. width D. circumference

28 A man stood on one foot; what happens to its weight and pressure?
4
A. both wont change B. weight wont change, pressure increases
C. both will decrease D. weight increases, pressure decreases

29 States that ,at constant temperature, a gases volume is inversely proportional to its
4 pressure ..
A. boyle’s law B. kelvin’s law
C. charles’s law D. newton’s law

30 A gas with volume 70 cm3 at 100 pa pressure, what’s its volume at 200 pa at constant
4 temperature with the same unit?
A. 15 B. 35
C. 140 D. 210

31 The temperature at which a gases volume is 0 ..

4
A. zero degree B. zero fahrenheit
C. absolute zero D. 100 k

Page 26
32 Gas volume is directly proportional with its temperature at constant pressure is ..
4
A. boyle’s law B. charles’s law
C. gay-lussac’s law D. law of conservation of energy

33 Charles’s law ,,
4

34 The curve that represents the relationship between the volume and temperature of a
4 gas(charles’s law) ..

35 The product of multiplying the pressure of a gas and its volume divided by its
4 temperature in kelvin equals a constant ..
A. combined gas law B. boyle’s law
C. charles’s law D. ideal gas law

36 The product of multiplying the pressure of an ideal gas and its volume equals number
4 of its moles multiplied by the constant r and its temperature in kelvin ..
A. boyle’s law B. charles’s law
C. ideal gas law D. combined gas law

37 Whats the pressure of a gas with volume 1m3 ,its moles 4 mol ,its temperature 300k?
4 R=8.31 pa.m3 /mol k
A. 99720 pa B. 9972 pa
C. 2493 pa D. 623.25 pa

38 Stars and galaxies are in which state of matter?

4
A. solid B. liquid
C. gas D. plasma

Page 27
39 The force of attraction between identical molecules ..
4
A. Cohesion forces B. Adhesion forces
C. Buoyancy forces D. Friction forces

40 What is responsible for surface tension?

4
A. Cohesion forces B. Adhesion forces
C. Viscosity force D. Friction forces

41 Which of the following application enables water to rise upward through thin glass tube?
4
A. Cohesion forces B. Adhesion forces
C. Viscosity force D. Friction forces

42 Any change in pressure applied at any point on a confined fluid is transferred

4 undiminished throughout the fluid is which law?
A. Bernoulli's principle B. Pascal’s principle
C. Archimedes principle D. Gas pressure principle

43 Hydraulic piston is an application of which principle?

4
A. Bernoulli's principle B. Archimedes principle
C. Pascal’s principle D. Bohr’s principle

Ahmed, whose weight is 900 N, stood on the larger tip of the hydraulic piston, and Tareq,
44 whose weight is 600 N, stood on the smaller tip of the piston. What is the ratio of the larger
4 area to the smaller area if both sides became balance?
A. 90 B. 60
C. 1.5 D. 0.66

45 Fluid pressure on an object immersed in a fluid is not affected by..

4
A. Mass of the fluid B. Depth of the object
C. Surface area of the object D. Gravitational acceleration

Page 28
46 What is the amount of water pressure on a point with the depth of 10 m inside a lake its
4 density is 1000km/m3? Knowing that g=9.8m/s2
A. 1020.4 pa B. 980 pa
C. 0.98 pa D. 98000 pa

47 An object immersed in a fluid has an upward force on it that is equal to the ….. of the fluid
4 displaced by the object.
A. Weight B. Volume
C. Mass D. Surface area

48 A student moved a box immersed in the water easily, the reason was because..
4
A. Weight decrease and mass B. Weight decrease and mas
decrease didn’t change
C. Weight increase and mass D. Weight increase and mass
decrease didn’t change

49 What is the amount of buoyant force affected in a granite plate its volume is 10-3 m3 is
4 immersed in water its density is 103 kg/m3 ? Knowing that g= 9.8m/s2
A. 2.45 N B. 4.9 N
C. 9.8 N D. 19.6 N

50 A fluid resists a tendency to flow is..

4
A. Fluidity B. Viscosity
C. Surface tension D. Cohesion and adhesion

51 As the velocity of fluid flow increases, the pressure exerted by that fluid….
4
A. Increase B. Decrease
C. Doesn’t change D. Equal zero

Page 29
𝟓𝟐
In which point is the speed of water flow high?
𝟒

A. Point 1 B. Point 2
C. Point 3 D. Point 4

53 A fixed and regular pattern is formed when the liquid temperature decreases so that the
4 average molecular energy is reduced is..
A. Crystal grid B. Non crystalline grid
C. Flexible steel materials D. Non crystalline solid
materials

54 The reason for leaving a distance between the rail bars is…
4
A. Allows for bar shrinking B. Allows for cooling the bars
C. Allows for expansion of the bars D. For increasing thickness of the bars

55 Bimetallic sheet used in heat regulators is..

4
A. Thermometer B. Thermocouple
C. Transistor D. Crystal sheet

States of matter

Page 30
 [5] : Waves and Sounds

1 What is the spring constant with a length of 20 cm when an object is hanged from it with
5 mass of 20 kg? Knowing that g= 9.8m/s2
A. 9.8 N/m B. 392 N/m
C. 400 N/m D. 980 N/m

A spring constant of 400 N/m was affected by a force, the result was an expansion in
2 which the elastic potential energy that is stored became 50 J. what is the displacement of
5 this constant?
A. 4 B. 2
C. ½ D. ¼

3 A mass of 1 kg is hanged on a pendulum with a period of 3 s, if we changed the mass with a

5 mass of 2 kg and the other is 3 kg; so the period on both times are…
A. 3 and 3 B. 6 and 6
C. 6 and 9 D. 1 and 2

Pendulum with a length of L equal to the gravitational acceleration g, what is the period for
4 this pendulum in s?
5
A. π B. 2 π
C. 2 π2 D. 4 π2

5 Disturbance that travels through a medium is.

5
A. Frequency B. Wave
C. Amplitude D. Node

6 Which of the following is not a matter?

5
A. Air B. Smoke
C. Vapor D. Heat

7 The rate of wave’s transfer of energy is directly proportional to..

5
A. Wave’s speed B. The square of the speed
C. Amplitude D. The square of its amplitude

Page 31
 8 What is the maximum distance in a transverse wave in mechanical waves?
5
A. Amplitude of the wave B. Wavelength
C. Frequency of the wave D. Antinode

9 A spring was vibrated 60 times fully in 20 s, what is its frequency in Hz?

5
A. ⅓ B. ⅙
C. 3 D. 12

10 What is the wave period with a frequency of 10 Hz equal…

5
A. 100s B. 1s
C. 0.1s D. 0.01s

11 If a speed wave was 6 m/s and its wavelength is 0.5m, what is its frequency?
5
A. 0.6 Hz B. 3 Hz
C. 6 Hz D. 12 Hz

𝟏𝟐
. In this picture, the distance between A and B is ..
𝟓

A. ¼ λ B. ⅓ λ
C. ½ λ D. λ

A sound wave with a frequency of 200 Hz and a distance of 100 m was cut off in 0.5 s.
13 what is its wavelength?
5
A. 4 m B. 2 m
C. 1m D. 0.5 m

