Corporate Finance Lecture
Corporate Finance Lecture
01
COURSE TITLE:
Corporate Finance
COURSE CODE:
(FIN 622)
PROFESSOR:
Muzaffar Hashmi
Recommended Books
Fundamental of Corporate Finance (7th Edition)
By: Richard A Brealey, Stewart C Myers
Principle of Corporate Finance (4th Edition)
By: Richard A Brealey, Stewart C Myers
Essential of Corporate Finance
By: Stephen A Ross, Randolph W Westerfield,
Bradford D Jordan
Corporate Finance
Scheme of Studies:
MODULE # 1 : OVERVIEW OF CORPORATE FINANCE
MODULE # 2 : VALUATIONS OF FINANCIAL INSTRUMENTS LIKE STOCKS
SHARES & BONDS
MODULE # 3 : CAPITAL BUDGETING
MODULE # 4 : RISK STRATEGIES & MANAGEMENT
MODULE # 5: COST OF CAPITAL
MODULE # 6 : SHORT TERM FINANCE & CAPITAL STRUCTURE
MODULE # 7 : SPECIAL TOPICS – MERGERS & ACQUISITIONS
MODULE # 8 : INTERNATIONAL OPERATIONS
Example: Air line Industry wants to add an aircraft that generate more Cash Flows. (i.e.
Opportunity and acquire an asset Plane)
Cargo Company - Trawlers
Points keep in view by Financial Manager & CB
Size of Investment
Risk
Timing
Owner’s Equity
Loans or External Sources
IPO’s
IPO’s stands for Initial Public Offerings
Company lunch their shares in market
Offer general Public
Share allotted on Draw
QUESTION # 3
How to manage routine financial activities?
Working Capital Basically Interaction between Current Assets & Current Liabilities
Working Capital needs to meet financial expenses
Current Assets + Current Liabilities = WC
OPERATING CYCLE
Cash Flow from Customers used to
Vendors Pay Off Vendors
Raw Material
Finished Goods
Sales to Customer
Cash Payment
from Customers
Cash from Customers
Working Capital
Policies
Types of Business
Sole Proprietor
Partnership
Limited Liability Business:
Private Company
Public Un-listed Company
Limited Liability Business & Markets
Types of Markets:
Primary Market
Secondary Market
Primary Markets
Original Sale of Securities and shares
No tangible Shape
General Public offerings
Private placements
IPO’s in Primary Market
Secondary Markets
Subsequent to first sale or Subsequent to original sale.
Trading of Securities & Shares
Tangible Markets
Example stock Exchange
FINANCIAL STATEMENTS &
CORPORATE FINANCE
THREE BASIC STATEMENTS
BALANCE SHEET
INCOME STATEMENT
CASH FLOW STATEMENT
BALANCE SHEET
Fixed Assets:
Earning assets
Fixed Assets e.g. Plant, Machinery, Vehicles etc
Current Assets:
Inventory, Prepayments, Cash & Bank Balance, Short Term Investment etc
Balance Sheet Format
REPRESENTED BY :
Share capital (5,980,000) 15 59,800,000 39,800,000
Profit & (loss) account (27,457,311) (29,697,066)
Surplus on revaluation of fixed assets 8,227,178 8,227,178
Share deposit money 2,000,000 3,000,000
42,569,867 21,330,112
Corporate finance lecture No. 02
FINANCIAL STATEMENT
&
CORPORATE FINANCE
Market Value
Book Value
Market Value
Negotiation or Dealing at Arm Length
Contrary to Market Value financial statements are prepared on Book Value
Book Value is not reflective of worth of assets.
Book Value
Cost minus Accumulated Depreciation
Income Statement
Work out Profit
Three Terminologies interchangeably used
Sales
Turnovers
Revenues
In Profit Statement line item vary Organization to Organization , Industry to
Industry, there is no Rule of Thumb
Revenue – Expenses = Profit
Cash Flow Statement
Generation of cash from different activities and its application
Three Broad segment
Operating Cash Flows
Investing Cash Flows
Financing cash flows
All line items of Asset side can be expressed in %age. Total Assets 100% then
what is the weight age of Current Asset, Fix Assets etc
Same is the case in Liabilities
BALANCE SHEET
AS AT 30 JUNE 2003
OPERATING ASSETS
Fixed assets (at cost less accumulated
depreciation)
DEFERRED COST
LONG TERM DEPOSITS (against Lease)
CURRENT ASSETS
Stores & spares
Stocks -do-
Trade debtors
Advances, deposits, prepayments and
other
receiveables
Cash and bank balances
CURRENT LIABILITIES
Deferred Income
Due to directors and relatives
Provident fund trust and gratuity payable
Dealers&Distributors securities
CURRENT LIABILITIES
Current maturity portion of lease liability
Current maturity portion of Long Term Loans
Short term borrowings
Creditors, accruals and other liabilities
NET CURRENT ASSETS
TOTAL ASSETS LESS CURRENT LIABILITIES
LONG TERM LIABILITIES
Deferred Income
Due to directors and relatives
Provident fund trust and gratuity payable
Long term loans
Dealers&Distributors securities
Long term portion of leasehold assets
TOTAL NET ASSETS
2003 2002 2003 2002
All line items are expressed as sale %age i.e. Sales 100%
PROFIT AN D LOSS ACCOUN T
FOR THE PERIOD EN DED 30TH JUN E, 2003.
OPERATING ASSE TS
Fixed assets (at cost less accumulated depreciation) 125,138,737 109,101,363
Basically Showing Financial Leverage & also show the abilities of firm to pay its long term
liabilities
OPERATING ASSETS
Fixed assets (at cost less accumulated depreciation) 125,138,737 109,101,363
FORMULA
2003 0.30
2002 0.23
INVENTORY TURNOVER RATIO
FORMULA:
=Cost of Gods Sold/Average Inventory
2003 (2.87)
2002 (3.06)
MARKET RATIOS
2003 0.47
2002 (0.71)
PAYABLE TURNOVER RATIO
FORMULA:
=Cost of Gods Sold/Trade Creditors
2003 (2.42)
2002 (1.61)
FUTURE VALUE
PRESENT VALUE
ANNUITIES
PERPETUITIES
FUTURE VALUE
Size of Investment
Time Period
Interest Rate
FUTURE VALUE
Because the dollar or rupee received today will start earning profit right from
today
FUTURE VALUE
At the end of 2nd year total Investment 1210 that means we earned 210 in terms of Interest.
210 = 100+100+10
10 is basically Compound Interest
COMPOUND INTEREST
An investment opportunity pays 12% pa and a business entity intends to invest 500,000.
What will be the worth of this investment in 7 years time? How much interest will the
company earn in this period? What portion of total interest represents compound interest?
Solution
FV = PV x (1 + r)t
2nd Question: How much Interest will the Company earn in this period?
PRESENT VALUE
You know that you will get 10000 at the end of 3rd
year from now. The interest rate is 10%. What is the
PV of 10000 now?
