SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 11

TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2 ĐỀ THI MÔN TIẾNG ANH

NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
Thời gian làm bài 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
Đề thi gồm: 06 Trang.

PART A. LISTENING. (Each recording will be played TWICE)

Section 1.
A new business owner enquires about courses. Listen to the conversation and complete each gap with no
more than THREE words.

BUSINESS NATIONWIDE
Courses available:
Name of Course: (0) Getting Started
Time: Two hours from (1) ____________
Cost: Free
Course Content: Is starting a business right for me?
Writing a (2) ______________
Some legal issues
Nearest Location: Handbridge
Next Course Date: 20th March

Name of Course: (3) ____________________

Length of course: (4)____________________
Cost: (5) ____________________ or £20 for recently unemployed
Course Content: Day One: Legal Issues
Day Two: Marketing and Pricing
Day Three: Accounting and (6) ______________
Nearest Location: Renton
Next Course Date: 5th March or (7) ____________

CALLER’S DETAILS
Name: (8) _________________
Address: (9) _________________, Eastleigh
email: (10) ________________

Section 2
11. On the holiday, you will be walking for_____.
A. 6 days B. 8 days C. 10 days
12. What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?

13. Each walker's sponsorship money goes to one______.

A. student B. teacher C. school
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14. When you start the trek you must be_________.
A. interested in getting fit. B. already quite fit. C. already very fit.
15. As you walk you will carry_______.
A. all of your belongings B. some of your belongings C. none of your belongings
16. The Semira Region has a long tradition of________.
A. making carpets B. weaving blankets C. carving wood

Question 17-20
Complete the form below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
ITINERARY
Day1 Arrive in kishba
Day2 Rest day
Day3 Spend all day in a (17) __________
Day4 Visit a school
Day5 Rest day
Day6 See a (18)________with old carvings
Day7 Rest day
Day8 Swim in a (19)_______
Day9 Visit a (20) ______
Day10 Depart from kishba

PART B. PHONETICS.

Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your
answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. sentimental B. commonplace C. mathematics D. information
2. A. distraction B. considerable C. description D. recommend
3. A. confidence B. minimize C. complaint D. imitate
4. A. mysteriously B. originally C. necessary D. elaborately
5. A. generous B. pagoda C. address D. control

PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR.

Section 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer (A, B, C or D).
1 Your decision will ______ a great strain on our relationship.
A. impose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
2. Her penknife came in very _______ when they were on their picnic.
A. useful B. handy C. practical D. convenient
3. Yes, because it’s _____ the government is spending a lot to find a cure.
A. a so serious disease B. so serious a disease C. so a serious disease D. such serious that
4. I won’t__________ these excuses any longer! I demand to see the manager.
A. put up with B. put off again C. put up for D. put off with
5______ are considered humorous is mainly due to his characters’ use of slang.
A. That Damon Ruyan’s stories B. Damon Ruyan’s stories, which
C. Damon Ruyan’s stories D. Because Damon Ruyan’s stories
6. I didn’t suspect anything at first, but when I noticed her going through the office drawers I began to
smell______.
A. a rat B. a pig C. a thief D. a culprit
7. Having been served lunch, _________.
A. the problem was discussed by the members of the committee
B. the committee discussed the problem
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C. it was discussed by the committee members the problem
D. a discussion of the problem was made by the members of the committee
8. Jack: “It seems to me that it’s great to hold a party after the exam.” Jim: “______”.
A. I can’t help thinking the same B. Don’t mention it
C. So far so good D. The more the merrier
9. He spoke _______ all the families who had lost relatives in the disaster.
A. with a view to B. in respect of C. on behalf of D. in aid of
10. I wonder who drank all the milk yesterday. It ____ Jane because she was out all day.
A. can’t have been B. mustn’t have been C. could have been D. mightn’t be

Section 2. Supply the correct form of the words in brackets.