Page 32
14 An electromagnetic wave, its wavelength is 2 ✕ 10-8 m spread in the air, what is its
5 frequency in Hz? Knowing that the speed of light in a vacuum in c= 3 ✕ 108 m/s
A. 6.7 ✕ 10-17 B. 15 ✕ 10-15
C. 15 ✕ 1015 D. 6.7 ✕ 1017

15 Which of the following is a mechanical wave?

5
A. Light B. Sound
C. Radio D. Microwave

16 Sound is considered from which type of waves?

5
A. Transverse wave B. Longitudinal wave
C. Surface wave D. Electromagnetic wave

17 Which of the following is an example of two-dimensional waves?

5
A. Rope B. Spring
C. Water D. Sound

18 Which of the following is an example of waves that moves in three dimensions?

5
A. Sound waves B. Water waves
C. Rope waves D. Spring waves

19 Waves that appear to be standing still and are produced by the interference of waves
5 traveling in opposite directions ..
A. Reflected waves B. Incident waves
C. Surface waves D. Standing waves

20 In standing waves, the number of antinodes …… number of nodes.

5
A. Greater than B. Less than
C. Equal D. Double

21 The speed of sound in the air depends on ..

5

Page 33
 A. sound loudness B. sound level
C. wave capacity D. temperature

22 The speed of sound in liquid materials is …….the speed in solid materials

5
A. Greater than B. Less than
C. Equal to D. Double

23 The sharpness of sound depends on ..

5
A. vibration capacity B. speed of sound
C. sound frequency D. phase difference

24 Most people can hear sounds that has a frequency between….

5
A. 20-200000 B. 20-20000
C. 2-20000 D. 2-200

25 Used to measure sound level

5
A. decibel B. hertz
C. doppler D. watts

26 The change in sound frequency is a result from….

5
A. Compton effect B. sound diffraction
C. Doppler effect D. sound echo

Two cars are moving in the same direction and speed, if the horn of the first car travels
27 with a frequency of 450 Hz, what is the frequency that the driver of the second car hears?
5 Knowing that the speed of sound id 343 m/s
A. 343 Hz B. 450 Hz
C. 107 Hz D. 900 Hz

28 The radar is an application of….

5
A. pascal principle B. Doppler effect
C. Bernoulli effect D. Compton effect

Page 34
29 The shortest length of a tube to resonate at a given frequency is satisfied by a tube that is a
5 quarter of the wavelength or …
A. L = λ/4 B. L = λ/3
C. L = λ/2 D. L = λ

30 What is the frequency in Hz of the second resonance for a one end closed tube that has a
5 height of 15 cm ? Knowing that the speed of sound is 343 m/s
A. 2287 B. 1143
C. 1715 D. 572

31 The number of anti nodes in an open-end air pipe is …….. The number of nodes.
5
A. greater than B. smaller than
C. equals D. half of

Waves and Sounds

Page 35
 [6] : Light

1 The science study of sight and the behaviour of light, or the properties of transmission and
6 deflection of other forms of radiation is ….
A. quantum mechanics B. optics
C. relative physics D. laser physics

2 It is impossible for anybody to precede its shadow because light ..

6
A. Is too fast B. Travels in straight lines
C. Has high energy D. Lights up objects

3 For which of the below do we use lumen unit?

6
A. Polarization B. Luminous intensity
C. Illuminance D. Luminous flux

4 The amount of luminous flux per unit area…

6
A. Lumen B. Luminous flux
C. Spectrum D. Illuminance

5 A bulb has an illuminance of 2 lx, what is it's luminous flux in a distance of 5m ?

6
A. 40π lm B. 100π lm
C. 120π lm D. 200π lm

6 A phenomenon that occurs when a wave encounters an obstacle or a slit.

6
A. Diffraction B. Interference
C. Reflection D. Refraction

Page 36
 7 Produces a light that oscillates in one level ..
6
A. Light interference B. Polarized light
C. Light diffraction D. Light dispersion

8 The complementary light for the color yellow is the color ….

6
A. Blue B. Green
C. Red D. White

9 Images are caused by the reflection of the light ..

6
A. Distorted reflection B. On rough surfaces
C. Specular reflection D. Diffuse reflection

10 Diffuse reflection occurs on …… surfaces.

6
A. Smooth B. Rough
C. Soft D. Polished

11
In this figure, the beam falls on a levelled mirror, which of the following is true?
6

A. θ1=θ2 B. θ1=θ3

C. θ1=θ4 D. θ2=θ4

12 A mirror’s image is virtual and upright and the size of the image is equal to the size image
6 of…?
A. convex mirror B. concave mirror
C. levelled mirror D. concave and convex mirror

Page 37
13 The type of mirrors used in the sides of a car is ….
6
A. concave mirrors B. levelled mirrors
C. convex mirrors D. levelled and concave mirrors

14 The point at which rays or waves meet after reflection or refraction, or the point from
6 which diverging rays or waves appear to proceed is …
A. focal point B. mirror’s center
C. mirror’s pole D. the middle of the mirror

15 Every beam parallel to the principle axis of a concave mirror is reflected through
6
A. the focal point and the center of curvature B. the focal point and the mirror’s polar
C. the focal point D. the center of curvature

16 The relation between a concave mirror’s center of curvature C and the focal distance F is…
6
A. C=F B. C=2F
C. C=1/2 f D. C=1/4f

17 A body is put in front of a concave mirror and the distance between them is 15 cm and the
focal point is 30 cm, what are the characteristics of the body’s image?
6
A. real and reduced B. virtual and reduced
C. real and enlarged D. virtual and enlarged

18 In what distance should a body be put in front of a concave mirror ,knowing that the focal
6 distance is 20cm ,for the image would be real and reduced?
A. 20cm B. 30cm
C. 40cm D. 50cm

Page 38
 19 A concave mirror has a 4cm focal distance, if a body is put in front of the mirror at a
6 distance of 10cm, what are the characteristics of the image?
A. real reduced and inverted B. real enlarged and inverted
C. virtual reduced and upright D. virtual enlarged and upright

20 The change in the direction of waves at the boundary between two different mediums is ..
6
A. reflection B. refraction
C. interference D. diffraction

𝟐𝟏
The mathematical equation for Snell’s law is ..
𝟔

22 If the speed of light in one medium is 2×108 m/s and the speed in space is 3×108 m/s
6 then the coefficient of refraction of this medium is ..
A. 1 B. 1.2
C. 1.33 D. 1.5

23 When light passes from a transparent medium with a low index of refraction to a
6 transparent medium with a high index of refraction, then the light
A. Reflects back on the normal B. refracts away from the normal
C. Refracts back on the normal D. refracts towards the normal