FV = PV x (1+r)3
10000= PV x (1.10)3
PV = 10000/ (1.10)3= 7513.14
We can find PV the other way too:
PV = FV / (1 + r)t
1 / (1.10)3 = known as PVDF
PV = FV X PVDF
PV = 10000 X 0.7513*
= 7513
Option 1= Pay 4000 today and 6000 after 2 years to buy a computer
Option 2= Pay all today a get a credit of 500. (Net price today is 9500)
Finding PV:
PV = 4000 + (6000 / (1.10)2
PV = 4000 + 4958.68 = 8958.68
It means that 4958.68 invested today @ 10% will yield 6000 at the end of year 2,
enabling you to pay off your liability.
Option 2:
PV = 9500
Option 1 is better because it cost 8958.68 as compared to 9500 of option 2.
So far we come across four factors of Time Value of Money:
PV
FV
Interest factor or discount factor
Time period
Look FV table 8 year row select and move towards right unless under the interest Rate
%age you read 2 or nearest to 2.
Implicit Interest Rate = 9%
PERPETUITY
Defined: Stream of equal cash payments equally spaced that continues for ever.
If you wish to help a welfare trust by providing 100,000/- per annum forever and the interest
rate is 10%, how much amount must be set-aside today?
Formula:
PV of Perpetuity = C/r
= 100000/0.10
= 1,000,000/-
And if you wish to start payments after 3rd year, then what is the PV of this delayed
Perpetuity?
Valuation of Annuities:
Using FV/PV tables
Using formula
Example:
You want to buy an asset for your business that will
cost you 4000 per year for next three years.
Assume interest rate of 10%. Find out the PV of this
annuity?
Using table
4000 x 1/(1.10)
4000 x 1/(1.10)2
4000 x 1/(1.10)3 = 9947.41
Using Formula:
Means that at the end of every time period the cash flow level or cash flow amount is
different.
Example:
An investment returns 10000 after first year, 13000, 15000 & 18000 after 2nd to 4th
year respectively. If the prevailing interest is 10% what is the present value of cash flow.
Equations:
FV = PV x (1 + r)t
PV = FV / (1 + r)t
EAR = 1 + i/n n -1
Bank A = 1 + .15/12 12 - 1
=1.16075 – 1
= 16.075%
Bank B = 1 + .15/4 4 - 1
=(1.0375) 4 – 1
= 1.15865 – 1
= 15.865%
Bank C = (1 + .15/2) 2 - 1
= (1.075) 2 - 1
= 1.155625 – 1
= 15.5625%
Example:
A bank offers 12% compounded quarterly. If you place 1000 in an account today, how
much you have at the end of two years?
What is EAR (Effective Rate of Interest)?
Solution:
EAR =(1 + i/n)n - 1
Main Characteristics:
• Time to Maturity
• Yield to Maturity or Market Interest Rate
• Face Value
• Coupon Payment or Coupon Interest
There are Two segments when we are working to find out the Present Value of Bond
Coupon Payments
Principle Repayments
EXAMPLE
A Bond is issued for 10 years with a coupon payments of Rs.80 per year. Market
rate is 8% for similar risk. Face value is Rs. 1000/- What should be the selling price
of the bond?
Solution:
PV Of Annuity = 80 x [(1-1/(1.08)10/0.08]
= 80 x 6.7101
= 536.81 or 537
PV of Principal = 1000/(1.08)10
= 463.19
PV of Annuity = 80 x (1 – 1/(1.10)9
= 460.72
PV of Bond = 885.00
(rounded off to nearest rupee)
Why 885?
PV Of Annuity = 80 x(1-1/(1.06)9/0.06
= 544.14
Adding both components
PV of bond =1136.
=(80-60) x [(1-1(1.06)9/0.06]
= 136
Summary:
YTM & Coupon Rate were same
Result PV of Bond was exactly equal to the FV
YTM greater than Coupon Rate
Results PV of the Bond less than the FV
YTM lower than Coupon Rate
Result PV of the Bond was greater than FV
CONCLUSION:
A Bond will be sold on a discount when YTM is greater than coupon rate.
A bond will be sold on premium when YTM is lower than the coupon rate.
For a bond selling above the face value is said to sell at premium. It means
investor who buys it at a premium face a capital loss over the life of bond. So
return on bond will be less than the current yield.
For a bond selling below the face value is said to sell at discount. This means
capital gain at maturity. The return on this bond is greater than its current yield.
EFFECTIVE YIELD
A bond pays semi-annual interest payments i.e., twice a year. Face value is Rs.1000/- and
coupon rate is 12%. This means two six-monthly payments of Rs. 60/- each. Bond matures in 7
years and yield to maturity is 14%. What is the effective annual yield on this bond?
1-PV = 1000/(1.07)14
= 1000 / 2.5785
= 387.82
2- PV of annuity =
= 60 x (1 – 1/(1.07)14/0.07
= 60 x 8.745395
= 524.72
Interest Rate:
Inflation adverse effects on valuation
Inflation persistent increase in general price level
Real Interest rate:
Nominal Interest Rate adjusted for inflation becomes Real Interest Rate
Relationship between Nominal and Real Interest Rates is known as Fisher Effect
Today you can buy one unit of a product at Rs. 5/-. It means you can buy 20 units
in Rs. 100/-. Inflation rate is 5%. And nominal interest rate is 15.5%. What is real
rate of return?
Solution:
Fisher’s Formula
1 + R = (1+r) x (1+h)
Where:
R= Nominal interest rate
r = real interest rate
h = inflation rate
Putting Values
Solution with formula:
1 + R= (1+r) x (1+h)
1 + 0.1550 = (1+r) x (1+0.05)
(1 + r) = 1.1550/1.05 = 1.10
r = .10 or 10%
Example – Fisher Effect
You need to invest an amount today to produce Rs. 100/- after a year. Nominal interest rate is
10% and inflation rate is 7%. What is the “exact” real interest rate?
Solution:
PV of Rs. 100= 100/(1.10)
=90.91
If inflation rate is 7%, real value of Rs. 100 is therefore
= 100 / 1.07
= 93.46
Real Interest Rate =1 + Nominal/1+Inflation
= 1.10 / 1.07
= 1.028 or 2.80%
If we discount real value of our Rs. 100 investment (93.46) by 2.8%, we get
PV = 93.46/1.028
= 90.91
Point to Remember
When:
LT > ST
Term Structure will be upward sloping
When:
ST > LT
Term Structure will be downward sloping
Inflation Rate
The fluctuation in Interest Rate also influences the Term Structure significantly.
Any slight fluctuation in Interest Rate can have a huge change in PV value due to
compounding effect.
Investors demand extra Risk Premium for change in Interest Rate. This is known as Interest
Rate Risk.