The (0) growth of online job hunting has increased the importance of having a good CV. Many
employers now search CV databases for potential candidates, and a great CV which highlights your skills
and experiences will boost your chances of getting an interview (1. consider)_______. On average, a
recruiter will spend just eight seconds reviewing each CV, so it's important to get it right. If you follow a
basic structure, you can present the information in a clear, concise and (2. persuade)_______way. Your
CV should look clean and tidy with no frills or fancy (3 attach)_______, with all the information clearly
signposted, and should not exceed two pages. Include your name, address and contact details, but
information about your (4. national)_______, age and hobbies is not essential.
Any (5. prospect)_______ employer will be interested in your work experience. List the most recent
first, describing your previous jobs in short sentences using straightforward, positive language which
highlights all your key (6. achieve)_______. Similarly, list brief details of your academic and professional
(7. qualify) _______ along with the grades attained. Include specific skills such as IT (8. pack)_______ or
languages, and state whether you're at a basis, intermediate or advanced level. (9. apply)_______looking
for their first job since leaving full-time education are (10. like)_______to have much relevant work
experience, so should put information about their academic record and key skills first.

Section 3. Passage below contains 10 errors. Identify and correct them. Write your answers in the
space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example.

Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. 0. traditional → traditionally
Achievement tests is designed to measure acquired skills and 1. _____________________
knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The 2. _____________________
proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation are 3. _____________________
achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s 4. _____________________
ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocational 5. _____________________
aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a 6. _____________________
mechanic or musician. Although, all mental tests are in some sense 7. _____________________
achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or 8. _____________________
experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. The difference 9. _____________________
among achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intended use. 10. _____________________

PART D. READING.
Section 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the letter A, B, C or
D on your answer sheet.
Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the
following questions.(2.0pts)
In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the
economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and
transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals,
turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways; first, by
actually establishing state companies to build such improvements; second, by providing part of the capital
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for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit.
In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of
direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets
reflected both similarities and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of
today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers,
and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came understate
inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state
control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed to
help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and
restrictions on price-fixing by businesses.
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was
not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native industries.
Toward these ends, the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national
bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy
money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public western
lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could
be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was basically
protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests produced frequent
changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. States' rights versus federal rights.
B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenth century.
D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. value B. argument C. influence D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the
nineteenth century EXCEPT _________.
A. mining B. banking C. manufacturing D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. separate B. innovative C. alarming D. provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were
_________.
A. built with money that came from the federal government
B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT _______.
A. licensing of retail merchants B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
C. imposing limits on price-fixing D. control of lumber
7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. discussing B. analyzing C. establishing D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. benefits B. decisions C. services D. goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
C. It increased the money supply in the West.
D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth
century?
A. Control of the manufacture of gunpowder.
B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked.
C. Regulation of the supply of money.

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 D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands.

Section 2. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
GETTING ENOUGH EXERCISE
While most people want to have a toned healthy body, (1)________everyone enjoys working out at
the gym. In fact, many of us would sooner avoid any kind of vigorous exercise altogether, and may not
even feel it is necessary. (2)______ the years, various health experts have assured us that keeping
(3)__________ simply requires a total of 30 minutes of moderate activity most days of the week. Many
people believe that a walk to the shops or some light housework constitutes moderate activity, but it
turns (4)___________ this may not be the case.
According to the British Association of Sport and Exercise, it is high time more specific advice
(5)__________given about what actually constitutes moderate activity. Housework, it seems, does not
fall into this category. Anyone who devotes a great deal of time every day to dusting and vacuuming no
doubt wishes that it did, but research has shown that women who spend over eight hours a day (6)_____
______ housework actually tend to be slightly more overweight than those who do none whatsoever.
The association, therefore, would prefer it if the public were instructed as to exactly what (7)_______
______ of physical activity to aim for.
But setting such guidelines is not easy (8)____________ individual fitness levels and exercise
requirements vary. For instance, while walking at a fast pace (9)_____________ generally beneficial for
women, it may not be physically challenging enough for men. For this reason, the association would
rather this section of the population took up jogging (10)____________ relied on walking as a form of
exercise.

