ABC(C-I )- I /B,H,U,N,S/20

2021

Time Allowed
- 3 Hours Full Marks _ 200
PAPER-I

If the questions attempted are in excess of the prescribed number, only tlte questions
attemptedfirst up to the prescribed number shall be valued
and the remaining ones ignored.
The figures in the margin indicate marks for each question.
Do not write your name, address etc. anywhere inside the answer book. Write X, y,
Zif necessary.

BENGALI LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORTS, PRECIS

WRITING
COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION

>r frafrRu N @ldt qoffR'<r c*tt6 w"Fr< q&ng 666q1 aia1ftfrq {from {F,flqm-< mmwfR-+
"{-4$rcr fr-1u ma s (iln-fu{
)co )srrqi rc$ fr{{,)
x, y, z
"ffu 80
(o1 q6q6 € Tq(s.r<
(rt) <{e<( <trq.-sl
(1) Frqt{{lyst{t-< ssq

r r ffirRlg R].s q-rG6 qoo xffig rc$ ,{sF q-{q-aT aGr<kr fr"tl c 8o
q{_4E{ Fr$ qNrcq"f, reEr qftR c[c< r,

er ffiftsqic"mclTn{fu, ,o
:ffi qg qmJr, 'rf,q$ 'rt<mfr, qlyst$ R(stfr, ffi <q r ffirq< u<q {KcIeRfu w st#<
qrT €rEe eFnTH {s{; {u Ef,{ €.*s q<(
Gqft {r.ct c-sr aqrq rt,u{mm-q
fiffi q-<lfuTG< erEF qfu, y*m<Rt:trqR R--{t Emfij qqq skK{, &"*
qtrrrefi{
csq-< q-dl.Eor6{ skK{,
U"flq?T-{ q-a1frafi<r-fi sk6fl, frq1s.T,c{-{ q-{r q{
ER $kafl, W<rtr

st w{(EfF "fb+r<El<&fusffifi1s A,$erq1-3fis1fi{ B 5oX8=8o

c$r{s 6s'l{s M-$ 4tc{< qsil c$Rft "tG Wq mtrc R dtl fiRrE qt6 qQrq ScTIrt $rT t
'5iltJ"Il6l',ek-sE enF 1+r+tuo-rqtrilffir c'F, F+fi, ErErlst
@r eg& <e aw g"xnqlT 6AIrs
frffilc-< utFt"ff6r <rq r etFt,tt6t <-<tr+< rrt{ 1wRe.rm< fi<rq r1qrzs i<E$E qrr{ qr33r6t q-{,
<tflftt Es, v1EIR ffiq)iln t{l< ",qGrr{-$
"ils <r<qs q{ I fr-g q1{L<qv 6qtrs {RlT "ffa"ff6f <Fr vrqt w{I Tg I

*1"11 R q?E tq-<q tfu "fntqf erw ftorq uW< +qn c((sc,t <frrFQ _ {REs w.fiEv, pa1
tgllfr €N c{{-{rrs B I t{ srEEry ?q, frs w{j E"nqH Rfc't rfBE, 6GE { qtB< rtrrs< am w?r
s-{t {Ei r mt6mrc+< ftq, c{B{ ettfu-s qnnr, {-6fffricx-< ffi, ffi,
1g4, c<lutq agG wa-+
&firq-{ EffilT crr{-qm-s I qcn?F Ext$f, @:r€ qQ qvild r <-<rr<-< cfu aq.. AEmrturpt ve-rHRi
<t
erw qr I <t<et{ !qy6E h.fp-qsl, <Erl q_{ r <fi.s s.tE-s-srd qq qdotRrq-{ cqro rW} xE qs r tqt
QF T'tffi{ c'rl, Fsfr ag& aw <t r

20906
Please Turn Over

04811
ABC(C-I)-1/B,H,U,N,S/20 (2)
qEr\e rm-qlqn rq rt "I{<q emdftfra {16r <tqlr< Dfrrerq, {qt c{Fr[mF[, &{cTlq, ttrqlfrq
-
<IrffiR? W t eefr{ E"ftqE e elvpd.fift RB* r {@ c{fi, 4-+q A&< dp, 41-41sqq affi,
c<F5t{,5en We <q efrfi-q &frc s?:rfr 4rilcf€N ew E{ I

(s) {fi{tftftr q<BqotR-qcslafi{ mlatr{ m{tff{?

(q) 6[qocru< Eqq ft e q{ftq3r qFil csq mq Cfra c{{-cTcss fr[{ t rR q{ I

('t) EEsr+Rt A-qr< ?sk qr? qE fu{+,{ "mtdr e< <t<n vd affi orn t

(E) M.$ qrn-* crtRft {&-{ qqamlcst ft q{ I

ar FrqfrfisqqtF< <qt5lqcs4 s 8o

word
That afternoon almost the whole of Kamarpukur comes for the Kirtan. Through Dhani, the
was spread that Ramkrishna would go back to Dakshineswar, so no one wanted to miss
this
Several of
opportunity. As the courtyard is too small to hold the crowd, they shift to a nearby field.
men sit on the
the men have Khols, two or three have violin, and a few others have flutes. The
ground in a group with Ramkrishna and the ladies sit on one side.