Features:
= D1 + (P1 – P0) / P0
Where:
D1 = Dividend after 1 Year
P1 = Price of Stock after Year 1
P0 = Price of Stock Period 0 or Current Price
Expected Returns:
= D1 + (P1 – P0) / P0
Where:
D1 = Dividend after 1 Year
P1 = Price of Stock after Year 1
P0 = Price of Stock Period 0 or Current Price
For Example:
P0 = Rs. 20/-
Dividend1 = Rs. 2 per share
P1 = Rs. 23/-
Price Today = D1 + P1 / 1 + r
= 2 + 23 / 1.25
= 25 / 1.25
= 20
Putting it the other way:
We are trying to calculate the price today if the expected rate of return is 25%:
Price Today = D1 + P1 / 1 + r
= 2 + 23 / 1.25
= 25 / 1.25
= 20
If:
Today Price > Rs. 20
If:
Today Price < Rs. 20
Dividend Discount Model states that today’s Price is equal to the Present Value of all future
Dividends
After One year:
P0 = Div + P1 / (1 + r)
After 2 years the value of stock is:
=Div1/(1+r) + Div2+P2/(1+r)2
After 3 years the value of stock is:
=Div1/(1+r) + Div2/(1+r)2 + Div3 + P3/(1+r)3
Assumptions:
Assume NO GROWTH by the Company.
It means that Investors may forecast that future Dividends will not increase.
Dividends over the years are at the same level – PERPETUITY
DIVIDEND GROWTH MODELS
NO GROWTH MODEL
When company pays out everything as Dividend then earnings and Dividend will be equal
and PV can be calculated as:
PV = EPS / r
CONSTANT GROWHT MODEL
Although the number of terms is infinite, the PV of Dividend is proportionately smaller than
the preceding term and this will continue as long as Growth Rate is less than the Discount
Rate.
Because the far Distant Dividends will be close to Zero, the sum of all of these terms is finite
despite of the fact that an infinite number of Dividends will be paid out.
P0 = D1 x (1+g) / (r – g)
Example:
The next dividend of a company will be Rs 4 per share. Investors demand 16 percent return on
share having same risk level as of this company. The dividend growth is 6% per year.
Calculate the value of this Company’s stock today and in four years using Dividend Growth
Model.
Solution:
Next Dividend has already been given:
P0 = D1 / (r - g)
P0 = 4 /( .16 - .06)
P0 = 40
Price in 4 years: D4 = 4 x (1.06)3 = 4.764
Formula: P4 = D4 x (1+g) / (r – g)
P4 = 4.764 x (1 + .06) / (0.16 - 0.06) = 50.50
Non-Constant Growth
Example:
Dividends for first, second and third year are expected in the amount of Rs. 1, 2 and 2.50
respectively and after that dividends will grow at a constant rate of 5 % per year. Required rate is
10%.
Calculate the value of stock after 3 years & today.
Solution:
P3 = D3 x (1+g) / (r - g) = 2.50 X 1.05 / (0.10 – 0.05) P3 = Rs. 52.50
Today’s Price:
2) Payout Ratio:
Percent age of profit at which Dividend is declared by the business.
Example:
Plowing back earnings does not add value to current stock price, if that
reinvestment is not expected to earn higher returns than expected by investors.
Plowing earnings back will only push the current prices of the stock up if
greater returns are expected by the investors.
Example:
Div1 = Rs. 1
Div2 = 1.20
Div3 = 1.44 after that it grows 5% per year
EPS3= 3.78
r = 10%
P/E ratio = 8 for shares of same risk level
TECHNICAL ANALYSIS:
TECHNICAL ANALYSIS
Charts and other tools are used to identify patterns that suggest future activity
TRENDS
Types:
Up-Trends
Down Trends
Horizontal Trends
TRENDS LENGTH
Short Term
Medium Term
Long Term
Analyst is trying to reach near the intrinsic value of company’s share by reading and
analyzing the financial, non-financial information and industry comparison.
Three step process:
Economic indicators: GDP, Interest Rates, Inflation, Exchange Rate
Industry Comparison and Competition
Individual Company Analysis
Financials
CEO Report
Audited Accounts
Auditors Report
CAPITAL BUDGETING
Definition:
It is a process in which we can evaluate the investment opportunities in order to
acquire some capital asset.
Types:
New Project
Expansion Project
Modernization / Replacement
Other / social responsibility – Pollution control etc
Research & Development
Exploration
SWOT Analysis :
S – Strength
W – Weakness
O – Opportunities
T – Threats
CB targeted towards potential opportunities
Investment Opportunitie(s) is/are identified
Different alternatives are considered
Every alternative is evaluated
The best option (s) is/are undertaken
PROJECT EVALUATION
Relevant Costs:
Incremental costs and benefits are relevant
Cost incidental to the undertaking of a project
Non-Relevant Costs:
Sunk Cost:
Which has been incurred in the past
Committed Cost:
Future cost
Opportunity Cost:
Existing benefit surrendered in favor of next best alternative
Opportunity Cost is also a relevant cost
Profit Vs Cash Flow
NET PRESENT VALUE
NPV = Discounted Benefits – Initial Investment
Example:
An investment in an asset of Rs. 40,000 today returns 10000 after first year,
13000, 14000 & 15000 after 2nd to 4th year respectively.
If the prevailing interest is 6% what is the net present value of cash flow?
EVALUATING TECHNIQUES
NET PRESENT VALUE / DCF
PAYBACK PERIOD
CALCULATE WACC?
SOLUTION:
M/s Dark Cloud Ltd., is considering an investment opportunity to manufacture a new product
“Silver-Lining” which would involve use of both new and existing plant.
The new plant life is 5 years and after that it could be sold for Rs. 145,000/-.
The skilled labor required for the manufacturing of silver-lining is in short supply and labor
resources would have to be switched over to this project. The labor is earning contribution
margin of Rs. 15.00 per hour.
Working capital of Rs. 150,000 will be required in first year and shall be recovered at the end
of project life. The company’s cost of capital is 20%. Assess whether project is financially
viable?
CM surrendered
Total CM lost
Net CM - Benefit
CAPITAL BUDGETING
Initial Working Net Disco
Year Investment Capital Benefit CM Facto
0 (1,450,000.00) (150,000.00) (1,600,000.00) 1.00
1 550,000.00 0.83
2 550,000.00 0.69
3 550,000.00 0.58
4 550,000.00 0.48
5 145,000.00 150,000.00 550,000.00 0.40
Example
M/s Hi-Mountain Ltd., - specialized chemical manufacturer are looking an untapped
investment opportunity. This involves manufacturing of a new chemical to be used in
textile industry. For this, the company must add a piece of plant with estimated life of
5 years, costing Rs. 2 million.
Other acquisition cost would be Rs. 50,000/- at the end of first year. A
consultant would be hired for technical aspect of the project at a cost of Rs.
50,000/-.
However, if the project does not turn out financially feasible, his contract would be
cancelled by paying him Rs. 15,000/-.
Working capital requirement would be Rs. 300,000/- in first year and rising to
Rs. 400,000/- in second year.
