Avsec Pepar

Q 1.
First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world

(a) 1976 (b) 21 feb1931 (c) 1971 (d) 1944
Q 2. BCAS came into existence in the year of
a) 1934 (b) 1937 (c) 18 jan 1987 (d) 2001
Q 3. BCAS came into existence after the recommendation of

(a)B N Kirpal Singh committee (b) B D Pandey committee
(c) R P Singh Committee (d) Arun mishra committee

Q 4. Deployment of CISF is a result of
a) IC814 hijack b) Kaniska incident
c) First hijack d) none of these
Q 5. Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of

Q 6. Ramamrithan committee formed at
a) 1979 b)1980 c) 1981 d)1982
Q7. When was CISF inducted at airports?

a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’1999 c) 10 March 2000 d) 3 Feb’2001
Q 8. To provide Training on aviation security is the responsibility of ?
a) CASO b) BCAS c) APD d) AAI
Q 9. Appropriate authority on Safety in India?
a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports
c) BCAS d) DGCA
Q 10. Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking…?

a) Deployment of sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF
c) PEC d) SLPC
Q 11. In which year the first convention formed?

a) 1937 b) 1944 c) 1947 d) 1934
Q12. How many conventions are there ?

a) One b) Four c) Five d) Eight
Q 13. Which one is the Standard Practice?
a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d)SSLC
Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) EVD
Q 15. The explosion at Chennai airport took place in the year

a) 2 Aug 1984 b) 2 Aug 1982
c) 24 Dec 1999 d) 11 Sep 2001
Q 16. Allocation of bays is the duties of?
a) Apron control b) CISF
c) Airline d) None of these
Q 17. Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"?

a) Hijacking b) Sabotage
c) Disruption of communication facility d) pilferage
Q 18. A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is
a) Pier b) Ramp c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area
Q 19. The large no. Of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………?

a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba
Q20. The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is
controlled
a) Airside b) Land side c) Security hold area d) Sterile area
Q21. How many hijackings reported yet in India
a) 15 b) 13 c) 14 d) 12
Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of

a) 1976 b) 1931 c) 1971 d) 1944
Q23. Aircraft Rule was framed in India in the year of
a) 1934 b) 1937 c) 1963 d) 1944
Q24. Which airline was connected in Kanishka incident
a) Air India b) Indian Airlines
c) Jet Airways d) Kingfisher Airlines
Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident

a) Kanishka Incident b) Kandhar incident
c) Lokerbie Incident d) None of the above
Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident

a) Demolition of twin tower b) Kanishka Incident
c) Kandhar incident d) Lokerbie Incident
Q27. An area used for landing/takeoff the aircraft is
a) Runway b) Taxiway
c) Movement Area d) Apron
Q28. An area used for taxing the aircraft is
a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area d) Apron
Q29. The Definition of Hijacking is defined in
a) Article 3 of hijacking act 1982 b) Indian Penal Code
c) CRPC d) Indian evidence Ac
Q30 The duties of Pilot in command is defined in
a) Rule 90 b) rule 156 c) Rule 141 d) Rule 24
Q31 The term Aircraft in Service is defined in
a) Chicago Convention b) Tokyo Convention
c) Montreal Convention d) All of the above
Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to

c) Hague Convention d) All of the above
Q33. The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security

of aircraft operation.
a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above
Q34. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 8A c) Rule 24 d) None of the above
Q35. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above
Q36. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command
Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in

a) Rule 78 of aircraft act 1937 b) Rule 90 of aircraft rule 1937
c) Rule 24 c of aircraft rule 1937
Q38. CASO stands for

a) Chief Airport Security Officer b) Chief Aviation Security Officer
c) Commissioner of Airport Security Officer d) None of the above
Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q40. Hague convention was held in the year of
a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q41. Montreal convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1988 d) 1963
Q43. Tokyo convention related with

a) Establishment of ICAO
b) Pilot in command is the law enforcement agency on board aircraft
c) Define what is hijacking
d) None of the above
Q44. Hague convention related with

Q45. Montreal convention related with
d) Suppression of unlawful act against safety of civil aviation
Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under

which aircraft Rule.
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule

a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q48.Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule

a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q49.Entry into public aerodrome

a) 24 b) 90 c) 19 d) 78
Q50. COSCA stands for:.

a) Commissioner Of Security Civil Aviation b) Committee On Security Civil Aviation
c) Both a & b d) None of these
Q51. ASG stands for:

a) Anti Sabotage Group b) Aviation Security Group
c) Anti Sabotage Gadget d) None of these
Q52. ICAO came into existence in which of the following year:

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1944 d) 1963
Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :

a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these
Q54. PTI in aviation security stands for :

a) Positive Target Identification b) Positive Trainee Identification
c) Press Trust of India d) All the above
Q55. PETN stands for :
a) Penta Erithrotol Tetra Nitrate b)Poly Ethyle Tri Nitrate
c) Both a& b d) None of these
Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended

to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous
or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft,
at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.
a) Competent authorities b) Regulated Authority
c) Appropriate Authority d) BCAS
Q57. B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident:

a) Second hijacking in India b) First hijacking in India
c) After Kaniska Incident d) After IC 814 hijacking
Q58. DCAS in India was formed in
a) 1979 b) 1978 c) 1980 d) None of these
Q59. Air India aircraft Kanishka was sabotaged in the year:
a) 1985 b) 1988 c) 1986 d) 198
Q60 Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list
a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee
c) Pandey committee d) None of these
Q61. Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates
a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975 c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these
Q62. Anti hijacking Act 1982 was amended in the year
a) 1994 b) 1993 c) 1992 d) 1990
Q63. Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India

a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975
b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994
c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994
d) All the above
Q6.4 Which Annexure contains the SARP on Aviation Security
a) Annexure 15 b) Annexure 16 c) Annexure 17 d) Annexure 18
Q65. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP

a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA
Q66. Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft

a) Tokyo Convention b) The Hague Convention
c) Chicago Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q67. Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft

a) Tokyo Convention b) Chicago Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Convention
Q68. Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation

a) Montreal Convention b) Tokyo Convention
Q69. Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service

Q70. “Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and

maintenance of NCASP” comes under the subject head of which of the following
a) Recommended Practice b) standard Practice
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
Q71. What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO
a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing
c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive.
Q72. Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an
Offence.
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Protocol
Q73. Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight
Q74. Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for

aA) Development of NCASP b) Implementation of NCASP
c) Maintenance of NCASP d) All the above
Q75. In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil

Aviation security matters in India
a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934
c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934
Q76. Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Prohibition of Smoking in the Aircraft b) Inspection of the Aircraft
c) Security and Safety of unclaimed baggage d) None of the above
Q77. Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Penalty for failure to comply with Direction issued under Section 5 A
b) Power to Issue Directions
c) Central Government can make Rules under this Act
d) Penal Provisions
Q78. Rule 8 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Operators to have access b) Aerodrome Manual
c) Carriage of Arms, Explosives & Dangerous Goods d) Passenger Service Fees

a) Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft
b) Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft
c) Prohibition of intoxicated person entering aircraft
d) Cancellation, Suspension of Certificate of Carriers
Q80. Rule 24 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Provision for Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder
c) Provision for Carriage of Prisoners in Aircraft
Q81. Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937.
a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C
Q82. Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Power of Enquiry Officer b) Passenger service fees
c) Investigation of an Incident d) Notification of Incidents

a) Entry into public Aerodromes b) User deployment fees
c) Aerodrome manual d) Passenger Service fees
Q84. Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule
of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A
Q85. Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A
Q86. Terminal building comes under

a) Landside b) Airside c) Operational area d) Both (a) & (b)
Q87. Annexure 17 deals with

a) Aviation safety b) Aviation security
c) Airport manual d) Aircraft manual
Q88. NCASQCP deals with

a) Civil aviation security b) Safety
c) PAX d) Aircraft
Q89. First recorded hijacking took place at

a) Delhi b) Peru c) Viet nam d) Chicago
Q90. Aircraft act come into …….. In the year

a)1932 b) 1933 c) 1934 d) 1935
Q91. Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year.

a)1934 b) 1935 c) 1936 d) 1937
Q92. Which section of Aircraft Act empowers DGCA to frame rule.

a) Sec – 5 b) Sec – 5(a) c) Sec – 5(b) d) Sec – 5(c)
Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934.

a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9
Q94. Provision of carriage of prohibited items is described in which rule.

a) Rule – 8 b) Rule – 8a c) Rule – 8b d) Rule – 8c
Q95. In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel.
c) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds
Q96. Entry into domestic airdrome is mentioned in which aircraft rule

a) Rule- 78 b) Rule- 81 c) Rule – 85 d) Rule – 90
Q97. Guarding of deportee /inadmissible pax at refusal room is responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airlines c) Airport operator d) Local police
Q98. Provision of carriage of bird & reptiles into aircraft is given in

Q99. Provision of carriage of prisoner in the aircraft is mentioned in

a) Rule 24 b) Rule 24(A) c) Rule 24 (B) d) Rule 24(C)
Q100. Airport is mainly divided into-

a) Landside b) Airside c) Landside and airside d) Public place
Q101. Airport include

a) Movement area b) Manoeuvring area
c) None of the above d) Both (a) & (b)
Q102. What is movement area
a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) All of the above
Q103. What is manoeuvring area

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) Both (a) & (b)
Q104. BMA is located in which part of the airport

a) Landside b) Airside c) Departure side of T.B d) Arrival side
Q105. Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation
against acts of unlawful interference is
(a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling
Q106. Categorizing pax into threatening & non-threatening category by way of systematic
observation is
(a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety
Q107. When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is
(a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax
(c) Transit pax (d) Transfer pax
Q108. Hijacking is –
(a) Hostage taking on aircraft (b) Unlawful seizure of aircraft-in-flight
(c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground (d) Hostage taking at airport
Q109. In an airport, Apron area is within

(a) T.B (b) Airside (c) ATS (d) Fuel Storage
Q110. The area of an airport and building to which both travelling pax and the non-travelling public
have unrestricted access is known as
(a) Apron (b) Airside (c) T.B. (d) Landside
Q111. The main aim of aviation security is .

(a) Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference (b) Detect crime
(c) Check drug trafficking (d) To maintain law & order
Q112. First Hijacking in India took place?

a) 30th January 1971 b) 24th February 1951 C) 30th January 1931 d) Not yet
Q113. Which step is not taken after Kandahar Hijacking

a) Locked cockpit door b) Deployment of sky marshal
c) Revised contingency plan d) Security of BMA
Q114. Which is not Emerging threat to civil aviation

a) Use of an aircraft as a missile for mass destruction b) Cyber attack
c) Hijacking d) Biological and chemical war
Q115. What are the major threats to civil aviation

a)Hijacking b)Sabotage at airport
c)Sabotage at air navigation facilities d) All of the above
Q116. How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ?
a) 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices
b) 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices.
c) 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices
d) 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices
Q117. Head Quarters of ICAO is located at
a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India
c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA
Q118. The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?
a)1982 b)1987 c) 1944 d)1999
Q119. Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this
Act.
a) Section 5 b)Section 5 A c)Section 10 d)Section 18
Q120. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property
or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions
a) Passengers b) Aircraft c) Airport d) Environment
Q121. Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule
a)Rule 24 C b)Rule 24 A c)Rule 24 B d)Rule 24
Q122. Who is the president of ICAO

a) Wan ki Moon b) Barrack Obama
c) Mr Roberto Kobeh González d) John Maccem.
Q123. According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ?
a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970
c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c
Q124. Baggage Reconciliation is the duty of ?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airlines
Q125. What is the colour of the sticker for cooling off cargo?

a) Red b) Orange c) Purple d) green
Q126. What is the colour of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?

Q127. Security of Cargo is related to?

a) Airport Operator b) Airlines & Regulated agent c) APSU d) All
Q128. AEP are issued by ……
a) BCAS b) AAI c) APSU d) NONE OF THESE
Q129. SLPC is practice ?

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice
c) a & b d) None of these
Q130. Apron guarding is a duty of ….

A) ASG b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
Q131. Guarding is being done for ……

a) Psychological deterrent b) is to protect the vulnerable points
c) physical deterrent d) all
Q132. Which one is not the aim of terrorists?
a) Publicity b) Discredit the govt.
c) Broaden the base d) To pose as a VIP at airport
Q133. Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.

A) CISF b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
Q134. What was the main result of Chicago Convention?

a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA
c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b
Q135. The department who can go for inspection in an aircraft except concern airline
a) CISF b) immigration c) BCAS & DGCA d) AAI
Q136. Vehicle should be searched for

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited items d) All
Q137. Explain BIPPS
a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system
b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system
c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad
d) Biometric integrated passenger permit system
Q138. What do you mean by STP

a) Satellite test programme b) Standardise training package
c) Screeners test package d) Security training program
Q139. IGI Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Norma
c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport
Q140. Which is not the duty of Airline Security?

a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered screening
c) Surveillance at BMA d) Reconciliation
Q141. Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication facility b) Radio for entertainment
c) Magazine to read & relax d) News papers for latest news
Q142. Which is not a duty of BCAS?

A) Planning b) Monitoring c) Guiding d) Training
Q143. J & K Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport
Q144. Operational control on ASG is the duty of..

a) Airport operator b) BCAS
c) Local Police d) CISF
Q145. Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG b) NSG c) CISF d) Local Police
Q146. Hijacking mock drill is done by………………..?

a) QRT b) ASG c) NSG d) All the above
Q147. The duty of QRT is ?
a) To avoid the take off of hijacked flightb) To prevent intrusion
c) Quick response at the time of crisis d) All the above
Q148. The transponder code for Hijacking?

a) 7500 b) 7000 c) 1500 d) 2000
Q149. Airport entry permit does not contain ?

a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder
c) Area of Validity d) Permanent address
Q150. Who give 3 degree angle for landing of flight?

a) ILS b) Localizer c) Glide path d) Outer marker
Q151. Which colour ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?
a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) None of these
Q152. What do you mean by APSU

a) Airport Security Unit b) Airport Sterile Unit
c) Airport Security Union d) Airport Safety Unit
Q153. Head of ASG at a particular Airport?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) COSCA d) APD
Q154. While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action?

a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
Q155. Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is?

A) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
C) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
Q156. Aircraft security is concerned with?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airline security
Q157. To cross the runway at non-operational time?

a) Require permission from ATC b) permission not required
c) Permission from CASO d) a & c
Q158. CTX stands for?

a) Complex topographic X-Ray b) Crystal trace X-Ray
c) Computerized tomography X-Ray d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray
Q159. What do you mean by BCAS

a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Security b) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety
c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security d) Bureau of Central aviation Security
Q160. Which colour pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue
Q161. Which rule belongs to power of pre-embarkation check.

a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937
c) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 1937 d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937
Q162. Blue colour pass holder can enter in ?
a) All area except SHA b) All areas
c) Only in operational area d) only till checking area
Q163. The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
Q164. When you should man access control points
a) Only manned during daylight b) Only manned at night
c) Manned at all times d) Whenever required
Q165. Access Control point should contain?
a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers
c) Only Gates d) Nothing
Q166. Every vehicle, which is running in operational area
a) Need to have light or flag b) no need of light
c) Need not to have ADP d) none of these
Q167. To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP b) Driving License
c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD
Q168. How many gates are required for better access control?

a) As less as possible b) More gates are required
c) 10 d) 8
Q169. What is common at every duty post?

a) Barrier b) DFMD c) Standing order d) HHMD
Q170. Mock exercises are done for?

a) Check the preparedness for contingency b) To show more people in uniform at airport
c) It's a duty d) To keep busy force personnel
Q171. The airport are categorized as per their sensitivity

a) Normal b) Sensitive
c) Hyper Sensitive d) All of the above
Q172. What are the features are to be checked in PIC

a) Access Gates b) Tally the Photograph
c) Area of operation d) none of the above
Q173. What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

a) Access Gates b) Signature of issuing authority
c) Tally the Photograph d) None of the above
Q174. Categories of people requiring legitimate access
a) Airlines Employee b) Airport Employee
c) Custom Employee d) All of the above
Q175. Security of unattended aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airport operator
c) Airline operator d) None of the above
Q176. Airport employees are authorized to by-pass access control point
a) Whenever they require, after disclosing their agency.
b) They don’t need to show any authority while on duty.
c) They need to display PIC/Temporary pass
Q177. Access control to the airport is the responsibility of

a) Airport operator b) Airlines
c) APSU/ ASG d) BCAS
Q178. Access control to the Aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned Airlines
c) Airport Operator d)None of these
Q179. Light green (C) passes are issued to the

a) Crew members b) Courier service
c) Concessionaries employees
Q180. Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points:

a) whenever they are in uniform B) whenever they are on duty
c) not ever D) on emergency
Q181. Difference between Appropriate authority for aviation security and COSCA is
a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
c)One related to aviation security and another with the aviation safety
d)Totally different
Q182. No Aircraft operator shall be allowed to operate to/from Indian airport unless their security
programme is approved by
a) DGCA b) COSCA c) Airport operator d) MCAQ
183. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
a) The aircraft has on board unauthorised arms, explosives or other sabotage devices
b) The aircraft has on board a person, who has gained admittance unauthorised and without
passing through security controls.
c) Both the above
d) None of above
Q184. Probable places of concealment of prohibited items are

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing b)In carryon baggage or checked in baggage
c)None of above d) both a & b
Q185. Regulated Agent has not involved in the following function

a) Ticketing of the passenger
b)Provides security control for Cargo
c)Conducts business with the aircraft operator for freight forwarding
d)approved by COSCAQ
186. Passenger profiling is
a) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents b)Both of above
c) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents d) None of the above.
Q187. The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building or portions thereof , access
to which is ______ is called
a)Restricted b) control c) Prohibited d) Controlled
Q188. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Agriculture,
construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial
advertisement
(a) mentioned (b) nominated (c) Specialised (d) concerned
Q189. A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access

a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice
Q190. A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or
false that the Safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or
any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.
a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous
Q191. Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft.

a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items
Q192. The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight.
a) loading b) acceptance c) boarding d) entry
Q193. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an
aircraftor to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and therebydisturbs the
good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or
crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called
(a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements
Q194. The landside of an airport is defined as

a) the area in front of the passenger terminal where passenger get off an aircraft.
b) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has free access.
c) that part of runway where an aircraft lands.
d) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has controlled
access.
Q195. Access control points are located

a) terminal building
b) only at the cargo complex
c) only at vulnerable points
d)within a building, such as a terminal and on the perimeter of airport boundary
Q196. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following

a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff
c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members
Q197. Main Components of an IED are

a) weapon, explosive, dangerous article and dangerous substance
b) explosive, detonator, mechanism and battery/power source.
c) ignition, incendiary material and mechanism
d) None of above
Q198. ASG Personnel are authorized to check/frisk
a) Employees while entering the operational area
b) Airport employees while leaving the Tarmac area
c) Employees while entering SHA
d) All of above
Q199. Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of
another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.
a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted
Q200. Ultimate authority for airport entry passes are

a) APSU/ASG b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport operator
Q201. On the basis of colour, passes can be divided in to

a) six b) five c) seven d) Eight
Q202. Colour code of the PIC’s indicate

a) Organization of the holder b) Area of validity
c) Rank of the holder d) None of these
Q203. A passenger can access to the airport from the

a) Vehicle gate of the airport b) Entrance to the terminal
c) From any entrance to the airport d) None of these
Q204. Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by
Parliament secretariat
a) Employees of the parliament b) Honourable Member of parliament
c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel
Q205. Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of

a) Not more than a month b) For one day
c) Not more than three days d) For three Month
Q206. PIC’s are issued by BCAS only after

a)Recommendation of the airport operator B) Background checks of the applicant
c) On individual’s request D) Recommendation of ASGQ
Q207. Features of an AEP’ doesn’t include

a) Holder’s name b) Name of the organization
c) Father’s name of the holder d) Designation of holder
Q208. As per BCAS guidelines honourable Member of Parliament

a) Can have access up to arrival and departure hall of terminal on their ID card.
b) Can have access up to boarding gate of the terminal on their ID card.
c) Can have access up to the entry gate of the aircraft on their ID card.
Q209. Orange (C) passes are issued to the

a) Concessionaries b) Crew members
c) Courier service d) Cargo employees
Q210. As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labour can have access at airport with the Authority
of
a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labour photo pass.
c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only
Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by
a) DGCA b) BCAS
c) Airport operator d) None of these
Q212. At an airport, Airside vehicle access control point are manned by

a) Airport operator b) ASG/APSU
c) Immigration/Custom d) Local police
Q213. Secondary ladder point check is the responsibility of the

a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned airlines
c) Regulated agent d) Airport operator
Q214. Large area required to be secured for the screening concept

a) Holding area plan b) Concourse plan
c) Boarding gate plan d) Security hold Area plan

a)one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
Q216. As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under
the jurisdiction of
a) BCAS b) Airline operator
c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Air force
218. Authority to drive a vehicle in the operational area (Airside) is

a) Airport entry permit b) Vehicle permit
c) Airside Driving Permit d) Driving license
Q219. AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of

a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty
c) none of above d) Both a & b
220. Security of the Aircraft is the responsibility of the

a) Airport operator b) BCAS c) Aircraft operator d) ASG
Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
c) Both the above
Q222. passenger profiling is
a) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents.
b) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents.
c) None of the above.
d) Both a & b
Q223. the designated area of an airport used to takeoff/landing of an aircraft is
a) Land side b) Airside c) Runway d) taxiway
Q224. connecting way between runway and apron is called

a) Land side b) Airside c) Apron d) Taxiway
Q225. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator
a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) taxiway
Q226. which is not the responsibility of BCAS

a) Planning b) Evaluation
c) Training d) Anti hijacking duties
Q227. Which is not the responsibility of ASG

a) Anti hijacking duties b) Anti sabotage duties
c) patrolling and guarding d) advisory
Q228. which is not the responsibility of Airline Operator?

a) Security of catering supplies b) security of cargo
c) Security of registered baggage d) Communication facilities
Q229. Which is not the responsibility of Airport Operator?

a) Provide infrastructure b) Administration of the airport
c) Passenger facilitation d) Security of BMA
230. All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as:
a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand
Q231. Which of the following is not an ingredient of Hijacking

a) Hijacker should be on board in aircraft
b) Lawfully exercises the control of the aircraft
c) Use of force, threat of force and aims other form of intimidation
d) Unlawfully taking the command of the aircraft from the Pilot-in- command
Q232. Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft
with the person to whom it belongs.
a) Transfer baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Unclaimed baggage d) unaccompanied baggage
Q233. Which one is not a component of ASG

a) Anti Hijacking Group b) Support Group
c) Protection Group d) Anti Sabotage group
Q234 Which of the following is not an essential component of vehicle permit

a) Name of the agency b) Approved airside safety status
c) Permit serial number d) Photo of the vehicle
Q235 Which of the following is an essential component of an AEP

a) Photo of the holder b) Identification mark of the holder
c) Permanent address of the holder d) None of these
Q236 which of the following is an airside land side boundary
a) Access gates b) Terminal building
c) Perimeter wall d) All the above
Q237 The main aim of access control points are:

a) To control the movement of people from land side to airside
b) To control the movement of vehicle from land side to airside
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Q238 Which of the following should not be practiced by a security person:

a) Being too familiar with staff b) Effective permit control
b) Both a & b d) None of these
Q239 The airside of an airport is defined as

a) The part where travelling and non travelling public have unrestricted access
b) Movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain, building and portion thereof access to
which is controlled
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q240. Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points
a) Manned during day light time only b) Manned only at night
b) Manned all the time d) None of these
Q241. For operational reasons who can move from landside to airside without security check
a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these
Q242. What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log
a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident
c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies
Q243. An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of
an accident is known as
a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency
c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by
Q244. A white colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area
c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these
Q245. Blue colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport

a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA
c) Both a and b d) None of these
Q246. Which of the following does not have Orange AEP

a) COSCA b) DG/CISF c) ADG/APS d) DC/airport
Q247. What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is
entering airside
a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security
Q248. The main function of localizer is
a)To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing
b)To give guidelines to the pilot
c)Both a and b
d)None of these
Q249. What is ARP
a) It is a reference point of the airport b) It is a brand
Q250. Which of the following is not a part of the ILS

a) LLZ b) Glide path c) Both a and b d) marshalling
Q251. What is the prescribed position of the lights used at perimeter

a) Focusing out b) Focused at duty points
c) Very dim d) None of these
Q252. What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982
a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence
c) Only fine d) Both a and b
Q253. Which of the following is not a part of act of unlawful interference

a) Disrupting communication facilities b) Communication of false information
c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on groundd) Flight having technical problem
Q254. Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed

a) Airport operator b) Security agency
c) Airline operator d) All the above
Q255. All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and non-scheduled air transport
is known as
a) Military aviation b) General aviation
Q256. In interline baggage transfer, baggage of passenger is transferred from

a) Aircraft of one operator to another operator b) Between two aircraft of same operator
c) No change of aircraft d) None of the above
Q257. In transfer baggage, baggage of passenger is transferred from

