CLJ 2
CLJ 2
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock 24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the
serenade of discordant execution of penalty
noises designed to annoy and insult. is suspended.
A. Tumultuous A. Pardon
B. charivari B. commutation
C. sedition C. amnesty
D. scandal D. reprieve
Answer: B Answer: D
18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who 25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience
compels another designed to secure a
person to change his residence. more orderly regulation of the affairs of the
A. violation of domicile society.
B. arbitrary detention A. mala prohibita
C. expulsion B. mala in se
D. direct assault C. private crimes
Answer: C D. public crimes
Answer: A
19. The deprivation of a private person of the
liberty of another 26. Felony committed by a public officer who
person without legal grounds. agrees to commit an
A. illegal detention act in consideration of a gift and this act is
B. arbitrary detention connected with the
C. forcible abduction discharge of his public duties.
D. forcible detention A. qualified bribery
Answer: A B. direct bribery
C. estafa
20. An offense committed by a married woman D. indirect bribery
through carnal
knowledge with a man not her husband who Answer: B
knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later 27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood
declared void. under oath of
A. concubinage affirmation, administered by authority of law
on a material matter. D. a plea of surrender
A. libel Answer: A
B. falsification
C. perjury 35. At what time may the accused move to quash
D. slander the complaint or
Answer: C information?
A. at any time before his arrest
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution. B. only after entering his plea
A. Treachery C. any time before entering his plea
B. evident premeditation D. Monday morning
C. ignominy
D. cruelty Answer: C
Answer: B
36. The process whereby the accused and the
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors prosecutor in a
shall have acted criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
together in the commission of a crime. disposition on the case subject to court
A. gang approval.
B. conspiracy A. Arraignment
C. band B. plea bargaining
D. piracy C. preliminary investigation
Answer: C D. trial
Answer: B
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which
one is bound to. 37. The security given for the release of a person
A. Negligence in custody,
B. imprudence furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned
C. omission upon his
D. act appearance before any court as required
Answer: C under the conditions
specified by law.
31. Ways and means are employed for the A. Subpoena
purpose of trapping and B. recognizance
capturing the law breaker in the execution of C. bail
his criminal plan. D. warrant
A. Misfeasance Answer: C
B. entrapment
C. inducement 38. The examination before a competent tribunal,
D. instigation according to the
Answer: B laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case,
for the purpose
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but of determining such issue.
for reasons of A. Trial
public policy and sentiment there is no B. Arraignment
penalty imposed. C. pre-trial
A. impossible crimes D. judgment
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes Answer: A
D. Complex Crimes 39. The adjudication by the court that the
accused is guilty or is not
Answer: C guilty of the offense charged, and the
imposition of the proper
33. One of the following is an alternative penalty and
circumstance. A. trial
A. Insanity B. Pre-trial
B. intoxication C. Arraignment
C. passion or obfuscation D. Judgment
D. evident premeditation Answer: D
Answer: B
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make of determining
conditional plea of guilty, whether there is sufficient ground to
what shall be entered for him? engender a well founded
A. a plea of not guilty belief that an offense has been committed
B. a plea of guilty and the offender is
C. a plea of mercy probably guilty thereof and should be held for
trial. Answer: B
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment 47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth
C. preliminary investigation prematurely, of
D. plea bargaining human fetus before the natural time of birth
Answer: C which results in
death.
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the A. abortion
same state of facts. B. infanticide
A. secondary evidence C. murder
B. prima facie evidence D. parricide
C. corroborative evidence Answer: A
D. best evidence
Answer: C 48. Felony committed when a person is killed or
wounded during the
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained confusion attendant to a quarrel among