All the working capital would be recovered at the end of fifth year. Due to
technological obsolescence the plant will not be useable after fifth year and the
salvage value is estimated around Rs. 125,000/-.
Cash flow emerging from the additional sales would be Rs. 600,000 in first
and second years each, Rs. 550,000/- in third year, Rs. 700,000/- in forth and
Rs. 750,000/- in last year.
The company shall depreciate the asset on straight line over its useful life. Tax rate is
20%.
Company requires 10% rate of return on such projects.
SOLUTION:
CAPITAL BUDGETING
Benefit
Year Initial Cost
Capital W. Capital Consultant Others
0 (2,000,000.00) (300,000.00) -
1 (100,000.00) (35,000.00) (50,000.00) 600,000
2 600,000
3 550,000
4 700,000
5 125,000.00 400,000.00 750,000
Revenue
Revenue & Capital
Net benefit Benefit Total df @
Depreciation Tax purposes Tax 20% after Tax Benefit 10%
- - - - (2,300,000.00) 1.0000
(375,000.00) 225,000.00 45,000.00 555,000.00 455,000.00 0.9091
(375,000.00) 225,000.00 45,000.00 555,000.00 555,000.00 0.8264
(375,000.00) 175,000.00 35,000.00 515,000.00 515,000.00 0.7513
(375,000.00) 325,000.00 65,000.00 635,000.00 635,000.00 0.6830
(375,000.00) 375,000.00 75,000.00 675,000.00 1,200,000.00 0.6209
NPV
Assumptions
Taxes are paid in the same year of benefit occurring.
Consultant and Other costs are supposed to occur at the end of first year.
Inflation assumed 0% .
Rate of Return that is used to calculate the EXACT DCF Rate of Return which the project is
expected to achieve. A rate at which NPV is zero.
If the IRR of a project is lower than the target return, the project is deemed unfeasible.
If the IRR of a project is greater than the target return, the project is deemed feasible.
Example – IRR
Where:
a = Lower discount rate used to calculate NPV
b = Higher discount rate used to calculate NPV
A = NPV obtained with discount rate a (lower)
B = NPV obtained with discount rate b (higher)
A company intends to buy a new piece of equipment which will save Rs. 20,000 per year for
five years and this will cost Rs. 80,000/- and has an estimated residual value of Rs. 10,000/-
after 5th year.
The company only undertakes such project if IRR is above 10%. Find out the project
viability.
N
P
V 4,299.00
Step II
Since NPV is positive at 9%, we need other NPV preferably in negative.
This means that higher discount rate can return negative.
Let's try 12% (Guess 100%)
INTERNAL RATE OF RETURN – IRR
Step II: Let's use 12% discount factor
Ye Cash PV of
ar Flow DF 12% CF
(80,000. (80,000.
0 00) 1.00 00)
20,000.0 72,100.0
1-5 0 3.61 0
10,000.0
5 0 0.57 5,670.00
N
P (2,230.0
V 0)
Step III: Calculate IRR
IRR = a + [{A/(A-B)} x (b-a)]%
NPV vs IRR
NPV is comparatively complex as compared to IRR
IRR is more easily understandable
IRR dependable on NPV
Managers may confuse IRR with ROCE (Return On Capital Employed) & other Accounting
Measures
IRR ignores the relative size of investment
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ᓀ㵂Ü ct A ct B
When discount rate varies over the life of a project, it becomes difficult to
incorporate such change if using IRR, however, NPV is flexible over this
issue.
Example:
A company is considering to undertake an investment opportunity from one of the
following options:
Option A: Initial investment is Rs. 103,000/- and cash flow from the opportunity will
be Rs. 45,000, Rs. 40,000, Rs. 36,000, Rs.20,000 and Rs. 10,000 for year one to five.
Option B: Initial investment of Rs. 103,000/- will generate cash flow of Rs. 15,000/-,
25,000/-, 35,000/-, 54,000/- & 60,000/- from year one to five.
SOLUTION: PAYBACK PERIOD
Option A
0 (103,000.00)
1 45,000.00 45,000.00 12 1
2 40,000.00 85,000.00 24 2
3 36,000.00 121,000.00 3,000.00 6 2.5
4 20,000.00 141,000.00
5 10,000.00 151,000.00
SOLUTION: PAYBACK PERIOD
Option B
Cash Cum.
Flow CF Pay Back Months Years
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00) ᓀ㵂Ü ᓀ㵂Ü ᓀ㵂Ü
15,000.0 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞
15,000.00 0 ᓀ㵂Ü 12 1
40,000.0 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞
25,000.00 0 ᓀ㵂Ü 24 2
75,000.0 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞
35,000.00 0 ᓀ㵂Ü 36 3
129,000.
54,000.00 00 4,500.00 6.22 3.60
189,000. 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞
60,000.00 00 ᓀ㵂Ü ᓀ㵂Ü ᓀ㵂Ü
Decision Rule
If the company has policy to accept the project having less than three years of P.B period
then the company would go for project A or option A
If the company has policy to undertake a project, having P.B period of less than four years,
both project fall in green zone. Then to decide what project should undertake
Option A: 30 months recovering initial Investment
Option A is preferable
Payback
Very simple and easy to understand
Ignores time value of money
Ignores size of Investment (Project)
Ignores cash flows after payback.
Can be used as rough or crude measure of appraisal
Can be used for project filtration in case of more than one project.
The only difference between simple and discounted Pay Back is discounting.
Cash Flows expected over period of time are discounted using a Discount Rate.
Interestingly, if a project Pays Back on a discounted basis, then it must have a
positive NPV.
Example:
A company is considering to undertake an investment opportunity from one of the
following options;
Option A: Initial investment is Rs. 103,000/- and cash flow from the opportunity will
be Rs. 45,000, Rs. 40,000, Rs. 36,000, Rs.20,000 and Rs. 10,000 for year one to five.
Option B: Initial investment of Rs. 103,000/- will generate cash flow of Rs. 15,000/-,
25,000/-, 35,000/-, 54,000/- & 60,000/- from year one to five.
SOLUTION: DISCOUNTED PAYBACK PERIOD
Option A
PV of
Years Cash Flow Cum. CF DF 10% CF Pay Back Month Year
䦋㌌㏒㧀 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀
좈 琰 茞 ᓀ (103,0 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ
0 (103,000) 㵂Ü 00.00) 㵂 Ü 㵂Ü 㵂Ü
䦋㌌㏒㧀
40,905 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ
1 45,000 45,000 0.9090 .00 㵂Ü 12 1
䦋㌌㏒㧀
33,056 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ
2 40,000 85,000 0.8264 .00 㵂Ü 12 2
27,046
3 36,000 121,000 0.7513 .80 12 3
䦋㌌㏒㧀
13,660 좈琰茞 ᓀ
4 20,000 141,000 0.6830 .00 1,666.67 1.20 㵂Ü
䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀
6,209. 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ
5 10,000 151,000 0.6209 00 㵂Ü 㵂Ü 㵂Ü
䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 䦋㌌㏒㧀 䦋㌌㏒㧀
좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 17,876 좈 琰 茞 ᓀ 좈琰茞 ᓀ
㵂Ü 㵂Ü 㵂Ü 㵂Ü .80 㵂Ü 37.20 㵂Ü
SOLUTION: DISCOUNTED PAYBACK PERIOD
Option B
Formula:
PI = PV of Future Cash Flows Initial Investment
Decision Rule:
If PI is greater than 1, project land in green zone or can be undertaken otherwise it is not
viable.