Section 3. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to complete the following
passage by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
CAREERS
Work should be a meaningful and (1)__________ part of one’s life. The (2)_______ of a career is,
therefore, one of the most serious decision anyone can (3)__________. It is important to take in
consideration your (4)_______ and personal preferences. For instance, adventurous people who enjoy an
outdoor life shouldn’t choose a (5)_______ in an office. If you like to work alone, you shouldn’t look for
employment which requires working with the public. If you enjoy working with people, you may like a
career in a (6)__________ such as human resources. You should (7)__________ about finding out as
much as possible about intended career before you finish your education. It may take time to
(8)__________ for the career you want. Don’t accept a job if you haven’t got a clue what your
working conditions will be or how much you can expect to (9)__________. Future disappointment
can be avoided by talking to professionals with (10)__________ in the career you are interested in as well
as visiting different companies and institutions.
1. A. comfortable B. productive C. exported D. efficient
2. A. thought B. advice C. choice D. interest
3. A. do B. set C. have D. make
4. A. facilities B. skills C. references D. contracts
5. A. work B. job C. pension D. business
6. A. branch B. department C. workplace D. firm
7. A. set B. work C. look D. find
8. A. run B. practise C. train D. learn
9. A. bring B. earn C. obtain D. win
10. A. reputation B. employment C. experience D. experiment

PART E. WRITING

Section 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the similar meaning to
the original one.
1. The house was so badly damaged in the fire that it couldn’t be repaired.

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The house was too ________________________________________________
2. How could I help, except to offer to lend her some money?
Other___________________________________________________________
3 It was only when I left home that I realized how much my father meant to me.
Not until________________________________________________________
4. Do phone us when you arrive at the airport, even if it's very late.
However _______________________________________________________
5. He contributed generously so we could continue our work.
But ____________________________________________________________.

Section 2. Essay writing

Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative effect on
their study and the physical development.

Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion
-----THE END-----
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu; Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………SBD:………………………

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 SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI KSCL ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHỐI 11
TRƯỜNG THPT YÊN LẠC 2 HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)

PART A. LISTENING. (4 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)

Section 1. (1 pts: 0.1 p/each correct answer)
1. 6pm – 8pm 2. Business Plan 3. Business Basics 4. three days 5. £80
6. book keeping 7. 18th April 8. Lila Park 9. 39 White Lane 10.
[email protected]

Section 2. (1 pts: 0.1 p/each correct answer)

1. B 2. C 3.A 4. C 5. B
6. A 7. forest 8. temple 9. waterfall 10. village

PART B. PHONETICS. (0.5 pt: 0.1p/each correct answer)

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. D

PART C. LEXICO - GRAMMAR. (1 pts: 0.1 p/each correct answer)

Section 1: (1 pts: 0.1p/each correct answer)
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. B 8.A 9. C 10. A

Section 2 (1 pts: 0.1 /each correct answer)

1. considerably 2. persuasive 3. attachments 4. nationality 5. prospective

6. achievements 7. qualifications 8. packages 9. Applicants 10. unlikely

Section 3 (0.5 pt: 0.05 /each correct answer)

1. is--> are 6.like--> as
2.explicitness--> explicitly 7. although -->however
3. few -->a few 8. assumption--> assume
4.and--> to 9. certainly-->certain
5. but--> and 10.among--> between

PART D. READING. (6 pts: 0.2 p/each correct answer)

Section 1 (1 pts: 0.1 /each correct answer)
1. C 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. D 9. A 10. C

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Section 2 (1 pts: 0.1 /each correct answer)
1.not 2. Over 3. fit 4. out 5. was
6. on 7. kind 8. as/since/for 9. is 10. than

Section 3 (1 pts: 0.1 /each correct answer)

1. A 2.C 3.D 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.A 9.B 10.C

PART E. WRITING. (2 pts)

Section 1. (0.5 pt: 0.1p/each correct answer)
1. The house was too badly damaged in the fire to be repaired.
2. Other than offer to lend her some money, how could I help?
3. Not until I left home did I realize how much my father meant to me.
4. However late it is, do phone us when you arrive at the airport.
5. But for her generous contribution, we could not have continued our work.
Section 2. Essay Writing (1.5 pts)

The mark is based on the following criteria:

1. Content (1,2 pts) 1,2 pts
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
0,7 pt
2. Organization and presentation (0,7 pt)
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. 0,7 pt
b. The essay is well-structured.
3. Language (0,7 pt)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structure appropriate to level of 0,4 pt
English language of gifted students.
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures.
4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (0,4 pt)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
b. Legible handwriting.

TOTAL: 10 points
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