HINDI LETTER WRITING, DRAFIING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING,

COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION
40
1. Write a letter in about 150 words (any one) :

(Write XYZfor Name and Address)

(6') qlrq d q.6-fr gi .rEqr dr q1.q i {qt 5qffi rFII-m qd frIicr+5s; q* lofuq t

(E) s|g I.(Irf q ffer|q-eqt q.rrFrr qir Er q;G *fueEIsq-feqr.r dt w ftfuq t

(rt) q,trcl qr dfus -19 ta qqrq q{ qsTrq I

2. ,cfuf,r3t q{ Eq {6 €rq1rqs frg1' qr fi*<r qm +ril g< qr1qg q* * toq q6 cFd+qq frfuq t

(sTflrq.dq 2oorr<l q) 40

3. firqR-rEorrsisrqlqnfrfuq , 4o

uffi66O oTrq<i fr+ffi tai t rqo srrsr{ ilq d EIk€ 61s*fr tsrq rq qi66il-t661fsi5,t
*{f{<r t f+f€Ei 3ft{6qTt dtffd fr 3{r€frftf,I i <qeotfeqr dr rqs tflr q Eit e.AFdr *t
fE6{ Eq gf,fi sr51-a r qrEry ilfr f+ qa aqrfr r{qiqdr sit q-s t sW q* ffi eq +r
qq fie ffi {6dr
r r

t fr ssdr frr q.a trn vte t r enerfrrtror ft1 drr{dr {ItrIr+T ffi td{r 6 rq ait'il *'df-qrq 655q{ d
srci Erq+16t qrtq'{ qrqffi+q 616qwm ffiiffir q,r frq ceq{ til B r
 ) (3 ABC(C-I)-1/B,H,U,N,S/20

4. tr<d rrui$ *'eTrqR rR fu rrE c$fr *'yrt {kq : 10x4=40

s-qi E{rt frqt qr Yqtq t r SfrFr+fq+rs 51gruR tfr u-fi t r dfuc frqrs fiqrer Ei Eci r{fd B1
rirwn m-t erqr t r vrgtaoeqq el {er qw+'r errqq toqr t ffiq{qri sElrq rfi t r rqt nrorFro
eru *frq Eynm gwr+re1 d aroct {s t(cr t, df*t+irerrt* +td6rs +qftq sngf{'s,f{srs Bi d-s
fr eq art gq t r gf+ro +1 eurdrcil *vtq qro seA fr r t
qrc-fi Ei r sshEr sc fr td E{sq
ffi
+i crffilfi {HTenl +t rgsrgr cg rfi
<{i? 6.rfi ,n, afu-{ ?frefl-fr t
qqdrqua sqrm ffid d,
qrcmtr
(+') sr(iffi Tui{r o. idq qfi urgffi qfrds frfuq r

(q) Bqi or rclt Hrqrfss,frqr t wr rm tz

(rr) ilffirfufrerq }rcrq ({rnfr Eq'Trci *} iroqt tqt or eilerq H€dflqq r

(sl Tdsre *ler+crer} t Tdffi Hurdr irr qrgie se etfuq r

s. fu{furrrqt{rmffiderEqn+ifqq . 40
That afternoon almost the whole of Kamarpukur
comes for the Kirtan, through Dhani, the word
was spread that Ramkrishna would go back to Dakshineswar,
so no one wanted to miss this
opportunity' As the courtyard is too small to hold the
crowd, they shift to a nearby field. Several of
the men have Khols, two or three have violin and a few
others have flutes. The men sit on the
ground in a group with Ramkrishna and the ladies sit
on one side.

URDU, LETTER WRITING, DRAFIING OF REPORT,

PRECIS WRITING,
COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION
1' write a letter from the following topics to the editor of an urdu newspaper
in 150 words: 40
(Write XyZfor Name and.Address)

eiln\.,tr,il tL6.jf+r (a)

,t:/(oi vrvt,,F[,;vLv G)
;tiLq.,vr (c)

2. Draft a report on the following topic in 200 words.

40
'L.-1;trei'
3. Write a pr6cies of the following passage in Urdu.
40

Uli,i,.6iwL6rtt.*.,1L-"f rrr.,f,f
-L x Lt ;t., -J jV 6 7,,r g/ t2-Vg ;L
# jJi,!:::,,
e0 tl,: eEV.t Ut-7 t)yi )t (etV.ta
ABC(C-I )- 1 /B,H,U,N,S/20 (4)

n )i : ft Qt f cl f, -;iyL,>,3
G u tt € k t, e; 5 e r, .1.3p g;
-, t c- ) L,,= t 9 V. t uflt

L)V. L (J * {./ M t L, t r, a z
- +' /*t,?, u4, t )r {4 7 t t s) p rt L t t
f' (
-(iur1t-i{.o}vtt.vt.,,=.1t1;"t,oy,r$/qtf.S@{?rrr}rL'.;
e, i lo r hi - ) L -. 7 - 6r I t,-fu ctl
t ; t
6? >,', - ) L u. i, t Of t
-

,,tZ e(;i)t : L xLlu sf ,>!:t $r/o t bLuu

"
J L i& $f O t: A $t : P-u
qu 6 6 6f {L - Otrr g! vrt +,)vt -tl>tL 07:t $7, tr -rx )v ri,-:t :
=rt
:, L O, * P.L a q, I I t,> lri ea e ruf tL,'t i. fii ",f
-. N i 6 I 4
c : tJ

-.....tx et ie&ff' 7,t! tQ i * ufr, t f , rt

-
4. Read the following text carefully and write the answers of the questions: l0x4=40

- 4- p. L o! v{
2, n'e t .-, i{f1)I : ;Q,'

,! oi, -G t,j, o i t!a., L (,L r,, - -

t r ) tJ i o* t! (,,,, 2 a ;L ! r'' t'>f "

* (, r, g. J, U g L J c- n - ! nt 1! ; rt 6 g' 5a,,t' 7 i lp u-P

t
$ r) t ;

Ll,l. r, i f i,tJ J !? t )' &, J L tJf k1 xi i 7 I x /

a , r t 0 te C t s O o t v 1

- q L -/Srr+ 1
c L ; /f uL, gb 6 - t
*
J, n L v /c, 7 sf $ / L uf' 7 f- QJ e,) i, u;t o - f h;) fti t ; 0. fi r
,,a / 6L t, -r,,{*,,f q { t i?,J Lt / I ?, tP t
- q, L L,lt1v. u V } L!