Q258. Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening

and non-threatening category is
a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counselling d) None of these
Q259. Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful

interference is
a) Security b) Security Audit
c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management system
Q260. Which of the following is not a suspicious sign of a passenger

a) Frequent visit to loo b) Person sitting in isolation
c) Avoiding eye contact d) None of these
Q261. What will be the course of action when you notice suspicious sign on a passenger during
profiling:
a) Notify supervisor b) Deep observation
c) Both a and b d) Arrest the passenger
Q262. Why courteous behaviour is required at airports

a) High strata of people travel through the airports
b) Passengers expect for good behaviour because they have paid a good amount
c) Both a and b
d) No need of courteous behaviour
Q263. Which of the following is not a responsibility of CASO

a) Deployment of security staff b) Convening APSC
c) Both a and b d) He will be the chair person of the BTAC
Q264. SLPC is carried out by
a) Airport operator b) ASG c) Airline security d) IATA
Q265. What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after registered

baggage has been X-Ray screened:
a) Sealing b) Safeguarding
c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above
Q266. What are the essential components of Incendiary Device

a) Fuzzy match box b) Incendiary chemicals
Q267. BCAS is a
a) Regulatory authority for Security b) Competent authority of safety
c) Administrative authority d) None of these
Q268. Access control system can be

a) Automatic b) Manual c) Automatic and manual d) None
Q269. Typical external control point will contain

a) Control equipment b) Communication system
c) Search equipment d) All of the above
Q270. States of equipments and records of incidents will be maintained in

a) Access control point log b) Beat book
c) Personal diary d) None of the above
Q271. Airport workers are required to use control points

a) Whenever they enter restricted area b) Only when they are off duty
c) Only if they do not have a permit d) None of the above
Q272. Airline employees are authorized to by-pass access control points

a) whenever they are in uniform b) whenever they are on duty
c) whenever they are willing to do so d) Never
Q273. Access control points are located in

a) Within building b) At cargo complex
c) At vulnerable points d) All of the above
Q274. Airport Rules for vehicle apply to security staff
a) At all times b) At all times except when they are on patrol
c) At all time except on emergency d) None of the above
Q275. When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights
a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway
c) Only at night d) At all the times
Q276. Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building
a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above.
Q277. What points to be checked in AEP for people

a) Photograph & name b) Airport & expiry date
c) Signature of issuing authority & holder d) All of the above features
Q278. Name the areas of vehicle to be checked for prohibited items

a) Interior & chassis of vehicle b) Engine compartment
c) Trunk or boot d) All of the above
Q279. Vehicle can be searched by

a) Trolley mirror b) Physical checking c) Explosive detector d) All of the above
Q280. What will you check is vehicle pass

a) Vehicle registration number b) Name of organization
c) Valid area & gate to be used d) All of the above
Q281. Searching of vehicle entering into airside is done for

a) Weapon & explosive b) Drugs & contrabands
c) Excess cash d) None of the above
Q282. Fire to structure & building at an airport is the example of emergency

a) Involving aircraft b) Not involving aircraft
c) Natural calamity d) Medical emergency
Q283. Is it necessary to take permission from ATC while crossing runway

a) Sometimes b) Never
c) Necessary when flight is in operation d) Necessary at all the time
Q284. It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building
a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these
Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted
a) Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)white
Q286. Colour of transferable pass(PIC) is

a) Orange b) Blue c) Brown d) white
Q287. Passes for people are issued by

a) ASG b) Airport Operator c) BCAS d) DGCA
Q288. Vehicle permit are issued by

a) Local police b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport Operator
Q289. Temporary vehicle permit is valid up to
a) 5 yes b) 3 yrs c) 2 yrs d) 1 yrs
Q290. Photo identity card is coded into ------- colour

A) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
Q291. A Person having Green PIC will gain access to

a) Departure of T.B. b) In T.B.
c) In all area d) Departure check-in and arrival area upto segregation of T.B
Q292. Vulnerable Point at airport includes

a) All area of airport b) Parking c) Service road d) ATC
Q294. Typical permit wouldn't contain

a) Address of the holder b) Validity of period
c) Photograph of the holder d) name of the holder
Q295. Who are not authorized to enter into operational area?

a) AAI Employees with valid pass b) Brown and Green Colour Pass holder
c) Permanent visitor with valid pass d) White colour pass holder
Q296. AEP stands for airport Entry Pass

a) Aviation Examination Procedure c) Airport Entry Pass
b) Aircraft Entrance Procedure d) None of these
Q297. ADP stands for :
a) Airfield Driving Permit c) Anti Doping Procedure
b) Airside Driving Plan d) Advance Departure program
Q298 BMA stands for :
a) Baggage Makeup Area c) Baggage Maintenance Area
b) Baggage monitoring Area d) All the above
Q299. LTPE stands for :
a) Low Temperature Plastic Explosive b) Linear Type Plastic Explosive
c) Long Term Plastic Explosive d) None of these
Q300. Who of the following is authorized to issue AEPS

a) DGCA c) AAI c) BCAS d) ASG
Q301. What are LAGs
a) Liquids Aerosols and Gels c)Both a and b
b) Liquids Acids and Gels d) None of the above
Q302. What are STEBS
a) Security Tamper Evident Baggage b) Security Training Establishment Board
c) Security Trial Evident Baggage d) None of these
Q303 What is the latest aircraft launched by Air Bus Company?

a) Air Bus 380 b) Air Bus 320 c) Air Bus 760 d) Air Bus 319
Q304. Which is not the components of APSU?
a) Supporting Unit b) Anti-Hijacking Unit
c) Inter surveillance Unit d) Anti-Sabotage unit
Q305. Baggage Identification is the duty of ?

a) CASO b) Airlines c) APSU d) APD
Q306. How many categories of airports in India?

a) One b) Three c) Four d) seven
Q307. Flight IC 814 was hijack from

a) Delhi c) Kathmandu
b) Kandhar d) Amritsar
Q308. Which agency is responsible for secondary ladder point checking
a) ASG c) Airlines
b) Police d) BCAS
Q309. Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security
a) Catering security b)Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage
c) Pre-embarkation security check d)Screening of hold baggage
Q310. who can carry loaded gun in flight

a) PSO of VVIP
b) Sky Marshal
c) SPG Personnel when accompanying SPG Protectee d) Bonafide passenger holding valid
license
Q311. Which is not the feature of vehicle entry permit

a) Registration number of vehicle matches with the vehicle permit
b) Name of organization/agency.
c) Area of validity.
d) tally the photograph
Q312. An access control point have

a) Controlling equipment c) Controlling equipment
b) Communication systems d) All of the above
Q313. Profiling is a systematic observation to

a) To identify the person c) to recognize the person
b) To categorize the person d) None of the above
Q314. ASG took over the charge of Jaipur airport on

a)04-04-2003 b)03-02-2000 c) 01-04-2000 d)None
Q315. Which is Hyper sensitive airport

a) Dimapur c) Lucknow b) Shilong d) Agartala
Q316. Which is Sensitive airport
a) Delhi c) Ahmedabad b) Varanasi d) hyderabad
Q317. When did India become a contracting state of ICAO

a) On 1StMarch 1947 c)On 7ThDecember 1944
b) On 10ThMay 1984 d) On 4Th April 1947
Q318. COE stands for

a) Controller Of Electronics c) Chief Of Explosive
b) Controller Of explosive d) None of these
Q319. EOD stands for :

a) Entry Of Drivers c) Explosive Ordinance Demand
b)Explosive Ordinance Disposal d) All the above
Q320. LED stands for:
a)Lead Entering Door c) Light Emitting Device
b) Light Emitting diode d) All the above
Q321. What is the significance of 24 July 2001 in civil aviation

a)Attack on Colombo airport c)Kandhar incidnet
b) on Chennai airport d) None of the abobe
Q322. Which organization carries Security Audit of Airports Internationally

a) BCAS c) ACI
b)ICAO d) IATA
Q323. Doc 9691 of ICAO refers to

a)Manual on Volcanic Ash, Radio Active Material and Toxic Chemical Clouds
b)Manual on Airport Security
c)Manual on Aircraft Security
d)None of these
Q324. What are total no. Of ICAO Annexes

a)15 b)16 c)17 d)18
Q325. “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which
seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration
to human performance” are called
a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles
c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance principles
Q326. What are MRTDS

a ) Machine Readable Travel Documents b) Memory Readable Text Documents
c) Memory Reset Text Device d) None of these
Q327. Select weapons in the given items?

a) Grenade b) Scissors
c) Starter Pistol d) knife with blade of 4"
Q328. In what colour explosive will be seen in X-BIS image ?

a) Green b) White c) Orange d) opaque
Q329. On how many things, the profiling is done?

a) One b) Three c) Six d) seven
Q330. PEC is the practice.

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice c) a & b d) None of these
Q331. Boeing Company belongs to which country?

a) America b) Britain c) Germany d) Russia
Q332. You should not do, when you find a suspicious person?

A) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor
c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling
Q333. What is Blue Dart ?

A) Travel Agency b) Cargo Company
c) cargo flight operator d) All the above
Q334. Components of APSU?

A) One b) Three c) Four d) seven
Q335. Which is not suspicious sign of a person?

a) Feeling fear b) Posing as VIP
c) Deep observation of security personnel d) Following procedures
Q336. Gelatin is in form of . . .

a) Slurry b) Liquid c) Stick d) paste
Q337. Safety fuse comes under which category?
a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances
c) Dangerous articles d)Explosives
Q338. Chisels come under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives
Q339. Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care.
b) only when the runway is clear.
c) only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower.
d) Above all
Q340. Passenger can carry liquor in aircraft?

a) From Duty free shops at airport b) Purchase from anywhere
c) can’t carry at all d) a & b
Q341. What this word BLR denotes to?

a) PORT blare b) Bangalore c) Bombay d) CAN'T say
Q342. Which comes in the category of prohibited articles

(a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile (c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella
Q343. Which is electronic gadget is used for surveillance ?
a) Radio Set b) CCTV c) Biometric Devices d) Passive infrared
Q344. Which is not a suspicious sign of passenger?

a) Nervous behaviour b) luring others
c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time
Q346. Which is not the way to conceal the prohibited item?

a) Disguise b) Dismantle c) Camouflage d) In suitcase
a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited items d) All above
Q348. Nitro-glycerine is ……………………….explosive?

a) Liquid b) Plastic c) Solid d) Not an explosive
Q349. What is physical form of CORDTEX?

A) Slurry b) Liquid c) Cord d) paste
Q350. Types of explosives?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q351. What is the Natural colour of RDX?

a) White b) Pale yellow c) Green d) white/black
Q352. If a person is denying to be frisked - What is the course of action?

a) Let him go for board b) No search No fly
c) Use force d) Frisk as a formality
Q353. What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage?

a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
Q354. The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?
a) High alert b) Red alert c) Bomb Alert d) None of these
Q355. What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
Q356. Match box comes under

a) Explosive b) Incendiary
c) Dangerous substances d) weapon
Q357. How many types of detonator available?

A) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q358 Prohibited items are classified/divided into

a) 4 categories b) 3 categories
c) 6 categories d) 9 categories
Q359. Weapons are designed primarily to -
a) Kill b) Injure c) Incapacitate & Immobilize d) All of the above.
Q360. The phonetic value of 5 is

a) five b) five c) FIF d) FIFE
a) NI-NE b) NINET c) NIN d) NIN-er
Q362. PTD switch is comes in which category

a) Remote control b) Time delay c) Ambient condition d) Anti-handling
Q363. Which is the appropriate word stands for I in RT communication?
a) Intelligent b) Indigo c) Infinite d) India
Q364. Ketone comes under which category of prohibited item ?

c) Dangerous articles d) explosives
Q365. Which is the component of an IED

a) Generator b) Detonator
c) Cross Piece d) CTP
Q366. A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than

a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs
c) 1000 Mltrs d) 10000 mltrs
Q367. Size of Kirpan is
a) 6” b) 3” c) 9” d) 8”
Q368. An item a passenger can carry in his hand baggage

a) Knife b) Lighter c) Book d) Blade
Q369. An item a passenger cannot carry in his hand baggage

a) Knife b) Lap top
c) Walking stick d) Mobile
Q370.The switch mechanism are classified into

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
Q371. Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of

a) Anti handling switch b) Delay Mechanism
c) Command d) ambient
Q372. Which comes in the category of prohibited articles?

a) Starter pistol b) Mobile
c) Lap top d) Folding umbrella
Q373. Kirpan of 6 inches blade is permitted to a Sikh passenger to be carried in

a) Any flight operated from India b) Any registered aircraft in India
c) In fully domestic flight in India. d) None of these
Q 374. Prohibited items are
a) Not permitted to be carried while entering an airport.
b) Not permitted to be used while aircraft in flight
c) Not permitted to be carried on board an aircraft.
d) all of the above
Q375. Most important measures to prevent weapons, explosives and other dangerous devices from
being introduced in an aircraft
a)Background checks of the employees working at airport
b)Documents checking of the passengers
c)Screening of passengers and carry on baggage
d)By profiling of passenger
Q376. Immediate Action which is not required on detection of prohibited item during physical
inspection
a) remain calm and do not panic b ) allow the passenger to board the aircraft
c) Notify the supervisor d) none of these

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing
b) In carry on baggage or checked in baggage
c) Both the above
Q378. Starter Pistol is an example of

a) Dangerous Article b) Weapon
c) Dangerous Substance d) None of these
Q379. Realistic replica of a gun carried by a child will be treated as

a) Weapon b) Dangerous Substance
c) None of these d) Dangerous article
Q380. What is the Natural colour of PETN?

a) White b) Pale yellow
c) Green d) white/black
Q381. Nuckles falls under which category of prohibited item

c) Dangerous Substance d) explosive
Q382. Category of people who need to be escorted

a) Prisoner b) Airport users
c) Employee d)None of the above
Q383. Which one is not a primary effect of a high explosive explosion:

a) Blast effect b) Fragmentation
c) Translation d) Water soak
Q384. Which one is not a method of concealment of an explosive:

a) Trafficking b) Disguised
c) Dismantled d) Camouflaged
Q385. Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not
primarily design to do so, known as:
a) Weapon b) Dangerous articles
c) Dangerous substances d) None of these
Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when
you detect such item:
a) Will be removed b) Local police should be informed
c) Supervisor should be informed d) Both a & c
Q387. To use electrical detonators which of the following is essential

a) Match box b) Friction
c) Power source d) None of these
Q388. Detonators are used in which kind of explosives
a) Pyrotechnic b) Low explosive
c) High explosive d) Both a & c
Q389. Which of the following is not used to detect explosives

a) EVD b) ETD
c) Thermal imager d) None of these
Q390. PEK stands for
a). Plastic Explosive Kirkie b) Power Electrode Kirkie
Q391. Light sensitive switch is a kind of

a) Remote control switch b) Ambient condition switch
c) Anti handling switch d) None of these
Q392. Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Selectivity d) All the above
Q393. Which among the following, is the sensitivity of the EVD

a) Min 5 gms b) Min 10 gms c) Min 15 gms d) Min 2.5 gms
Q394. How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample
a) 3 sec b) 2 sec c) 2.5 sec d) 5 sec
Q395. To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from
a) Surface wipe for trace particle b) Box of explosives
c) A piece of explosive d) None of the above
Q396. Explosive are –
a)Chemicals c) Liquid Chemicals
b)Solid chemicals d) All above
Q397. A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is
known as
a) Disguised b) Dismantled c) Camouflaged d) improvised
Q398 IED stands for.
a) Improvised Explosive Device b) Incendiary Exp. Device
c) Improvised Explosive Detonator d) Improvised Electric device
Q399. Sound sensitive type of mechanism is a type of

a)Delay mechanism c) Remote Control
b)Anti handling d)Ambient switch
Q400. Clock is used as switch in which type of mechanism

a) Anti handling c) Ambient b)Remote control d) Delay mechanism
Q401. In detonator which type of explosive is used

a)High c) Incendiary
b)Low d) Both Low and High explosive
Q402. Sound sensitive switch is a type of

a) Ambient c) Delay b)Remote d) Anti-handling
Q403. What is physical form of TNT?
a) Crystalline b) Paste c) Jelly d) block
Q404. Original colour of TNT?
Q405. light sensor is related to which switch mechanism

a) Anti handling c) Ambient b)Remote d) delay
Q406. Which is not the effect of explosion

a)Blast pressure effect c) Translation Effect
b)Thermal effect d) Lightening Effect
Q407. A Toy gun carried by an adult will be treated as

a) Dangerous Article c) Dangerous Substance
b) Weapon d ) None of these
Q408. An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism

a) Remote control c) Delay Mechanism
b) Ambient condition d) Anti handling
Q409. What is the colour RDX on visual inspection

a)White c) Green b)Pale orange d) None of these
Q410. What amount of high explosive can be sustained by Simulation Chamber

a) 10 Kgs of RDX c) Both a & b
b) 5 Kgs of TNT d) Cannot with stand the blast
Q411. What is the identification no. Of electric detonator

a)No. 28 c) No. 32 b)No.30 d) No. 33
Q412. The qualities of high explosive are

a) Non-hygroscopic b) Safe to handle
c) To be detonated with detonating waves d) All of the above
Q413. Actual flight condition are made in –

a) Cooling pit c) Cock-pit of aircraft b) Simulation chamber d) Bomb blanket
Q414. TATP is an example of

a)Weapon c) Liquid explosive
b) Dangerous article d) Dangerous substance
Q415. Nun-chacks falls under which category?


Q417. In PEK the word K stands for ……………….?

a) Knife b) Kirkie c) Keton d) None of these
Q418. Which one of the following is an example of explosive
a)Detonator c) Rifles
b)Tear Gas d) acids
Q419. An IED can be conceal

a)In hand baggage c) On person
b) In registered baggage d) All the above
Q420. Which is not the advantage of an EVD

a) Quick result c) Detect all kinds of explosive
b) Light weight easy to carry d) Convenience for pax
Q421. Which is not the advantage of an ETD

a) Quick result B) Detects explosives up to nano gram
c) Detects all kind of explosive D) Scan the object easily
Q422. Types of switches/mechanism that can be used to blast an IED

a)One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q423. All acids fall under which category of prohibited item

a)Weapon c) Dangerous article
b)Explosive d) Dangerous Substance
Q424. Color of SEMTEX is

a) Pale orange c) Black b)Red d) All the above
Q425. Crackers falls under which category of prohibited item

a) Weapons c) Dangerous article
b) Explosives d) Dangerous Substance
Q426. DMNB is a compound used for

a) Marking of explosives c) Searching of explosive
b) Detecting of explosives d) All the above
Q427. Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight?
a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber
c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
Q428. How many rings of protection are there?

Q429. What is the outer ring of protection?

a) Perimeter b) Windows of terminal Building c) Apron d) None of these
Q430. Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami
c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable DISEASE
Q431.The main aim to search the SHA is………………..?

a) To sterile the area b) Look for left out baggage
c) to find Narcotics d) To check cleanliness
Q432. The emergency, which is involved with aircraft?
a) New born b) Sabotage c) Fire on T.B. d) None of these
Q433. Which is not a medical emergency?
a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person c) New Born d) illness
Q434. Emergencies involving aircraft
a) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while in flight b) Sabotage on aircraft
c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) All of the above
Q435. Emergencies not involving aircraft

c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) Fire in structure
Q436. Which is not related with medical emergencies
a) Delivery of new born b) Communicable diseases
c) Food poisoning d) terrorist attack
Q437. Which of the following is an emergency not involving the aircraft

a) Hijacking b) Technical problem in nose wheel
c) Terrorist attack at airport d) None of these
Q438. Which of the following is an emergency involving aircraft

a) Hijacking c) Technical problem in nose wheel
b) Terrorist attack at airport d) Both a and b
Q439. Delivery of a new born is a/an

a) Emergency involving aircraft b) Emergency not involving aircraft
c) Medical emergency d) All the above
Q440..Which is the example of medical emergency

a) Sudden death b) Natural disaster
c) Bomb threat d) None of the above
Q441..Airside/landside boundary will comes under

a) Outer ring b) Middle ring c) Inner ring d) Inner middle ring
Q442..Which is in depth security ring of protection

a) Layer of protection b) Centre of protection
c) Rings of protection d) None of the above
Q443. The main aim of patrolling is

a) To check the effectiveness of perimeter wall b) To detect the attacks
c) to help in apprehension d) None of the above
Q444.The main aim of guarding is

a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall
b) to guard the vital installations
c) to help in apprehension
Q445. How many types of patrolling are there

a) Foot patrolling b) Vehicle patrolling
Q446. Security staff on duty may cross runway :
a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care
b) Only when the runway is clear
c) Only after clearance from ground control or the ATC tower
d) None of these
Q447. The main aim of airport protection system is :

a) To protect airport and aircraft from any attack
b) To give employment to unemployed people
c) To get remuneration
d) None of these
Q448. The main purpose of boundary fencing is :

a) To mark the boundary between restricted and non restricted area
b) To keep cattle and livestock of the runway
c) To prevent people looking at aircraft
d) All the above
Q449. Enumerate the principles on which the protection system at airports is based
a) Controlling movement of people and vehicles
b) Dividing airport into non-restricted and restricted areas
c) Protecting airport with physical barriers
d) All the above
Q450.What is the main objective of security patrolling at the airports

a) Ensure effectiveness of physical barriers
b) Respond quickly to attacks and attempted attacks
c) Deter and prevent unauthorized access
d) All the above
Q451. Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports
a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities
b) Security of Registered Baggage
c) Second ladder point checks
d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft
Q452. What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight
a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area
b) All external doors are locked
c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized
d) All the above
Q453. To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts of a
building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position
a) Windows b) Roof sky lights
c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above
Q454. How can Non-restricted and Restricted Areas separation be achieved

a) Provision of physical barriers such as fences
b) Use of buildings and natural obstacles
c) Limiting authorized access to controlled gates and designated access points
d) All the above
Q455. What are designated areas to be patrolled
a) Apron and the baggage make up area b) Cargo complex
c) Airport boundary and outlying vulnerable points d) All the above
Q456. Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions
a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed onboard
b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity
c) Both a and b
Q457. The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which of
the following agencies?
a) The airline operating the aircraft b) The airport security unit
c) The local police and military unit d) None of the above
Q458. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following
agencies ?
a) Airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) Airport security screening staff
c) Trained airline security and engineering staff d) All the above
Q459. Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect
parked and unattended aircraft
a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport
b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed
c) All external doors are locked
d) All the above
Q460. Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an
aircraft?
A) Ensure means of access removed
b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft
c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft
d) All the above
Q461. Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should

visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft
a) Under carriage wells and wheel assembly b) Fuel intake panels
c) Engine access panels d) All the above
Q462. In an airport, Isolation Bay is used for?