Accept the project if PI is greater than 1, which means that NPV is positive.
Example: Capital Budgeting
NPV = Rs 137,997
Total PV of Cash Flow = 2.437 million
Initial Investment = 2.00 million
Sensitivity Analysis
Break Even Analysis
Degree of Operating Leverage
Advance Evaluation
Sensitivity Analysis:
Slight change in the factor brings magnified effects on the overall viability of a project, this
is known as critical or sensitive factor of project.
Like cash Flow, Cost Estimation, Taxes, Cost of Capital or Discounted Rate, Exchange Rate
etc.
Example:
Initial Investment Rs. 7.10 million
Variable Costs = Rs. 2.0 million per year
Inflows Rs. 6.50 million per year
Project life 2 years
Cost of capital 8%.
0 (7,100,000.00)
0 1 (7,100,000.00) (7,100,000.00)
Example:
Initial Investment Rs. 7.10 million
Variable Costs = Rs. 2.0 million per year
Inflows Rs. 6.50 million per year
Project life 2 years
Cost of capital 8%.
PROBABILITY ANALYSIS
TC = Total Cost
FC = Fix Cost
VC = Variable Cost
TR = Total Revenue
Example: Accounting Break Even
Sale Price 15
Accounting break even does not cover cost of capital. It means that accounting
break even does not add value to the organization at break even point.
That’s why companies often stress on value addition – to find a level where the
project breaks even after returning the cost of capital along with fixed cost.
Sales 14,471,337.58
0.2 or 20% of Sale
CM Ratio =2,894,267.52
Profit Nil
Operating Leverage
Leverage:
VC 11,550.00 14,025.00
FC 3,000.00 750.00
VC 11,550.00 14,025.00
FC 3,000.00 750.00
Qty 20,000.00
PROFIT 9,000.00
DOL 6
DOL = 1+FC/Profit
= 1+ 45,000/9,000
DOL = 6
SOFT RATIONING
Arises due to internal factors
Management is reluctant to issue new share because of the fear of outsider taking
control of company.
Dilution of EPS
Increased interest payments in case of debt financing
Company’s will to maintain limited investment level that can be financed thru
retained earnings.
HARD RATIONING
Arises due to external factors
- If share prices are depressed or market is bearish, raising capital is very difficult.
- Restriction on lending by Banks.
- High interest rate
- High cost associated with issuance of share / debt instrument.
SOFT RATIONING
Arises due to internal factors
Management is reluctant to issue new share because of the fear of outsider taking
control of company.
Dilution of EPS
Increased interest payments in case of debt financing
Company’s will to maintain limited investment level that can be financed thru
retained earnings.
HARD RATIONING
Arises due to external factors
- If share prices are depressed or market is bearish, raising capital is very difficult.
- Restriction on lending by Banks.
- High interest rate
- High cost associated with issuance of share / debt instrument.
CAPITAL RATIONING
Two situations
Criticism:
Normally projects are not divisible.
If the case above, then project selection will be on absolute NPV.
Strategic values of each project are ignored
PI ignores the size of project.
Projects may have different cash flow pattern.
Profitability Index
Profitability Index is a relationship between present value of all future cash flows and
initial investment.
Decision Rule
PI > 1
Undertake the project.
Single Period CR
Assumptions:
- Projects cannot be deferred or postponed. If a project is not undertaken, the opportunity is
lost.
- Complete certainty about each project.
- Projects are divisible – say 60% of project A and 40% of project B can be undertaken.
RANKING OF PROJECTS:
- Ranking projects in terms of NPV leads to selection of heavy or large projects. We can use
PI with NPV for ranking projects.
(2,00 60 0.2 3. 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 좈 琰
A 0.00) 0.00 0 00 茞ᓀ㵂Ü
TOTAL (70,00 12,10 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 좈 琰
NPV 0.00) 0.00 茞ᓀ㵂Ü
Project Selection based on PI
PV
OF
PROJEC INITIAL CAS RANKI
TS INVESTME H NPV PI NG RANKING
NT FLO NPV PI
W
(10,00 3,00 1. 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 좈 琰
A 0.00) 0.00 00 茞ᓀ㵂Ü
(28,00 6,50 2. 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 좈 琰
D 0.00) 0.00 00 茞ᓀ㵂Ü
(20,00 2,90 3. 䦋 ㌌ ㏒ 㧀 좈 琰
C 0.00) 0.00 00 茞ᓀ㵂Ü
When capital availability is in short supply in more than one period, then we can
not rank projects by profitability index.
PROJECT PV OF PV OF PV OF NPV
OUTFLOW OUTFLOW OUTFLOW
Rs.
Rs. ‘000’ Rs. ‘000’ Rs. ‘000’ ‘000’
X 30 10 10 50
Y 20 6 4 10
Capital Investment -
Availability
PERIOD 1 36
PERIOD 2 10
PERIOD 3 8
PERIOD 1 =30x+Y20<=36
PERIOD 2 =10x + 6y<=10
PERIOD 3 =10x + 4y<= 8
Where:
x & y <= 1 Means that portion of project is less than one or equal to one
Objective Function:
x y
1.20 1.80
1.00 1.67
0.80 2.00
Limitation of LP
Projects are not divisible
Ignores the relative size of the Investment
Assumes variables have linear relation
Uncertainty is ignored
Constraints are independent
RISK VS UNCERTAINTY
RISK :
Refers to a situation having several possible outcomes, and
we can assign Probabilities to outcomes based on our past experience.
UNCERTAINITY:
Refers to a situation where Probability of a outcome cannot be assigned.
RISK VS UNCERTAINTY
RISK :
Refers to a situation having several possible outcomes, and
we can assign Probabilities to outcomes based on our past experience.
UNCERTAINITY:
Refers to a situation where Probability of a outcome cannot be assigned.
Two Phases:
Past Performance
Expected or Future Returns
Measuring Risk – Past Performance
In investing business you need to measure how far the return may be from the average.
Return volatility or variability can be measured with variance.
Statistical Tools:
Variance
Standard Deviation
Variance is the average value of squared deviations from the average or mean.