- LV{ i r,
rtob t4ee : ( q n,it i
D

r6 f; r - * i',v,1 ; Ot { r+o; r, t). tt e- {t + t-t tt I ; ( i' t, { U' 0. /

q! fuq.,-6* {t L q -6 (tt,, f b ( 6 {; r,tl, - + O tt t ), r il J v €
t )r L oy',!y'*.',! Of 0 & =/-G ?l x (; tr -t x ti + i / ; vi ( 6/ 0 L-t
t e

, a fi ,, el!eli -Z Lq i :,tr:t et tlir 6' Z

( L x 4 ;t g I :,>l rys t/'-0" t t

a
+t,tf 4 / - { ro dntt ol i i c- vx /fu - it tl tt - c- ) 6 i + e| 4
;t,l,;* },{Ltt L1;t dt - L,lvft 7t -r t!')L E,,t of, z' iv' U tZ7 O

r bt f, L.ffuiy r,*/ t!d iv tot, : 6 vc1-v qdqr K (L,,!r-u,!) Y,f- t t

,.t Q f -{ ; A /d L q -( fir,, e O -s/: L tr Lu 6Y ti';v ; L g at

t, s t r

, [r, i,P, ]r,, i,s d, i/, i,, i *,t,; - 4 e r - V r ;- i, i,, r,/ ] g-, f ;;
 (s) AB C(C-I)- 1 /B,H,a,N,S/20

r x, ) ( Ur - e{ : z- fL
t t
d ;7 L/ L, f O, 7 t { U",z F/;, ;r L,1, f
U I t

.-:t:. si t
st w I ei76ct ; e Ea eiv t/ t - /. v Lvr L tl ir tf t t 6/ e Lr., g-(
rt

"-ixnt66/e
r+fv-ti6il.kt/u:$Aol -l
rL.ttfifLJpLJrtt;1ft)L;u{;f -t
tj"e,Unt6;rDtg)rtrr-.(ssrt4uftgJ{;r -r
-4(Lu,,b)7,?L0?b=./
-6 ov-*ctfi{;,rauF.*-[n/{,a't!j{,}71j,,,,t _(

5. Translate into Urdu: 40

That afternoon almost the whole of Kamarpukur comes for the Kirtan. Through
Dhani, the word
was spread that Ramkrishna would go back to Dakshineswar, so no one wanted
to miss this
opportunity. As the courtyard is too small to hold the crowd, they shift to a nearby
field. Several of
the men have Khols, two or three have violin, and a few others have flutes. The
men sit on the
ground in a group with Ramkrishna and the ladies sit on one side.

NEPALI LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING,

COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION

1. Write a letter in about 150 words (any one): 40

flilrite XYZfor name and address)
ro*t q* gt qva fqsqqr ertcFr qqo qrqfifi qga Er
@qr
(qrq { t.ffirsr ar*qr xyz tqilql
(o') frqr*t*r rrrrerqr rqrfd V{rs r

(€) qrfid{ effirrq$ ltmqrq r

(.r) Efr6rglrETsl

2. Draft a report in about 200 words. 40

wr-enqq sqil t€rerT66qr frfrd 6fr Bq*rfr?

I
ABC(C-I)-1/B,H,U,N,S/20 ( 6)
3. Write a pr6cis of the following: 40
cr6 rA +d-q cg.dr sdcqq +ilfl-qr 16{€Sa engsr uw sTrrrwrirdr
qf(cffi Tq} qt
sryr rr{ e-t drrotfid frcr< errqqu-+tq qq1 q{ r|sr eirRffirs-rqr qffi reil-q {q-rtil lEt ftrs3
fsqs{tsqqqqqftqrsfi, EET-EcT, o-<Terfrr+r<qif rgrorfUrm qiefo*q-+e-qqnil366qdrffi 1

6 qffi FFrGa {-ilqt qqr+6 sFqr6n, gfr-qore r q-fr - tffi rffifu d'-+ Erfqm qt qt fqq{
gn enw+dr :r-qt qrBdr fr*eTrdr dffi $ilftrd qfdrq gr6s+Tq{ tffiz €W{ fficA fft f}rd t srr+E
qFsl-iflr 31q-en-ff 31-6ntralq€EI, sdqfrRisfiqrqqT€sfrde-sl-idtrlfq4rrq$qdqw{EFclz
qrFIdt sldtqt Etdqq St{tqryt g11-65 cwr(qrfi {ig6pql Gffi - qt sr$ qqdr e1aqqsil {"i
rt*} A I E€n WrT gqrtssr eTrqr .Tf{ fqqro gqrnosqr elrdrqr +6 risilq{ r Fc cFsd-{,rtt erew dfs
r ur-dr e-qsFr-fl Erf,{qr gqrn65-sr t*rsaq{r.rd s.trA cr$-d6 Bilq
qfr E{qrffil
'F56gdq.66qt(
firqtul lnrfqrs?i fr qrf{qdt flTf,r< sTrqq'{*tq eq dt t

4. Read the following text carefully and write the answers of the questions : l0x4=40
ffirfua s6iqr qa{ do fr{qfi caTasdl sfl trqetq :
ai-s.ft( r rt*
ilq qrsRsr qr-dr+i tqK+.r €<q+.r qs qFHr65 gtl qdt fr-fr'65sr
ffi t
g:Er-{€, sffg-€S, srrfl-fr{rflr, sta-qtsr, Ttq-F-Eri ffi
frEa ga-t | 4 srqGd srq:$-fi {IIr(Iqdr
q-ir+dTfr*' sr** A" 5fi *r .il& q-q{ vdr r ffits t tlr$ W d-er g1 r iiqfc t{rd ffi 5t
{iqfr d r trffi'
Trrrt qm t+r+e,.I tffi €re t