24 total internal reflection of light occurs when the angle of the incidence is ….
6
A. greater than the critical angle B. equal to the critical angle
C. smaller than the critical angle D. half of the critical angle

25
In this figure, What is incorrect?
6

Page 39
 A. beam no. 1 doesn't B. refraction of beam no. 3 is
refract parallel to the surface

C. the position of the D. the transfer of beams from

critical angle θc water to air

26 Optical fibers are an example of ….

6
A. total internal refraction B. total internal reflection
C. refraction D. reflection

27 What Causes Mirage Effect?

6
A. Light Reflection. B. Light refraction.
C. Light Diffraction. D. Light Interference.

28 Which of the following does not affect the formation of a rainbow?

6
A. Light Diffraction. B. Dispersion.
C. Reflection. D. Refraction.

29 A transparent material used to diverge or spread out light?

6
A. Convex Mirror B. Concave Mirror
C. Convex lens D. Concave lens

30 A spherical mirror has a magnification of 3, If a 10 cm tall object is put in front of the

6 mirror, What would be the height of the image in cm?

Page 40
 A. 60 B. 30
C.20 D. 10

31 An object is put 10 cm from a concave mirror. So, a real and 3x magnified image is
6 produced, How far is the image from the mirror?
A. 15 cm B. 30 cm
C. 60 cm D. 120 cm

32 An object is 4 cm from a convex lens. So, a real image formed that is 4 cm from the lens,
6 What is the focal length?
A. 1/8 cm B. 1/2 cm
C. 2 cm D. 4 cm

33 If a body is put in front of a concave mirror and its focal length is 11 cm, and an image
6 formed 4 cm from the lens, what is the body's position?
A. 132 cm B. 121 cm
C. 66 cm D. 66 cm

34 If an object is put 30 cm from a concave mirror with a radius of 10 cm, Then what is the
6 image position that is formed?
A. 6 cm B. 12 cm
C. 15 cm D. 40 cm

35 What causes spherical aberration?

6
A. Increase in width of the Len's surface. B. Use only one lens
C. The use of colored lens. D. The use of achromatic Lens

36 What happens to the formed image if half of a convex lens is covered?

6

Page 41
 A. Half of the image disappear B. The image disappears
C. The image dims D. The image reflects

37 Is a defect in the eye where a person cannot see close objects clearly….
6
A. Nearsightedness B. Farsightedness
C. Spherical aberration D. Chromatic aberration

38 To correct farsightedness defect, use…

6
A. Convex lens B. Concave lens
C. Achromatic lens D. Colored lens

39 The image of the things a nearsightedness person sees is formed …

6
A. In front of the retina B. Behind the retina
C. Above the retina D. Under the retina

40 Young's experiment is used to show…

6
A. Light reflection B. Light Refraction
C. Light interference D. Light Diffraction

A light with a wavelength of 5×10-7 m fell on two slits separated by 1mm, What is the
41 distance between the central bright band and the first bright band if the distance from the
6 slit to the screen is 1m?
A. 5×10-4m B. 5×10-10 m
C. 2×10-4m D. 2×10-10 m

42 A blue shimmering appearance of Morpho butterfly is an application of..

6

Page 42
 A. Total reflection B. Polarization
C. Thin film interference D. Diffraction

43 A pattern that results from constructive and destructive interference's of Huygen's wavelet
6 is…
A. Polarization pattern B. Refraction pattern
C. Diffraction pattern D. Interference pattern

44 To form diffraction patterns we use ..

6
A. Diffraction grating B. Spectroscope
C. Achromatic lenses D. Young's two slits

45 A spectrum’s function is to ..
6
A. Measure the focal length B. Measure the wavelength
C. Measure light's speed D. Measure the Index of refraction

Waves and Sounds

Page 43
 [7] : Electricity

A device used to generate high voltage static electricity is..

1
7 Book's definition: A device that builds up large amounts of net charge on its metal dome is..
B. Accumulator
A. Electric Generator
D. Batteries
C. Van de Graaf Generator

2 The spark you may hear if you walk on a carpet is caused by

7
B. Induction
A. Conduction
D. Rubbing
C. Grounding

3 The process of charging an object without touching is called Charging by…

7
B. Induction
A. Conduction
D. Rubbing
C. Grounding

4 For a neutral atom …

7
A. The number of protons equal number of neutrons
B. The number of electrons equal number of neutrons
C. The number of protons equal to number of electrons
D. The atomic number equals to mass number

5 If we put a charged rod beside a charged electroscope and the leaves spread apart , then…
7
A. The electroscope is positively charged and the rod is negatively charged
B. The electroscope is negatively charged and the rod is positively charged
C. Both the electroscope and the rod have the same charge
D. Both the electroscope and the rod are neutral

6 The charge of any object is an integer multiple of

7

Page 44
 B. Neutron
A. An oil drop
D. Electron
C. Photon

7 A teacher asked his students to find the charge of an object in coulomb, And when he saw
7 the students answer he instantly knew that only one answer is correct…
B. 5×10-19
A. 10×10-19
D. 3.2×10-19
C. 4.4×10-19

8 A material through which a charge will not move easily is..

7
B. Semiconductor
A. Conductor
D. Neutral Object
C. Insulator

9 One of these objects is a conductor..

7
B. Plastic
A. Glass
D. Silver
C. Dry Air

10 What is the electrostatic force in Newtons that a charge of 4×10-9 C has on a test charge of
7 1 C that is 1 m away? Knowing that Coulomb’s constant is 9×109 N.m2/C2 ..
B. 4
A. 4×10-19
D. 36
C. 36×10-9

11 A positive charge of 5µC is put 30cm from a negative charge -4µC, What is the magnitude of
7 the force between them? (K=9×109 N.m2/C2)
B. 20 N
A. 30 N
D. 2 N
C. 3 N

In the figure below, the net force acting on (q3) that is located in half of the distance
12 between the two equal charges (q1,q2) equals to…
7
B. Kq2/r
A. 0
D. 2Kq2/r2
C. Kq2/r2

Page 45
 What is the force affecting charge b sown in the figure below in Newton?
13
7
B. 0
A. -3.6
D. 0.036
C. 3.6

14 The test charge in an electric field must be..

7
B. Small and negative
A. Small and positive
D. Big and negative
C. Big and positive

15 What is the magnitude of the electrical force acting on an electron with a charge of
7 1.6×10-19 C found in an electric field wit a strength of 200 N/C ?
b. 1.3×1021N
a. 8×10-22 N
d. 3.2×1017N
c. 3.2×10-17 N

16 A point in space is 0.002 m from a charge of 4×10-6 C , If you know that Coulomb's constant
7 is K=9×109 N.m2/C2, Then what is the strength of the electric field at this point?
B. 9×109 N/C
A. 18×106 N/C
D. 9×10-9 N/C
C. 18×10-6 N/C