or uncontradicted is several persons not
sufficient to maintain the proposition organized into groups and the parties
affirmed. responsible cannot be
A. secondary evidence ascertained.
B. prima facie evidence A. alarm and scandal
C. corroborative evidence B. mysterious homicide
D. best evidence C. death under exceptional
Answer: B circumstances
D. tumultuous affray
43. A form of evidence supplied by written
instruments or derived Answer: D
from conventional symbols, such as letters,
by 49. A question which arises in a case the
which ideas are represented on material resolution of which is the
substances. logical antecedent of the issue involved in
A. documentary evidence said case and the
B. testimonial evidence cognizance of which pertains to another
C. material evidence tribunal.
D. real evidence A. legal question
B. juridical question
Answer: A C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question
44. When the witness states that he did not see Answer: C
or know the
occurrence of a fact. 50. The RPC was based on the
A. positive evidence A. Spanish penal code
B. corroborative evidence B. English penal code
C. secondary evidence C. American penal code
D. negative evidence D. Japanese penal code
Answer: D
Answer: A
45. Personal property that can be subjects for
search and seizure. 51. An act or omission which is a result of a
A. used or intended to be used as misapprehension of facts
means in committing an that is voluntary but not intentional.
offense A. impossible crime
B. stolen or embezzled and other B. mistake of facts
proceeds or fruits of the C. accidental crime
offense D. complex crime
C. subject of the offense Answer: B
D. all of the above
Answer: D 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not
more than….
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, A. 36 hours
can make known B. 24 hours
their perception to others. C. 48 hours
A. Suspects D. 72 hours
B. witnesses
C. victims Answer: D
D. informers
53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from D. writ
compliance therewith. Answer: C
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae 60. This right of the accused is founded on the
C. res ipsa loquitur principle of justice
D. dura lex sed lex and is intended not to protect the guilty but to
prevent as far as
Answer: A human agencies can the conviction of an
54. An act which would be an offense against innocent person.
persons or property if A. right to due process of law
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its B. presumption of innocence
accomplishment. C. right to remain silent
A. compound crime D. right against self-incrimination
B. impossible crime Answer: B
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime 61. Known in other countries as the body of
Answer: B principles,
practices,usages and rules of action which are
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty. not
A. RA 5425 recognized in our country.
B. RA 8553 A. penal laws
C. RA 7659 B. special laws
D. RA 8551 C. common laws
D. statutory laws
Answer: C Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or
discernment and 62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in
freedom of the will at the time of the the agent of the
commission of the crime. crime any of all the conditions that would
A. discernment make
B. insanity an act voluntary and hence, though there is
C. epilepsy no criminal liability
D. imbecility there is civil liability.
Answer: D A. Exempting
B. alternative
57. The quality by which an act may be C. justifying
subscribed to a person as its D. aggravating
owner or author Answer: A
A. responsibility
B. duty 63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person
C. guilt are in accordance
D. imputability with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal
Answer: D and civil liability.
A. exempting
58. Something that happen outside the sway of B. alternative
our will, and C. justifying
although it comes about through some acts of D. aggravating
our will, Answer: C
lies beyond the bound s of humanly
foreseeable consequences. 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in
A. fortuitous event making his victim
B. fate suffers slowly and gradually, causing him
C. accident unnecessary physical
D. destiny pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
Answer: C A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
59. A sworn written statement charging a person C. treachery
with an D. masochism
offense,subscribed by the offended party, any
peace Answer: B
officer or other public officer charged with the
enforcement of 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime
the law violated. shall have been
A. subpoena previously convicted by final judgment of
B. information another crime embraced
C. complaint in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism or their punishment in case of conviction
B. habitual delinquency A. Criminal Law
C. reiteracion B. Criminal Evidence
D. quasi-recidivism C. Criminal Procedure
Answer: A D. Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C
66. Alevosia means
A. Craft 73. The period of prescription of crimes
B. treachery punishable by death.
C. evident premeditation A. 20 years
D. cruelty B. 15 years
Answer: B C. 10 years
D. 40 years
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds Answer: A
upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial. 74. Persons who take direct part in the execution
A. ex post facto law of a crime.
B. equal protection of the law A. Accomplices
C. rule of law B. Accessories
D. due process of law C. Instigators
Answer: D D. Principals
Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from
the date of his 75. A crime against honor which is committed by
release or last conviction of the crime of performing any act
serious or less serious which casts dishonor, discredit, or
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or contempt upon another
falsification, he is person.