stTqTErr, er enfftur fqFrnaT qq ctr w vqfi-o $rirfem q€fanil

w tRTl,l-i th@ @
r qRr tt
1qT{dr q{ {-{ffi
31-sy \szr g{qr fr€r Eqrerq+r qrcqle S1q{Ri tcH rq.flf, {1q-aq1
-i-c td
sm6seni eno tt s{+ r61renr Ae *rrnfss-{o-tusfr t ws W{frd qro qffi lffirfirffi
nr+{qr#gfootret
ffi q6d fqprfr sr riffi
Fffirdt EfiI dt r fr frf*r< qkt qT rilS-*r s1q1 3p1fr eil-oss.n-d r
"rkT
arq 3i-tt g6ffit trfi ewr qrq qrit dr.s qi srodr drrqt qrl-< 3ry$61qpg1-tffi tF.rrt
**.E"Eo.ffi€dti€en s qiWnsqd.i{ef{tqrEqrrre$ eTI*s r<crffiAA
ry
it=r {6r enre r{t iRimr$ Er+rrt rrflrfi ern-< en}srffi 6s$ nqp5l an's qt ftr5dl-{
d
i
qr{g 3,{${.rd enry r frs, {t qq Eil+.rfl-d ffi lq6:strurdr f{qR ri q*qr qit 3Trflr dlffir cfdi r

y-tfc+i +r<+qr gJt ur+<, ?Rtrrr s{f,rqr sqqr qt€{, fiffi 1fi1qm} fuan r ffisur tq$ e{ r tr*,
arrdr qqerdr r Eq-erarqr ffi
s6aq { f{rpn Hf6\qI Effi m ftFr,a rfr61il-qqr qr*di r

q. "frfras i tflqil dEt W "- q61 +e-ed r fta trd

E1t &qr qf{qm A? {d
t. tcrEfr qrfdlrrdq{ Anrq qt-d - rilfidr =rrrestqdql
i. qrferfrr Egturqr B-dq ffiqo.r Efs ,fi-d, irq { qrqr65-fir lrr dq*qt
y. ''qr {-{na $rilfmr q€tenir {fiTi q{.ri!fi ffi $q "- ztrs ri-itieni ee .n-j €rq. t

5. Translate into Nepali : 40

That afternoon almost the whole of Kamarpukur comes for the Kirtan. Through Dhani, the word
was spread that Ramkrishna would go back to Dakshineswar, so no one wanted to miss this
opportunity. As the courtyard is too small to hold the crowd, they shift to a nearby field. Several
of the men have Khols, two or three have violin, and a few others have flutes. The men sit on the
, ground in a group with Ramkrishna and the ladies sit on one side.
 (7 ) aBC(C-I)-1/B,H,A,N,S/20
SANTALI LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING,
COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION

1. (I)2OSA VA5AO Op (Letter Writing) i 40

paoas s2 2U AOAZ paQanaG uvenaS yaoau vo oaoz
baaoas bacaDs
)ZZfl) VA)y.AAAZAOT) nazc. U^g nAG $Z?DA U,A\AU Ap qZ CGO GOnAg A.ZA.
g)OZ I U)UAG SObSbU 9A 5bbSZU eAOAeA r

(Answer any one question)

(a) OEOSOO pzbUe LA'GZ UAEZUAG gruSU nZ }O)OZA !b?)a (covid_te)

baae uaoasz oa0z.z pacvo oz gzo aaz,oaa oo Qaoae) pzo
bA)eZ), ZZOA AAAOO OZ UVO SV1AZ LA\AU bpUZ I
(b) bau 5u2i sz Gzp Tsap baaz paoa! s2 oaapaG SA A.e
VZOAOZ $Aan)g Ou).c bAeA A) \AAUO pAGrc UVO S nAV
LA)OAU ODUZ t

(c) OEOIOO pzb0e LA'GZ UVO AA)LVOZ SalaaAe 9ZZaUSZ OrSaS

SOZU).?) A5AZ DASILV OZ OZ LAAOA?V &O)}LVSD O€Z! GZ
asuacac oaea paoz apo aazvaaG ua a)a$oo uvo svn,sv
ODU? T

2. STOOSD GAAU)Z (Write a reporr on the fo owing). 40

a'gaa aa.o(da.o go e)oo gvLou bo)zcz 0)a2! 9z QZZ6G-A t
aav Qaz ea s5e)aG aboz sz QaLaaoap ozeo $asbo LzzoG
aavsbou DaeGbsS naza czbo sz)pa@-a as ozGas sau o5sGa.u
ozczob otzeaac-a I zaQS)G so AAV pZbAU !AG9 A0AS ZZIUA.G
bAeA I AeA bZ OAOZ. AAe,gAG ?AGVO ZASbASZ }A.LDAOA7
szz oaboas baoac vopia $az Qaoap)ua abcv oaoze
PAGOI
3. Gbn bAOAO 8P lWrite a precis on the following) . 40
ua)Qaoua Gaasav oa pz)n5 bann) Lae5)ubo vag oz uvo woaG
|
qa&au bae oaoz'bazd) tJooo Qoa uvo pzbae gSpu)zzooo
OAOZ'OAZA | 5eV(eAG LAOAU b8ae panb OAOAZTdAS gA,,O;VGLA,,
OA)QZ' 5AZA) OAGA I OZZaU AA5SGU).p 7A,AOA.G, n? OeA OA.OSZrdaS
ozoaoas baoz 5ev sa uazoa oaawac zacau )z aav uasa3_
|
6A.UV bZgA 5A UASaS- QOZ OAe \O)OZ OZ' bAZ gZ SZ'GZS
aasas Qoz LSLUN LAvOA SZ GZe OAQZZ 6Ae OAQZ. bAZd t
u5so5s D1u Qoz Qz'5ev s8 agz oz?, Daobe abao baua szp I
GA(l)7 S2 9a "O$4o) bzpau." s2 Gzrd sz)zg baz oaQz.bazad, I
b7ss7s QZ' G5Z,nV OZGZ AZ'GU)G bAZ. 00)62'\AZAG I
ABC(C-I)-1/B,H,a,N,S/20 (8)