a) An aircraft that has developed technical problems
b) An aircraft with a passenger suffering with contagious diseases
c) The Hi-jacked aircraft
d) An aircraft that is ready to take off
Q463. While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action

should be done
a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft
b) Immediately notify supervisor
c) Notify airline representative
d) All the above
Q464. Physical barriers are used to

a) Separate restricted and non-restricted areas b) Not to allow any person
c) Marking of building d) None of these
Q465. Objective of physical barrier are to
a) Define area b) Delay intrusion
c) Provide access control point d) All of above
Q466. Runways & aprons are protected by

a) Patrolling b) Guarding c) Surveillance d) All of the above.
Q467. Guarding and Patrolling inside the airport is done by

a) Security personal of ASG b) Airline security
c) Airport operator d) Immigration staff
Q468. Airport can be protected by

a) Effective boundary fencing & security lighting
b) Control movement of people & vehicle
c) Boundary protected by physical means
d) All the above
Q469. The main objective of security patrolling

a) Deter & prevent unauthorized access b) Control movement of people & vehicle
c) Protect vital facilities d) None of the above.
Q470. Security guarding is done to

a) Protect vital facilities b)Ensure efficiency of physical barriers
c) Detect attacks & attempted attacks d)None of the above
Q471. Outer protection ring contain

a) Building, fencing& lighting b) Runway and apron
c) Airport d) None of these
Q472 .Basic difficulties in protection airport are

a) 24 hrs operation b) Multi agencies are working
c) Non-cooperation of passengers d) All of the above.
Q473. BCAS is a
Q474. A sterile area must be set up

a) Between landside and airside
b) Between the passenger check point and passenger screening point
c) Only (a)
Q475. Dangerous goods register at X BIS will contain

a)Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation
b)Make of machine d)None of the above
Q476. Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are –
a)Dangerous substances c) Dangerous article
b)Weapon d) explosive
Q477. The outer ring of protection is the responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airline operator
c) Airport operator d) ASG & Airport Operator
d) All the above
Q479. The landside of an airport is defined as:

A)The area in front of the passenger terminal where passengers get off an aircraft.
B)That part of an airport and buildings to which the non-travelling public has free access.
C)That part of a runway where an aircraft lands.
D)None of the above.
Q480. Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport
a).Large size of the airport and boundary
b).Large number of workers/agencies at an airport
c).24 hour operations
d).All the above
Q481. The main purpose for boundary fencing is

a) To keep cattle and livestock off the runway
b) To mark the boundary between landside and airside restricted areas
Q482. Which vulnerable points in barriers require special protection

a) Places where natural barriers used as boundary
b) Waterways and storm sewers, service ducts
c) Buildings used to form part of boundary
d) All the above
Q483. Typical location of crash-gate at airport is

a)Near T.B. c) Near access control point
b) Anywhere at an airport d) Near runway
Q484. What is Sterile Area
a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly
controlled
b) The area between check in point and main entrance of terminal building
c) The area between ATC and runway where the access is controlled
d) All of the above
Q485. What are the objectives of physical barriers at the airports

a) Define area to be protected
b) Create physical and psychological deterrent
c) Delay intrusion and assist detection/apprehension
d) All the above
Q486. What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises
a) Round the clock patrolling c) Effective access control
b) Effective lighting d) All the above
Q487. The main aim of airport protection system is to protect

a) Airport and Aircraft from attack c) Airport employees
b) Airline employees d) None of these
Q488. Principle of airport protection is
A) Controlling movement of people & vehicle
b) Dividing airport in restricted & non restricted area
c) Preventing penetration to airport boundaries
d) All of the above.
Q489.The integrity of barriers are maintained by

a)Security guards protecting access points b)By foot patrol
c)By mobile patrolling d)All of the above
Q490. In night unattended aircraft can be guarded by

a) Locking external doors b) Removing of stairs & loading bridges
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above
Q491. How many types of patrolling?

Q492. Why patrolling necessary?
A) To prevent penetration b) To protect airline property
c) It is duty of APSU d) formality
Q493. In night, aircraft should be parked in ………

a) Dark area b) well-lit area
c) Without guard d) Under camouflage
Q494. Why BWAF is required?

A) To assess specific and non specific calls b) To assess the Caller
c) To maintain perfect data about the caller d) formality
Q495. Butter sing means

a) Putting Sand bags around the suspected item
b) Putting tarpaulin over the suspected item carefully
c) Opening all the ventilator's around the suspected item
d) Cordoning the area and evacuate all the pax from that area
Q496. Searching of furniture fittings comes under

a) Waist to head level b) Head to ceiling level
c) Floor to waist level d) Floor to head level
Q497. Which is not the part of levels of search

a) Chest to floor level b) Floor to waist level
c) Waist to head level d) None of the above
Q498. BTAC stands for:

a) Bomb Threat Assessment Committee b) Bomb Threat Action Committee
c) Bomb Threat Action Council d)Bomb Threat Addition Committee
Q499. BWAF is a document required for:

a)Access Control b)Taking action for Bomb Threat Contingency
c)Calibration of DFMD d)Minutes of Security Committee Meeting
Q500. Which of the following committee is headed by APD:

a)BTAC b) CCS c) COSAH d) All the above
Q501. Appendix “A” of BWAF is filled by

a) Recipients of the bomb threat call b) By ASG personnel
c) By airline Personnel d) None of these
Q502. Which is not the member of BTAC
(a) CASO (b) WSO of ATC (c) AWO of DGCA (d) COSAH
Q503. Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation
a) AC b) CC c) COSAH d) BTAC
Q504. Among the following who is the chairman of COSAH

a) Cabinet secretary b) Principal secretary foreign affairs
Q505. DG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
a) COSAH b) CMG c) CC d) None of these
Q50 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
Q507. Among the following who is not the member of COSAH

a) Principal secretary to pm b) Secretary Ministry of Defence
c) Secretary Ministry of Home Affairs d) None of these
Q508. The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking
a) CC b) CCS c) AC d) BTAC
Q509. According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to
immobilize the aircraft
a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way
b) Deflating of tires by personnel coming from the rear end
c) Putting off the lights of the runway/taxi way during night
d) All the above
Q510. Who of the following can be a hoax bomb threat caller

a) Prankster c) One who has planted the bomb
b) Besotted lover d) All the above
Q511. A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its credibility
or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures
a) Specific call c) Hoax Caller
b) Non specific call d) None of the above
Q512. What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?
a) Interrupt in between the communication when the caller is saying something
b) Listen carefully and note down the important information
c) Do gossip with him and kill time, so that he is engaged for more time
d) None of these
Q513. Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports
a) APD b) CASO c) Customs and Immigration d) All the above
Q514. Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the
aircraft.
a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90%
b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q515. Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground
a) Aircraft to be cordoned b) Negotiation team should be formed
c) All action to be under one commander d) No need to form negotiation team
Q516. If Hijacking takes place in Chennai this will be treated as

a) National contingency b) Contingency of local area only
c) It is not a contingency d) None of these
Q517. Who of the following can be a genuine bomb threat caller

a) One who has planted the bomb
b) Accomplice of the person who has planted the bomb
c) Both a and b
d) Only a
Q518. Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport
prepares its own Contingency Plan
a) AAI b) ASG c) BCAS d) None of these
Q519. In case of “Specific” Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action

a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB
b) ASG will be cordoning the area
c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft
d) All the above
Q520. Which of the following is an action at the time of high alert

a) 100% physical inspection of the vehicle
b) Deployment of the personnel will be same as normal
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport
a) 115 cms b) 100 cms c) Both a and b d) No hand baggage
Q522. Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person, only
by authorization of
a)COSCA b) DG/CISF c)DG/NSG d)DGCA
Q523. Coordinator of BTAC ?

a) APD b) COSCA c) CASO d) COMMANDANT
Q524. The coordinator of BTAC at international airport is

a) APD b) CASO c) AWO d) WSO
Q525. BTAC evaluate the threat with the help of

a) Bomb warning assessment form b) By discussion
c) By majority d) None of the above
Q526. In case of specific bomb threat call, the aircraft has to be shifted to
a) Hanger b) Isolation bay c) New aerobridge d) Away from T.B.
Q527. Which of the following committee deals with hijacking

a) BTAC b) APSC c) COSAH d) All of these
Q528. The airport security committee meets every

a) Month b) Two months c) Three months d) Whenever required
Q529. Permissible size of a hand baggage is

a) 120 cms b) 115 cms c) 200 cms d) 250 cms
Q530. In following, who is not included as a member of Aerodrome committee in District

headquarter?
a) CASO, b) Airline Representative,
c) District Magistrate, d) Home secretary of state.
Q531. In following, who is not included as a member of Central committee?

a) Secretary of ministry of Civil Aviation, b) Joint Director IB
c) ADG ASG, d) IG (Ops) NSG
Q532. The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals
a) Commissioner of police/DGP c) APD
c) Home secretary of state d) CASO
Q533. Who is permitted to carry weapon in their hand baggage

A) NSG personnel c) ASG B) Airline Security d) Sky marshal
Q534. Chief Airport security officer (CASO) is head of

a) Airline security c) BCAS b) ASG/APSU d) DGCA
Q535. Question technique in BTCP formed to know

a) Details of the bomb threat caller b) A bomb threat call specific or non-specific
c) A routine process. d) None of the above
Q536. Committee constituted in India to deal with acts of unlawful interference

a)Clip c)CTCP b)BTCP d) COSAH
Q537. What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation
c)AC c) COSAH d)CC d) All the above
Q538. Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security
training in India
a) BCAS c) COSCA b) DGCA d) CASO
Q539. Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security?
A) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters
b) To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme
c)To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation
d)All the above
Q540. As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall
a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang b) 10 feet with 2 feet over hang
c) 9 feet with 3 feet over hang d) 12 feet with 2 and half feet over hang
Q541. In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline engineers
and airline security:
a)ASG Personnel c) BCAS b)BDDS d) All of the above
Q542. The chairperson of group “A” and group “B” Central Committee is

a) DGCA c) APD b )COSCA d) All the above
Q543. What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the aircraft
a) 2-3 minutes c) Can take their own time
b)10 minutes d) None of the above
Q544. Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as
a) Aircraft accident c) Full emergency
b) Airport accident d) None of these
Q545. Formation of BCAS comes after recommendation of.

a) B N Kripal committee c) B N Krishna committee
b) B D Pandey committee d) Arun Mishra committee
Q546. CCS Stands for………………………..?

A) Constant current supplier b) Cabinet committee of security
c) Cabinet committee of secretaries d) Committee of counsellors for security
Q547. The convener of A.C. at airports located in the state capital

a) CP/DGP b) APD c) Home secretary d) CASO
Q548. The chairman of APSC at an international airport is

a) APD b) CASO
c) Airline Duty Manager d) DGCA
Q549. The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters
a)CP/DM/dc b) APD
c) SP/DCP d) CASO
Q550. Bomb threat comes under?

c) Pilferage d) Petty crime
Q551. Convener of APSC?

a) APD b) Commissioner of BDDS
c) CASO d) Chief of IATA
Q552. BTAC is convened by
a) APD b) RDCOS
c) COSCA d) BDDS
Q553. Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call
a) Notify supervisor b) Questioning
c) Filling appendix “A” d) None of these
Q554. Which is the convener of International/Domestic Airport security committee

a) Airport Director c) CASO c)RDCOS d) COSCA
Q555. In case of unlawful seizure of an aircraft, Which committee meets at the airport
a) Central Committee c) Aerodrome Committee
b) Airport Security committee d) Secretaries on aircraft hijacking
Q556. Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an aircraft
a)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
b)The aircraft is shifted to the isolation bay
c)Check-in and boarding process is to be stopped
d)The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
Q557. Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an
aircraft
a) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
b) Boarded pax to be off-loaded and brought back to the check-in counter.
c) Search of the aircraft to be done by airlines security & Airline engineers
d)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
Q558. Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee at state capital

a) State Home Secretary c) DGCA
b) DCP/DM d) APD
Q559. Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee outside District level

b) DCP/DM d) APD
Q560. To whom pilot gives first information about any crisis

a) AC b) ATC c) CC d) CCS
Q561. Who is not the member of Group –A of CC

a) Joint director, NSG b) Joint director, airport authority of India
c) A senior executive of the affected airlines d) None of these
Q562. Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in
performance of their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Not required
Q563. In boarding gate plan
a) There is separate queue for airlines b) all are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done d) Screening starts at boarding gate
Q564. In concourse plan the screening starts at

a) Main entrance b) at boarding gate
c) After all Clearance d) not related with boarding
Q565 In holding area plan.

a) Separate area for SHA b) All are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done d) At boarding gate screening starts
Q566. The plan adopted at Srinagar airport is

a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse plan
c) Holding area plan d) Holding & concourse plan
Q567. Which is concerned with basic screening concept
a) Concourse Plan b) Holding area plan
c) Boarding gate plan d) All of the above
Q568. How many screening staff required at each XBIS

a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) None of the above
Q569. How many people required for a ideal screening team

a) 5 b) 3
c) 6 d) 4
Q570. Passengers who refuse to be physically searched

a) Are within their rights but must not be allowed on the aircraft
b) Must be physically restrained by the searcher until the police arrive
c) Must be searched very carefully with the hand-held metal detector
d) BCAS must be contacted to tackle such passengers
Q 571. Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India
a) Boarding Gate Plan b) Hold Area Plan
c) Concourse Plan d) Both b & c
Q572. Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) More time available
b) To be staffed only during screening
c) Large number of screening staff/ equipments required
Q573. Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) To be staffed only during screening b) More time available
c) Less pressure to examine passenger d) All of the above
Q574. Which is the following is not a disadvantage of a Holding Area Plan

a) To be secured when not in use b) Less pressure to examine passenger
c) Large area to be controlled and secured d) All of the above
Q575. What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area
a) Physical search of passenger b)X-Ray examination of baggage
c) Physical search of baggage d)All the above
Q576. A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times
a) At least 60 minutes before the passengers board the aircraft
b) At the time the passengers start to board the aircraft
c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area
D) All the above
Q577. The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons
a) In response to an airport bomb threat
b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items
c) Whenever a high level of threat exists
Q578. One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding area
is as follows
a) Search from floor to waist level b) Search from floor to head level
c) Search from waist to ceiling level d) Search from floor to ceiling level
Q579 Which among the following are the don’ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal
building
a) Don’t handle it b) Don’t touch it
c) Don’t attempt to open the item d) All the above
Q580. The security plan used at airport are

a) Concourse plan b) Holding area plan
Q581. Prescribed procedure for carry out search of building are

a) Flour to waist level b) Waist to head level
c) Head to ceiling level d) All of the above
Q582. Large no of screening staff/equipment are required in

a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse are plan
c) Holding area plan d) None of the above
Q583. The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is
a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse area plan
Q584. SHA is secured by

a) Pax Screening & searching b) X-rays & physical checking of baggage
c)Both a & b above d)None of these
Q585. sterility of SHA is maintained by

a). Anti sabotage & access control b). Effective screening of pax
c.) Allowing pax by & goods without search d). Only (a) & (b)
Q586. What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building
a) Not to touch b) Marking and informing to supervisor.
c) Both (a) & (b) above. d) Try to open & bring to control room
Q587. A Sterile area must be set up

c) Only (a)
Q588. How many passenger-screening systems are followed in world:
Q589. Passenger screening is mainly needed:

a) to ensure that no unauthorized person passes the landside/airside barrier.
b) to ensure that no prohibited items are carried past the screening point.
c) to ensure that passengers are not allowed on the aircraft unless their baggage has been
checked.
d) All of the above
Q590. Three passenger screening concept are
a) concourse, holding area and boarding gate b) outer , inner and middle protective
c) CTCP,BTCP and Anti hijacking contingency d) None of the above
Q591. In how many colour X-BIS project the image?

Q592. X-RAY moves at the speed of ….

a) Electricity b) light c) Rocket d) wind
Q593. In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in.

a) Green & Blue b) Orange c) Purple d) all
Q594. Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than

a) 18min b) 30 min c) 20 min d) 40 min
Q595. What is through put rate of registered baggage?

a) 300 bag / hr b) 400 bag / hr
c) 350 bag / hr d) 450 bag / hr
Q596. There are …………… test in CTP

a)4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
Q597. TIP stands for

a) Threat Image Projection b) Threat Item Projection
c) Threat Item Protection d) Three Image projection
Q598. Which is not used in security?

a) HHMD b) RT set c) CCTV d) laptop
Q599. Which is not a benefit of TIP?

a) Motivation b) Immediate feedback
c) Alertness d) acceptance
Q600. At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it & work
c) stop the machine & notify supervisor d) none of these
Q601. If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage

a) Take action as per local SOP b) Inform BDDS
c) Inform BCAS d) Inform police
Q602. What is the radiation distance from tunnel of X-BIS?

a) 1 cm b) 5 cms c) 15 cms d) 25 cms
Q603. XBIS stands for
a) X-ray Baggage Inspection System b) X-ray screening of baggage
c) X-ray baggage screening system d) X-ray baggage imaging system
Q604. XBIS gives colour to different articles based on
a) Atomic weight b) Density c) Atomic no. d) Weight of material
Q605. CTP stands for

a) Combined test performance b) Combined Test Piece
c) Computer tomography projection d) Comprehensive testing procedure
Q606. Distance between two bags while screening on X-Ray machine should not be less than
Q607. In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible
a) .05mm b) .1mm c) 1 mm d) .01mm
Q608. Threat image projection is installed on X-Ray machine not to

a)To check the individual performance b) To project fictional images
b)To provide training regarding real threat objects d) To check machine efficiency
Q609. SWG stands for

a) Simple Wire Guage b) Single Wire Guage
c) Standard Wire Guage d) Steel Wire Guage
Q610. Which is not the property of X-Ray?

a) It is invisible rays b) It moves in a straight line
c) It is ionizing radiation d) It reflected with lens and prism
Q611. Which is the pre-operation check of the X-BIS

a) ensure the inspection tunnel b) ensure the lead curtain
c) ensure all emergency switches d) All of the above
Q612. What are the items which create difficulties during screening

a) Children toys b) Wrapped gifts
c) Urns of human remains d) All of the above
Q613. Measuring unit of an X-Ray is

a) Meter b) Roentgen c) Mille roentgen d) None of the above
Q614. Which is the advantage of XBIS

a) High penetration rate b) High resolution
c) Safe for film food and drugs d) None of the above
Q615. Which is the requirement of XBIS

a) High penetration rate b) Enable speedy screening
Q616. Which is the specification of XBIS

a) Speed of the conveyor belt should be 18 to 0.3 mtr/sec
b) Convenience to the pax
c) Safe for film food and drugs
Q617. Which is not the inbuilt safety measures of XBIS

a) External housing b) Lead curtain
c) Emergency switch d) None of the above
Q618. Which is the speed of conveyer belt

a) 0.18 mtr/sec. To 0.3 mtr/ sec b) 0.1 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr/ sec
c) 0.18 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr /sec d) None of the above
Q619. How many feed backs we get in tip

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) None of the above
Q620. Feedback of detected object appears in which colour
a) Red colour b) Green colour
c) Yellow colour d) None of the above
Q621. Feedback of missed object appears in which colour

Q622. Feedback of aborted/cancelled object appears in which colour

Q623. Tailored training programme is a benefit of

a) CTP b) TIP c) OTP d) None of the above
Q624. In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the Perspex sheet
a) 26 SWG b) 30 SWG c) 40 SWG d) 42 SWG
Q625. In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge
of aluminium
Q626. Multi energy test it discriminate the material as per their

a) Atomic number b) Atomic weight
c) Molecular weight d) None of the above
Q627. Which strip should be seen beneath of 26 mm steel in simple penetration test

a) Pb b) Tn c) Fe d) mg
Q628. In Spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which plate
a) copper b) Iron c) Nickel d) None of the above
Q629. In thin metal imaging test which mm strip should be seen

a) 0.1 b) 0.05 c) 0.01 d) 1.00
Q630. A advantages of XBIS is

a) Enable speedy screening b) Convenience to the pax
c) Safe for Food d) All of the above
Q631. In Civil Aviation Security X-BIS is used for

a) Screening of a hand baggage b) Screening of a registered baggage
c) Screening of cargo d) All the above
Q632. Which among the following are properties of X-rays

a) Invisible electro-magnetic radiations
b) Does not get deflected when passed through prism
c) Impair or destroy the living cells
d) All the above
Q633. X-BIS is considered to be safe for the following

a) Edible items b) Film and cameras
c) Drugs d) All the above
Q634. As per guidelines of BCAS high resolution of X-BIS is should be
Q635. Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which
comes under which of the following
a) One of the requirements of X-BIS b) One of the properties of X-BIS
c) One of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS d) None of the above
Q636. In X-BIS, what is meant by tip

a) Threat Identification Procedure b) Threat Image Projection
c) Tested and Identified Packet d) Test Identification parade
Q637. In the X-Ray machines “Lead” is primarily used to

a) Absorb radiation b) Detect arms and ammunition
c) Detect explosives d) Increase the “Through-Put”
Q638. PLX falls under which category of prohibited item

c) Dangerous Substance d) Explosive
Q639. Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray baggage inspection
System are detected
a) Camera and Mirror System b) Multi Energy System
c) Single Energy System d) Trace Detector system
Q640. As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the speed of
conveyor belt should be?
a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec b) 0.18 to 0.30 cm/sec
c) 0.20 to 0.35 mtrs/sec d) 0.15 to 0.25 mtrs/hr
Q641. Pre-operation check of X-BIS is carried to ensure
a) XBIS is working properly b) XBIS will not work without pre-operation check
Q642. In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with
a) The colour and shape of the image b) The photo of the item
c) Colour of the item d) After the physical examination
Q643. If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify?
a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked b) The bag is clear
c) The bag has a confirmed threat object d) None of the above
Q644. Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visible
a) Single wire resolution b) Simple penetration
c) Useful penetration d) Spatial resolution
Q645. Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the
a) Atomic number of the item b) Density of the item
c) Colour of the item d) Shape of the item
Q646. Which of the following is the advantage of tip

a) Source of motivation for screeners b) Increase alertness
c) Records individual performance d) All the above
Q647. Sensors are one of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS, what are the functions of sensors in X-
BIS?
a) External panels
b) Prevent X-Rays from being generated
c) X-Rays are generated only when there is a bag inside the tunnel
Q648. What is the disadvantage of the X-BIS

a) Efficiency depends on human factor b) Only trained staff can operate
c) Very costly d) All the above
Q649. What is the main aim of the screening is

a) To detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices
b) To control movement of people
c) To control movement of vehicles
Q650. CTP is conducted to check that
a) XBIS is working properly b) XBIS is working as per BCAS specifications
c) XBIS will not work without CTP d) None of the above
Q651. Tip images are
a) Fictional b) Real c) Both a & b d) None of the above
Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening
a) Books b) Clothes in bag c) Religious objects d) Water in bag
Q653. The image which is not clear in X-ray monitor

a) Shall not be allowed to carry in hand baggage b) Should be checked physically
c) Pax to be advised to put in registered baggage d) None of the above
Q654. If X-rayed item is obviously a weapon such as a gun
a) Stop the conveyor belt b) Do not stop conveyer
c) Call BDDS d) refer for physical checking
Q655. If the X-ray operator is IN DOUBT, about an object, he/she should
a) Refer the bag for physical inspection b) Stop the conveyor belt
c) Inform the supervisor d)Inform local Polish or BDDS
656 to 666
Q667. In XBIS item which cannot be penetrated by X-ray appears in
a) Blue colour c) Dark orange
b) Black/opaque d) green
Q668. How many colours are displayed in XBIS monitor

a) Green, Blue, Black & Orange c) Green, Black, Purple & Yellow
b) Green, Blue, Black & Purple d) Black, Green, Brown & yellow
Q669. Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain

a) Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation
b) Make of machine d) None of the above
Q670. X-Ray machine is safe for……?

a) Food & film b) Human being c) Pacemaker d) pets
Q671. Which among the following is requirements of a X-BIS as per the BCAS guidelines
a) Low false alarm rate
b) Throughput rate not less than 350 bags per hour
c) Should have high penetration of 37 mm steel
d) All the above
Q672. Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin?
a) Mace c) Marshal art device b) Replica of weapon d) All the above
Q673. In X-Ray machines, CTP is used to

a)To test the performance c) To detect dangerous items
b)To detect the Explosives d) To detect a weapon
Q674. What is the colour of RDX when X-Ray examined

a) Orange c) Green b) Blue d) None of the above
Q675. CTP is not used to
a) to test the thickness of steel, the machine about to penetrate
b) to distinguish between material of different atomic no.
c) to test the efficiency of the x-ray screener
d) to insure the machine performance
Q676. How many types of generators are used in X-BIS?