𝟏𝟕
In the figure below: What is the strength of the electric field at point A?
𝟕

A.0 B. 2×102 N/C

C. 21×102 N/C D. 8×107 N/C

Page 46
18 A field where the magnitude and direction of all point between the plates is the same ,
7 except at the edges of the plates is …
B. Uniform field
A. Equal field
D. Unequal field
C. Not uniform field

19 Field lines in a uniform electrical field is ……………. and the distance between them is equal.
7
B. Curved
A. Parallel
D. Neither parallel nor curved
C. Not parallel

20 Electric field lines are imaginary and they are directed away from ..
7
B. Positive to negative
A. Positive to positive
D. Negative to positive
C. Negative to positive

𝟐𝟏
The following figure has 3 charges q1 , q2 , q3 ,
𝟕
the charges type respectively is..

B. + , - , -
A. + , + , -
D. + , - , +
C. - , - , +

22 The work needed to move a positive test charge..

7
B. Electric field
A. Electric power
D. Capacitance
C. Electric potential

23 The unit J/C is equivalent to..

7
B. Tesla (T)
A. Vault (V)
D. Newton(N)
C. Ampere (A)

Page 47
24 What work is done to move 4 C charge through a potential difference of 200 V ?
7
B. 800 J
A. 25 J
D. 80000 J
C. 8000 J

25 Charges move between two bodies in contact if they have ..

7
B. Different areas
A. Equal areas
D. Different potentials
C. equipotential

26 An equipotential around a test charge..

7
B. Circular path
A. Elliptical path
D. Parabolic path
C. Oval path

The distance between 2 parallel charged plates is 0.75 cm , and the electric field magnitude
27 between them is 1200 N/C , what is the electrical potential difference between the two
7 plates in vault ?
B. 900
A. 1600
D. 9
C. 16

28 Based on the following figure: find the electric potential difference

7 between the two plates.
B. 3000 V
A. 6000 V
D. 300 V
C. 600 V

29 Based on the following figure, find the electric field between

7 the two plates.
B. 550 N/c
A. 55 N/C

Page 48
 D. 1300 N/C
C. 890 N/C

30 One of the uses of a capacitor ..

7
B. Specifying the charge type
A. Store electrical energy
D. Detecting the charge
C. Measuring the charge

31 The capacitor symbol

7

32 The capacitance in the capacitor depends on..

7
A. The geometric dimensions of the capacitor
B. The electric potential difference between the capacitors two plates
C. The capacitors charge
D. All of the above

33 What is the charge of a capacitor with a capacitance of 6 µF and its potential difference is
7 30 V?
B. 180 µC
A. 5 µC
D. 180 C
C. 5 C

34 The farad (F) unit is equivalent to..

7
B. C/V
A. C.V
D. C/V2
C. C.V2

Page 49
35 The rate of the flow of an electric charge..
7
B. Electric current strength
A. Electric potential difference
D. Electric potential energy
C. Electric field strength

36 A 3 C charge pass through a wire in 6 s. what is the electric current ?

7
B. 2 A
A. 0.5 A
D. 18 A
C. 9 A

37 The electric current is produced from a chemical reaction in..

7
B. Voltaic cell (Galvanic cell)
A. Diffraction
D. Synchrotron
C. Mass spectrometry

38 A cell that converts solar energy to electrical energy

7
B. Battery
A. Voltaic cell
D. Solar cell
C. Galvanic cell

39 Rate at which energy is transformed..

7
B. Power
A. Energy
D. Potential difference
C. Electric current

40 The power is
7
A. Inversely proportional with the resistance and directly proportional with the square
of the current
B. Directly proportional with the resistance and inversely proportional with square of
the current
C. Inversely proportional with both the resistance and the square of the current
D. Directly proportional with both the resistance and the square of the current

Page 50
41 A light bulb has a label (5.5 W), if the potential difference is 220 V then the electric current
7 passed through it in Ampere is ..
B. 0.25
A. 0.025
D. 1000
C. 100

42 Find the potential difference for an electric device that has a power of 1100 W if the
7 current passed through it is 5 A.
B. 110 V
A. 44 V
D. 5500 V
C. 220 V

43 A light bulb has a resistance of 4 Ω , and a 2 A electric current pass through it. So its power
7 is ..
B. 4 W
A. 1 W
D. 64 W
C. 16 W

44 A light bulb has a power of 60 W , and lights at a potential difference of 12 V . the resistance
7 of the light bulb is..
B. 7.2 ohm
A. 24 ohm
D. 0.2 ohm
C. 2.4 ohm

45 A 12 V battery needs ……… time in seconds to produce 600 J of energy in an electric circuit
7 that has 0.5 A current . what is the time needed ?
B. 6
A. 0.01
D. 3600
C. 100

46 The electric current is directly proportional with the electric potential difference when the
7 temperature is constant..
B. Ohm's law
A. Joules law
D. Boyle's law
C. Hook's law

47 You can increase the electric current in an electric circuit through..

7

Page 51
 A. Increase both the potential difference and the electric resistance
B. Increase the potential difference and decrease the electric resistance
C. Decrease both the potential difference and the resistance
D. Decrease the potential difference and increase the potential difference

48 A resistance of 2Ω and a potential difference of 9 V , THE ELECTRIC CURRENT PASSED

7 THROUGH IT IS..
B. 4.5 A
A. 2 A
D. 18 A
C. 11 A

49 A device used to measure the electric potential difference

7
B. Voltmeter
A. Ammeter
D. galvanometer
C. ohmmeter

50 Ratio of potential difference to the current..

7
B. Power
A. Capacity
D. Energy
C. Resistance

51 When increasing the temperature, the conductors resistance increases because..

7
A. a decrease in the atoms movement
B. an increase in the number of atoms
C. an increase in the collision between electrons and atoms
D. a decrease in the electrons

52 A change in resistance in an electric circuit is used to control ..

7
B. Electric Potential Difference
A. Electric Current
D. Electromotive Force
C. Electric Current Time Interval

53 A device used to measure the electrical resistance..

7

Page 52
 B. Voltmeter
A. Ammeter
D. Ohmmeter
C. Galvanometer

𝟓𝟒
Calculate the equivalent resistance for the following circuit:
𝟕

B. 9Ω
A. 18Ω
D. 1.63Ω
C. 3Ω

𝟓𝟓
A student connected a lamp with 3 resistors as shown, his
𝟕
friend told him he could connect the lamp with one resistor to
get the same brightness, yet the resistance should be..