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third A. libel
time or oftener. B. slander by deed
A. Recidivist C. incriminating innocent person
B. quasi-recidivist D. intriguing against honor
C. habitual delinquent Answer: B
D. hardened criminal
Answer: C 76. The improper performance of some act which
might lawfully be
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted done.
or overcome. A. misfeasance
A. Primary B. malfeasance
B. Best C. nonfeasance
C. Secondary D. dereliction
D. Conclusive Answer: B
Answer: D 77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon
oath before an
70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted authorized magistrate or officer.
or overcome. A. subpoena
A. Primary B. writ
B. Best C. warrant
C. Secondary D. affidavit
D. Conclusive Answer: D
Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly
71. These questions suggest to the witness the applies to himself
answers to which an without authority of law.
examining party requires. A. alias
A. leading B. common name
B. misleading C. fictitious name
C. stupid D. screen name
D. hearsay
Answer: A Answer: C
72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension 79. A special aggravating circumstance where a
and prosecution of person, after having
persons alleged to have committed a crime, been convicted by final judgment, shall
and commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or D. discernment
while serving Answer: D
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism 87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is
B. recidivism punishable under the law.
C. reiteracion A. Estafa
D. charivari B. Murder
Answer: A C. Rebellion
D. Rape
80. Which of the following is not a person in Answer: C
authority?
A. Municipal mayor 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater
B. Private School Teacher than that which is
C. Police Officer intended.
D. Municipal Councilor A. Aberratio ictus
Answer: C B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of D. Praeter Intentionem
commotions or Answer: D
disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition 89. It means mistake in the blow.
B. Rebellion A. Aberratio Ictus
C. Treason B. Error in Personae
D. Coup d’ etat C. Dura lex sed lex
Answer: A D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant
from its date. 90. A stage of execution when all the elements
A. 30 days necessary for its
B. 15 days execution and accomplishment are present.
C. 10 days A. Attempted
D. 60 days B. Frustrated
Answer: C C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
83. The detention of a person without legal
grounds by a public
officer or employee. answer:
A. illegal detention C
B. arbitrary detention
C. compulsory detention 91. An act or omission which is the result of a
D. unauthorized detention misapprehension of
Answer: B facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, B. Mistake of facts
committed by a person C. Conspiracy
who owes allegiance to it. D. Felony
A. treason Answer: B
B. espionage
C. rebellion 92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
D. coup d’ etat A. Material
Answer: A B. Formal
C. Seasonal
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for D. Continuing
rest and comfort. Answer: A
A. sanctuary
B. prison 93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the
C. jail offender are
D. dwelling malicious.
Answer: D A. Culpable
B. Intentional
86. The mental capacity to understand the C. Deliberate
difference between right D. Inculpable
and wrong. Answer: B
A. treachery
B. premeditation 94. It indicates deficiency of perception.
C. recidivism A. Negligence
B. Diligence D. Milkey vs Wett
C. Imprudence
D. Inference 2. It is defined as a remedy or process by which
Answer: A a child born out of
lawful wedlock and are therefore considered
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special illegitimate are by
penal laws. fiction of law considered by subsequent valid
A. Offenses marriage of the
B. Misdemeanors parents.
C. Felonies A. Adoption
D. Ordinances B. Legitimation
C. Foster parenting
Answer: D. Naturalization
A
3. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?
96. A character of Criminal Law, making it A. Mens Rea
binding upon all persons B. Magna Culpa
who live or sojourn in the Philippines. C. Inflagrante Delicto
A. General D. Mala Vise
B. Territorial
C. Prospective 4. What should be conducted in order to
D. Retroactive determine whether a case
Answer: A falls under the jurisdiction of the regional Trial
Court?
97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment A. Inquest proceeding
without judicial trial. B. Preliminary conference
A. Bill of Attainder C. Preliminary investigation
B. Bill of Rights D. Search and Seizure
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law 5. For offense falling under the jurisdiction of
Municipal Trial Courts
Answer: A and Municipal Circuit trial courts, prosecution
is instituted
98. The taking of a person into custody in order
that he may be A. By filling a compliant with the Regional
bound to answer for the commission of an Trial Court
offense. B. By filing a complaint directly with the
A. Search court
B. Seizure C. By filling a complaint with the chief of
C. Arrest Police in the
D. Detention municipality
Answer: C D. By filling a complaint with the fiscal for
preliminary
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the investigation
crime committed?