Q677. Color of metals in X-BIS?

Q678. Which one of the following is the properties of X-Ray

a) High detection rate
b)They are invisible
c)Low false alarm
d)Integrated imaging device system
Q679. Low X-Ray dose is belongs to which of the following

a) In-built safety measures c) Requirement of X-ray.
b) Properties of X-Rays d) None of these

Q680. Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while screening
a) Urns containing human remains c) Sword
b) Hockey stick d) Cricket bat
Q681. Minimum amount of metal should detect by DFMD?

a) 35 gms b) 30 gms c) 25 gms d) 20 gms
Q682. Distance from DFMD to person?

a) 90 cms b) 100cms c) 102cms d) 105cms
Q683. The size of the DFMD is

a) 2 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr b) 3 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr
c) 2 Mtr X .70 to .80 Mtr d) None of the above
Q684. Threshold mass for DFMD is

a) 10gms b) 20gms c) 30gms d) None of the above
Q685. How many zones are in MZDFMD is
a) Seven b) Eight c) Nine d) None of the above
Q686. DFMD detects

a) Explosives b) Ferrous and Non ferrous metal
c) Non metallic item d) None of the above
Q687. Which is the part of DFMD

a) Transmitter panel b) Lead curtain
c) Lead shielding d) None of the above
Q688. Which is not the part of DFMD

a) Transmitter panel b) Receiver panel
c) Cross piece d) Lead curtain
Q689. Size of OTP is

a) 10cms X 10cms b) 20cms X 10cms
c) 15cms X 15cms d) None of the above
Q690. Weight of OTP is

a) 35gms b) 30gms c) 25gms d) none of the above
Q691. Preparedness of the DFMD is measured with the

a) CTP b) Reference cartridge
c) OTP d) None of the above
Q692. The DFMD resets after
a) 5 Sec b) 3 Hrs c) 3 Sec d) None of the above
Q693. When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optimum efficiency
a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects
b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects
c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference
d) All the above
Q694. The full form of DFMD is

a) Door Frame Metal Detector b) Door From Metal detector
c) Detect Frame Metal detector d) Detect & Frame Metal Detector
Q695. Acceptable height of DFMD as per BCAS specification is

a) 2 m b) 4 m c) 5 m d) 6 m
Q696. Width of DFMD is
a) 75 cms to 85 cms b) 2 m c) 1 m d) 1.05 m
Q697. DFMD is tested with the help of

a) CTP b) OTP C) CTX d) Swab Paper
Q698. As per BCAS guidelines DFMD is calibrated to detect metal up to

a) 5 gm b) 10 gm c) 15 gm d) 30 gm
Q699. DFMD gives
a) Audio alarm b) Visual alarm
Q700. Control panel and cross piece are found in
a) DFMD c) X-BIS b) HHMD d) EVD/ETD
Q701. When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be
a) 30 cms c) 35 cms b) 90 cms d) 100 cms
Q702. ‘Sensitivity & Specificity’ is the term associated with

a) XBIS c) DFMD b)HHMD d) ETD/EVD
Q703. The full form of HHMD is

a) Hand Held Metal Detector b) Hand Hold Metal Detector
c) Held Hand Metal Detector d) None of the above
Q704. The minimum detection capacity of HHMD is

a) 5 gm b) 1 gm c) 0.5 gm d) 2 gm
Q705. As per BCAS specification , weight of HHMD should not exceed

a) 250 gm b) 100 gm c) 200 gm d) 500 gm
Q706. The HHMD should be kept ……. Away from Pax body while carrying out frisking
a) 3.5 cms b) 4 cms c) 2.5 cms d) 5 cms

Q707. The main purpose of access control system at airport is
a) To control the movement of pax & vehicle
b) Facilitate Pax
c) Facilitate VIP
d) Control movement of pax and vehicle from landside to airside
Q708. What are the categories of person not authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) Union Council of ministers b) Sky Marshals
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of President
Q709. What are the primary reasons for escorting people

a) For their own safety when moving in airside
b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for
a subsequent attack
c) Both a and b
Q710. What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft)
(a)30 km/hr (b)20 km/hr (c)15 km/hr (d)5 km/hr
Q711. Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into aircraft
(a)In hand baggage (b)In registered baggage
(c)In both (a) & (b) (d)None of the above
Q712. SARP on security are given in

(a) Annex.18 of ICAO manual (b) Annex.12 of ICAO manual
(c) Annex.17 of ICAO manual (d) Annex.9 of ICAO manual
Q713. Check the battery is fully charge is applicable to

a) DFMD b) HHMD c) X-BIS d) EVD
Q714. ETD detects
a) Metals b) Explosives c) Gases d) None of the above
Q715 ETD detects explosives by
a) Capturing vapour b) Traces particles
c) Density d) None of the above
Q716. The approx weight of EVD is

a) 3Kgs b) 2 Kgs c) 5 kgs d) None of the above
Q717. The approx weight of ETD is

a) 30 Kgs b) 25 Kgs c) 40 kgs d) None of the above
Q718. EDDS Stands for
a)Explosive detection and disposal Squad b)Explosive device detection System
c)Explosive device detection Squad d) Explosive detection device system
Q719. ETD can detect explosive up to
a) 5 gm b) .5 gm c) nanogram level d) 2 gm
Q720 100% physical baggage checking is required

a) For British Airlines flight b) On Threat call
c) Normal time d) Always
Q721. According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ?

c) Hyper Sensitive d) All the above
Q722. What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a passenger
a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger
b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious
c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation
d) All of the above
Q723. Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out

a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents
of baggage
b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally
c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment
d) All the above
Q724. At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked

a) Ask passengers to operate the item
b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment
c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off
d) All the above
Q725. Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a baggage
a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag
b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely before
moving on to the next one.
c) Both a and b
Q726. Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team
a) Physically inspect items requiring attention
b) Supervise a busy screening point
c) Issuing the boarding card
Q727. Before commencing search of pax baggage
(a)His/her consent to be taken
(b)No need to take consent as it is duty of security staff to check the bag
(c)Consent can be obtained depending upon the status of pax
(d)Consent should be taken only when the pax in female
Q728.While conducting physical search of baggage method should be

(a)No special method required (b)Systematic
(c)Find out the suspicious object only (d)All of the above

Q729 Airport movement rules for vehicles apply to security staff:
(a)at all times.
(b)at all times except when they are on patrol.
(c)at all times except in an emergency.
(d)None of the above
Q730. Physical inspection of baggage is required

(a) When a prohibited item other than IED is detected
(b) When item is not distinguishable in the monitor
(c) When screener doubt as to the safety of any article in the baggage.
(d) All of the above
Q731.. The person who need not to be escorted________

a) VIP b) Person in custody
c) Authorized visitor d) passengers


a) Ticketing of the passengers.
b) Provides security control for Cargo which is accepted and required by
appropriate authority.
d)All the above
Q734. How is the diplomatic baggage handled

a) The baggage must bear distinct external marks of the Embassy and the name and the
address of the consignee
b) Diplomatic bags of any classification will not be opened in any case
c) Diplomatic bags which are carried as hand baggage by the diplomatic courier shall not be
screened provided the diplomatic courier produces certificate to that effect that it is a
diplomatic bag and it does not contain any prohibited/ dangerous article
d) All the above
Q735. Why is cargo considered an attractive target for terrorists

a) Generally very bulky, which is difficult for screening.
b) Small amount of explosives could be easily hidden which is sufficient for sabotage
c) Generally unaccompanied and therefore can be used as means of sabotage
d) All the above
Q736. What standard procedure is adopted for security of diplomatic bags
a) Category A bags to be accepted without screening/cooling off restriction subject
to production of certificate
b) Other than category A to be treated at par with cargo
c) In no case should be physically checked
d) All the above

a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly .
controlled
d) All of the above

Q738. Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles up to the
tarmac at civil airports in the country
a) Protocol grounds b) Medical grounds
c) Security grounds d) All the above
Q739. What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) PSOS of President b) PSOS of Vice President
c) Sky Marshals on duty d) All the above
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of president
Q741. What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered baggage after it has
been screened
a) Sealed b) Safeguarded c) Escorted d) All the above
Q742. Security personnel will be required to provide an escort as follows

a) For carryon baggage after it has been screened
b) For registered baggage after it has been handed over in at the airline counter
c) For registered baggage after it has been security screened
Q743. Who among the following is responsible for the movement of valuable consignments
a) Airport security personnel b) Airline security personnel
c) Agency involved d) Both b and c
Q744. While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that

a) The movement is planned in advance
b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route
c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment
d) All the above

b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for subsequent
attack
c) Both a and b
Q746. The typical categories of people requiring escort are
a) Deportee & inadmissible persons b) Person in custody
c) VIPS d) All the above
Q747. Catering security is ensured by

(a) Access control of premises c) Transportation under escort
(b) Inspection by BCAS and Airline d) all of the above
Q748. Security measures for Cargo are

(a)Physical check c) Cooling off method
(b)X-ray examination d) All the above

Q749. Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle
a) All pax c) M. P
b) President of India d) Cabinet minister of state
Q 750. C.M. of state & chief Justice of India will be checked by

a)HHMD c) Physical check
b) DFMD d) Exempted from security check
Q751. For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from
a) ASG c) DGCA b) BCAS d) Concerned airlines
Q752. MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport

a) Aircraft c) All area
b) Upto T.B. d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP
Q753. The following persons are not exempted from PEC?

a) Cabinet Ministers b) Supreme court Judges
c) Vice President of Ghana d) deportee
Q754. Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents in respect
carriage of dead
a)Body onboard an aircraft is
b)Embalming certificate by hospital
c)Death certificate from competent Medical authority
d) All the belongings of the deceased
Q755. In-Line Baggage X-Ray screening System is the responsibility of

a) ASG c) APSU b) BCAS d) Respective Airport operator
Q756. Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold baggage
a) On duty police personnel c) Passenger with arms license
b) Authorized sports personnel d) On duty Airline security

d) All of above
Q758. Simulation chamber
a) operates on the principle of activating the explosive device in the suspect object by
simulating the condition arises during real air journey
b) physical conditions
c) Detects weapon
d) Detects dangerous article
Q759. What document is required for carriage of dead body

a) Death certificate c) Police clearance
b)Embalming certificate d) All of the above

a) Prisoner c) Employee
b)Airport users d) None of the above
Q761. A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hold baggage
with the permission
a) Airline operator c) DGCA b)COSCA d) CASO
Q762. In India NCASTP will be implemented by

a) All agencies involved in Civil Aviation Operations in India
b) All Airline Operators in India
c) All Airport Operators in India
Q763. Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks
a) Member of parliament c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) President of India d) Cabinet ministers
Q764. A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be your action?
a) Take no special action
b) Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous
c) Unscrew the container and smell the contents
Q765. Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on board on
aircraft
a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops b) Lady’s hand bag
c) Umbrella and walking stick d) All the above.
Q766. What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in Aircrafts
flying in domestic sector?
a) A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches
b) A length of max 6 inches with the blades not exceeding 3 inches
c) A length of max 9 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
d) A length of max 6 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
Q767. What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected while
screening a baggage through X-BIS
a) Remain calm and polite – do not alarm passenger
b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal
c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists
d) All the above
Q768. The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area must result
in:
a) Marking the area of location
b) Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer
c) Clearing the immediate area of vicinity
d) All the above
Q769. The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with
a)ASG b)Air Operator
c)Airport Operator d)Relatives or Dependents of the pax
Q770. Which agency has the primary responsibility in moving a deportee?

a) Immigration authorities c) Airport Security Unit
b)Concerned airline security d) All the above
Q771. Significance of 23.02.1931

a) First hijacking in the history of civil aviation
b) First sabotage in the history of civil aviation
c) ICAO came into existence
d) None of these
Q772. After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India
a) Deployment of Sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports
c) Secondary Ladder Point Checking d) All the above
Q773. Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircraft is to

a) Ask the identity of the person b) Ask the reason for being near the aircraft
Q774. Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of
a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Airline Security d) BCAS
Q775. Escorting VVIP at airport is the responsibility of

a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Local police d) Both a & b
Q776. The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by

a) X-ray examination and physical search b) Cooling off methods
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above.
Q777. Embalming certificate is required for

a) Carrying of prisoner c) Carriage animal
b) Carriage of dead body d) None of the above
Q778. Baggage reconciliation is –
a) Tallying number of baggage’s checked in & accepted for loading in the aircraft with the
pax reported for boarding the aircraft.
b) Counting of registered baggage
c) Counting of hand baggage loaded in the cabin of aircraft.
d) Counting of pax at boarding gate.
Q779. Who among the following is exempted from PESC

a) Chief Justice of high courts c) Both a) & b)
b) Chief Justice of India d) None of the above
Q780. Safeguarding of registered baggage is done by
a)Sealing after checking b)By surveillance & escorting
c)Ensuring the seals at time of loading d)All of the above
Q781. Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but without escort
a) Prime Minister c) SPG Protectees
b)President d) Chief justice of India
Q782. What is not the provision for carriage of prisoner?

a) Pilot should be informed b) Escort should be well equipped
c) Prisoner should be hand-cuffed d) Prisoner should be boarded first
Q783. Baggage Identification is the duty of ?.
Q784. Which is not exempted from pre embarkation security check

a)Prime Minister of India c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b)President of India d) Judges of High court
Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid to
a) Wrapped gifts and presents b) Bottles containing liquids
c) Cameras, radios and electrical items d) All the above
Q786. Who among the following category of people need to be escorted
a) Authorized visitors b) Deportees and inadmissible persons
Q787. What is the significance of 02-12-1988 in civil aviation history

a) Explosion of air craft at Mombasa (Kenya)
b) Explosion of Pan-Am aircraft over Lockerbie, Scotland
c) Amendment to the Anti Hijacking Act
d) None of these

(a) Delivery of new born (c) Communicable diseases
(b) Food poisoning (d) terrorist attack
Q789. PYRO technique is a switch mechanism of

(a) Anti handling switch (b) Delay Mechanism
(c) Command (d) ambient
Q790. In what circumstances the baggage will be physically checked

(a) on the instructions of supervisor (c) When machine is not functioning
(b)) on the instructions of seniors (d) none of the
(a) Generator (b) Detonator
(c) Cross Piece (d) CTP

(a) Knife (b) Lighter (c) Book (d) blade
Q793 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

(a) Access Gates (b) Signature of issuing authority
(c) Tally the Photograph (d) None of the above
Q794. The switch mechanism are classified into
a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

(a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile
(c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella
Q796. Which is not the property of X-Ray

(a)is invisible rays (b) It moves in straight line
(c) It is ionizing radiation (d) It reflected with lens and prism
Q797. Denser the object the image will be

(a) Thicker (b) thinner (c) Darker (d) None of the above

(a) ensure the inspection tunnel (b) ensure the lead curtain
(c) ensure all emergency switches (d) All of the above
(a) Meter (b) Roentgen
(c) Milli roentgen (d) None of the above
Q800. Barometric is a switch mechanism of

(c) Command (d) Ambient
Q 1. First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world
(a) 1976 (b) 1931 (c) 1971 (d) 1944
Q 2. BCAS came into existence in the year of
a) 1934 (b) 1937 (c) 1987 (d) 2001
Q 3. BCAS came into existence after the recommendation of

(a)B N Kirpal Singh committee (b) B D Pandey committee
(c) R P Singh Committee (d) Arun mishra committee

Q 4. Deployment of CISF is a result of
Q 5. Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of

Q 6. Ramamrithan committee formed at
a) 1979 b)1980 c) 1981 d)1982
Q7. When was CISF inducted at airports?

a) 3 Feb’2000 b) 31 Dec’1999 c) 10 March 2000 d) 3 Feb’2001
Q 8. To provide Training on aviation security is the responsibility of ?
a) CASO b) BCAS c) APD d) AAI
Q 9. Appropriate authority on Safety in India?
a) ICAO b) Commander of concerned airports
c) BCAS d) DGCA
Q 10. Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking…?

a) Deployment of sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF
c) PEC d) SLPC
Q 11. In which year the first convention formed?

a) 1937 b) 1944 c) 1947 d) 1934
Q12. How many conventions are there ?

a) One b) Four c) Five d) Eight
Q 13. Which one is the Standard Practice?
a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d)SSLC
Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice?

a) PEC b) SLPC c) ABC d) EVD
Q 15. The explosion at Chennai airport took place in the year

a) 2 Aug 1984 b) 2 Aug 1982
c) 24 Dec 1999 d) 11 Sep 2001
Q 16. Allocation of bays is the duties of?
a) Apron control b) CISF
c) Airline d) None of these
Q 17. Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"?

c) Disruption of communication facility d) pilferage
Q 18. A Corridor above/below ground level to connect aircraft stands to the passenger building is
a) Pier b) Ramp c) Rampage area d) Airside waiting area
Q 19. The large no. Of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………?

a) 1969, Canada b) 1973, London c) 1931, Lobonan d) 1969, Cuba
Q20. The area between any pax inspection or screening control point and aircraft in which access is
controlled
a) Airside b) Land side c) Security hold area d) Sterile area
Q21. How many hijackings reported yet in India
a) 15 b) 13 c) 14 d) 12
Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of

a) 1976 b) 1931 c) 1971 d) 1944
Q23. Aircraft Rule was framed in India in the year of
a) 1934 b) 1937 c) 1963 d) 1944
Q24. Which airline was connected in Kanishka incident
a) Air India b) Indian Airlines
c) Jet Airways d) Kingfisher Airlines
Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident

a) Kanishka Incident b) Kandhar incident
c) Lokerbie Incident d) None of the above
Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident

a) Demolition of twin tower b) Kanishka Incident
c) Kandhar incident d) Lokerbie Incident
Q27. An area used for landing/takeoff the aircraft is
a) Runway b) Taxiway
c) Movement Area d) Apron
Q28. An area used for taxing the aircraft is
a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Movement Area d) Apron
Q29. The Definition of Hijacking is defined in
a) Article 3 of hijacking act 1982 b) Indian Penal Code
c) CRPC d) Indian evidence Ac
Q30 The duties of Pilot in command is defined in
a) Rule 90 b) rule 156 c) Rule 141 d) Rule 24
Q31 The term Aircraft in Service is defined in
c) Montreal Convention d) All of the above
Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to

c) Hague Convention d) All of the above
Q33. The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security

of aircraft operation.
a) Section 5 b) Section 5A c) Section 8 d) None of the above
Q34. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.

Q35. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes

a) Rule 8 b) Rule 90 c) Rule 24 A d) None of the above
Q36. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Duties of pilot in command
Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in

a) Rule 78 of aircraft act 1937 b) Rule 90 of aircraft rule 1937
c) Rule 24 c of aircraft rule 1937
Q38. CASO stands for

a) Chief Airport Security Officer b) Chief Aviation Security Officer
c) Commissioner of Airport Security Officer d) None of the above
Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q40. Hague convention was held in the year of
a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q41. Montreal convention was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1971 d) 1963
Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of

a) 1944 b) 1970 c) 1988 d) 1963
Q43. Tokyo convention related with

Q44. Hague convention related with

Q45. Montreal convention related with
d) Suppression of unlawful act against safety of civil aviation
Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under

which aircraft Rule.
a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule

a) 24 b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q48.Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule

a) 24A b) 25 c) 19 d) 78
Q49.Entry into public aerodrome

a) 24 b) 90 c) 19 d) 78
Q50. COSCA stands for:.

a) Commissioner Of Security Civil Aviation b) Committee On Security Civil Aviation
Q51. ASG stands for:

a) Anti Sabotage Group b) Aviation Security Group
c) Anti Sabotage Gadget d) None of these
Q52. ICAO came into existence in which of the following year:

a) 1947 b) 1948 c) 1944 d) 1963
Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :

a) PAPI b) PAPA AGNIS c) PAPPI d) None of these
Q54. PTI in aviation security stands for :

a) Positive Target Identification b) Positive Trainee Identification
c) Press Trust of India d) All the above
Q55. PETN stands for :
a) Penta Erithrotol Tetra Nitrate b)Poly Ethyle Tri Nitrate
c) Both a& b d) None of these
Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended

to counter the possible consequences arising from a communicated threat, anonymous
or otherwise, or arising from the discovery of a suspect device or other suspect item on an aircraft,
at an airport or in any civil aviation facilities.
a) Competent authorities b) Regulated Authority
c) Appropriate Authority d) BCAS
Q57. B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident:

a) Second hijacking in India b) First hijacking in India
c) After Kaniska Incident d) After IC 814 hijacking
Q58. DCAS in India was formed in
a) 1979 b) 1978 c) 1980 d) None of these
Q59. Air India aircraft Kanishka was sabotaged in the year:
a) 1985 b) 1988 c) 1986 d) 198
Q60 Which Committee recommended for dummy checks and exempted category list
a) Ramamitran committee b) B N Kirpal committee
c) Pandey committee d) None of these
Q61. Annex -17 came into existence on which of the following dates
a) 22.03.1974 b) 22.03.1975 c) 03.03.1974 d) None of these
Q62. Anti hijacking Act 1982 was amended in the year
a) 1994 b) 1993 c) 1992 d) 1990
Q63. Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India

a) Tokyo Convention Act 1975
b) Anti – Hijacking Act 1982 as amended in 1994
c) Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation Act 1982 as amended in 1994
d) All the above
Q6.4 Which Annexure contains the SARP on Aviation Security
a) Annexure 15 b) Annexure 16 c) Annexure 17 d) Annexure 18
Q65. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP

a) CASO b) ICAO c) COSCA d) IATA
Q66. Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft

a) Tokyo Convention b) The Hague Convention
Q67. Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft

a) Tokyo Convention b) Chicago Convention
c) The Hague Convention d) Montreal Convention
Q68. Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation

Q69. Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service

Q70. “Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and

maintenance of NCASP” comes under the subject head of which of the following
a) Recommended Practice b) standard Practice
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
Q71. What is the need of Marking of Plastic Explosives by every contracting state of ICAO
a) For the Purpose of Detection b) For the Purpose of Marketing
c) For the Purpose of Supplying d) For purpose of knowing the make of the explosive.
Q72. Which Convention for the first time defined the act of unlawful seizure of aircraft as an
Offence.
Q73. Which Convention mentioned that the Pilot is Law Enforcement Officer in the Flight
Q74. Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for

aA) Development of NCASP b) Implementation of NCASP
c) Maintenance of NCASP d) All the above
Q75. In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil

Aviation security matters in India
a)Section 5 A of Aircraft Act 1934 b)Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934
c)Section 9 A of Aircraft Act 1934 d) Section 8 A of Aircraft Act 1934
Q76. Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Prohibition of Smoking in the Aircraft b) Inspection of the Aircraft
c) Security and Safety of unclaimed baggage d) None of the above
Q77. Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

a) Penalty for failure to comply with Direction issued under Section 5 A
b) Power to Issue Directions
c) Central Government can make Rules under this Act
d) Penal Provisions

a) Operators to have access b) Aerodrome Manual
c) Carriage of Arms, Explosives & Dangerous Goods d) Passenger Service Fees

a) Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft
b) Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft
d) Cancellation, Suspension of Certificate of Carriers

a) Provision for Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder
c) Provision for Carriage of Prisoners in Aircraft
Q81. Provision for Carriage of prisoners in aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rule 1937.
a) Rule 24 A b) Rule 24 c) Rule 24 B d) Rule 24 C
Q82. Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

a) Power of Enquiry Officer b) Passenger service fees
c) Investigation of an Incident d) Notification of Incidents

a) Entry into public Aerodromes b) User deployment fees
c) Aerodrome manual d) Passenger Service fees
Q84. Prohibition on slaughtering of animals in the vicinity of Airport is mentioned in which Rule
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 77 D c) Rule 91 d) Rule 155 A
Q85. Inspection of Aircraft is mentioned in which Rule of Aircraft Rules 1937
a) Rule 156 b) Rule 161 c) Rule 78 A d) Rule 135 A
Q86. Terminal building comes under

a) Landside b) Airside c) Operational area d) Both (a) & (b)
Q87. Annexure 17 deals with

a) Aviation safety b) Aviation security
c) Airport manual d) Aircraft manual
Q88. NCASQCP deals with

a) Civil aviation security b) Safety
c) PAX d) Aircraft
Q89. First recorded hijacking took place at

a) Delhi b) Peru c) Viet nam d) Chicago
Q90. Aircraft act come into …….. In the year

a)1932 b) 1933 c) 1934 d) 1935
Q91. Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year.

a)1934 b) 1935 c) 1936 d) 1937
Q92. Which section of Aircraft Act empowers DGCA to frame rule.

a) Sec – 5 b) Sec – 5(a) c) Sec – 5(b) d) Sec – 5(c)
Q93. Safety & security of unclaimed baggage is described in which security of Aircraft Act 1934.

a) Sec – 05 b) Sec -6 c) Sec -8(C) d) Sec -9
Q94. Provision of carriage of prohibited items is described in which rule.