Var. = 0.003092
SD = 0.0556 or 5.56%
Market Variance – Past Performance
Squared
Year Return % Deviations Deviations
2000 18.56 (0.43) 0.18
2001 27.98 8.99 80.82
2002 19.40 0.41 0.17
2003 24.00 5.01 25.10
2004 10.00 (8.99) 80.82
2005 14.00 (4.99) 24.90
113.94 211.99
AVG Return 18.99
Var. = Sq. Deviation/(n-1)
= 211.99/6-1
Var. = 42.40
SD = 6.51%
RISK
SYSTEMATIC
Economy-wide sources of Risk that effects all the stocks being traded in market.
systematic risk influences large number of assets and is also known as market risk.
UNSYSTEMATIC
It affects only specific assets or a firm. it is also known as Diversifiable or Unique or
Asset- specific Risk.
DIVERSIFICATION
Splitting investment across number of assets having different level of Risk is known as
Diversification.
UNSYSTEMATIC OR UNIQUE RISK:
It can be eliminated by Diversification therefore, a Portfolio with many assets has almost
zero Unsystematic Risk.
PORTFOLIO variability does not equal to the average variation of its underlying
components. Why?
Diversification reduces variability.
A B Total
Portfolio Return 5.00 9.90 14.90
DIVERSIFICATION
DIVERSIFICATION works because prices of securities underlying a portfolio do not
change with same rate.
Putting the other way, the change in Prices are less than perfectly correlated.
Diversification returns much better results when returns from Portfolio securities are
negatively correlated.
Expected Return %
Stock X 8.60
Stock Y 9.40
Stock Z 8.80
Expected Return (ER) of
Portfolio 8.89
PORTFOLIO variability does not equal to the average variation of its underlying
components. Why?
Diversification reduces variability.
Diversification returns much better results when returns from Portfolio securities are
negatively correlated.
Expected Return %
Stock X 8.60
Stock Y 9.40
Stock Z 8.80
Expected Return (ER) of
Portfolio 8.89
RISK
SYSTEMATIC
Economy-wide sources of Risk that effects all the stocks being traded in market.
systematic risk influences large number of assets and is also known as market risk.
UNSYSTEMATIC
It affects only specific assets or a firm. it is also known as Diversifiable or Unique or
Asset- specific Risk.
DIVERSIFICATION
Splitting investment across number of assets having different level of Risk is known as
Diversification.
UNSYSTEMATIC OR UNIQUE RISK:
It can be eliminated by Diversification therefore, a Portfolio with many assets has almost
zero Unsystematic Risk.
BETA
Systematic Risk is measured by Beta Coefficient or Beta.
Beta measure the systematic risk inherent in an asset relative to the market as whole.
18.0 (20.0
Boom 0.33 0 0) 8.50 4.50 20.25
Recessio (8.00
n 0.33 ) 20.00 (1.00) (5.00) 25
Investment Expected Portfolio Portfolio
Stock Investment weight Return Beta ER BETA
Standard Deviation of individual stock measure how risky it would be if held in Isolation.
But an investor is interested how individual stock would effect the whole Portfolio.
AVERAGE BETA
Average Beta is equal to 1.
If any stock has a Beta of 0.50 it means that the stock carries half of Market Risk.
AGGRESSIVE STOCKS
Aggressive stocks have high Beta.
Defensive stock are less volatile to change in market return and have beta of less than one
SECURITY MARKET LINE
HOW RISK IS REWARDED IN MARKET?
Assumptions
Capital Market is fraction-less or no additional cost, no charges etc.
Relevant information available to all participants i.e. homogenous expectations.
Assumptions
Capital Market is fraction-less or no additional cost, no charges etc.
Relevant information available to all participants i.e. homogenous expectations.
INVESTMEN
PORTFOLI TA
SECURIT O
Y E BET INVESTMEN BET
R A T% ER A ER BETA
= 0.066666667 or
= 6.67
A RF
25 75 0.08 0
50 50
75 25
100 0
125 -25
150 -50
SECURITY MARKET LINE
Portfolio Expected Return
Y Investment in A
Rf=8%
0 X
1.50
Portfolio Beta
SLOPE OF STRAIGHT LINE
ERa - Rf
Beta
% OF CURVE
PORTFOLIO PORTFOLIO PORTFOLIO SLOPE
INVESTMENT ER BETA
IN STOCK A
8
0 8.00 - -
25 9.50 0.28 5.45
50 11.00 0.55 5.45
75 12.50 0.83 5.45
100 14.00 1.10 5.45
125 15.50 1.38 5.45
150 17.00 1.65 5.45
CHANGE IN INVESTMENT OF A SECURITY IN PORTFOLIO
Reward to Risk = ( ER a - ER rf )/Beta a
= 0.0545 or
= 5.45
A RF
25 75 0.08 0
50 50
75 25
100 0
125 -25
150 -50
Y Investment in B
ERa
14%
Slope= 5.45
Rf=8%
0 X
1.10
Portfolio Beta
CONCLUSION
THE REWARD TO RISK RATION MUST BE THE SAME FOR ALL THE
STOCKS IN THE MARKET.
FUNDAMENTAL OUTCOME
Since stock A is offering better Reward-to-Risk Ratio as compared to stock B, the
situation will not persist in a well established market.
Investors will rush to stock A & stock B will not be traded much.
This situation will push stock A’s price up and the expected return of stock will reduce.
On the other side, with less attractions, stock B’s price will fall increasing the ER and this
will bring the both stocks on the same line.
That means both stocks will offer the same reward for bearing risk.
When both stock offer same reward to risk, we can state as under:
ERA - Rf / beta A = ERB - Rf / beta B
C
ER-C ERa – Rf/ Beta
D
ER ER - B
ER-A
Rf
b-D
0 X
b- A b-B b-C
Portfolio Beta
If ERi and Betai represent Expected Return and Beta of “Any” asset in market
then:
ERi – Rf = ERm – Rf
beta i
“Any” asset must also lie on SML.
Re-arranging the above equation:
ERi = Rf + {ERm – Rf} x Beta I
This is known as Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) Equation.
WHAT CAPM TELLS US
Time value of money:
Risk Free Rate “Rf” is a rate when you don’t take risk. It is just
waiting for money.
Systematic Risk:
It is measured by Beta. this measure the systematic risk present in an assets
or Portfolio, relative to average asset.
Time value of money:
Risk Free Rate “Rf” is a rate when you don’t take risk. It is just
waiting for money.
Systematic Risk:
It is measured by Beta. this measure the systematic risk present in an assets
or Portfolio, relative to average asset.
DETERMINING THE SECURITY VALUE
= 15.18
Under/Over Valued Stocks
Risk to
Reward
STOCK ER BETA Ratio
ABC 15 1.5 5.33
XYZ 11 0.9 4.44
Risk Free Rate 7
SLOPE OF SML:
ERa – Rf/ Beta
ABC 5.33
XYZ 4.44
Under/Over Valued Stocks
We can interpret that stock XYZ offers an insufficient Expected Returns for the level of
risk relative to ABC.
Its ER is low and price is high and this is a overvalued stock relative to ABC.
We can also state that ABC is undervalued stock.
RECAP
Total Risk of an investment is measured by Standard Deviation or Variance.