A. Robbery 6. Intervention of the offended party in the
B. Farm Theft criminal action is not
C. Qualified Theft allowed in the following instances EXCEPT:
D. Simple Theft A. when he has not waived the civil action
Answer: C B. when he has file the civil action ahead of
the criminal
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual C. when he has expressly reserved the right
intercourse with her 11 year to institute
old girlfriend without threat, force or the civil action separately
intimidation. What was D. when he has waived the civil action
the crime committed?
A. Child rape 7. The place of trial for a criminal action is cited
B. Qualified Rape A. territory
C. Statutory Rape B. action
D. None of these C. jurisdiction
1. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is D. venue
inadmissible in state
criminal prosecutions in the famous case of 8. The primary purpose of bail is
A. Miranda vs Arizona A. to protect the accused rights
B. Otit vs Jeff B. to keep the accused in jail until trial
C. Mapp vs Ohio C. to punish the accused for the crime
D. to release the accused
15. A public officer or employee when NOT being
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance authorized by
of a case in the judicial order, shall enter a dwelling against
first instance is known as: the will of the owner
A. original jurisdiction thereof is committing:
B. appellate jurisdiction A. Legal entry
C. general jurisdiction B. Violation of domicile
D. delegated jurisdiction C. Illegal entry
D. Abatement
10. "A" stabbed "B". "A" brought "B" to a hospital
for medical 16. Intoxication when considered under the law is
treatment.Had it not been the timely medical considered
attendance. "B" A. Alternative Circumstance
would have died.This is a case of B. Maladaptive Behavior
A. a physical injury C. Delinquent act
B. an attempted felony D. Anti social Behavior
C. a consummated felony
D. a frustrated felony 17. The adjudication by the court that the
defendant is guilty or is
11. A person undergoing criminal investigation not guilty of the offense charged and the
enjoys his three imposition of the
constitutional rights such as penalty provided by law on the defendant
A. the right to oppose whatever the who pleads or is found
accusation on him guilty thereof
B. the right to plea guilty and not guilty A. judgment
C. the right to oppose whatever accusation B. false informant
or him based on his C. information
constitutional right D. admission
D. the right to remain silent, the right to
counsel, the right to be 18. Is that which is not excluded by the law as
informed of the nature of the accusation tending to prove
a fact in issue
A. material evidence
12. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to B. relevant evidence
the issue and is C. direct evidence
not excluded by the rules on D. competent evidence
A. Real evidence
B. Secondary evidence 19. Any private person who shall enter the
C. Admissibility of evidence dwelling of another
D. Relevancy of evidence against the will of the latter
A. none of these
13. What is the sworn written statement charging B. trespassing to dwelling
a person with an C. light threats
offense, subscribed by the offended party, D. usurpation
any peace officer or
other employee of the government or 20. Are those acts and omissions committed not
government institution in only by means of
change of the enforcement or execution of the deceit, but also by means of fault and are
law violated? punishable by law.
A. Deposition A. Justifying circumstances
B. Complaint B. Felonies
C. Police blotter C. Exempting circumstances
D. Information D. Attempted felony
14. Trial is allowed only after arraignment and 21. Is committed whenever the offender
the accused may waive commences the commission
his right to appear at the trial except when his of a crime directly by overt acts but does not
presence is perform all the acts
required for purposes of identification. This is of execution which should produce the felony
the principle of trial as a consequence
in __. by reason of some cause or accident other
A. Substitution than his own
B. Absentia spontaneous desistance.
C. Re-assignment A. Frustrated felony
D. Ordeal B. Attempted felony
C. Consummated felony A. Regulation
D. Felony B. City Ordinance
C. Law
22. Are those crimes committed against D. Lawful Act
individuals, particularly
against their chastity, but which do not 29. The Latin term POENA means:
produce danger or A. Penalty
prejudice common to other members of B. Pain
society. C. Punishment
A. Private crimes D. Police
B. Public crimes
C. Felony
D. Infractions