Q95. In what quantity ammunition with pistol is permitted in hand baggage SPG personnel.
c) 50 rounds b) 60 rounds c) 100 rounds d) 120 rounds
Q96. Entry into domestic airdrome is mentioned in which aircraft rule

a) Rule- 78 b) Rule- 81 c) Rule – 85 d) Rule – 90
Q97. Guarding of deportee /inadmissible pax at refusal room is responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airlines c) Airport operator d) Local police
Q98. Provision of carriage of bird & reptiles into aircraft is given in

Q99. Provision of carriage of prisoner in the aircraft is mentioned in

a) Rule 24 b) Rule 24(A) c) Rule 24 (B) d) Rule 24(C)
Q100. Airport is mainly divided into-

a) Landside b) Airside c) Landside and airside d) Public place
Q101. Airport include

a) Movement area b) Manoeuvring area
c) None of the above d) Both (a) & (b)
Q102. What is movement area
a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) All of the above
Q103. What is manoeuvring area

a) Runway b) Taxiway c) Apron d) Both (a) & (b)
Q104. BMA is located in which part of the airport

a) Landside b) Airside c) Departure side of T.B d) Arrival side
Q105. Combination of measures, human and material resources, intended to safeguard civil aviation
against acts of unlawful interference is
(a) Security (b) Safety (c) Screening (d) Profiling
Q106. Categorizing pax into threatening & non-threatening category by way of systematic
observation is
(a) Screening (b) Security (c) Profiling (d) Safety
Q107. When a pax checks-in and collects the boarding pass but does not board the aircraft is
(a) Gate no show pax (b) Off-loaded pax
(c) Transit pax (d) Transfer pax
Q109. In an airport, Apron area is within

(a) T.B (b) Airside (c) ATS (d) Fuel Storage
Q110. The area of an airport and building to which both travelling pax and the non-travelling public
have unrestricted access is known as
(a) Apron (b) Airside (c) T.B. (d) Landside
Q111. The main aim of aviation security is .

(a) Safeguarding civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference (b) Detect crime
(c) Check drug trafficking (d) To maintain law & order
Q112. First Hijacking in India took place?

a) 30th January 1971 b) 24th February 1951 C) 30th January 1931 d) Not yet
Q113. Which step is not taken after Kandahar Hijacking

a) Locked cockpit door b) Deployment of sky marshal
c) Revised contingency plan d) Security of BMA
Q114. Which is not Emerging threat to civil aviation

a) Use of an aircraft as a missile for mass destruction b) Cyber attack
c) Hijacking d) Biological and chemical war
Q115. What are the major threats to civil aviation

a)Hijacking b)Sabotage at airport
c)Sabotage at air navigation facilities d) All of the above
Q116. How many Standard and Recommended Practices are in Annexure – 17, at present ?
a) 95 Standard and 25 Recommended Practices
b) 90 Standard and 35 Recommended Practices.
c) 66 Standard and 18 Recommended Practices
d) 85 Standard and 15 Recommended Practices
Q117. Head Quarters of ICAO is located at
a) Geneva, Switzerland b) New Delhi, India
c) Montreal, Canada d) Chicago, USA
Q118. The Anti Hijacking Act came into existence in the year?
a)1982 b)1987 c) 1944 d)1999
Q119. Which Section of Aircraft Act 1934 empowers Central Government to make Rules under this
Act.
a) Section 5 b)Section 5 A c)Section 10 d)Section 18
Q120. Articles or substances which are capable of posing a risk to health, safety, property
or the ________________________and which are shown in the list of dangerous goods in the
Technical Instructions or which are classified according to those Instructions
a) Passengers b) Aircraft c) Airport d) Environment
Q121. Provision for Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft is referred in which Rule
a)Rule 24 C b)Rule 24 A c)Rule 24 B d)Rule 24
Q122. Who is the president of ICAO

a) Wan ki Moon b) Barrack Obama
c) Mr Roberto Kobeh González d) John Maccem.
Q123. According to which convention the pilot has been given power of law enforcement officer ?
a) Chicago convention 1944 b) Hauge convention 1970
c) Tokyo convention 1963 d) a & c
Q124. Baggage Reconciliation is the duty of ?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airlines
Q125. What is the colour of the sticker for cooling off cargo?

Q126. What is the colour of the sticker for X-BIS screening of cargo?

Q127. Security of Cargo is related to?

a) Airport Operator b) Airlines & Regulated agent c) APSU d) All
Q128. AEP are issued by ……
a) BCAS b) AAI c) APSU d) NONE OF THESE
Q129. SLPC is practice ?

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice
c) a & b d) None of these
Q130. Apron guarding is a duty of ….

A) ASG b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
Q131. Guarding is being done for ……

a) Psychological deterrent b) is to protect the vulnerable points
c) physical deterrent d) all
Q132. Which one is not the aim of terrorists?
a) Publicity b) Discredit the govt.
c) Broaden the base d) To pose as a VIP at airport
Q133. Security of Parked Aircraft is done by.

A) CISF b) AIRLINE c) BCAS d) AAI
Q134. What was the main result of Chicago Convention?

a) Formation of ICAO b) Formation of IATA
c) Formation of IAEA d) a & b

a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited items d) All
Q137. Explain BIPPS
a) Barometric integrated passenger permit system
b) Biometric integrated passenger profiling system
c) Bomb intelligence pick & parcel squad
d) Biometric integrated passenger permit system
Q138. What do you mean by STP

a) Satellite test programme b) Standardise training package
c) Screeners test package d) Security training program
Q139. IGI Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Norma
c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport
Q140. Which is not the duty of Airline Security?

a) Hand baggage screening b) Registered screening
c) Surveillance at BMA d) Reconciliation
Q141. Access point should contain?

a) RT set & communication facility b) Radio for entertainment
c) Magazine to read & relax d) News papers for latest news
Q142. Which is not a duty of BCAS?

A) Planning b) Monitoring c) Guiding d) Training
Q143. J & K Airport falls under which category?

a) Sensitive b) Normal c) Hypersensitive d) Red alert airport
Q144. Operational control on ASG is the duty of..

a) Airport operator b) BCAS
c) Local Police d) CISF
Q145. Protection of employees & airport is the responsibility of?

a) ASG b) NSG c) CISF d) Local Police
Q146. Hijacking mock drill is done by………………..?

a) QRT b) ASG c) NSG d) All the above
Q147. The duty of QRT is ?
a) To avoid the take off of hijacked flightb) To prevent intrusion
c) Quick response at the time of crisis d) All the above
Q148. The transponder code for Hijacking?

a) 7500 b) 7000 c) 1500 d) 2000
Q149. Airport entry permit does not contain ?

a) Photo b) Name of Pass holder
c) Area of Validity d) Permanent address
Q150. Who give 3 degree angle for landing of flight?

a) ILS b) Localizer c) Glide path d) Outer marker
Q151. Which colour ADP is required to drive the vehicle in all area?
a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) None of these
Q152. What do you mean by APSU

a) Airport Security Unit b) Airport Sterile Unit
c) Airport Security Union d) Airport Safety Unit
Q153. Head of ASG at a particular Airport?

a) CASO b) BCAS c) COSCA d) APD
Q154. While receiving bomb threat call what will be the first action?

a) Asking technical question b) intimating to supervisor
c) Intimating to APD d) intimating to CASO
Q155. Check-in passenger not reported to board means that person is?

A) Cancelled passenger b) Deportee
C) Gate no show d) Transit passenger
Q156. Aircraft security is concerned with?

a) APSU b) APD c) CASO d) Airline security
Q157. To cross the runway at non-operational time?

a) Require permission from ATC b) permission not required
c) Permission from CASO d) a & c
Q158. CTX stands for?

a) Complex topographic X-Ray b) Crystal trace X-Ray
c) Computerized tomography X-Ray d) Computerized telescopic X-Ray
Q159. What do you mean by BCAS

a) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Security b) Bureau of Civil Aircraft Safety
c) Bureau of Civil Aviation Security d) Bureau of Central aviation Security
Q160. Which colour pass holder can enter all area of all civil airports?
a) orange & orange C b) purple c) green d) blue
Q161. Which rule belongs to power of pre-embarkation check.

a) Rule 8B of Aircraft Rule 1937 b) Rule 8A of Aircraft Rule 1937
c) Section 8B Aircraft Rule 1937 d) Section 10A Aircraft Rule 1937
Q162. Blue colour pass holder can enter in ?
a) All area except SHA b) All areas
c) Only in operational area d) only till checking area
Q163. The baggage not carried on the same aircraft the pax travels is called
a) Unclaimed baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Transfer baggage d) Unaccompanied baggage
Q164. When you should man access control points
a) Only manned during daylight b) Only manned at night
c) Manned at all times d) Whenever required
Q165. Access Control point should contain?
a) Barrier and Gates b) Only Barriers
c) Only Gates d) Nothing
Q166. Every vehicle, which is running in operational area
a) Need to have light or flag b) no need of light
c) Need not to have ADP d) none of these
Q167. To drive a vehicle in operational area, one needs?

a) ADP b) Driving License
c) Oral permission by AAI d) Recommendation by APD
Q168. How many gates are required for better access control?

a) As less as possible b) More gates are required
c) 10 d) 8
Q169. What is common at every duty post?

a) Barrier b) DFMD c) Standing order d) HHMD
Q170. Mock exercises are done for?

a) Check the preparedness for contingency b) To show more people in uniform at airport
c) It's a duty d) To keep busy force personnel
Q171. The airport are categorized as per their sensitivity

c) Hyper Sensitive d) All of the above
Q172. What are the features are to be checked in PIC

a) Access Gates b) Tally the Photograph
c) Area of operation d) none of the above
Q173. What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

a) Access Gates b) Signature of issuing authority
c) Tally the Photograph d) None of the above
Q174. Categories of people requiring legitimate access
a) Airlines Employee b) Airport Employee
c) Custom Employee d) All of the above
Q175. Security of unattended aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airport operator
c) Airline operator d) None of the above
Q176. Airport employees are authorized to by-pass access control point
a) Whenever they require, after disclosing their agency.
b) They don’t need to show any authority while on duty.
c) They need to display PIC/Temporary pass
Q177. Access control to the airport is the responsibility of

a) Airport operator b) Airlines
c) APSU/ ASG d) BCAS
Q178. Access control to the Aircraft is the responsibility of

a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned Airlines
c) Airport Operator d)None of these
Q179. Light green (C) passes are issued to the

a) Crew members b) Courier service
c) Concessionaries employees
Q180. Airline employees are need not to show their ID card at access control points:

a) whenever they are in uniform B) whenever they are on duty
c) not ever D) on emergency
a) one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
d)Totally different
183. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
c) Both the above
d) None of above

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing b)In carryon baggage or checked in baggage
c)None of above d) both a & b

a) Ticketing of the passenger
b)Provides security control for Cargo
d)approved by COSCAQ
186. Passenger profiling is
a) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents b)Both of above
c) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents d) None of the above.
Q187. The movement area of an airport, adjacent terrain and building or portions thereof , access
to which is ______ is called
a)Restricted b) control c) Prohibited d) Controlled
Q188. An aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for _________services such as Agriculture,
construction, photography, surveying, observation and patrol, search and escue, and aerial
advertisement
(a) mentioned (b) nominated (c) Specialised (d) concerned
Q189. A parked aircraft which is under _________ sufficient to detect unauthorized access

a) observation b) surveillance c) recommendation d) notice
Q190. A communicated threat, _________or otherwise, which suggests, or infers, whether true or
false that the Safety of an aircraft in flight or on the ground, or any airport or civil aviation facility or
any person may be in danger from an explosive or other item or device.
a) conveyed b) informed c) intimated d) anonymous
Q191. Food, beverages, other dry stores and associated ___________ used on board an aircraft.

a) instruments b) personnel c) equipments d) items
Q192. The process of reporting to an aircraft operator for _____________ on a particular flight.
a) loading b) acceptance c) boarding d) entry
Q193. A passenger who fails to respect the rules of conduct at an airport or on board an
aircraftor to follow the ___________ of the airport staff or crew members and therebydisturbs the
good order and discipline at an airport or on board the aircraft. Personal property of passengers or
crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the operator is called
(a) Instructions (b) guidelines (c) issuance (d) statements
Q194. The landside of an airport is defined as

a) the area in front of the passenger terminal where passenger get off an aircraft.
b) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has free access.
c) that part of runway where an aircraft lands.
d) that part of an airport and building to which the non-travelling public has controlled
access.
Q195. Access control points are located

a) terminal building
b) only at the cargo complex
c) only at vulnerable points
d)within a building, such as a terminal and on the perimeter of airport boundary
Q196. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft is that of the following

a) airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) airport security screening staff
c) trained airline security and engineering staff. d) Trained Crew members
Q197. Main Components of an IED are

a) weapon, explosive, dangerous article and dangerous substance
b) explosive, detonator, mechanism and battery/power source.
c) ignition, incendiary material and mechanism
d) None of above
d) All of above
Q199. Baggage of passengers______ to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the aircraft of
another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.
a) required b) subject c) mentioned d)permitted
Q200. Ultimate authority for airport entry passes are

a) APSU/ASG b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport operator
Q201. On the basis of colour, passes can be divided in to

a) six b) five c) seven d) Eight
Q202. Colour code of the PIC’s indicate

a) Organization of the holder b) Area of validity
c) Rank of the holder d) None of these
Q203. A passenger can access to the airport from the

a) Vehicle gate of the airport b) Entrance to the terminal
c) From any entrance to the airport d) None of these
Q204. Who has Authority to access departure & arrival Hall of the terminal by ID card issued by
Parliament secretariat
a) Employees of the parliament b) Honourable Member of parliament
c) Security staff of the parliament d) Embassy personnel
Q205. Temporary pass (paper pass) without photograph issued for the period of

a) Not more than a month b) For one day
c) Not more than three days d) For three Month
Q206. PIC’s are issued by BCAS only after

a)Recommendation of the airport operator B) Background checks of the applicant
c) On individual’s request D) Recommendation of ASGQ
Q207. Features of an AEP’ doesn’t include

a) Holder’s name b) Name of the organization
c) Father’s name of the holder d) Designation of holder
Q208. As per BCAS guidelines honourable Member of Parliament

a) Can have access up to arrival and departure hall of terminal on their ID card.
b) Can have access up to boarding gate of the terminal on their ID card.
c) Can have access up to the entry gate of the aircraft on their ID card.
Q209. Orange (C) passes are issued to the

a) Concessionaries b) Crew members
c) Courier service d) Cargo employees
Q210. As per latest circular of BCAS contractors’ labour can have access at airport with the Authority
of
a) Metal Token only b) Bar coded Labour photo pass.
c) Entry ticket only. D) Paper pass only
Q211. Vehicle permits for operational/emergency/Maintenance purposes is normally issued by
a) DGCA b) BCAS
c) Airport operator d) None of these
Q212. At an airport, Airside vehicle access control point are manned by

a) Airport operator b) ASG/APSU
c) Immigration/Custom d) Local police
Q213. Secondary ladder point check is the responsibility of the

a) ASG/APSU b) Concerned airlines
c) Regulated agent d) Airport operator
Q214. Large area required to be secured for the screening concept

a) Holding area plan b) Concourse plan
c) Boarding gate plan d) Security hold Area plan

a)one related to ICAO and another is with MCA
b)Both are same
Q216. As per the national civil aviation policy the functions of all civil airports ATC’s under
the jurisdiction of
a) BCAS b) Airline operator
c) Airport authority of India d) Indian Air force
218. Authority to drive a vehicle in the operational area (Airside) is

a) Airport entry permit b) Vehicle permit
c) Airside Driving Permit d) Driving license
Q219. AEP’s for Airport employees are issued for the purposes of

a) whenever they wants to visit b) for official duty
c) none of above d) Both a & b
220. Security of the Aircraft is the responsibility of the

a) Airport operator b) BCAS c) Aircraft operator d) ASG
Q221. The commissioner may, for reasons to be recorded in writing detain an aircraft
c) Both the above
Q222. passenger profiling is
a) Observation of passenger, baggage and documents.
b) Checking of passenger, baggage and documents.
c) None of the above.
d) Both a & b
Q223. the designated area of an airport used to takeoff/landing of an aircraft is
a) Land side b) Airside c) Runway d) taxiway
Q224. connecting way between runway and apron is called

a) Land side b) Airside c) Apron d) Taxiway
Q225. Personal property of passengers or crew carried on an aircraft by agreement with the
operator
a) Baggage b) Airside c) Apron d) taxiway
Q226. which is not the responsibility of BCAS

a) Planning b) Evaluation
c) Training d) Anti hijacking duties
Q227. Which is not the responsibility of ASG

a) Anti hijacking duties b) Anti sabotage duties
c) patrolling and guarding d) advisory
Q228. which is not the responsibility of Airline Operator?

a) Security of catering supplies b) security of cargo
c) Security of registered baggage d) Communication facilities
Q229. Which is not the responsibility of Airport Operator?

a) Provide infrastructure b) Administration of the airport
c) Passenger facilitation d) Security of BMA
230. All the ground space and facilities provided for aircraft maintenance is known as:
a) AMA (Aircraft Maintenance Area) b) Aircraft Stand
Q231. Which of the following is not an ingredient of Hijacking

a) Hijacker should be on board in aircraft
b) Lawfully exercises the control of the aircraft
c) Use of force, threat of force and aims other form of intimidation
d) Unlawfully taking the command of the aircraft from the Pilot-in- command
Q232. Baggage which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same aircraft
with the person to whom it belongs.
a) Transfer baggage b) Unidentified baggage
c) Unclaimed baggage d) unaccompanied baggage
Q233. Which one is not a component of ASG

a) Anti Hijacking Group b) Support Group
c) Protection Group d) Anti Sabotage group
Q234 Which of the following is not an essential component of vehicle permit

a) Name of the agency b) Approved airside safety status
c) Permit serial number d) Photo of the vehicle
Q235 Which of the following is an essential component of an AEP

a) Photo of the holder b) Identification mark of the holder
c) Permanent address of the holder d) None of these
Q236 which of the following is an airside land side boundary
a) Access gates b) Terminal building
c) Perimeter wall d) All the above
Q237 The main aim of access control points are:

a) To control the movement of people from land side to airside
b) To control the movement of vehicle from land side to airside
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
Q238 Which of the following should not be practiced by a security person:

a) Being too familiar with staff b) Effective permit control
b) Both a & b d) None of these
Q239 The airside of an airport is defined as

a) The part where travelling and non travelling public have unrestricted access
b) Movement area of an aerodrome, adjacent terrain, building and portion thereof access to
which is controlled
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q240. Which of the following is an appropriate answer for access control points
a) Manned during day light time only b) Manned only at night
b) Manned all the time d) None of these
Q241. For operational reasons who can move from landside to airside without security check
a) APD b) COSCA c) Local Police d) None of these
Q242. What are the points which should be maintained in access control point log
a) Status of the equipment b) Records of the incident
c) Both a and b d) Contact number of other agencies
Q243. An aircraft approaching the airport is or is suspected to in such trouble that there is danger of
an accident is known as
a) Aircraft accident b) Full emergency
c) Local stand by d) VVIP stand by
Q244. A white colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport
a) Only at SHA b) Only in operational area
c) All area of a particular airport d) None of these
Q245. Blue colour AEP holder can be allowed in which area of the Airport

a) In operational area only b) All area of mentioned airport except SHA
Q246. Which of the following does not have Orange AEP

a) COSCA b) DG/CISF c) ADG/APS d) DC/airport
Q247. What are the important points that need to be checked when a catering hi-lift vehicle is
entering airside
a) Seals and tags should be intact b) Escorted by airline security
Q248. The main function of localizer is
a)To give mid path of the runway to the aircraft landing
b)To give guidelines to the pilot
c)Both a and b
d)None of these
Q249. What is ARP
a) It is a reference point of the airport b) It is a brand
Q250. Which of the following is not a part of the ILS

a) LLZ b) Glide path c) Both a and b d) marshalling
Q251. What is the prescribed position of the lights used at perimeter

a) Focusing out b) Focused at duty points
c) Very dim d) None of these
Q252. What is the punishment for hijacking as per the Anti hijacking Act 1982
a) Life imprisonment and fine b) Death sentence
c) Only fine d) Both a and b
Q253. Which of the following is not a part of act of unlawful interference

a) Disrupting communication facilities b) Communication of false information
c) Unlawful seizure of aircraft on groundd) Flight having technical problem
Q254. Who is responsible to check whether checklist of aeroplane search procedure is followed

a) Airport operator b) Security agency
c) Airline operator d) All the above
Q255. All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and non-scheduled air transport
is known as
a) Military aviation b) General aviation
Q256. In interline baggage transfer, baggage of passenger is transferred from