B. 2Ω
A. 1Ω
D. 0.3Ω
C. 3Ω

𝟓𝟔
The equivalent resistant in the following circuit is ..
𝟕

48
𝑅 B.
A. 4
𝑅

4 D. 4R
C. 𝑅

Page 53
57 When connecting 5 resistors with different values in series, then the current is..
7
A. Equal and the potential difference is equal
B. Different and the potential difference is equal
C. Equal and the potential difference is different
D. Different and the potential difference is different

58 When connecting two resistors, R1,R2 , in series, you can calculate the current using which
7 formula?
𝑅1 𝑅2
A. I = V(R1+R2) B. I = 𝑉
𝑉
𝑉 D. I = 𝑅
C. I = 𝑅 1 +𝑅2
1 𝑅2

𝟓𝟗
Using the figure on the right; what is the
𝟕
potential difference in volts?

B. 9
A. 6
D. 24
C. 12

60 Three resistors, 10Ω, 15Ω , 5Ω, are connected in a series circuit across a 90V battery. What
7 is the equivalent resistance for the circuit? What is the current in the circuit?
B. 3Ω , 270A
A. 30Ω , 3Ω
D. 30Ω , 270A
C. 3Ω , 3Ω

In the figure on the right, a circuit consists of a battery and two

resistors, R1, R2, with different values. By calculating the current
that passes each resistor and potential difference between them
61 you’ll find that …
7

Page 54
 A. The current is different, but potential difference in equal.
B. The current is equal, but potential difference is different.
C. The current is different, also potential difference is different.
D. The current is equal, also potential difference is equal.

𝟔𝟐
The equivalent resistance in the circuit on the right
𝟕
equals…

B. 9Ω
A. 18Ω
D. 0.5Ω
C. 2Ω

𝟔𝟑
Eight resistors, each one is 24Ω, are connected in parallel,
𝟕
the equivalent resistance equals…

B. 32Ω
A. 8Ω
D. 16Ω
C. 3Ω

The circuit on the right consists of a battery and two light bulbs, if you
64 had only one chance to cut the circuit in which none of the bulbs light
7 up; at which point will you cut the circuit?
B. 2
A. 1
D. 4
C. 3

65 An electric circuit has very small resistance which makes the current very large…
7
B. Parallel circuit
A. Series circuit
D. Voltage divider circuit
C. Short circuit

Page 55
66 A short piece of metal melts (fuses) when large current passes through it…
7
B. Metallic resistance
A. A fuse
D. Circuit breaker
C. Metallic resistance

67 Which of the following is not a safety device?

7
B. Electric switch
A. A fuse
D. Ground-fault interrupter
C. Circuit breaker

Electricity

Page 56
 [8] : Magnets and Electromagnets

1 The number of magnetic field lines passing through a surface…

8
A. Electromagnetic flux B. Magnetic flux
C. Electromagnetic fields D. Magnetic fields

2 The magnetic flux per unit area is proportional to…

8
A. Type of magnetic pole B. Shape of magnetic field
C. Strength of magnetic field D. Direction of magnetic field

3 Magnetic fields from current- carrying wires form

8
A. Oval pattern B. Elliptic pattern
C. Circular pattern D. Spiral pattern

4 Strength of magnetic field from current-carrying wires varies

8
A. Directly with mass of the wire B. Directly with distance from the
wire
C. Inversely with mass of the wire D. Inversely with distance from the
wire

5 The field produced from a permanent magnet is similar to the field produced from an
8 electric current passing in…
A. straight wire B. circular loop
C. spiral loop D. wired pattern

6 An affecting factor on the strength of a solenoid is…

8
A. potential difference B. resistance of loops
C. number of loops D. area of loops

7 The magnetic force acting on a wire that its length is 5m, a 2A current passes through it,
8 oriented at right angle in a magnetic field with strength 0.6T…
A. 60N B. 30N
C. 15N D. 6N

8 An attraction force is produced from two current-carrying wires that are …

8
A. Perpendicular B. Acute angle between them
C. In the same direction D. In the opposite direction

Page 57
 In a magnetic field that its strength is 0.4T, an electron travels perpendicularly at 5×106
9 m/s. if the electron charge is 1.6×10-19 C, how strong is the force acting on the electron in
8 newton?
A. 2 × 10-13 B. 2 × 1013
C. 3.2 × 10-13 D. 3.2 × 1013

10 What happens to a charged particle at rest if a magnetic field acted on it?

8
A. Travels in the direction of the field B. Travels opposite the direction of
the field
C. No change happens D. Travels outside the direction of the
field

11 If an electron enters a magnetic field perpendicularly, it travels in a …

8
A. circular path B. spiral path
C. straight path D. opposite path

12 Recording information on a magnetic strip is considered a practical application on…

8
A. Magnetic field formed from an B. Magnetic force on a single charged
electric current moving particle
C. The effect of the electric and D. Magnetic force on a current-
magnetic fields on a charged carrying conductor
particle’s motion

13 Saleh has a game. if he moves it, it becomes a source of electrical energy. This game is an
8 example of…
A. electric capacitor B. electric engine
C. electric resistance D. electric motor

14
The device shown in the figure on the right is a …
8

A. galvanometer B. ammeter
C. voltmeter D. ohmmeter

Page 58
 15 Which figure is correct from the following electric circuits?
8

16 Electromagnetic induction is discovered by…

8
A. Faraday B. Thomson
C. Mellikan D. Rontign

17
In the figure on the right, a student placed a wire connected to an ammeter between the
8
poles of a magnet and studied 4 cases:
1. He left the wire stationary
2. He moved the wire up
3. He moved the wire down
4. He moved the wire parallel to the field
Which of the following cases produces an electric current?

A. 1 and 4 B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 4 D. 2 and 3

18 What is the induced electromotive force produced from the movement of 1m wire at a
8 speed of 4m/s perpendicular to a magnetic field of strength 0.5T?
A. 2V B. 5.5V
C. 6V D. 8V

19 A lamp has an average power of 75W, what is its maximum power?

8
A. 3.75W B. 15W
C. 37.5W D. 150W

Page 59
 An alternating current (effective current) generates a maximum potential of 100V, and
20 provides the outer circuit with a current that its maximum value is 180A, what is the
8 average power produced in watts?
A. 9000 B. 9000√2
18000 D. 18000
C.
√2

21 The magnetic field produced by the induced current is in the direction that is opposite the
8 original field…
A. Henry’s law B. Orsted’s law
C. Faraday’s law D. Lenz’s law

22 To create an induced EMF that opposes the change in the potential difference across the
8 wire is called…
A. Self-inductance B. Mutual inductance
C. Magnetic inductance D. Changing inductance

23 A device that increases or decreases potential differences…

8
A. Transformer B. Electric generator
C. Continuous current generator D. Alternating current generator

If the secondary potential difference ( number of turns in secondary coil ) is larger than
24 the primary potential difference ( number of turns in primary coil), the transformer is
8 called…
A. Step-up transformer B. Step-down transformer
C. Continuous current transformer D. Alternating current transformer

a transformer that its number of turns in primary coil is 200 turns, and 4000 turns in
25 secondary coil. If it was supplied with a potential (or effective) difference of 6V, calculate
8 the secondary potential difference…
A. 2400 V B. 1200V
C. 120V D. 12V

26 The results of the cathode ray experiment determined …

8
A. Mass of nucleus B. Charge of electron
C. Charge of proton D. Mass of electron

Page 60
27 To calculate charge-to-mass ratio we use…
8 𝑞 𝑣
𝑞 𝐵𝑟
A. = B. =
𝑚 𝑣 𝑚 𝐵𝑟