Systematic Risk:
Systematic risks are unanticipated that effects all the assets to some degree. It is
non-diversifiable.
Equity
Compliance of SECP and Companies Ordinance 1984
IPO’s in Primary Markets
Prospectus in case of Listed Companies
Underwriting
RE = D1 / P0 + g
RE is the return that shareholders require on the stock or it is the Cost of Equity of the
firm.
EXAMPLE
No-one limited paid last dividend of Rs. 5 per share. Current market value of its share is
Rs.50 per share and company expect a constant growth in dividend of 6% per annum.
Calculate Return on Equity.
Regression Equation:
y = a + b (x) = 10.17464
=
b = n (Exy) – ExEy / n Ex2 - (Ex)2 -0.0067857
n=7
=
a = Ey /n – bEx / n 10.23
MERITS & DEMERITS OF DIVIDEND GROWHT MODEL
- Simple to understand.
- Easy to calculate.
- Only used for companies who pay dividend, so not useable for other companies who do
not pay dividends.
- Assumption of constant growth is unrealistic.
- Does not consider risk.
- Simple to understand.
- Easy to calculate.
- Only used for companies who pay dividend, so not useable for other companies who do
not pay dividends.
- Assumption of constant growth is unrealistic.
- Does not consider risk.
RE = Rf + BE x (RM – Rf)
SML – COST OF EQUITY
EXAMPLE:
Share of M/s Risky Limited has a beta of 1.2 and Risk Free Rate is 5%. Market Risk
Premium is 8%. Last dividend paid was Rs.3 per share and growth in dividend is
expected to be 7%. The current stock price in market is Rs. 50. Work out the cost of
equity using dividend model and security market line method.
We can find out cost of equity using SML and Dividend Model.
SECURITY MARKET LINE – COST OF EQUITY
RE = Rf + BE x (RM – Rf)
Putting values:
RE = 5% + (1.2 x 8%) = 14.6%
RE = D1 / P0 + g
D1 = 3 x 1.07 = 3.21
RE = (3.21 / 50) + .07
= 13.42%
MERITS & DEMERITS – SML
It explicitly adjust for Risk
Applicable in situations where no steady Dividend Growth is observed.
Estimation of Market Risk Premium and Beta if turn out poor then result will be
inaccurate.
Past data is used to predict future.
COST OF DEBT
Three items an e classified under Debt
1. PREFERRED SHARES
2. DEBT INSTRUMENTS – BONDS
3. LOANS & LEASES
1. PREFERRED STOCK:
As we know that Preferred Stocks carry fixed dividend every period. There’s no variation
in dividend level. This means that dividend from Preferred Stock is essentially Perpetuity.
Cost of Preferred Stock can be calculated from the following:
RP = D / P0
For example if the dividend is Rs. 3.50/- per share and Current Market Price is Rs.40/-,
then the Rp will be:
RP = 3.50 / 40
= 8.75%
Venture Capital
Individual or Firms who lend their money and services to others in return for profit or stake
in the business.
Limited Market
Introduction market: It works on personal contacts.
Expertise
Raise funds on their own behalf.
Venture Capitalist must be financially strong.
Exit strategy must be finalized.
It is a debt instrument that is issued by the company to raise its capital.
Maturity Period
Fixed amount of Interest
COST OF DEBT – BONDS
A company may have several outstanding Bond issue at a point of time with varying
terms like Coupon Rate, Face Value, Term etc.
Market value and Book value of issue may be different.
How can we come to a single cost figure?
Do we use book or market values to work out cost of debt?
We need to calculate the weighted average of cost of debt. Share of each issue from total
debt capital is multiplied by yield to maturity of each issue.
LOANS
Term loans are less complicated issue of raising capital.
Banks require collateral or security for granting loans.
Interest is negotiated and banks also have some charges or fee.
LEASES
Normally more expensive than loans.
Collateral other than assets being leases is not required.
EXAMPLE – WEIGHTED AVERAGE COST OF DEBT
Weighted
% Average
% of YT M
ISSU Book of MV of M M BV V
E Value BV Bonds V
SHARES
O/S
Issue # 721
Issue # 722
Issue # 723
Issue # 724
SHARES
O/S
13,100,000.00
7,200,000.00
TOTAL 䦋㌌㏒
CAPITALIZATION 䦋㌌㏒㧀좈琰茞 ᓀ 㵂 Ü 32,800,000.00 Ü
OTHER INFORMATION
TAX RATE 40%
LAST YEAR's DIVIDEND PER SHARE 1.57
GROWTH RATE - DIVIDEND 0.06
PAR VALUE PER SHARE 10
MARKET VALUE /SHARE 15
PREFERRED STOCK 25
DIVIDEND ON PREFERRED STOCK 3
Weight age Weight age
Of Of
Cost of Individual Individual
Componen Component Component WAC WAC
t s BV s MV C BV C MV
Re = Di / Po
+g 17.09
Di = 1.57 x
1.06 1.66
COST OF
EQUITY 17.09 0.30 0.39 5.21 6.73
2.34
1.83
1.73
1.57
BOND
DEBT Tax
Weighted Adjuste
Avg Cost 7.47 0.40 0.35 1.79 1.58 d
Preferred
Stock
Dividend
Cost 12.00 0.08 0.07 0.91 0.79
1.83
1.94
2.92
4.17
LOAN
WEIGHTE Tax
D Adjuste
AVERAGE 10.86 0.22 0.19 1.43 1.23 d
9.35 10.32
Weighted Average Cost Of Capital (WACC)
Weighted Average Cost Of Capital (WACC)
WACC= BV
(17.09*0.30)+((7.47*0.4)(1-0.40))+(12*0.08)+((10.86*0.22)(1-0.40)
COMMON
BOND X
STOCK X
WEIGHT
WEIGHT X TAX
PREFER
RED LOAN X
STOCK X WEIGHT
WEIGHT
PV = BENEFIT / WACC - g
PV = 4,000,000 /0 .1886 – 0.06 = 31,104,199/-
Corporate finance lecture No. 20
Using WACC as discount rate when the intended project has different risk level as of
company then it will lead to incorrect rejections and/or incorrect acceptance.
For example, a company having two strategic units and one unit having lower risk than
the other, using WACC to allocate resource will end up putting lower funds to high risk
and larger funds to low risk division.
PURE PLAY
When a unit or division of a firm has different risk level than the firm, we can look for
other companies (like of division in question) to know the beta, debt/equity capital
structure so we could develop a discount rate for the division in question.
Pure Play refers to estimating the required return on investment that is unique to a
specific project, based on the projects similar to line of business.
When an intended project has a different (Systematic) risk level from the existing, then
we need to calculate the systematic risk of new project to find out WACC based on the
cost of equity and debt to be used in the intended project.