4. pAOAS SZ ZU A\AZ, bAOt$abA (Passage) UOZ pAGAg \U)OZ SAZOA?)

uz as zu abae b5bp7 szrdaG ozpa opuz t 4x10=40

(Read the text carefully and answer the questions).

gag gve e8 LvoSG g7Z, OAGOU A)O?^G \AZU) t 0OOA eA AVAA

8A'98 b(}az ZQ^L)OG \AZA AS (l)$490) avvz ga'go QU)$^D OU)QZ'Z
baea I e^oa ba ga'eo puQa szrdac LZOAS OZ OAASO2 e8
pzpaooc baea I Gaau), Loaog, b5'q, 85b$5S7 ZUAZ LVO83 OZ
saoaa gaaac baza I e(9asoT sz gaG szcac DA.S5A AAZAG
I
oaea saG ozcas oz eaasoT szrdaG gasz o,az7 ba sa(Jaa
qZpA I gZOZ-g?85SbO
G51J5G \AZA r OA.SGA.A gZ abA SZOZ' AAU
as uauoas ba gaG ozoac ozoo aQu)oaG bazz) gaG qb'rd |
pa@ o e,8a'uza-e&a'e)av oa q7s oaaad ou)aa I uzzb$u)e ooa
SZOa' UZo naaa GaZ gaG OO' $AbA qU)UZO OAZA I eOGbAe O5OO
sz Gz eaG evz goE 9asac baza I

eac evz ea s205 basTu )aeT bazaG tazv pzbaGz vava?) l

LAAAAAT OAOZG O705G-A I ADAG VAZV AZ}UN 0Z GASAA AZSZ]J
gbpa.z LaeezL z aG5 gASardZO bAeA UN LOUZ)Z-VOUAZZ OAn q
a60 baza t oboa}o' $8)G oau $vLvGZo boou) I aD z 0J21J5G S2
e(Saso2 sza u7Q)vcaz bz u5Lbvp sz aazaCI aoae qzpoz uzes
gaG go Qvav!-07(l)2! oasaG oaca I zooa uzes eaG Gz u)a8
?A.GVO ea AASCJAUU)OAG ObGbG bAeA I
A. gAG eVe gO 072 gASAG 5AZA ?
B. uzg eaG go gzo pzoaoz SasoaoazaG oaea ?
c. s205 nacv eo gze pzbaz La'ezLZ aGSGZSAG ?
D. 1J20) AVGA9V 98 gzg0G ba qzs $aaaG oaza ?

5. Translate into Santali : 40

That afternoon almost the whole of Kamarpukur comes for the Kirtan. Through Dhani, the word
was spread that Ramkrishna would go back to Dakshineswar, so no one wanted to miss this
opportunity. As the courtyard is too small to hold the crowd, they shift to a nearby field. Several of
the men have Khols; two or three have violin, and a few others have flutes. The men sit on the
ground in a group with Ramkrishna and the ladies sit on one side.
 ABC(C-il)-2/20

2021
ENGLISH LETTER WRITING, DRAFTING OF REPORT, PRECIS WRITING,
COMPOSITION AND TRANSLATION
PAPER-II
Time Allowed
- 3 Hours Full Marks 200
-
If the questions attempted are in excess of the prescribed number, only the questions
attemptedfirst up to the prescribed number shail be varued
and the remaining ones ignored.

1' (a) write a letter to the Manager of a theatre enquiring about showing a movie to the children of
a school in the afternoon. (write the letter within 150 words and use A, B, C instead of name
and address)
40
or,
(b) Last Sunday you flew from Delhi to Kolkata. on arriving
home you discovered that you had
left your cabin bag on the plane. write a letter to the Airine
describing about the bag. (write
the letter within 150 words and use A, B, c instead of
name and address) . 40
2. Draft a report on the poor conditions of roads and pubric parks in your rocality . 40
3. Write a composition on any one of the following topics:
40
(a) The Civil Rights Movements and the Effects
(b) How travelling the world affects life and personality
(c) Telling fairy tales to children : The cause and effect
4. write a pr6cis of the following passage and add a suitable title: 35+5=40
If the West was considered the place of historical progress and scientific
development, then the
orient was deemed remote from the influence of historical change. 'orientalism
as.o-"d * *"hanging
orient', it is argued. It was considered to be essentially no diff#nt in the
twelfth century than it was in
of the .Edijhtened, west.
the eighteenth, trapped in antiquity far behind the modern developments
Conceived in this way, the Orient was often considered as 'primitive'
or .backwards,. A Westerner
travelling to oriental lands was not just moving in space from one location
to the other; potentially
they were also travelling back in time to an earlier world. Hence in
orientalism, the orient exists as a
timeless place, changeless and static, cut offfrom the progress of
western history.

5. Translate the following passages into English: 40

{&bt q< Tle-{ slz* I RF qFrno
{s.M {&il cri$<r& crc3fRa, ${Grt crtrsrfr, sr< Tl& st
q.lrfi 4l r
'&-{trfl ft.+< mtqqt <tG, cwn s"tr< cr6t+gn, fl-c{ 6E"[
EFrt <Kl.qf, <tE-<
6
utm ouru,
Ts<E TIfuT.n dkTn dtII t {qlEEr cEtciEr qtTc{ fr"f <qr{ <leUR CD-qKI FFFIEET {s
EG 6e1-q ; ?llmt
a5 <<tro, qrtNE T6s BqE, q,mql{ fou q<tf,{-{E | ?ttFrcBt fi{ qt{Ffl{ {wI
"rr-drsrfl 3ql,
{TEII eKA tftru ilvl< {f16 qs Er< c<IR{-qI, etFls"|l.tfq €{C<n mFFFI,
a{&ls c-{lnB 6aFfa 1{Rrs
{Rcre 4q{* nfrs1 stut qcr cs;cq c<r<[ Tt{ I

qr-sl{ 4l'tcrq c"lRCI {Rft EArq-{ t .{Tbt <@t !-"r I <l&tl{

qrF{ qElsllq I q-<tk c?€Tlq s qlrcTt qls-<r"lkiqt, cmr< ft:xt stt r q+?tc'fq{ fi$ qfi I iTtTH q$Bt
<9t Eg.c'fF[ r wqxtkrs
:m-ql e q<r{qEqRqR tl qffii E{H q( I