𝑞 𝐵𝑣 𝑞 𝑟
C. = D. =
𝑚 𝑟 𝑚 𝐵𝑣

28 Thomson explained the glowing of two spots on the cathode ray tube screen of a neon gas
8 that they are…
A. Different atoms for different element B. Similar atoms for different element
C. Different atoms for the same element D. Similar atoms for the same element

29 To separate the ions that have different mass, we use a device called…
8
A. Scanning tunnel microscope B. X-ray tube
C. Mass spectrometer D. Laser

30 Two charges of magnitude q for each, and masses m1, m2 entering a mass spectrometer, if
8 the radius of the path of the first is r1 and second r2=3r1. So, …
A. m1 = 3m2 B. m2 = 3m1
C. m1 = 9m2 D. m2 = 9m1

31 The range of frequencies that make up electromagnetic radiations is…

8
A. Atomic spectrum B. Electric spectrum
C. Magnetic spectrum D. Electromagnetic spectrum

32 The speed of the electromagnetic wave when it travels through matter is…… the speed
8 when it travels through empty space.
A. less than B. Equal to
C. Double D. Triple

33 What is the speed of the electromagnetic wave when its relative dielectric constant is 4?
8 (knowing that the speed of light is equal to 3 x 108).
A. 6 x 108 m/s B. 3 x 108 m/s
C. 2 x 108 m/s D. 1.5 x 108 m/s

Page 61
34 Which of the following is not an example of an electromagnetic wave?
8
A. potential difference B. resistance of loops
C. number of loops D. area of loops

35 The wave with the longest wavelength is the wave of…

8
A. Radio B. Gamma rays
C. X rays D. Microwaves

36 The microwaves and the radio waves share in all of the following properties except for…
8
A. They are Electromagnetic waves B. Having the same wavelength
C. Traveling in a vacuum with the same D. They don’t need matter to travel
speed through

37 X-rays have…
8
A. Both large frequency and large B. A large frequency and a short
wavelength wavelength
C. Both small frequency and small D. A small frequency and a large
wavelength wavelength

38 X-rays were discovered by…

8
A. Faraday B. Hertz
C. Roentgen D. Maxwell

39 To generate an electromagnetic wave with a high energy, we use a coil that is connected to
8 a…
A. Capacitor in series B. Capacitor in parallel
C. Resistance in series D. Resistance in parallel

Magnets and Electromagnetism

Page 62
 [9] : Modern Physics

1 If you knew that energy vibrating an atom is quantized, then which of the followings is
9 wrong?
A. 1hf B. 0.5hf
C. 2hf D. 3hf

2 Which of the following can represent an energy of vibration?

9
4 5
A. hf B. hf
2 3
3 4
C. hf D. hf
2 3

3 The atom’s energy is quantized means that its values are

9
A. Odd B. Even
C. Fraction D. Integer

4 The equation of the energy of vibration is…

9
A. nhf B. nhλ
C. nhc D. nhv

5 The emission of an electrons when electromagnetic radiation falls on an object is called…

9
A. light effect B. photoelectric effect
C. Doppler effect D. Compton effect

6 Electrons eject from cathode only if the frequency of the incident radiation is greater than
9 a certain minimum value is called…
A. Radiation frequency B. Photon frequency
C. Light frequency D. Threshold frequency

7 When an ultraviolet radiation falls on a negative charged zinc board, it ejects an electron
9 from zinc because…
A. The frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is larger than the threshold frequency of zinc.
B. The frequency of the ultraviolet radiation is smaller than the threshold frequency of zinc
C. The energy of the ultraviolet is smaller than the function of the zinc
D. The wavelength of the ultraviolet radiation is larger than the wavelength of the threshold
of zinc.

Page 63
8 If the threshold frequency of a metal was 4.4x1014Hz, what is the needed energy to eject
9 the electron form the surface of the metal?
A. 4.4x1014 +h B. 4.4x1014 – h
C. 4.4x1014 h D. 4.4x1014 ÷ h

9 Einstein explained the photoelectric effect by saying that visible light consists of quantized
9 bundles of energy called……
A. electrons B. protons
C. neutrons D. photons

10 The product of plankton’s constant and the frequency of the photon results as……
9
A. wavelength of a photon B. energy of a photon
C. speed of a photon D. mass of a photon

11 The energy of a photon is…

9
A. directly proportional with the B. inversely proportional with the
wavelength wavelength
C. directly proportional with the mass D. inversely proportional with the mass

12 What is the energy of a photon if its frequency is 1×1015Hz? Knowing that plankton’s
9 constant is 6.63x10-34 J.s
A. 6.63x10-19J B. 6.63x1019J
C. 6.63x10-49J D. 6.63x1049J

13 Wave A has a frequency of 1023Hz, and wave B has a wavelength of 10-12, the right
9 comparison between the two energies is ..
A. B < A B. A < B
C. A ≤ B D. B ≤ A

14 If the wave frequency increased, then ..

9
A. Its energy decreases B. Its wavelength increases
C. Its mass increases D. Its energy increases

15 Which of the following frequencies has the smallest energy?

9
A. 6x1020 Hz B. 1.5x109 Hz
C. 7.5x106 Hz D. 5x1013 Hz

Page 64
16 According to the electromagnetic waves, which of these following sentences is correct?
9
A. If its frequency increases, its energy decreases
B. If its wavelength increases, its energy increases
C. If its frequency increases, its wavelength increases
D. If its wavelength increases, its frequency decreases

17 If the energy of a photon falling on a metal surface was 5.5eV, and work function is 4.5eV,
9 then the kinetic energy equals
A. 1eV B. 1.2eV
C. 10eV D. 24.75eV

18 A photon with a frequency of 108x1014Hz fell on a surface with a threshold frequency of 8x1014
9 Hz, what is the kinetic energy? Knowing that plankton’s constant equals 6.63x10-34J.s
A. 6.63x10-34J B. 6.63x10-18J
C. 116x1014J D. 100x1014J

19 Energy of an electron moving across an electric potential difference of one volt is called……
9
A. Electron volt B. Joule
C. Watt D. Atomic mass unit

In a photoelectric cell, the stopping potential is 4V , calculate the electron’s kinetic energy if you
20
knew that the electron’s charge equals -1.6x10-19C.
9
A. 6.4x10-19J B. 6.4x1019J
C. 0.4X10-19J D. 0.4X1019J

21 The shift in the energy of scattered photons is called……

9
A. The photoelectric theory B. Compton effect
C. Blackbody spectrum D. Plankton’s hypothesis

22 There is a limit to how precisely a particle’s position and momentum can simultaneously
9 be measured.
A. De Broglie’s principle B. Heisenberg uncertainty principle
C. Einstein’s principle D. Plankton’s principle