Q257. In transfer baggage, baggage of passenger is transferred from

Q258. Activity where systematic observation is done for categorization of passenger into threatening

and non-threatening category is
a) Personating b) Profiling c) Counselling d) None of these
Q259. Measures adopted to safeguard international civil aviation against act of unlawful

interference is
a) Security b) Security Audit
c) Safety Control procedures d) Safety Management system
Q260. Which of the following is not a suspicious sign of a passenger

a) Frequent visit to loo b) Person sitting in isolation
c) Avoiding eye contact d) None of these
Q261. What will be the course of action when you notice suspicious sign on a passenger during
profiling:
a) Notify supervisor b) Deep observation
c) Both a and b d) Arrest the passenger
Q262. Why courteous behaviour is required at airports

a) High strata of people travel through the airports
b) Passengers expect for good behaviour because they have paid a good amount
c) Both a and b
d) No need of courteous behaviour
Q263. Which of the following is not a responsibility of CASO

a) Deployment of security staff b) Convening APSC
c) Both a and b d) He will be the chair person of the BTAC
Q264. SLPC is carried out by
a) Airport operator b) ASG c) Airline security d) IATA
Q265. What are the additional security measures adopted by airline security after registered

baggage has been X-Ray screened:
a) Sealing b) Safeguarding
c) Escorting up to Aircraft d) All the above
Q266. What are the essential components of Incendiary Device

a) Fuzzy match box b) Incendiary chemicals
Q267. BCAS is a
Q268. Access control system can be

a) Automatic b) Manual c) Automatic and manual d) None
Q269. Typical external control point will contain

a) Control equipment b) Communication system
c) Search equipment d) All of the above
Q270. States of equipments and records of incidents will be maintained in

a) Access control point log b) Beat book
c) Personal diary d) None of the above
Q271. Airport workers are required to use control points

a) Whenever they enter restricted area b) Only when they are off duty
c) Only if they do not have a permit d) None of the above
Q272. Airline employees are authorized to by-pass access control points

a) whenever they are in uniform b) whenever they are on duty
c) whenever they are willing to do so d) Never
Q273. Access control points are located in

a) Within building b) At cargo complex
c) At vulnerable points d) All of the above
Q274. Airport Rules for vehicle apply to security staff
a) At all times b) At all times except when they are on patrol
c) At all time except on emergency d) None of the above
Q275. When moving airside in a vehicle, it is necessary to use the hazards warning lights
a) Only at poor visibility b) When crossing runway
c) Only at night d) At all the times
Q276. Name the documents on basis of which a person is allowed to access in terminal Building
a) PIC b) Visitor ticket c) Valid travel documents d) All of the above.
Q277. What points to be checked in AEP for people

a) Photograph & name b) Airport & expiry date
c) Signature of issuing authority & holder d) All of the above features
Q278. Name the areas of vehicle to be checked for prohibited items

a) Interior & chassis of vehicle b) Engine compartment
c) Trunk or boot d) All of the above
Q279. Vehicle can be searched by

a) Trolley mirror b) Physical checking c) Explosive detector d) All of the above
Q280. What will you check is vehicle pass

a) Vehicle registration number b) Name of organization
c) Valid area & gate to be used d) All of the above
Q281. Searching of vehicle entering into airside is done for

a) Weapon & explosive b) Drugs & contrabands
c) Excess cash d) None of the above
Q282. Fire to structure & building at an airport is the example of emergency

a) Involving aircraft b) Not involving aircraft
c) Natural calamity d) Medical emergency
Q283. Is it necessary to take permission from ATC while crossing runway

a) Sometimes b) Never
c) Necessary when flight is in operation d) Necessary at all the time
Q284. It is necessary to check Pass of all the staff entering terminal building
a)Sometime b)All the time c)When not on duty d)None of these
Q285. A person has to go to security hold area, which type of pass is permitted
a) Navy blue b)Purple c)Brown d)white
Q286. Colour of transferable pass(PIC) is

a) Orange b) Blue c) Brown d) white
Q287. Passes for people are issued by

a) ASG b) Airport Operator c) BCAS d) DGCA
Q288. Vehicle permit are issued by

a) Local police b) BCAS c) DGCA d) Airport Operator
Q289. Temporary vehicle permit is valid up to
a) 5 yes b) 3 yrs c) 2 yrs d) 1 yrs
Q290. Photo identity card is coded into ------- colour

A) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
Q291. A Person having Green PIC will gain access to

a) Departure of T.B. b) In T.B.
c) In all area d) Departure check-in and arrival area upto segregation of T.B
Q292. Vulnerable Point at airport includes

a) All area of airport b) Parking c) Service road d) ATC
Q294. Typical permit wouldn't contain

a) Address of the holder b) Validity of period
c) Photograph of the holder d) name of the holder
Q295. Who are not authorized to enter into operational area?

a) AAI Employees with valid pass b) Brown and Green Colour Pass holder
c) Permanent visitor with valid pass d) White colour pass holder
Q296. AEP stands for airport Entry Pass

a) Aviation Examination Procedure c) Airport Entry Pass
b) Aircraft Entrance Procedure d) None of these
Q297. ADP stands for :
a) Airfield Driving Permit c) Anti Doping Procedure
b) Airside Driving Plan d) Advance Departure program
Q298 BMA stands for :
a) Baggage Makeup Area c) Baggage Maintenance Area
b) Baggage monitoring Area d) All the above
Q299. LTPE stands for :
a) Low Temperature Plastic Explosive b) Linear Type Plastic Explosive
c) Long Term Plastic Explosive d) None of these
Q300. Who of the following is authorized to issue AEPS

a) DGCA c) AAI c) BCAS d) ASG
Q301. What are LAGs
a) Liquids Aerosols and Gels c)Both a and b

b) Liquids Acids and Gels d) None of the above
Q302. What are STEBS
a) Security Tamper Evident Baggage b) Security Training Establishment Board
c) Security Trial Evident Baggage d) None of these
q303 What is the latest aircraft launched by Air Bus Company?

a) Air Bus 380 b) Air Bus 320 c) Air Bus 760 d) Air Bus 319
Q304. Which is not the components of APSU?
a) Supporting Unit b) Anti-Hijacking Unit
c) Inter surveillance Unit d) Anti-Sabotage unit
Q305. Baggage Identification is the duty of ?

Q306. How many categories of airports in India?

Q307. Flight IC 814 was hijack from

a) Delhi c) Kathmandu
b) Kandhar d) Amritsar
Q308. Which agency is responsible for secondary ladder point checking
a) ASG c) Airlines
b) Police d) BCAS
Q309. Which of the following AVSEC function is not performed by Airlines security
a) Catering security b)Escorting of security cleared cargo baggage
c) Pre-embarkation security check d)Screening of hold baggage
Q310. who can carry loaded gun in flight

a) PSO of VVIP
b) Sky Marshal
c) SPG Personnel when accompanying SPG Protectee d) Bonafide passenger holding valid
license
Q311. Which is not the feature of vehicle entry permit

a) Registration number of vehicle matches with the vehicle permit
b) Name of organization/agency.
c) Area of validity.
d) tally the photograph
Q312. An access control point have

a) Controlling equipment c) Controlling equipment
b) Communication systems d) All of the above
Q313. Profiling is a systematic observation to

a) To identify the person c) to recognize the person
b) To categorize the person d) None of the above
Q314. ASG took over the charge of Jaipur airport on

a)04-04-2003 b)03-02-2000 c) 01-04-2000 d)None
Q315. Which is Hyper sensitive airport

a) Dimapur c) Lucknow b) Shilong d) Agartala
Q316. Which is Sensitive airport
a) Delhi c) Ahmedabad b) Varanasi d) hyderabad
Q317. When did India become a contracting state of ICAO

a) On 1StMarch 1947 c)On 7ThDecember 1944
b) On 10ThMay 1984 d) On 4Th April 1947
Q318. COE stands for

a) Controller Of Electronics c) Chief Of Explosive
b) Controller Of explosive d) None of these
Q319. EOD stands for :

a) Entry Of Drivers c) Explosive Ordinance Demand
b)Explosive Ordinance Disposal d) All the above
Q320. LED stands for:
a)Lead Entering Door c) Light Emitting Device
b) Light Emitting diode d) All the above
Q321. What is the significance of 24 July 2001 in civil aviation

a)Attack on Colombo airport c)Kandhar incidnet
b) on Chennai airport d) None of the abobe
Q322. Which organization carries Security Audit of Airports Internationally

a) BCAS c) ACI
b)ICAO d) IATA
Q323. Doc 9691 of ICAO refers to

a)Manual on Volcanic Ash, Radio Active Material and Toxic Chemical Clouds
b)Manual on Airport Security
c)Manual on Aircraft Security
d)None of these
Q324. What are total no. Of ICAO Annexes

a)15 b)16 c)17 d)18
Q325. “Principles which apply to equipment design, certification, training and operations and which
seek optimum interface between the human and other system components by proper consideration
to human performance” are called
a) Human Factor Principles b) Equipments Design Principles
c) Security Training Principles d) Human Performance principles
Q326. What are MRTDS

a ) Machine Readable Travel Documents b) Memory Readable Text Documents
c) Memory Reset Text Device d) None of these
Q327. Select weapons in the given items?

a) Grenade b) Scissors
c) Starter Pistol d) knife with blade of 4"
Q328. In what colour explosive will be seen in X-BIS image ?

a) Green b) White c) Orange d) opaque
Q329. On how many things, the profiling is done?

a) One b) Three c) Six d) seven
Q330. PEC is the practice.

a) Recommended practice b) Standard Practice c) a & b d) None of these
Q331. Boeing Company belongs to which country?

a) America b) Britain c) Germany d) Russia
Q332. You should not do, when you find a suspicious person?

A) Keep under observation b) Inform the supervisor
c) Alarming the passenger d) Documents profiling
Q333. What is Blue Dart ?

A) Travel Agency b) Cargo Company
c) cargo flight operator d) All the above
Q334. Components of APSU?

A) One b) Three c) Four d) seven
Q335. Which is not suspicious sign of a person?

a) Feeling fear b) Posing as VIP
c) Deep observation of security personnel d) Following procedures
Q336. Gelatin is in form of . . .

a) Slurry b) Liquid c) Stick d) paste
Q337. Safety fuse comes under which category?
c) Dangerous articles d)Explosives
Q338. Chisels come under which category?

a) Weapon b) Dangerous substances c) Dangerous articles d) Explosives
Q339. Security staff on duty may cross a runway:

a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care.
b) only when the runway is clear.
c) only after clearance from ground control or the Air Traffic Control Tower.
d) Above all
Q340. Passenger can carry liquor in aircraft?

a) From Duty free shops at airport b) Purchase from anywhere
c) can’t carry at all d) a & b
Q341. What this word BLR denotes to?

a) PORT blare b) Bangalore c) Bombay d) CAN'T say

(a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile (c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella
Q343. Which is electronic gadget is used for surveillance ?
a) Radio Set b) CCTV c) Biometric Devices d) Passive infrared
Q344. Which is not a suspicious sign of passenger?

a) Nervous behaviour b) luring others
c) First & last passenger d) Reporting in time
Q346. Which is not the way to conceal the prohibited item?

a) Disguise b) Dismantle c) Camouflage d) In suitcase
a) Narcotics b) Contraband items c) Prohibited items d) All above
Q348. Nitro-glycerine is ……………………….explosive?

a) Liquid b) Plastic c) Solid d) Not an explosive
Q349. What is physical form of CORDTEX?

A) Slurry b) Liquid c) Cord d) paste
Q350. Types of explosives?
Q351. What is the Natural colour of RDX?

Q352. If a person is denying to be frisked - What is the course of action?

a) Let him go for board b) No search No fly
c) Use force d) Frisk as a formality
Q353. What will be the course of action when you get an unattended baggage?

a) Deposit it to APM b) don't touch
c) Lift and Screen it d) Open and look inside for dangerous articles
Q354. The alert status put on place at the time of crisis?
a) High alert b) Red alert c) Bomb Alert d) None of these
Q355. What is your action if you find Explosive inside the bag while screening?
a) Ask the passenger, why he carrying that
b) Allow passenger to board
c) Stop the conveyor & inform supervisor
d) Remove the article and leave the passenger
Q356. Match box comes under

a) Explosive b) Incendiary
c) Dangerous substances d) weapon
Q357. How many types of detonator available?

Q358 Prohibited items are classified/divided into

a) 4 categories b) 3 categories
c) 6 categories d) 9 categories
Q359. Weapons are designed primarily to -
a) Kill b) Injure c) Incapacitate & Immobilize d) All of the above.

a) five b) five c) FIF d) FIFE
a) NI-NE b) NINET c) NIN d) NIN-er

Q363. Which is the appropriate word stands for I in RT communication?
a) Intelligent b) Indigo c) Infinite d) India
Q364. Ketone comes under which category of prohibited item ?


a) Generator b) Detonator
c) Cross Piece d) CTP
Q366. A passenger can carry any liquid item not more than

a) 10 Mltrs b) 100 Mltrs
c) 1000 Mltrs d) 10000 mltrs
Q367. Size of Kirpan is
a) 6” b) 3” c) 9” d) 8”

a) Knife b) Lighter c) Book d) Blade
Q369. An item a passenger cannot carry in his hand baggage

a) Knife b) Lap top
c) Walking stick d) Mobile
Q370.The switch mechanism are classified into

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 1
Q371. Pyro technique is a switch mechanism of

a) Anti handling switch b) Delay Mechanism
c) Command d) ambient
Q372. Which comes in the category of prohibited articles?

a) Starter pistol b) Mobile
c) Lap top d) Folding umbrella
Q373. Kirpan of 6 inches blade is permitted to a Sikh passenger to be carried in

a) Any flight operated from India b) Any registered aircraft in India
c) In fully domestic flight in India. d) None of these
Q 374. Prohibited items are
a) Not permitted to be carried while entering an airport.
b) Not permitted to be used while aircraft in flight
c) Not permitted to be carried on board an aircraft.
d) all of the above
Q375. Most important measures to prevent weapons, explosives and other dangerous devices from
being introduced in an aircraft
a)Background checks of the employees working at airport
b)Documents checking of the passengers
c)Screening of passengers and carry on baggage
d)By profiling of passenger
Q376. Immediate Action which is not required on detection of prohibited item during physical
inspection
a) remain calm and do not panic b ) allow the passenger to board the aircraft
c) Notify the supervisor d) none of these

a) In a vehicle, on the person or in clothing
b) In carry on baggage or checked in baggage
c) Both the above
Q378. Starter Pistol is an example of

c) Dangerous Substance d) None of these
Q379. Realistic replica of a gun carried by a child will be treated as

a) Weapon b) Dangerous Substance
c) None of these d) Dangerous article
Q380. What is the Natural colour of PETN?

a) White b) Pale yellow
c) Green d) white/black
Q381. Nuckles falls under which category of prohibited item

c) Dangerous Substance d) explosive

a) Prisoner b) Airport users
c) Employee d)None of the above
Q383. Which one is not a primary effect of a high explosive explosion:

a) Blast effect b) Fragmentation
c) Translation d) Water soak
Q384. Which one is not a method of concealment of an explosive:

a) Trafficking b) Disguised
c) Dismantled d) Camouflaged
Q385. Articles which can be used to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize the target but it is not
primarily design to do so, known as:
a) Weapon b) Dangerous articles
c) Dangerous substances d) None of these
Q386 An article looking like a knife but it is made of wood, what will be the course of action when
you detect such item:
a) Will be removed b) Local police should be informed
c) Supervisor should be informed d) Both a & c
Q387. To use electrical detonators which of the following is essential

a) Match box b) Friction
c) Power source d) None of these
Q388. Detonators are used in which kind of explosives
a) Pyrotechnic b) Low explosive
c) High explosive d) Both a & c
Q389. Which of the following is not used to detect explosives

a) EVD b) ETD
c) Thermal imager d) None of these
Q390. PEK stands for
a). Plastic Explosive Kirkie b) Power Electrode Kirkie
Q391. Light sensitive switch is a kind of

a) Remote control switch b) Ambient condition switch
c) Anti handling switch d) None of these
Q392. Which among the following is the principle on which the explosive detectors function
a) Specificity b) Sensitivity c) Selectivity d) All the above
Q393. Which among the following, is the sensitivity of the EVD

a) Min 5 gms b) Min 10 gms c) Min 15 gms d) Min 2.5 gms
Q394. How much time EVD will take for analysis of a sample
a) 3 sec b) 2 sec c) 2.5 sec d) 5 sec
Q395. To detect the explosive through ETD, the sample collection will be made from
a) Surface wipe for trace particle b) Box of explosives
c) A piece of explosive d) None of the above
Q396. Explosive are –
a)Chemicals c) Liquid Chemicals
b)Solid chemicals d) All above
Q397. A pax is trying to carry weapons in hand baggage by making it in small parts-the method is
known as
a) Disguised b) Dismantled c) Camouflaged d) improvised
Q398 IED stands for.
a) Improvised Explosive Device b) Incendiary Exp. Device
c) Improvised Explosive Detonator d) Improvised Electric device
Q399. Sound sensitive type of mechanism is a type of

a)Delay mechanism c) Remote Control
b)Anti handling d)Ambient switch
Q400. Clock is used as switch in which type of mechanism

a) Anti handling c) Ambient b)Remote control d) Delay mechanism
Q401. In detonator which type of explosive is used

a)High c) Incendiary
b)Low d) Both Low and High explosive
Q402. Sound sensitive switch is a type of

a) Ambient c) Delay b)Remote d) Anti-handling
Q403. What is physical form of TNT?
a) Crystalline b) Paste c) Jelly d) block
Q404. Original colour of TNT?
Q405. light sensor is related to which switch mechanism

a) Anti handling c) Ambient b)Remote d) delay
Q406. Which is not the effect of explosion

a)Blast pressure effect c) Translation Effect
b)Thermal effect d) Lightening Effect
Q407. A Toy gun carried by an adult will be treated as

a) Dangerous Article c) Dangerous Substance
b) Weapon d ) None of these
Q408. An item is controlled by clapping it comes under which kind of the mechanism

a) Remote control c) Delay Mechanism
b) Ambient condition d) Anti handling
Q409. What is the colour RDX on visual inspection

a)White c) Green b)Pale orange d) None of these
Q410. What amount of high explosive can be sustained by Simulation Chamber

a) 10 Kgs of RDX c) Both a & b
b) 5 Kgs of TNT d) Cannot with stand the blast
Q411. What is the identification no. Of electric detonator

a)No. 28 c) No. 32 b)No.30 d) No. 33
Q412. The qualities of high explosive are

a) Non-hygroscopic b) Safe to handle
c) To be detonated with detonating waves d) All of the above
Q413. Actual flight condition are made in –

a) Cooling pit c) Cock-pit of aircraft b) Simulation chamber d) Bomb blanket
Q414. TATP is an example of

a)Weapon c) Liquid explosive
b) Dangerous article d) Dangerous substance
Q415. Nun-chacks falls under which category?


Q417. In PEK the word K stands for ……………….?

a) Knife b) Kirkie c) Keton d) None of these
Q418. Which one of the following is an example of explosive
a)Detonator c) Rifles
b)Tear Gas d) acids
Q419. An IED can be conceal

a)In hand baggage c) On person
b) In registered baggage d) All the above
Q420. Which is not the advantage of an EVD

a) Quick result c) Detect all kinds of explosive
b) Light weight easy to carry d) Convenience for pax
Q421. Which is not the advantage of an ETD

a) Quick result B) Detects explosives up to nano gram
c) Detects all kind of explosive D) Scan the object easily
Q422. Types of switches/mechanism that can be used to blast an IED

a)One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q423. All acids fall under which category of prohibited item

a)Weapon c) Dangerous article
b)Explosive d) Dangerous Substance
Q424. Color of SEMTEX is

a) Pale orange c) Black b)Red d) All the above
Q425. Crackers falls under which category of prohibited item

a) Weapons c) Dangerous article
b) Explosives d) Dangerous Substance
Q426. DMNB is a compound used for

a) Marking of explosives c) Searching of explosive
b) Detecting of explosives d) All the above
Q427. Chamber which creates equal pressure and real journey situation of the flight?
a) Personnel chamber b) Sterile chamber
c) Simulation chamber d) a & b
Q428. How many rings of protection are there?

Q429. What is the outer ring of protection?

a) Perimeter b) Windows of terminal Building c) Apron d) None of these
Q430. Which is not a medical emergency in aviation?

a) Collapsed person b) Injured in Tsunami
c) Delivery of new born d) Communicable DISEASE
Q431.The main aim to search the SHA is………………..?

a) To sterile the area b) Look for left out baggage
c) to find Narcotics d) To check cleanliness
Q432. The emergency, which is involved with aircraft?
a) New born b) Sabotage c) Fire on T.B. d) None of these
Q433. Which is not a medical emergency?
a) Sudden death b) Collapsed person c) New Born d) illness
Q434. Emergencies involving aircraft
c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) All of the above
Q435. Emergencies not involving aircraft

c) Unlawful seizure of an aircraft while on ground d) Fire in structure
a) Delivery of new born b) Communicable diseases
c) Food poisoning d) terrorist attack
Q437. Which of the following is an emergency not involving the aircraft

a) Hijacking b) Technical problem in nose wheel
c) Terrorist attack at airport d) None of these
Q438. Which of the following is an emergency involving aircraft

a) Hijacking c) Technical problem in nose wheel
b) Terrorist attack at airport d) Both a and b
Q439. Delivery of a new born is a/an

a) Emergency involving aircraft b) Emergency not involving aircraft
c) Medical emergency d) All the above
Q440..Which is the example of medical emergency

a) Sudden death b) Natural disaster
c) Bomb threat d) None of the above
Q441..Airside/landside boundary will comes under

a) Outer ring b) Middle ring c) Inner ring d) Inner middle ring
Q442..Which is in depth security ring of protection

a) Layer of protection b) Centre of protection
c) Rings of protection d) None of the above
Q443. The main aim of patrolling is

a) To check the effectiveness of perimeter wall b) To detect the attacks
c) to help in apprehension d) None of the above
Q444.The main aim of guarding is

a) to check the effective ness of perimeter wall
b) to guard the vital installations
c) to help in apprehension
Q445. How many types of patrolling are there

a) Foot patrolling b) Vehicle patrolling
Q446. Security staff on duty may cross runway :
a) At any time when answering an emergency call, taking reasonable care
b) Only when the runway is clear
c) Only after clearance from ground control or the ATC tower
d) None of these
Q447. The main aim of airport protection system is :

a) To protect airport and aircraft from any attack
b) To give employment to unemployed people
c) To get remuneration
d) None of these
Q448. The main purpose of boundary fencing is :

a) To mark the boundary between restricted and non restricted area
b) To keep cattle and livestock of the runway
d) All the above
d) All the above
Q450.What is the main objective of security patrolling at the airports

a) Ensure effectiveness of physical barriers
b) Respond quickly to attacks and attempted attacks
c) Deter and prevent unauthorized access
d) All the above
Q451. Which one of the following is one of the objective of security guarding at the airports
a) Protect vulnerable areas/vital airport facilities
b) Security of Registered Baggage
c) Second ladder point checks
d) Pre-flight, Anti – sabotage check of the aircraft
Q452. What security measures must be taken for guarding unattended aircraft in flight
a) Aircraft parked in a well – lit area
b) All external doors are locked
c) Stairs and steps in the vicinity of aircraft are moved away and immobilized
d) All the above
Q453. To provide extra protection to a building, doors have to be locked. Name two other parts of a
building above ground that need to be locked or fixed in a closed position
a) Windows b) Roof sky lights
c) Ventilation openings d) All of the above
Q454. How can Non-restricted and Restricted Areas separation be achieved

a) Provision of physical barriers such as fences
b) Use of buildings and natural obstacles
c) Limiting authorized access to controlled gates and designated access points
d) All the above
Q455. What are designated areas to be patrolled
a) Apron and the baggage make up area b) Cargo complex
c) Airport boundary and outlying vulnerable points d) All the above
Q456. Which among the following procedures is/are for parked aircraft for normal conditions
a) Security person guarding the aircraft ensure only authorized people, are allowed onboard
b) Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in the vicinity
c) Both a and b
Q457. The operation and protection of an aircraft is generally accepted responsibility to be which of
the following agencies?
a) The airline operating the aircraft b) The airport security unit
c) The local police and military unit d) None of the above
Q458. Responsibility for searching the interior of an aircraft entrusted to which of the following
agencies ?
a) Airport security personnel guarding the aircraft b) Airport security screening staff
c) Trained airline security and engineering staff d) All the above
Q459. Which among the following precautions should be taken by airline personnel to protect
parked and unattended aircraft
a) Ensure that aircraft are parked in a well lit area of the airport
b) Stairs and loading bridges are removed
c) All external doors are locked
d) All the above
Q460. Which among the following tasks a security guard should undertake, when guarding an
aircraft?
A) Ensure means of access removed
b) Challenge unauthorized persons approaching the aircraft
c) Conduct periodical random visual checks of the aircraft
d) All the above
Q461. Which among the exterior locations of an aircraft that airport security personnel should

visually examine when they are guarding an aircraft
a) Under carriage wells and wheel assembly b) Fuel intake panels
c) Engine access panels d) All the above
Q462. In an airport, Isolation Bay is used for?

a) An aircraft that has developed technical problems
b) An aircraft with a passenger suffering with contagious diseases
c) The Hi-jacked aircraft
d) An aircraft that is ready to take off
Q463. While guarding a parked aircraft if unauthorized access is detected, what course of action

should be done
a) Do not allow the person enter into the aircraft
b) Immediately notify supervisor
c) Notify airline representative
d) All the above
Q464. Physical barriers are used to

a) Separate restricted and non-restricted areas b) Not to allow any person
c) Marking of building d) None of these
Q465. Objective of physical barrier are to
a) Define area b) Delay intrusion
c) Provide access control point d) All of above
Q466. Runways & aprons are protected by

a) Patrolling b) Guarding c) Surveillance d) All of the above.
Q467. Guarding and Patrolling inside the airport is done by

a) Security personal of ASG b) Airline security
c) Airport operator d) Immigration staff
Q468. Airport can be protected by

a) Effective boundary fencing & security lighting
b) Control movement of people &vehicle
c) Boundary protected by physical means
d) All the above
Q469. The main objective of security patrolling

a) Deter & prevent unauthorized access b) Control movement of people & vehicle
c) Protect vital facilities d) None of the above.
Q470. Security guarding is done to

a) Protect vital facilities b)Ensure efficiency of physical barriers
c) Detect attacks & attempted attacks d)None of the above
Q471. Outer protection ring contain

a) Building, fencing& lighting b) Runway and apron
c) Airport d) None of these
Q472 .Basic difficulties in protection airport are

a) 24 hrs operation b) Multi agencies are working
c) Non-cooperation of passengers d) All of the above.
Q473. BCAS is a
Q474. A sterile area must be set up

c) Only (a)
Q475. Dangerous goods register at X BIS will contain

a)Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation
b)Make of machine d)None of the above
Q476. Items which are primarily designed to kill, injure, incapacitate or immobilize are –
a)Dangerous substances c) Dangerous article
b)Weapon d) explosive
Q477. The outer ring of protection is the responsibility of

a) ASG b) Airline operator
c) Airport operator d) ASG & Airport Operator
d) All the above
Q479. The landside of an airport is defined as:

A)The area in front of the passenger terminal where passengers get off an aircraft.
B)That part of an airport and buildings to which the non-travelling public has free access.
C)That part of a runway where an aircraft lands.
D)None of the above.
Q480. Which one of the following poses basic difficulty in protecting an airport
a).Large size of the airport and boundary
b).Large number of workers/agencies at an airport
c).24 hour operations
d).All the above
Q481. The main purpose for boundary fencing is

a) To keep cattle and livestock off the runway
b) To mark the boundary between landside and airside restricted areas
Q482. Which vulnerable points in barriers require special protection

a) Places where natural barriers used as boundary
b) Waterways and storm sewers, service ducts
c) Buildings used to form part of boundary
d) All the above
Q483. Typical location of crash-gate at airport is

a)Near T.B. c) Near access control point
b) Anywhere at an airport d) Near runway
a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly
controlled
d) All of the above
Q485. What are the objectives of physical barriers at the airports

a) Define area to be protected
b) Create physical and psychological deterrent
c) Delay intrusion and assist detection/apprehension
d) All the above
Q486. What are the measures taken to secure the airport premises
a) Round the clock patrolling c) Effective access control
b) Effective lighting d) All the above
Q487. The main aim of airport protection system is to protect

a) Airport and Aircraft from attack c) Airport employees
b) Airline employees d) None of these
Q488. Principle of airport protection is
A) Controlling movement of people & vehicle
b) Dividing airport in restricted & non restricted area
c) Preventing penetration to airport boundaries
d) All of the above.
Q489.The integrity of barriers are maintained by

a)Security guards protecting access points b)By foot patrol
c)By mobile patrolling d)All of the above
Q490. In night unattended aircraft can be guarded by

a) Locking external doors b) Removing of stairs & loading bridges
Q491. How many types of patrolling?