EXAMPLE
M/S Riskless Limited have been contemplating a new diversified project. Current Beta of
the firm is 1.2, however, the average Beta of diversified project industry is 1.7 and
debt/equity ratio is 30:70
Debt is considered to be risk free and interest rate is 12%. Market risk rate is 20% and
corporate tax rate is 35%.
Required: Work out appropriate discount rate for new project, if the new project is
a) All equity financed.
b) D/E is 30:70
c) D/E is 40:70
Solution: Pure Play.xls
PURE PLAY
Project Variables:
Gbeta 1.7 a) c)
E 70 E 100 D 0.4
D 30 Rm 20 E 0.6
T 0.35 E 0.7
Where:
Gbeta = Geared Beta
E = Weighted of equity in capital structure
D = Weight of debt in capital structure
T = Tax rate
Using CAPM equation to calculate the cost of equity:
Re = Rf + B (Rm-Rf)
= 22.6369
This project, if only equity financed, must be evaluated using 22.6369% discount rate.
This is WACC for Un-geared firm where cost of equity is overall cost of capital.
Solution:
b) New Project if financed with D /E of 30 : 70
Since the systematic risk (business and financial risk) of new industry are same as of this
scenario, no adjustment to Beta is necessary.
Cost of Equity:
Re = Rf + B (Rm-Rf)
= 25.6
Cost of Debt:
Kd = I x (1-t)
= 7.8
WACC = 20.26
This should be the discount rate for the intended project.
Solution:
c) New Project if financed with D 40 and Equity 60
We need to re-gear the Beta to reflect the proposed financing. For D/E of 30/70 financing
the Beta as calculated above:
Formula to un-gear equity Beta = Gbeta x (E / E + D(1-t))
1.3296 = Gbeta X 60 / 60 + 40 (1-t)
1.3296 = Gbeta X 0.697674419
Gbeta = 1.91
Now we can calculate WACC under this financing arrangements. We first calculate the
cost of equity capital:
Re = Rf + B (Rm-Rf)
= 27.25
Cost of Debt:
Kd = 7.8
WACC = 19.47
Interest - - - 0
BE
+ FIN LEVERAGE
2
X
300000 600,000
EBIT
-2
-IVE FIN LEVERAGE
CONCLUSION
Financial leverage effect depends on the EBIT. Higher the EBIT, leverage is beneficial.
Under normal scenario leverage increases the returns to shareholders – measured by EPS
and ROE.
Also shareholders are exposed to more risk under debt-equity structure.
corporate finance lecture No. 21
A firm may employ any of the above options of capital structure, the value of firm is not
affected as long as the capital is fixed (does not exceed 100%). This is because the operating
income will remain constant and nothing positive (additional income) will increase the equity
and share price.
WACC does not depend on debt equity ratio. Because it is the function of relative costs
of debt & equity, and any change in debt and equity mix will change the cost of each
component accordingly, making no movement in overall WACC.
For example – take one Pizza, slice it in four quarters and then half each quarter to make
8 pieces of Pizza. Even you have 8 pieces but you don't have more Pizza.
Expected rate of return on the common stock of a levered firm increases in proportion to
the debt-equity mix (market values to be used).
this means that for an un-levered firm, Return on equity (RE) is equal to return on asset.
In other words, a firm’s cost of equity is positive linear function of the firm’s capital
structure.
PROPOSITION II OF MM MODEL
WACC = D/V(RD) + E/V(RE)
Renaming the equation:
r ASSETS = r DEBT x D/V + r EQUITY x E/V
Re-arranging the equation for r EQUITY:
r EQUITY = r ASSETS + D/E (r ASSETS - r DEBT )
M & M; PROPOSITION 2
25.00
COST OF CAPITAL %
20.00 INTEREST RATE
ROE
15.00 WACC
WACC
10.00
INT RATE
5.00
- X
1 2 3 4 5
DEBIT EQUITY RATIO
Business risk arises from assets and operations of the firm and has nothing to do with
capital structure of the firm.
Financial risk is determined by the financial policy. As debt weight is increased financial
risk increases.
M & M MODEL WITH TAXES
Taxes are reality of business environment.
Vu = EBIT x (1-t) / Ru
EBIT and taxable income of this firm is same.
WACC is:
M&M MODEL
a) VALUE OF UN-LEVERED
FIRM Vu
WITH NO DEBT =EBIT x ( 1 - t) / Ru
Vu = 240,000.00
From MM proposition I, Value of
firm with Debt = VL VL = Vu + D x t
260,000.00
Because this is the value of Levered
firm E = VL - D
then, the equity value is:
210,000.00
b) Based on MM proposition 2, RE = Ru + (Ru - Rd) x
with tax cost of equity is: (D/E) x (1 - t)
0.21 21.43
8437.5
c) WACC
WACC = E/V(RE) + D/V(RD) x (1
– t) 0.18 18.46
This shows that the WACC of a levered firm is lesser than that of un-levered.
The WACC of un-levered firm was 20% and of levered firm is 18.46%.
BANKRUPTCY COSTS
BANKRUPTCY COSTS:
As debt increases chances of default of repayment of principal and interest
increases.
Firm must ensure that it will pay tax in future because the value increase is
incidental with paying of taxes. High gearing reduces the taxable income against
which to off set interest expense.
DEPRECIATION:
VALUE OF FIRM
PV OF TAX SHEILD VL= VU + T x D
Bankruptcy & FD
VL
MAX
FIRM VU
VALUE Value of No-Debt Firm
TOTAL DEBT
D
OPTIMAL DEBT LEVEL
DIVIDEND POLICY
DVIDENDS
HIGH & LOW PAYOUT
DIVIDEND STRATEGIES
Two Components of Incomes:
TYPES OF DIVIDENDS
Cash dividends
Stock dividends
Ex-Dividend: For example, the Board of Directors declares dividend and record
date is set to Monday 18 September 2006, then the ex-date will be Thursday 14
September 2006. If someone buys the share in question on 13th Sept 2006, he/she
will be entitled to receive the dividend just declared. Someone buying the share
on 14th will not be.
WHY DIVIDEND POLICY IS IMPORTANT?
a) Affects shareholders attitude.
b) Dividend policy has implications on capital budgeting program.
c) It reduces cash flow position.
d) It effects Debt Equity Ratio.
DIVIDEND POLICIES
STABLE DIVIDEND PER SHARE:
per share fixed amount of dividend paid every year.
Look favorably by investors and implies low risk firm.
Investors can easily forecast and predict their earnings.
Aid in financial planning.
EPS
3 DIV/SHARE
VALUE
1.50
TIME
POINTS TO REMEMBER
Firm A’s pay out ratio is 50%. It means whatever it earns, half of is paid as
dividend.
Firm B although has the same earning level, but maintains stable dividend over
time.
Total dividend $ value is same under both situations.
There may be more value for firm b for maintaining stable dividend because
investors may perceive more value.
Brokerage fee, Floatation Cost and transaction cost are also consider.
Y FIRM B – DIV PAY OUT
EPS
VALUE
DIV/SHARE
1.50
TIME