23 The wavelength represents that of the moving particle is called..

9
A. Radiation wavelength B. Standing wave’s wavelength
C. Stable wave’s wavelength D. de Broglie wavelength

Page 65
24 (λ) in the de Broglie’s equation (𝛌 =
𝒉
) symbols for…...
𝒎𝒗
9
A. Wavelength B. Frequency
C. Amplitude D. Energy

25 The nucleus was first discovered by ..

9
A. Bhor B. Rutherford
C. Thomson D. Röntgen

26 Deflection of alpha particles in Rutherford’s experiment is because……

9
A. The atom has a positive charge
B. Most of the atom’s volume is empty space
C. The presence of a dense mass in the center of the atom
D. The presence of negatively charge electrons

27 Which of the following is not a property of the atom?

9
A. There is no empty space in the nucleus
B. The mass of the atom is in the nucleus
C. The atom is neutral
D. Different substances have different atoms

28 Negative particles moving around the nucleus...

9
A. Protons B. Neutrons
C. Electrons D. Positrons

29 His theory states that “the laws of electromagnetism are not applied within the atom”…
9
A. Thomson B. Rutherford
C. Geiger D. Bohr

30 What is the radius of the Bohr’s second orbital of the hydrogen atom?
9
A. 5.3x10-11 m B. 10.6x10-11 m
C. 15.9x10-11 m D. 21.2x10-11 m

31 In Bohr’s orbitals: Bohr proposed that the electron’s angular momentum equals an integer
9 multiple of…
ℎ ℎ
A. B.
4𝜋 2𝜋

ℎ 2ℎ
C. 𝜋
D. 𝜋

Page 66
32 The second energy level of the hydrogen atom equals...
9
A. 54.4 eV B. -54.4 eV
C. 3.4 eV D. -3.4 eV

33 The energy of the atom when the electron is infinitely far from the nucleus and has no
9 kinetic energy…
A. Zero energy B. Excited state
C. Ground state D. Potential energy

34 The energy emitted when the electron passes the hydrogen atom from an energy level of -
9 3.4 eV to an energy level of -1.51 eV…
A. 4.91 eV B. 1.89 eV
C. -1.89 eV D. -4.91 eV

35 If the Neon gas is placed in a tube, the atomic emission spectrum radiates when _____________
9 increases.
A. Gas pressure B. Potential difference
C. Amount of gas D. Volume of the tube

36 A property you use to identify the type of gas….

9
A. Atomic emission spectrum B. Quantum energy
C. Magnetic spectrum D. Photon energy

37 Which of the following is correct?

9
A. Cold gasses emit the same wavelengths as when they are excited.
B. Cold gasses ionize wavelengths when excited.
C. Cold gasses excite wavelengths that excite when excited.
D. Cold gasses absorb wavelengths they emit when excited.

38 The hydrogen emission spectrum is…

9
A. The regularity of the electron’s energy in a fixed orbit.
B. Transmission of electrons to lower energy orbits.
C. Transmission of electrons to higher energy orbits.
D. The regularity of the electron’s speed in a fixed orbit.

39 UV rays are emitted from the hydrogen atom when the electrons move from the upper
9 levels to the _____________ level.
A. First B. Second
C. Third D. Fourth

Page 67
40 The ranged of colored lines in the visible light hydrogen atom spectrum is known as…
9
A. Kempton B. Balmer
C. Lyman D. Paschen

41 The transmission of an electron from the fourth energy level to the second energy level
9 launches _______________ series.
A. Paschen B. Lyman
C. Balmer D. Absorption

42 The series which occurs by the transition of the electron of hydrogen atom from an excited
9 state to the third energy level…
A. Lyman B. Balmer
C. Paschen D. Humphry

43 Predicted that the most probable distance between the electrons and the nucleus of the
9 hydrogen atom is the same radius that Bohr’s model predicted…
A. Heisenberg B. de Broglie
C. Maxwell D. Schrödinger

44 The region in which there is a high probability of finding the electron is called…
9
A. Electron cloud B. Energy levels
C. Vacuum cloud D. Atom’s orbitals

45 The study of the properties of matter using its wave properties…

9
A. Particle model B. Wave model
C. Quantum mechanics D. Atom mechanics

46 Light two or more sources that generate waves of the same wavelength that in phase with
9 each other…
A. Polarized light B. Non-polarized light
C. Coherent light D. Incoherent light

47 Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

9
A. X-rays B. LASER
C. Light analysis D. Light assembling

Page 68
48 Laser is generated when the photons emitted are…
9
A. Consistent in phase and frequency B. Consistent in phase and different in
frequency
C. Different in phase and frequency D. Different in phase and consistent
frequency

49 Laser light...
9
A. Monochromatic, coherent, directed, has high energy
B. Monochromatic, incoherent, directed, has high energy
C. Monochromatic, coherent, directed, has low energy
D. Monochromatic, coherent, not directed, has high energy

50 The energy gap of germanium is 0.7 eV and silicon 1.1 eV, which of the following is correct?
9
A. Silicon is more conductive
B. Germanium is more conductive
C. Silicon is a conductor and germanium is an insulator
D. Silicon is an insulator and germanium is a conductor

51 In substance (A) the gap energy is 2eV, and substance (B) does not have a gap energy…
9
A. A is a semiconductor and B is a conductor
B. A is a conductor and B is a semiconductor
C. A is a conductor and B is a conductor
D. A is a semiconductor and B is a semiconductor

52
What is the composition of crystal A, B, C regarding the table below?
9

A. Conductor, semiconductor, insulator B. Insulator, semiconductor, conductor

C. Semiconductor, insulator, conductor D. Insulator, conductor, semiconductor

Page 69
53 Semiconductors that conducts charge as a result thermally freed electrons and gaps are
9 called ____________ semiconductors.
A. Intrinsic B. Neutral
C. Extrinsic D. Not neutral

54 Charge carriers in semiconductors that are from the positive type…

9
A. Electrons B. Negative ions
C. Positive ions D. Holes

55 A semiconductor that has a p-type connected with an n-type..

9
A. Intensive condenser B. Transistor
C. Diode D. Microchips

56
In the diode on the right: where do a and b move to?
9
A. a moves towards the right and b moves towards the left
B. a moves towards the left and be moves towards the right
C. Both a and b move towards the right
D. Both a and b move towards the left

57 Which of the following about diodes is incorrect?

9
A. Amplifies (increases) the potential difference B. Detects light
C. Emits light D. Powers the AC

A device made of doped semiconductor material that can be used to amplify current and
58 consists of two layers of a semi-conductive material of the same type on the ends of a thin
9 layer of a semi-conductive material that differs in type is called…
A. Transistor B. Triode
C. Microchips D. Diode

59 If the current of the base in the transistor circuit is 50μA, and the collectors current is
9 equal to 10µA; the amount of current gain from the base to the collector equals…
A. 200 B. 20
C. 5 D. 0.2