Q492. Why patrolling necessary?
A) To prevent penetration b) To protect airline property
c) It is duty of APSU d) formality

Q494. Why BWAF is required?

A) To assess specific and non specific calls b) To assess the Caller
c) To maintain perfect data about the caller d) formality
Q495. Butter sing means

a) Putting Sand bags around the suspected item
b) Putting tarpaulin over the suspected item carefully
c) Opening all the ventilator's around the suspected item
d) Cordoning the area and evacuate all the pax from that area
Q496. Searching of furniture fittings comes under

a) Waist to head level b) Head to ceiling level
c) Floor to waist level d) Floor to head level
Q497. Which is not the part of levels of search

a) Chest to floor level b) Floor to waist level
c) Waist to head level d) None of the above
Q498. BTAC stands for:

a) Bomb Threat Assessment Committee b) Bomb Threat Action Committee
c) Bomb Threat Action Council d)Bomb Threat Addition Committee
Q499. BWAF is a document required for:

a)Access Control b)Taking action for Bomb Threat Contingency
c)Calibration of DFMD d)Minutes of Security Committee Meeting
Q500. Which of the following committee is headed by APD:

a)BTAC b) CCS c) COSAH d) All the above
Q501. Appendix “A” of BWAF is filled by

a) Recipients of the bomb threat call b) By ASG personnel
c) By airline Personnel d) None of these
Q502. Which is not the member of BTAC
(a) CASO (b) WSO of ATC (c) AWO of DGCA (d) COSAH
Q503. Which of the following committee is not empowered to deal with hijacking situation
a) AC b) CC c) COSAH d) BTAC
Q504. Among the following who is the chairman of COSAH

a) Cabinet secretary b) Principal secretary foreign affairs
Q505. DG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
Q50 ADG/CISF is a member of which of the Committees formed to deal with Hijack Situation
Q507. Among the following who is not the member of COSAH

a) Principal secretary to pm b) Secretary Ministry of Defence
c) Secretary Ministry of Home Affairs d) None of these
Q508. The executive authority responsible for dealing with the contingency of hijacking
a) CC b) CCS c) AC d) BTAC
Q509. According to AVSEC Order 9/2001 which of the following procedures can be taken to
immobilize the aircraft
a) Positioning vehicles/fire tenders on the run way
b) Deflating of tires by personnel coming from the rear end
c) Putting off the lights of the runway/taxi way during night
d) All the above
Q510. Who of the following can be a hoax bomb threat caller

a) Prankster c) One who has planted the bomb
b) Besotted lover d) All the above
Q511. A warning that can be regulated to one or more targets but there is doubt about its credibility
or about the effectiveness of existing counter measures
a) Specific call c) Hoax Caller
b) Non specific call d) None of the above
Q512. What actions should be taken by a recipient of the Bomb Threat Call?
a) Interrupt in between the communication when the caller is saying something
b) Listen carefully and note down the important information
c) Do gossip with him and kill time, so that he is engaged for more time
d) None of these
Q513. Which of the following is not an essential component of BTAC at domestic airports
a) APD b) CASO c) Customs and Immigration d) All the above
Q514. Which of the following is not a fact relating to control time in case of fire emergency of the
aircraft.
a) Time between initial attack on fire and reduce the intensity of fire below 90%
b) This time should not exceed more than one minute in the practical critical area
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q515. Which one is not the course of action during forcible seizure of aircraft on ground
a) Aircraft to be cordoned b) Negotiation team should be formed
c) All action to be under one commander d) No need to form negotiation team
Q516. If Hijacking takes place in Chennai this will be treated as

a) National contingency b) Contingency of local area only
c) It is not a contingency d) None of these
Q517. Who of the following can be a genuine bomb threat caller

a) One who has planted the bomb
b) Accomplice of the person who has planted the bomb
c) Both a and b
d) Only a
Q518. Who circulates the draft Bomb Threat Contingency Plan on the basis of which each airport
prepares its own Contingency Plan
a) AAI b) ASG c) BCAS d) None of these
Q519. In case of “Specific” Bomb Threat Call what will be the course of action

a) The aircraft to be moved to IPB
b) ASG will be cordoning the area
c) All registered baggage will be off loaded and kept 100 meter away from aircraft
d) All the above
Q520. Which of the following is an action at the time of high alert

a) 100% physical inspection of the vehicle
b) Deployment of the personnel will be same as normal
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Q521 What are the dimensions of hand baggage allowed at Srinagar Airport
a) 115 cms b) 100 cms c) Both a and b d) No hand baggage
Q522. Sky Marshals can carry arms and ammunition in the Aircraft, concealed on their person, only
by authorization of
a)COSCA b) DG/CISF c)DG/NSG d)DGCA
Q523. Coordinator of BTAC ?

a) APD b) COSCA c) CASO d) COMMANDANT
Q524. The coordinator of BTAC at international airport is

a) APD b) CASO c) AWO d) WSO
Q525. BTAC evaluate the threat with the help of

a) Bomb warning assessment form b) By discussion
c) By majority d) None of the above
Q526. In case of specific bomb threat call, the aircraft has to be shifted to
a) Hanger b) Isolation bay c) New aerobridge d) Away from T.B.
Q527. Which of the following committee deals with hijacking

a) BTAC b) APSC c) COSAH d) All of these
Q528. The airport security committee meets every

a) Month b) Two months c) Three months d) Whenever required
Q529. Permissible size of a hand baggage is

Q530. In following, who is not included as a member of Aerodrome committee in District

headquarter?
a) CASO, b) Airline Representative,
c) District Magistrate, d) Home secretary of state.
Q531. In following, who is not included as a member of Central committee?

a) Secretary of ministry of Civil Aviation, b) Joint Director IB
c) ADG ASG, d) IG (Ops) NSG
Q532. The chairman of aerodrome committee at the airports located in the state capitals
a) Commissioner of police/DGP c) APD
c) Home secretary of state d) CASO
Q533. Who is permitted to carry weapon in their hand baggage

A) NSG personnel c) ASG B) Airline Security d) Sky marshal
Q534. Chief Airport security officer (CASO) is head of

a) Airline security c) BCAS b) ASG/APSU d) DGCA
Q535. Question technique in BTCP formed to know

a) Details of the bomb threat caller b) A bomb threat call specific or non-specific
c) A routine process. d) None of the above
Q536. Committee constituted in India to deal with acts of unlawful interference

a)Clip c)CTCP b)BTCP d) COSAH
Q537. What are the committees to deal unlawful interference with civil aviation
c)AC c) COSAH d)CC d) All the above
Q538. Who will train/designate and certify trainers and examiners authorized to conduct security
training in India
a) BCAS c) COSCA b) DGCA d) CASO
Q539. Which one of the following indicates the role of BCAS in Civil Aviation Security?
A) Advice Government of India on Civil Aviation Security matters
b) To monitor implementation of Civil Aviation Security policy/programme
c)To impart training to all agencies of Civil Aviation
d)All the above
Q540. As per ICAO guidelines what is the recommended height of the perimeter wall
a) 8 feet with 1 and half feet over hang b) 10 feet with 2 feet over hang
c) 9 feet with 3 feet over hang d) 12 feet with 2 and half feet over hang
Q541. In case of specific bomb threat calls who will search the aircraft along with airline engineers

and airline security:
a)ASG Personnel c) BCAS b)BDDS d) All of the above
Q542. The chairperson of group “A” and group “B” Central Committee is

a) DGCA c) APD b )COSCA d) All the above
Q543. What is the response time of fire fighting services in case of any fire emergency of the aircraft
a) 2-3 minutes c) Can take their own time
b)10 minutes d) None of the above
Q544. Accident which has occurred on or in the vicinity of the airport is known as
a) Aircraft accident c) Full emergency
b) Airport accident d) None of these
Q545. Formation of BCAS comes after recommendation of.

a) B N Kripal committee c) B N Krishna committee
b) B D Pandey committee d) Arun Mishra committee
Q546. CCS Stands for………………………..?

A) Constant current supplier b) Cabinet committee of security
c) Cabinet committee of secretaries d) Committee of counsellors for security
Q547. The convener of A.C. at airports located in the state capital

a) CP/DGP b) APD c) Home secretary d) CASO
Q548. The chairman of APSC at an international airport is

a) APD b) CASO
c) Airline Duty Manager d) DGCA
Q549. The chairman of Aerodrome Committee at airports located in the district headquarters
a)CP/DM/dc b) APD
c) SP/DCP d) CASO
Q550. Bomb threat comes under?

c) Pilferage d) Petty crime
Q551. Convener of APSC?

a) APD b) Commissioner of BDDS
c) CASO d) Chief of IATA
Q552. BTAC is convened by
a) APD b) RDCOS
c) COSCA d) BDDS
Q553. Which one is not an immediate action when you receive a Bomb Threat Call
a) Notify supervisor b) Questioning
c) Filling appendix “A” d) None of these
Q554. Which is the convener of International/Domestic Airport security committee

a) Airport Director c) CASO c)RDCOS d) COSCA
Q555. In case of unlawful seizure of an aircraft, Which committee meets at the airport
a) Central Committee c) Aerodrome Committee
b) Airport Security committee d) Secretaries on aircraft hijacking
Q556. Which action is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as specific involving an aircraft
a)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
b)The aircraft is shifted to the isolation bay
c)Check-in and boarding process is to be stopped
d)The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
Q557. Which actions is not taken in case a bomb threat is assessed as non-specific involving an
aircraft
a) The aircraft need not be shifted to the isolation bay
b) Boarded pax to be off-loaded and brought back to the check-in counter.
c) Search of the aircraft to be done by airlines security & Airline engineers
d)Fresh boarding cards to be issued
Q558. Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee at state capital

b) DCP/DM d) APD
Q559. Who is the chairman of Aerodrome committee outside District level

b) DCP/DM d) APD
Q560. To whom pilot gives first information about any crisis

a) AC b) ATC c) CC d) CCS
Q561. Who is not the member of Group –A of CC

a) Joint director, NSG b) Joint director, airport authority of India
c) A senior executive of the affected airlines d) None of these
Q562. Airport staff members who can show that they need to pass the screening point in
performance of their duties:
a) Need not submit to a physical search.
b) Need not pass through the walkthrough metal detector.
c) Have to submit to the same procedure as passengers.
d) Not required
Q563. In boarding gate plan
a) There is separate queue for airlines b) all are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done d) Screening starts at boarding gate
Q564. In concourse plan the screening starts at

a) Main entrance b) at boarding gate
c) After all Clearance d) not related with boarding
Q565 In holding area plan.

a) Separate area for SHA b) All are having the same area
c) Main entrance screening is done d) At boarding gate screening starts
Q566. The plan adopted at Srinagar airport is

a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse plan
c) Holding area plan d) Holding & concourse plan
Q567. Which is concerned with basic screening concept
a) Concourse Plan b) Holding area plan
Q568. How many screening staff required at each XBIS

a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) None of the above
Q569. How many people required for a ideal screening team

a) 5 b) 3
c) 6 d) 4
Q570. Passengers who refuse to be physically searched

a) Are within their rights but must not be allowed on the aircraft
b) Must be physically restrained by the searcher until the police arrive
c) Must be searched very carefully with the hand-held metal detector
d) BCAS must be contacted to tackle such passengers
Q 571. Which one of the following passenger screening concepts / plans is implemented in India
a) Boarding Gate Plan b) Hold Area Plan
c) Concourse Plan d) Both b & c
Q572. Which one of the following is not an advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) More time available
b) To be staffed only during screening
c) Large number of screening staff/ equipments required
Q573. Which one of the following is the advantage of a Boarding Gate Plan
a) To be staffed only during screening b) More time available
c) Less pressure to examine passenger d) All of the above
Q574. Which is the following is not a disadvantage of a Holding Area Plan

a) To be secured when not in use b) Less pressure to examine passenger
c) Large area to be controlled and secured d) All of the above
Q575. What are the different methods of screening of passenger in Sterile Hold Area
a) Physical search of passenger b)X-Ray examination of baggage
c) Physical search of baggage d)All the above
Q576. A sterile holding area located at a boarding gate must be searched at the following times
a) At least 60 minutes before the passengers board the aircraft
b) At the time the passengers start to board the aircraft
c) Immediately before passengers are screened and allowed into the holding area
D) All the above
Q577. The search of a holding area is conducted for the following reasons
a) In response to an airport bomb threat
b) As a routine precaution to detect prohibited items
c) Whenever a high level of threat exists
Q578. One of the recommended levels of search to be used for conducting a search of a holding area
is as follows
a) Search from floor to waist level b) Search from floor to head level
c) Search from waist to ceiling level d) Search from floor to ceiling level
Q579 Which among the following are the don’ts for noticing any suspicious device at terminal
building
a) Don’t handle it b) Don’t touch it
c) Don’t attempt to open the item d) All the above
Q580. The security plan used at airport are

a) Concourse plan b) Holding area plan
Q581. Prescribed procedure for carry out search of building are

a) Flour to waist level b) Waist to head level
c) Head to ceiling level d) All of the above
Q582. Large no of screening staff/equipment are required in

a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse are plan
Q583. The security plan in which screening plan needs to be staffed only during screening is
a) Boarding gate plan b) Concourse area plan
Q584. SHA is secured by

a) Pax Screening & searching b) X-rays & physical checking of baggage
c)Both a & b above d)None of these
Q585. sterility of SHA is maintained by

a). Anti sabotage & access control b). Effective screening of pax
c.) Allowing pax by & goods without search d). Only (a) & (b)
Q586. What action to be taken on finding suspicious items during of search of a building
a) Not to touch b) Marking and informing to supervisor.
c) Both (a) & (b) above. d) Try to open & bring to control room
Q587. A Sterile area must be set up

c) Only (a)
Q588. How many passenger-screening systems are followed in world:
Q589. Passenger screening is mainly needed:

a) to ensure that no unauthorized person passes the landside/airside barrier.
b) to ensure that no prohibited items are carried past the screening point.
c) to ensure that passengers are not allowed on the aircraft unless their baggage has been
checked.
d) All of the above
Q590. Three passenger screening concept are
a) concourse, holding area and boarding gate b) outer , inner and middle protective
c) CTCP,BTCP and Anti hijacking contingency d) None of the above
Q591. In how many colour X-BIS project the image?

Q592. X-RAY moves at the speed of ….

a) Electricity b) light c) Rocket d) wind
Q593. In X-BIS all organic material will be seen in.

Q594. Screener should not monitor the screen at a stretch more than

a) 18min b) 30 min c) 20 min d) 40 min
Q595. What is through put rate of registered baggage?

a) 300 bag / hr b) 400 bag / hr
c) 350 bag / hr d) 450 bag / hr
Q596. There are …………… test in CTP

a)4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 9
Q597. TIP stands for

a) Threat Image Projection b) Threat Item Projection
c) Threat Item Protection d) Three Image projection
Q598. Which is not used in security?

a) HHMD b) RT set c) CCTV d) laptop
Q599. Which is not a benefit of TIP?

a) Motivation b) Immediate feedback
c) Alertness d) acceptance
Q600. At rush hour what will be the course of action when X-BIS does not pass its one of CTP tests?
a) Stop the machine b) Avoid it & work
c) stop the machine & notify supervisor d) none of these
Q601. If a pistol is detected during screening of hand baggage

a) Take action as per local SOP b) Inform BDDS
c) Inform BCAS d) Inform police
Q602. What is the radiation distance from tunnel of X-BIS?

a) 1 cm b) 5 cms c) 15 cms d) 25 cms
Q603. XBIS stands for
a) X-ray Baggage Inspection System b) X-ray screening of baggage
c) X-ray baggage screening system d) X-ray baggage imaging system
Q604. XBIS gives colour to different articles based on
a) Atomic weight b) Density c) Atomic no. d) Weight of material
Q605. CTP stands for

a) Combined test performance b) Combined Test Piece
c) Computer tomography projection d) Comprehensive testing procedure
Q606. Distance between two bags while screening on X-Ray machine should not be less than
Q607. In Thin metal imaging test the thickness of steel should be visible
a) .05mm b) .1mm c) 1 mm d) .01mm
Q608. Threat image projection is installed on X-Ray machine not to

a)To check the individual performance b) To project fictional images
b)To provide training regarding real threat objects d) To check machine efficiency
Q609. SWG stands for

a) Simple Wire Guage b) Single Wire Guage
c) Standard Wire Guage d) Steel Wire Guage
Q610. Which is not the property of X-Ray?

a) It is invisible rays b) It moves in a straight line
c) It is ionizing radiation d) It reflected with lens and prism

a) ensure the inspection tunnel b) ensure the lead curtain
c) ensure all emergency switches d) All of the above
Q612. What are the items which create difficulties during screening

a) Children toys b) Wrapped gifts
c) Urns of human remains d) All of the above

a) Meter b) Roentgen c) Mille roentgen d) None of the above
Q614. Which is the advantage of XBIS

a) High penetration rate b) High resolution
Q615. Which is the requirement of XBIS

a) High penetration rate b) Enable speedy screening
Q616. Which is the specification of XBIS

a) Speed of the conveyor belt should be 18 to 0.3 mtr/sec
b) Convenience to the pax
c) Safe for film food and drugs
Q617. Which is not the inbuilt safety measures of XBIS

a) External housing b) Lead curtain
c) Emergency switch d) None of the above
Q618. Which is the speed of conveyer belt

a) 0.18 mtr/sec. To 0.3 mtr/ sec b) 0.1 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr/ sec
c) 0.18 mtr/sec to 0.2 mtr /sec d) None of the above
Q619. How many feed backs we get in tip
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) None of the above
Q620. Feedback of detected object appears in which colour
Q621. Feedback of missed object appears in which colour

Q622. Feedback of aborted/cancelled object appears in which colour

Q623. Tailored training programme is a benefit of

a) CTP b) TIP c) OTP d) None of the above
Q624. In single wire resolution test which SWG wire should be seen on the Perspex sheet
Q625. In useful penetration test which SWG wire should be seen on the second step wedge
of aluminium
Q626. Multi energy test it discriminate the material as per their

a) Atomic number b) Atomic weight
c) Molecular weight d) None of the above
Q627. Which strip should be seen beneath of 26 mm steel in simple penetration test

a) Pb b) Tn c) Fe d) mg
Q628. In Spatial resolution test the 8 horizontal and 8 vertical gratings should be seen on which plate
a) copper b) Iron c) Nickel d) None of the above
Q629. In thin metal imaging test which mm strip should be seen

a) 0.1 b) 0.05 c) 0.01 d) 1.00
Q630. A advantages of XBIS is

a) Enable speedy screening b) Convenience to the pax
c) Safe for Food d) All of the above
Q631. In Civil Aviation Security X-BIS is used for

a) Screening of a hand baggage b) Screening of a registered baggage
c) Screening of cargo d) All the above
Q632. Which among the following are properties of X-rays

a) Invisible electro-magnetic radiations
b) Does not get deflected when passed through prism
c) Impair or destroy the living cells
d) All the above
Q633. X-BIS is considered to be safe for the following

a) Edible items b) Film and cameras
c) Drugs d) All the above
Q634. As per guidelines of BCAS high resolution of X-BIS is should be

Q635. Detection of all kinds of industrial, military and homemade explosives is a quality, which
comes under which of the following
a) One of the requirements of X-BIS b) One of the properties of X-BIS
c) One of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS d) None of the above
Q636. In X-BIS, what is meant by tip

a) Threat Identification Procedure b) Threat Image Projection
c) Tested and Identified Packet d) Test Identification parade
Q637. In the X-Ray machines “Lead” is primarily used to

a) Absorb radiation b) Detect arms and ammunition
c) Detect explosives d) Increase the “Through-Put”
Q638. PLX falls under which category of prohibited item

c) Dangerous Substance d) Explosive
Q639. Through the use of which one of the following, explosives in the X-Ray baggage inspection
System are detected
a) Camera and Mirror System b) Multi Energy System
c) Single Energy System d) Trace Detector system
Q640. As per minimum technical specifications prescribed by BCAS for X-Ray machine, the speed of
conveyor belt should be?
a) 0.18 to 0.30 mtrs/sec b) 0.18 to 0.30 cm/sec
c) 0.20 to 0.35 mtrs/sec d) 0.15 to 0.25 mtrs/hr
Q641. Pre-operation check of X-BIS is carried to ensure
a) XBIS is working properly b) XBIS will not work without pre-operation check
Q642. In X-Ray Baggage Inspection System, screened item will be identified with
a) The colour and shape of the image b) The photo of the item
c) Colour of the item d) After the physical examination
Q643. If a bag is categorized as doubtful after X-Ray screening, what does it signify?
a) Image is not clear and needs to be physically checked b) The bag is clear
c) The bag has a confirmed threat object d) None of the above
Q644. Name of the test of CTP, in which a lead strip placed between a 26 mm steel is visible
a) Single wire resolution b) Simple penetration
c) Useful penetration d) Spatial resolution
Q645. Colour of the images displayed in X-Ray machine, depends upon the
a) Atomic number of the item b) Density of the item
c) Colour of the item d) Shape of the item
Q646. Which of the following is the advantage of tip

a) Source of motivation for screeners b) Increase alertness
c) Records individual performance d) All the above
Q647. Sensors are one of the inbuilt safety measures of X-BIS, what are the functions of sensors in X-
BIS?
a) External panels
b) Prevent X-Rays from being generated
c) X-Rays are generated only when there is a bag inside the tunnel
Q648. What is the disadvantage of the X-BIS

a) Efficiency depends on human factor b) Only trained staff can operate
c) Very costly d) All the above
Q649. What is the main aim of the screening is

a) To detect weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices
b) To control movement of people
c) To control movement of vehicles
Q650. CTP is conducted to check that
a) XBIS is working properly b) XBIS is working as per BCAS specifications
c) XBIS will not work without CTP d) None of the above
Q651. Tip images are
a) Fictional b) Real c) Both a & b d) None of the above
Q652. Which of the following items may present difficulty during screening
a) Books b) Clothes in bag c) Religious objects d) Water in bag
Q653. The image which is not clear in X-ray monitor

a) Shall not be allowed to carry in hand baggage b) Should be checked physically
c) Pax to be advised to put in registered baggage d) None of the above
Q654. If X-rayed item is obviously a weapon such as a gun
a) Stop the conveyor belt b) Do not stop conveyer
c) Call BDDS d) refer for physical checking
Q655. If the X-ray operator is IN DOUBT, about an object, he/she should
a) Refer the bag for physical inspection b) Stop the conveyor belt
c) Inform the supervisor d)Inform local Polish or BDDS
656 to 666
Q667. In XBIS item which cannot be penetrated by X-ray appears in
a) Blue colour c) Dark orange
b) Black/opaque d) green
Q668. How many colours are displayed in XBIS monitor

a) Green, Blue, Black & Orange c) Green, Black, Purple & Yellow
b) Green, Blue, Black & Purple d) Black, Green, Brown & yellow
Q669. Dangerous goods register at XBIS will contain

a) Dangerous goods checked c) Date of installation
b) Make of machine d) None of the above
Q670. X-Ray machine is safe for……?

a) Food & film b) Human being c) Pacemaker d) pets
Q671. Which among the following is requirements of a X-BIS as per the BCAS guidelines
a) Low false alarm rate
b) Throughput rate not less than 350 bags per hour
c) Should have high penetration of 37 mm steel
d) All the above
Q672. Which among the following items are banned for carriage in passenger- cabin?
a) Mace c) Marshal art device b) Replica of weapon d) All the above
Q673. In X-Ray machines, CTP is used to

a)To test the performance c) To detect dangerous items
b)To detect the Explosives d) To detect a weapon
Q674. What is the colour of RDX when X-Ray examined

a) Orange c) Green b) Blue d) None of the above
Q675. CTP is not used to
a) to test the thickness of steel, the machine about to penetrate
b) to distinguish between material of different atomic no.
c) to test the efficiency of the x-ray screener
d) to insure the machine performance
Q676. How many types of generators are used in X-BIS?