20905
Please Turn Over

04812
ABC(C-rr)-2/20 (2)
Hindi passage for Translation into English: 40
v*. ica vr en{i+, qzr arG o,qt el i-q q{ srrs fl e{, ffi
6Q er$wr' r+m EI fusid'
E{fr
fuor gur w, dreq qra qd qi I TA r-{* o'qi i srcis rq sI T{6Mm( g;nr i-a gw w w* urt r

6 et W i-q v< tt 6r t+suv'r rui g'{ sefi ffi fiR rrfr eih gm orr$ i o+tt el'r4 t 5o trot
q6qq{ersFRIdZds€]i?qItsEr-d+q{rd]d6-gri-e{dnciqce'rfr trqrdqErrffT6'
i Ei + fs{ dr qqqqrm sf6d Brfir o-6, 3i-6, sqds qq 16 qT+ t* Eqi qr f+q t r

Urdu passage for Translation into English: 40

rir L 9:,r 6 {., L,il -d&, J 4 u1 4l -Z 6y Ld

< ?v 4,,1, J t\ 4tB 4,t !6i e eg 6 2 otv
CU., n -$:tt
$ 6,! cr, i uW *, t* L,f- G v L 6 F 6't -{ w',: i / 6Zi
ra

,! 4 uq ),r-n r) u r) b, i ) 6/L J t{., l/r, t, +t{, i,, &6,'

r r
I l,

d, i-P @-' l?,-{1, u,.de., {,/ r $ i $ t : glto & t

L t

x ;rlQt c.-G 1,,, Li,, r)z t)t,/ Q - / l,)'!//; e-{'

2 tJ

-,?o.,V r!, An r'--,;tr l7/rit,

English:
Nepali passage for Translation into
40

r5fird vw t++ar qn-i-d t5fi eqTs-dRI er+ori 5i: frfi c-<ra'rfu rtrfi gl Ererql ers W'
g ur<r rrfr urd, Er cln ETfr fr'*rl, 5 anrvn afr <6i, d .(Ti !ffi Effi nq|rqffi rtd A I

qr;r+ffi
itna ar*-*g g* qqa61 qq6 r11dl 6, qsfr fd-ffi {w :r{ qr-q-d q-d-q a r

enq\ enefi gfl erqs'f, qqdr e qer Esr166 qm ,r{, qrfiA

r {i tcr cR r s-{ sl-€, sqr<d
,rd
qrrq 6rffi atfr €rqrq 3qrc{q€6 E1r qtqwrdri *ln-s{
Efr s{C cfiE$I sfa
snqrsqt srtrficsl, dtd
qftr{fud rMI B I d dR-ts'dt sg.d
ete ri5fi npa qfrq ef{ lr6-d1 y[t< r qB-{ir qtrFr ffir EIR-ts
{li Ba{q i;.dd q6ffi cnft:{r, dEr a-< qfiqffir *fi{rq'T{Tq
q4wqor$r rc{r'rt dr t

English: q
Santali passage for Translation into

onasao go d<DooaG Daeau Da,GGA \AZA I eaoa 9a gaasoZ szcac

uve nzz ua)ac evqo'u ouza I ewoz ea o5ea.-0594. e€asao, G)a)oG oa'ez

baoz !2o4' g)ao )Zso uvo uzo uzgaG-a I aao go D5ea.-DbgA' OAQZ' 5AOZ
)zQo'aw u70 G^GA I ZAaAU QAZ G2 ZOIA SVVAU SaGAG WQ)OZ DAUZS
baza I zSczzac GZ eAG $W ASGZ? bAUA I AS ZZIZZAG QOG G?,$* vAt'202G
ba&a I AAO eA u^O evYAU )Ze OAOZ? OoA baD%$w I ZOIU) evLZU )Z(\AG
LbLWOG eO A.AV UA}.Z GZ(eA I
a

ABC(C)-7/20

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET LINTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2021
TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
Paper-III

Time allowed: 3 hours

Full marks: 200
Answer all the questions.

Questions are of equal value.

seriar No. glgqq... ..... Roll No.:

Signature of the Candidate:

INSTRACTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

l. This booklet consists of 24 pages including this front page, containing 200 questions. Verify the
Page Nos. and Test Booklet series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator's notice any
discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheets supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the
Admit Card. Do not told the Answer-Sheet as this will resuh in enor in your marks.
4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will find four probable answers
(A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appqm to you
to be correct or the best. Now darken the circle corresponding to the letter of the selected answer
in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the
Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.
5. bne and only one circle is to be fully blackened for answer. Any spot in any other ciicle (multiple
circle) or in wrong circle will be considered as wrong answer. If more than one circle is encoded
for a particular answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer.
6. There will be negative marking of nark for each wrong answer.
t
7. There are blank pages at the end of this Booklet for Rough Work.
8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examinatian
Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

20721 Please Turn Over

 t

ABC(C)-7/20 B-2

1. The author of the book "The Indianwar of 6. What proposal was made in the 'August
Independence 1857'was Offer'of 1940?
(A) Sh Syed Ahmed Khan (A) Dominion Status
(B) V.D. Savarkar (B) Provincial autonomy
(C) R.S. Sharma (C) Representative Government at the
(D) R.C. Majumdar centre
(D) Complete Independence for India
gradually

2. What is the meaning of the word'sangam' 7. Who, of the following, opined that the
in the Sangam Age? original homeland of the Aryans was the Artic
(A) Royal Court region?
(B) Assembly of Poets (A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Assembly of religious tebchers (B) Max Muller
(D) Meeting of rivers (C) Dayanand Saraswati
(D) A. C. Das

3. Who composed the Sanskrit kavya 8. Who is the only woman historian to write a
'Saundarananda'? historical account of the Mughal period?