Page 70
60 Integrated circuits consisting of thousands of transistors, diodes, resistors, and
9 connectors…
A. Diode B. Triode
C. Microchips D. Transistor circuits

Modern Physics

Page 71
 [10] : Nuclear Physics

1 The mass number in an atom equals

10
A. Number of neutrons B. Number of protons and neutrons
C. Number of protons D. Atomic number and neutrons

2 𝟐𝟏𝟎
In the element Pb the number of protons equal…
10 𝟖𝟐
A. 82 B. 128
C. 210 D. 292

𝟏𝟑𝟐
3 How many neutrons are in the nucleus of the atom cesium Cs ?
𝟓𝟓
10
A. 55 B. 77
C. 132 D. 187

4 𝟏𝟒
In the nitrogen nucleus N there is…
10 𝟕
A. 14 protons B. 7 protons and 7 neutrons
C. 14 neutrons D. 14 protons and 7 electrons

5 Nucleus X contains 10 protons and 12 neutrons, the correct symbol for this nucleus
10
𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟎
A. X B. X
𝟏𝟎 𝟏𝟐
𝟐𝟐 𝟏𝟎
C. X D. X
𝟏𝟎 𝟐𝟐

6 Atoms that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons…
10
A. Antiparticle B. Isotopes
C. Nucleons D. Quarks

7 Isotopes atoms have the same…

10
A. Number of protons B. Number of neutrons
C. Atomic size D. Mass number

Page 72
8 The particles found in the atom’s nucleus are…
10
A. Electrons and protons B. Electrons and neutrons
C. Protons and neutrons D. Protons only

9 Nuclear binding energy is calculated using the equation…

10
A. mc B. m/c
C. mc2 D. m/c2

10 An unstable atomic nucleus loses energy by emitting radiation is…

10
A. Photo-degradation B. atomic decay
C. natural decay D. radioactive decay

11 The charge of a helium nucleus…

10
A. 1.6×10-19 C B. 3.2×10-19 C
C. 4.8×10-19 C D. 6.4×10-19 C

12 In the decay of an alpha particle in a nucleus, the atomic number (Z) and mass number
10 (A) become…
A. Z+2, A+4 B. Z-2, A+4
C. Z+2, A-4 D. Z-2, A-4

What type of radiation is caused from the following nuclear reaction?

238 234
13 921𝑈 → 90𝑇ℎ +⋯
10
A. Alpha B. Beta
C. Gamma D. X-rays

What values are (A,Z) that make the following equation correct?
14 𝟐𝟑𝟖
𝟗𝟐𝟏𝑼 → ∝ + 𝑨𝒁𝒀
10
A. Z=94, A=242 B. Z=92, A=238
C. Z=90, A=238 D. Z=90, A=234

Page 73
15 Beta decay causes ..
10
A. increased atomic number B. decreased atomic number
C. increased mass number D. decreased mass number

What happens in the following reaction?

16 𝟐𝟏𝟐 𝟐𝟏𝟐 𝟎
𝟖𝟐𝑷𝒃 → 𝟖𝟑𝑩𝒊 + −𝟏𝒆 + 𝟎𝟎𝒗
̅
10
A. Alpha decay B. Beta decay
C. Gamma decay D. Proton loss

17 Gamma radiation is…

10
A. Electromagnetic waves B. Particles
C. Positive ions D. Negative ions

18 Which following radiation doesn’t affect the electric field?

10
A. Gamma B. Positive beta
C. Negative beta D. Alpha

19 Gamma decay causes…

10
A. Free electrons B. Helium nucleus emissions
C. Redistribution of nuclear power in D. Proton loss
nucleus

20 Which nuclear decay doesn’t change the number of protons or neutrons in the nucleus?
10
A. Protozoan B. Alpha
C. Beta D. Gamma

Page 74
21 When (γ) decay happens in nucleus then…
10
A. Mass number increases by 1 B. Atomic number increases by 1
C. Mass number and atomic number don’t D. Atomic number increases by 1, while
change mass number decreases by 1

22 One of the following is not a nuclear reaction…

10
A. Decay B. Induced radioactivity
C. Fission D. Fusion

The value of (r) in the following equation…

23 𝟐𝟑𝟒
𝟗𝟎𝑿 →
𝟐𝟑𝟒
𝒓𝑷𝒂 + −𝟏𝟎𝒆 + 𝟎𝟎𝒗
̅
10
A. 89 B. 90
C. 91 D. 92

Determine the missing isotope (X) in the following reaction…

1
0𝑛 + 147𝑁 → 146𝐶 + 𝑋
24
10
1 2
A. 2𝐻 B. 1𝐻

3 4
C. 1𝐻 D. 2𝐻

25 Number of decays of a radiated substance each second ..

10
A. Nuclear fission B. Radioactivity
C. Nuclear fusion D. Nuclear power

26 A radioactive element with the half-life of 8 days. If its mass on Saturday was 10g, what
10 will its mass be on Sunday of the next week?
A. 10 B. 5
C. 2.5 D. 1.25

Page 75
27 A radioactive sample had mass of 8g on Saturday and the half-life of 4 days. Its mass on
10 Sunday of the next week becomes…
1 1
A. B.
2 4
C. 2 D. 4

28 A radioactive substance was 80g in mass, and became 10g after 72 days, then the half-life
10 of this substance in days is…
A. 24 B. 12
C. 30 D. 60

29 Cadmium rods placed between barium rods, and are moved to inside the nuclear reactor
10 and outside it, and its job is to control the rate of the chain reaction…
A. control rods B. nuclear fuel rods
C. decelerating rods D. accelerator

30 Uranium isotope able to perform fission..

10
238 235
A. 92𝑈 B. 92𝑈
234 231
C. 92𝑈 D. 92𝑈

31 Linear accelerators used to accelerate……..to give it a large amount of energy.

10
A. Uncharged particles B. Charged particles
C. Neutrons D. Gamma rays

32 A synchrotron……… accelerator in which magnets are used to maintain the orbit and
10 acceleration of particles.
A. linear B. Spiral
C. Circular D. Constant

33 When a neutron becomes a proton then a..…….. is emitted.

10
A. Alpha particle B. Beta particle
C. Gamma rays D. Positron

Page 76
34 If a proton becomes a neutron inside an atom then ……..is created.
10
A. A Positron B. An electron
C. A neutron D. A proton

35 Geiger’s counter is used to detect…

10
A. Uncharged particles B. Charged particles
C. Neutrons D. Gravitons

36 To detect electrically neutral particles, we use…

10
A. Geiger’s counter B. Wilson Cloud Chamber
C. Bubble chamber D. Shock detector

37 Particles that form protons and neutrons…

10
A. Quarks B. Lactones
C. Mesons D. Graphite

38 Number of quarks that make up a baryon

10
A. Two B. Three
C. Four D. Five

39 A hypothetical particle that mediates the force of gravitation…

10
A. Quarks B. Lactones
C. Gravitons D. Mesons

Nuclear Physics

Page 77