Q677. Color of metals in X-BIS?

Q678. Which one of the following is the properties of X-Ray

a) High detection rate
b)They are invisible
c)Low false alarm
d)Integrated imaging device system
Q679. Low X-Ray dose is belongs to which of the following

a) In –built safety measures c) Requirement of X-ray.
b) Properties of X-Rays d) None of these

Q680. Which among the following may present difficulty to an X-Ray screener while screening
a) Urns containing human remains c) Sword
b) Hockey stick d) Cricket bat
Q681. Minimum amount of metal should detect by DFMD?

a) 35 gms b) 30 gms c) 25 gms d) 20 gms
Q682. Distance from DFMD to person?

a) 90 cms b) 100cms c) 102cms d) 105cms
Q683. The size of the DFMD is

a) 2 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr b) 3 Mtr X .75 to .85 Mtr
c) 2 Mtr X .70 to .80 Mtr d) None of the above
Q684. Threshold mass for DFMD is

a) 10gms b) 20gms c) 30gms d) None of the above
Q685. How many zones are in MZDFMD is
a) Seven b) Eight c) Nine d) None of the above
Q686. DFMD detects

a) Explosives b) Ferrous and Non ferrous metal
c) Non metallic item d) None of the above
Q687. Which is the part of DFMD

a) Transmitter panel b) Lead curtain
c) Lead shielding d) None of the above
Q688. Which is not the part of DFMD

a) Transmitter panel b) Receiver panel
c) Cross piece d) Lead curtain
Q689. Size of OTP is

a) 10cms X 10cms b) 20cms X 10cms
c) 15cms X 15cms d) None of the above
Q690. Weight of OTP is

a) 35gms b) 30gms c) 25gms d) none of the above
Q691. Preparedness of the DFMD is measured with the

a) CTP b) Reference cartridge
c) OTP d) None of the above
Q692. The DFMD resets after
a) 5 Sec b) 3 Hrs c) 3 Sec d) None of the above
Q693. When installing a DFMD, what points must be borne in mind so as to have optimum efficiency
a) At least 10cms away from fixed metallic objects
b) At least 0.5 m to 2 m away from moving metallic objects
c) At least 0.5 m to 4 m from source of electrical interference
d) All the above
Q694. The full form of DFMD is

a) Door Frame Metal Detector b) Door From Metal detector
c) Detect Frame Metal detector d) Detect & Frame Metal Detector
Q695. Acceptable height of DFMD as per BCAS specification is

a) 2 m b) 4 m c) 5 m d) 6 m
Q696. Width of DFMD is
a) 75 cms to 85 cms b) 2 m c) 1 m d) 1.05 m
Q697. DFMD is tested with the help of

a) CTP b) OTP C) CTX d) Swab Paper
Q698. As per BCAS guidelines DFMD is calibrated to detect metal up to

a) 5 gm b) 10 gm c) 15 gm d) 30 gm
Q699. DFMD gives
a) Audio alarm b) Visual alarm
Q700. Control panel and cross piece are found in

a) DFMD c) X-BIS b) HHMD d) EVD/ETD
Q701. When installing a DFMD the distance between two side by side DFMD should be
a) 30 cms c) 35 cms b) 90 cms d) 100 cms
Q702. ‘Sensitivity & Specificity’ is the term associated with

a) XBIS c) DFMD b)HHMD d) ETD/EVD
Q703. The full form of HHMD is

a) Hand Held Metal Detector b) Hand Hold Metal Detector
c) Held Hand Metal Detector d) None of the above
Q704. The minimum detection capacity of HHMD is

a) 5 gm b) 1 gm c) 0.5 gm d) 2 gm
Q705. As per BCAS specification , weight of HHMD should not exceed

a) 250 gm b) 100 gm c) 200 gm d) 500 gm
Q706. The HHMD should be kept ……. Away from Pax body while carrying out frisking
a) 3.5 cms b) 4 cms c) 2.5 cms d) 5 cms

Q707. The main purpose of access control system at airport is
a) To control the movement of pax & vehicle
b) Facilitate Pax
c) Facilitate VIP
d) Control movement of pax and vehicle from landside to airside
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of President

b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for
a subsequent attack
c) Both a and b
Q710. What is the prescribed speed limit of vehicle in Tarmac area(near the aircraft)
(a)30 km/hr (b)20 km/hr (c)15 km/hr (d)5 km/hr
Q711. Arms & ammunition of Advance Liaison Team of SPG personnel is permitted into aircraft
(a)In hand baggage (b)In registered baggage
(c)In both (a) & (b) (d)None of the above
Q712. SARP on security are given in

(a) Annex.18 of ICAO manual (b) Annex.12 of ICAO manual
(c) Annex.17 of ICAO manual (d) Annex.9 of ICAO manual
Q713. Check the battery is fully charge is applicable to
a) DFMD b) HHMD c) X-BIS d) EVD
Q714. ETD detects
a) Metals b) Explosives c) Gases d) None of the above
Q715 ETD detects explosives by
a) Capturing vapour b) Traces particles
c) Density d) None of the above
Q716. The approx weight of EVD is

a) 3Kgs b) 2 Kgs c) 5 kgs d) None of the above
Q717. The approx weight of ETD is

a) 30 Kgs b) 25 Kgs c) 40 kgs d) None of the above
Q718. EDDS Stands for
a)Explosive detection and disposal Squad b)Explosive device detection System
c)Explosive device detection Squad d) Explosive detection device system
Q719. ETD can detect explosive up to
a) 5 gm b) .5 gm c) nanogram level d) 2 gm
Q720 100% physical baggage checking is required

a) For British Airlines flight b) On Threat call
c) Normal time d) Always
Q721. According to threat perception of airports in India, the categories of airport are ?

c) Hyper Sensitive d) All the above
Q722. What are the points to be kept in mind while physical search of baggage of a passenger
a) Always remember that searching is with consent of passenger
b) Be courteous and tactful but also cautious
c) Thank the passenger for their cooperation
d) All of the above
Q723. Under what circumstances the physical inspection of a baggage is carried out

a) When X- Ray examination has not been able to accurately determine the contents
of baggage
b) When higher level of threat exists either locally or internationally
c) In the event of the breakdown of X-Ray equipment
d) All the above
Q724. At screening points how radios and electrical items will be checked

a) Ask passengers to operate the item
b) Ask passengers to open the battery compartment
c) Check tightness of seal to see if any screws are removed or paint chipped off
d) All the above
Q725. Which among the following is recommended technique for physically searching a baggage
a) If possible, search the clothing without removing the items from the bag
b) If baggage has more than one compartment, search each compartment completely before
moving on to the next one.
c) Both a and b
Q726. Which among the following is not a duty of the member of a screening team
a) Physically inspect items requiring attention
b) Supervise a busy screening point
c) Issuing the boarding card
Q727. Before commencing search of pax baggage

(a)His/her consent to be taken
(b)No need to take consent as it is duty of security staff to check the bag
(c)Consent can be obtained depending upon the status of pax
(d)Consent should be taken only when the pax in female
Q728.While conducting physical search of baggage method should be

(a)No special method required (b)Systematic
(c)Find out the suspicious object only (d)All of the above

Q729 Airport movement rules for vehicles apply to security staff:
(a)at all times.
(b)at all times except when they are on patrol.
(c)at all times except in an emergency.
(d)None of the above
Q730. Physical inspection of baggage is required

(a) When a prohibited item other than IED is detected
(b) When item is not distinguishable in the monitor
(c) When screener doubt as to the safety of any article in the baggage.
(d) All of the above
Q731.. The person who need not to be escorted________

a) VIP b) Person in custody
c) Authorized visitor d) passengers


a) Ticketing of the passengers.
b) Provides security control for Cargo which is accepted and required by
appropriate authority.
d)All the above
Q734. How is the diplomatic baggage handled

a) The baggage must bear distinct external marks of the Embassy and the name and the
address of the consignee
b) Diplomatic bags of any classification will not be opened in any case
c) Diplomatic bags which are carried as hand baggage by the diplomatic courier shall not be
screened provided the diplomatic courier produces certificate to that effect that it is a
diplomatic bag and it does not contain any prohibited/ dangerous article
d) All the above
Q735. Why is cargo considered an attractive target for terrorists
a) Generally very bulky, which is difficult for screening.
b) Small amount of explosives could be easily hidden which is sufficient for sabotage
c) Generally unaccompanied and therefore can be used as means of sabotage
d) All the above
Q736. What standard procedure is adopted for security of diplomatic bags

a) Category A bags to be accepted without screening/cooling off restriction subject
to production of certificate
b) Other than category A to be treated at par with cargo
c) In no case should be physically checked
d) All the above

a) The area between any passenger screening station and aircraft into which area is strictly .
controlled
d) All of the above

Q738. Which among the following category of people, are permitted along with vehicles up to the
tarmac at civil airports in the country
a) Protocol grounds b) Medical grounds
c) Security grounds d) All the above
Q739. What are the categories of the persons authorized carriage of weapons in hand baggage
a) PSOS of President b) PSOS of Vice President
c) Sky Marshals on duty d) All the above
c) SPG Officers, while travelling with protectees d) PSOS of president
Q741. What are the additional security measures necessary to protect registered baggage after it has
been screened
a) Sealed b) Safeguarded c) Escorted d) All the above
Q742. Security personnel will be required to provide an escort as follows

a) For carryon baggage after it has been screened
b) For registered baggage after it has been handed over in at the airline counter
c) For registered baggage after it has been security screened
Q743. Who among the following is responsible for the movement of valuable consignments
a) Airport security personnel b) Airline security personnel
c) Agency involved d) Both b and c
Q744. While escorting the consignments the involving agency should ensure that

a) The movement is planned in advance
b) The consignment and escort proceed along a pre-determined route
c) The route is varied from consignment to consignment
d) All the above
b) To prevent weapons or explosive devices from being placed or concealed for subsequent
attack
c) Both a and b
Q746. The typical categories of people requiring escort are

a) Deportee & inadmissible persons b) Person in custody
Q747. Catering security is ensured by

(a) Access control of premises c) Transportation under escort
(b) Inspection by BCAS and Airline d) all of the above
Q748. Security measures for Cargo are

(a)Physical check c) Cooling off method
(b)X-ray examination d) All the above

Q749. Write down of person who is having access upto aircraft in their own vehicle
a) All pax c) M. P
b) President of India d) Cabinet minister of state
Q 750. C.M. of state & chief Justice of India will be checked by

a)HHMD c) Physical check
b) DFMD d) Exempted from security check
Q751. For a prisoner to be carried on board aircraft, prior permission if required from
a) ASG c) DGCA b) BCAS d) Concerned airlines
Q752. MLA of state legislature have free access upto which area of airport

a) Aircraft c) All area
b) Upto T.B. d) Not permitted in the airport without valid AEP
Q753. The following persons are not exempted from PEC?

a) Cabinet Ministers b) Supreme court Judges
c) Vice President of Ghana d) deportee
Q754. Employees of aircraft operator is not required to check the following documents in respect
carriage of dead
a)Body onboard an aircraft is
b)Embalming certificate by hospital
c)Death certificate from competent Medical authority
d) All the belongings of the deceased
Q755. In-Line Baggage X-Ray screening System is the responsibility of

a) ASG c) APSU b) BCAS d) Respective Airport operator
Q756. Following category of people is not authorize to carry arms ammunition in hold baggage
a) On duty police personnel c) Passenger with arms license
b) Authorized sports personnel d) On duty Airline security
d) All of above
Q758. Simulation chamber
a) operates on the principle of activating the explosive device in the suspect object by
simulating the condition arises during real air journey
b) physical conditions
c) Detects weapon
d) Detects dangerous article
Q759. What document is required for carriage of dead body

a) Death certificate c) Police clearance
b)Embalming certificate d) All of the above

a) Prisoner c) Employee
b)Airport users d) None of the above
Q761. A pax is permitted for carry more the prescribed number of ammunition in the hold baggage
with the permission
a) Airline operator c) DGCA b)COSCA d) CASO
Q762. In India NCASTP will be implemented by

a) All agencies involved in Civil Aviation Operations in India
b) All Airline Operators in India
c) All Airport Operators in India
Q763. Who among the following is not exempted for pre-embarkation security checks
a) Member of parliament c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b) President of India d) Cabinet ministers
Q764. A passenger is found to be carrying an unsealed bottle of gin. What would be your action?
a) Take no special action
b) Notify the supervisor if the liquid in the bottle is dangerous
c) Unscrew the container and smell the contents
Q765. Which among the following items are permitted with hand baggage to carry on board on
aircraft
a) A gift item purchased at duty free shops b) Lady’s hand bag
c) Umbrella and walking stick d) All the above.
Q766. What is the size of Kirpan allowed to be carried by Sikh domestic passengers in Aircrafts
flying in domestic sector?
a) A length of max 9 inches with the blades not exceeding 6 inches
b) A length of max 6 inches with the blades not exceeding 3 inches
c) A length of max 9 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
d) A length of max 6 cm with the blades not exceeding 3 cm
Q767. What type of typical response action is required if a prohibited item is detected while
screening a baggage through X-BIS
a) Remain calm and polite – do not alarm passenger
b) Notify supervisor immediately by pr arrange signal
c) Notify police if silent alarm system exists
d) All the above
Q768. The detection of any suspicious item located during a search of the holding area must result
in:
a) Marking the area of location
b) Immediately bringing it to the notice of the supervisory officer
c) Clearing the immediate area of vicinity
d) All the above
Q769. The primary responsibility for movement of patient on a wheel chair is with
a)ASG b)Air Operator
c)Airport Operator d)Relatives or Dependents of the pax
Q770. Which agency has the primary responsibility in moving a deportee?

a) Immigration authorities c) Airport Security Unit
b)Concerned airline security d) All the above
Q771. Significance of 23.02.1931

a) First hijacking in the history of civil aviation
b) First sabotage in the history of civil aviation
c) ICAO came into existence
d) None of these
Q772. After IC 814 incident what action were taken by the Govt. of India
a) Deployment of Sky marshals b) Deployment of CISF as ASG at selected Airports
c) Secondary Ladder Point Checking d) All the above
Q773. Course of action to be taken when unauthorized person is detected near an aircraft is to

a) Ask the identity of the person b) Ask the reason for being near the aircraft
Q774. Security control of carriage of dead bodies into aircraft is the reasonability of
a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Airline Security d) BCAS
Q775. Escorting VVIP at airport is the responsibility of

a) ASG c) Airport Operator b)Local police d) Both a & b
Q776. The security measure for perishable cargo and life saving drugs are done by

a) X-ray examination and physical search b) Cooling off methods
c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above.
Q777. Embalming certificate is required for

a) Carrying of prisoner c) Carriage animal
b) Carriage of dead body d) None of the above
Q778. Baggage reconciliation is –
a) Tallying number of baggage’s checked in & accepted for loading in the aircraft with the
pax reported for boarding the aircraft.
b) Counting of registered baggage
c) Counting of hand baggage loaded in the cabin of aircraft.
d) Counting of pax at boarding gate.
Q779. Who among the following is exempted from PESC

a) Chief Justice of high courts c) Both a) & b)
b) Chief Justice of India d) None of the above
Q780. Safeguarding of registered baggage is done by

a)Sealing after checking b)By surveillance & escorting
c)Ensuring the seals at time of loading d)All of the above
Q781. Who amongst the following can go up to the aircraft in their own vehicle but without escort
a) Prime Minister c) SPG Protectees
b)President d) Chief justice of India
Q782. What is not the provision for carriage of prisoner?

a) Pilot should be informed b) Escort should be well equipped
c) Prisoner should be hand-cuffed d) Prisoner should be boarded first
Q783. Baggage Identification is the duty of ?.
Q784. Which is not exempted from pre embarkation security check

a)Prime Minister of India c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
b)President of India d) Judges of High court
Q785 While screening through X-BIS, items that needs special attention should be paid to
a) Wrapped gifts and presents b) Bottles containing liquids
c) Cameras, radios and electrical items d) All the above
Q786. Who among the following category of people need to be escorted
a) Authorized visitors b) Deportees and inadmissible persons
Q787. What is the significance of 02-12-1988 in civil aviation history

a) Explosion of air craft at Mombasa (Kenya)
b) Explosion of Pan-Am aircraft over Lockerbie, Scotland
c) Amendment to the Anti Hijacking Act
d) None of these

(a) Delivery of new born (c) Communicable diseases
(b) Food poisoning (d) terrorist attack
Q789. PYRO technique is a switch mechanism of

(c) Command (d) ambient
Q790. In what circumstances the baggage will be physically checked

(a) on the instructions of supervisor (c) When machine is not functioning
(b)) on the instructions of seniors (d) none of the
(a) Generator (b) Detonator
(c) Cross Piece (d) CTP

(a) Knife (b) Lighter (c) Book (d) blade
Q793 What are the features are to be checked in Vehicle permit

(a) Access Gates (b) Signature of issuing authority
(c) Tally the Photograph (d) None of the above
Q794. The switch mechanism are classified into

a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1

(a) Starter pistol (b) Mobile
(c) Lap top (d) Folding umbrella
Q796. Which is not the property of X-Ray

(a)is invisible rays (b) It moves in straight line
(c) It is ionizing radiation (d) It reflected with lens and prism
Q797. Denser the object the image will be

(a) Thicker (b) thinner (c) Darker (d) None of the above

(a) ensure the inspection tunnel (b) ensure the lead curtain
(c) ensure all emergency switches (d) All of the above

(a) Meter (b) Roentgen
(c) Milli roentgen (d) None of the above
Q800. Barometric is a switch mechanism of

(c) Command (d) Ambient

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Q 1.

First hijacking reported in the history of civil aviation in the world

Q 3. BCAS came into existence after the recommendation of

Q 5. Deployment of Sky marshals is a result of

Q7. When was CISF inducted at airports?

Q 10. Which action is not related after Kandhar hijacking…?

Q 11. In which year the first convention formed?

Q12. How many conventions are there ?

Q14. Which one is the Recommended Practice?

Q 15. The explosion at Chennai airport took place in the year

Q 17. Which does not include in "the Act of Unlawful Interference"?

Q 19. The large no. Of aircraft hijacking took place in the year………..at……………?

Q22. Second hijacking reported in India in the year of

Q25. Hijacking of IC 814 was related with which incident

Q26. 11 September 2001 is related with which incident

Q32. The Anti Hijacking act 1982 gives legal back up to

Q33. The section of aircraft act 1934 related to Empowers the COSCA to issue direction for security

Q34. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Security check of persons boarding aircraft.

Q35. The rule of Aircraft Rule 1937 related to Entry into public aerodromes

Q37. Entry in to the public aerodrome is defined in

Q38. CASO stands for

Q39. Tokyo convention was held in the year of

Q41. Montreal convention was held in the year of

Q42. Montreal protocol was held in the year of

Q43. Tokyo convention related with

Q44. Hague convention related with

Q46. Cancellation, suspension or endorsement of licences and certificates of aircraft comes under

Q47. Prohibition of intoxicated persons entering aircraft comes under which rule

Q48.Carriage of persons suffering from mental disorders comes under which rule

Q49.Entry into public aerodrome

Q50. COSCA stands for:.

Q51. ASG stands for:

Q52. ICAO came into existence in which of the following year:

Q53. Which of the following Lights used for safe landing of the aircraft :

Q54. PTI in aviation security stands for :

Q56. A status of alert, put in place by _________________to activate an intervention plan intended

Q57. B D Pandey committee was constituted after which incident:

Q63. Which of the following are legal back up for Civil Aviation in India

Q65. Who has powers to ensure development, implementation and maintenance of NCASP

Q66. Which Convention included offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft

Q67. Which Convention addressed the Suppression of Unlawful Seizure of Aircraft

Q68. Which convention has reference to Suppression of Unlawful Acts against Safety of Civil Aviation

Q69. Which Convention introduced new concept of Aircraft-in-Service

Q70. “Appropriate Authority is responsible for development, implementation and

Q74. Appropriate Authority in India is responsible for

Q75. In which section of Aircraft Act 1934, COSCA has been empowered to Issue Directions on Civil

Q76. Section 8 C of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

Q77. Section 11 A of Aircraft Act 1934 deals with

Q78. Rule 8 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

Q79. Rule 24 of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

Q80. Rule 24 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

Q82. Rule 77 C of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

Q83. Rule 78 A of Aircraft Rules 1937 deals with

Q86. Terminal building comes under

Q87. Annexure 17 deals with

Q88. NCASQCP deals with

Q89. First recorded hijacking took place at

Q90. Aircraft act come into …….. In the year

Q91. Aircraft Rule came into existence in the year.