(A) Asvaghosa (A) Gulbadan Begum

(B) Kalidasa (B) Noorjahan
(C) Nagarjuna (C) Jahanara Begum

(D) Visnu Sharma (D) Zebun-nissa Begum

9. Which of the following statements about

Henry Louis Vivian Derozio is incorrect?
4. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place in (A) He was born in Calcutta in 1809.
the city of (B) He taught at the Sanskrit College
(A) Amritsar between 1826-1830.
(B) Lahore (C) He died of Cholera at the age of 22.
(C) Bombay (D) His followers were known as
(D) Hyderabad Derozians.

10. Which of the following facts about the

Taj Mahal is incorrect?
5. Rulers of which dynasty patronised Jainism? (A) It is a magnificient Mausoleum
(A) Chalukya (B) It was built by Shah Jahan
(B) Pallava (C) It is situated outside the Agra Fort
(C) Rashtrakuta (D) The names of artisans who built are
(D) Chauhan engraved on it
 B-3 ABC(C)-7/20

11. Who become the first Chief Justice of India 16. The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded
after Independence? by
(A) Dilip Bose (A) Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Harilal J. Kania (B) WilliamJones
(C) S.P. Mukherjee (C) W.W. Hunter
(D) Nandlal Bose (D) WilliamBentinck

12. The Persian ruler who beseiged Qandahar 17. Montague Chelmesford reforms which
in Jahangir's reign was formed the base of Government of India Act, I 9 1 9,
(A) Shah Muhammad introduced which of the following in India?
(B) Shah Parvez (A) Self Governance
(C). Shah Abbas (B) Dyarchy
(D) Shah Raza (C) Indian Administrative Service
(D) Indian Police Service

13. The Ghadar Party was founded (November

1913) at San Francisco, USA by 18. What was the 'Araghatta'?
(A) Madam Bhikaji Cama (A) A machine to break forts
(B) Lala Har Dayal (B) An irrigation canal
(C) Shyamji Krishna Verma (C) A device to lift water
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) A type of cloth

14. The learned lady who is said to have debated 19. The popular name of Muizuddin
with the famous law-giver Yajnavalkya was Muhammad Bin Sam was
(A) Gargi (A) Sultan Mahmud
(B) Maitreyi (B) Muhammad Ghori
(C) Kamala (C) Timur
(D) Kalindi (D) None of the above

15. The river Chenab was known in the Vedic 20. Kamban's Ramayana in Tamil was written
period by the name of during the reign of
(A) Askini (A) Chalukya
(B) Purushni (B) Pallavas
(C) Vitasta (C) Cholas
(D) Shutudri (D) Kakatiyas

Please Turn Over

 r

ABC(C)-7/20 B-4

21. Who constructed the 'Grand Trunk Road'? 26. T\e founder of the Lodi dynasty was
(A) Akbar (A) Bahlul Lodi
(B) Sher Shah Suri (B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Ashoka (C) Ibrahim Lodi
(D) Samudra Gupta (D) Daulat Khan Lodi

27. ^fhe Revolt of 1857 did not acquire much

22. Silver 'Tanka' and Copper 'Jital' were intensity in
introduced by (A) Delhi
(A) Qutubuddin Aibek (B) Awadh
(B) Raziya Sultana (C) Bombay
(C) Iltutmish (D) The Chambal region
(D) Balban

28. Which of the following statements is

incorrect about the position of women during the
23. Who among the following was not involved age of Buddha?
with the foundation of the Anushilan Samiti of (A) The position of women generally
Calcutta in 1902? deteriorated
(A) PromothaMiter (B) There were several instances of child
(B) Abani Mukherjee marriages.
(C) Barindra Kumar Ghosh (C) Polygamy was gradually growing
(D) Jotindra Nath Banerjee among the ruling classed.
(D) Education was denied to women.

24. The Peshwa accepted the Subsidiary 29. The National Council forEducation was set
Alliance with the British by up in the year
(A) Treaty of Purandhar (A) 1906
(B) Treaty of Bassein (B) 1908
(C) Treaty of Salbai (c) 1eOe
(D) Treaty of Surji Arjangaon (D) 1911

30. Permission to the British to establish their

25. Who faced defeat in the Battle of Chandawar trading centre at Surat was given by the Mughal
in 1194 AD? Emperor
(A) Bhima II (A) Babur
(B) Jaichand (B) Humayun
(C) Lakshman Sena (C) Akbar
(D) Muhammad Ghori (D) Jahangir
 B-5 ABC(C)-7/20

31. The administrative consequence of the 36. Who was the first Indian to become the
Revolt of 1857 was the transfer of power from Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army?
(A) East India Company to the British (A) Subroto Mukherjee
Crown. (B) K.M. Cariappa
(B) British Crown to the East India (C) F. J. Manekshaw
Company.
(D) R.D. Katari
(C) East India Company to the Governor
General.
(D) British Crown to the Board of
Directors.
37. Who was the Hindu king at the time of
Muhammad bin Qasim's invasion of Sind?
(A) Dahir
32. Which of the following was the basic unit of (B) Hala
Vedic society?
(C) Harsha
(A) Jana
(D) Ananda Pala
(B) Vidatha
(C) Parivar
(D) Sangh
38. Ghazi Malik was the actual name of
(A) Ghiyas uddin Tughlaq
33. The name of Sultan Mahmud's father is
(B) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
(A) Alptigin (C) Firuz Shah Tughlaq
(B) Sabuktigin (D) None of the above
(C) Ulugh Khan
(D) Nove of the above

39. The English East India Company ceased to

34. Who of the following became a member of be a trading company by which of the following
the Din-i-Ilahi? legislations?
(A) Todar Mal (A) Pitts India Act of 1784
(B) Raja Birbal (B) Charter Act of 1833
(C) Raja Man Singh (C) Charter Act of 1813
(D) Tansen (D) Governmentof IndiaAct, 1858

35. Who founded the Indian Independence

League (1942) inTokyo? 40. Khilafat Movement was organised by
(A) Taraknath Das (A) Jinnah
(B) Raja Mahendra Pratap (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose (C) Ali Brothers
(D) Rash Bihari Bose (D) Agha Khan
Please Turn Over
ABC(C)-7/20 B-6

41. Who was the most important God in the 46. Two major crops irttroduced in India during
Rigveda? the Mughal period were
(A) Agni (A) Millet and Groundnut
(B) Indra (B) Potato and Mustard
(C) Varun (C) Tobacco and Maize
(D) Vishnu (D) Indigo and Maize

42. Who was the founder of the All India 47. The Nayanar group of saints in North India
Communist Party (AICP) in 1924? were devotees of Lord
(A) Satyabhakta (A) Vishnu
(B) C.R. Das (B) Shiva
(C) M. N. Roy (C) Krishna
(D) N.D. Majumdar (D) Buddha

43. Who among the following scholars declared

that the 'Saptsindhava' region was the homeland
48. The Somnath Temple of Gujarat was
destroyed by Sultan Mahmud in
of the Aryans?
(A) Dr. A. C. Das (A) 1015 AD

(B) Prof. Max Muller (B) AD

1020

(C) Prof. Karl Penta (c) 102s AD

(D) Dr. K. K. Sharma (D) 1027 AD

44. The Persian poet Firdausi who co'mposed 49. The revolt of the Khasis against the British
'Shah Namalr' was associated with the court of was led by
(A) Sultan Mahmud (A) Surendra Rai
@) Muhammad Ghori (B) Titu Mir
(C) Shah Tahmasp (C) Birsa Munda
(D) None of the above (D) Utkot Sing

45. The second Muslim President of the Indian 50. The Dilwara Temples at Mount Abu were
National Congress was constructed during the rule of
(A) Ajmal Khan (A) Chalukyas
(B) M.A. Jinnah (B) Solankis
(C) Abul KalamAzad (C) Kalachuris
(D) Rahimtullah M. Sayani (D) None of the above
 B-7 ABC(C)-7/20

51. The ConstituentAssembly was setup under 56. Which of the following organisations was
the not established by B. R. Ambedkar?
(A) Cripps Mission (A) Zero club
(B) Wavell Plan (B) Depressed classes Institute
(C) Cabinet Mission Plan (C) Samaj Samata Sangh
(D) Nehru Report (D) Peoples Education Society

52. The Russian merchant traveller 57. 'Diwan-i-Khairat', a Ministry of Charity

Nikitin visited South India in was organised by
(A) 14th Century (A) Alauddin
(B) 15th Century (B) Ghiyas uddin
(C) 16th Century (C) Firuz Shah
(D) None of the above (D) None of the above

53. Which of the following is the biggest

58. Gandhiji's 'The story of my experiments
Harappan civilization site?
with truth' was originally written in Gujrati. Who
(A) Ropar translated it into English?
(B) Lothal (A) Maganlal Gandhi
(C) Kalibangan (B) Mahadev Desai
(D) Rakhigarhi (C) Pyarelalji
(D) Sushila Nayyar

54. Which of the following systems were the

backbones of the Vijaynagar administration?
59. The Mughals imported fruits from
(A) Nitinirdesha and Dandniti
(A) Samarkand
(B) Karyapalika and Nayankara
(B) Arabia
(C) Nayankara and Ayagar
(C) Kabul
(D) Dandniti and Spy system
(D) Portugal

55. Vande Mataram was first sung at the session

of the Indian National Congress in 60. The river most mentioned in the Rigveda is
(A) 1886 (A) Sindhu
(B) 1892 (B) Shutudri
(c) 1896 (C) Saraswati
(D) 1904 (D) Gandaki

Please Turn Over

aBC(C)-7/20 B-8

61. "The most unique feature of this site is its 66. Apart from the Quit India Movement, which
dockyard; the world's firsttidal port, which served started on 9th August l942,whatother sensational
as a main seaport for the Indus people". activity of the freedom fighters took place on that
The above statement holds true for which date in 1925?
site? (A) Salt Satyagraha
(A) Ropar (B) Boycott of Simon Commission
(B) Lothal (C) Champaran Satyagraha
(C) Rakhigarhi (D) Kakori mail train robbery
(D) Banawali

62. The Tebhaga Movement of 1946 is 67. Which of the following works refer to the
associated with which of the following states of History of Sind and it's conquest by the Muslim?
India? (A) Taj-ul-Manthir
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Chach Namah
(B) West Bengal (C) Lubab-ul-Abab
(C) Bihar (D) Kitab-i-Tahqiq
(D) Odisha

63. Which Mughal Emperor transferred the 68. Which of the following reform movements
capital from Agra to Delhi? was the first to be started in the l9th Century?

(A) Jahangir
(A) Prarthana Samaj
(B) Shah Jahan
(B) Arya Samaj
(C) Aurangzeb (C) Brahmo Samaj
(D) Bahadur Shah (D) Rama Krishna Mission

64. The word 'Veda', derived from 'Vid' refers 69. Who was the author of 'Tabaqat-i-Nasiri'?
to
(A) Ibn Batura
(A) Knowledge
(B) Minhaj-us-Siraj
(B) Energy
(C) Isami
(C) Truth
(D) Ziauddin Barani
(D) Karma

65. The members of Khan Abdul Ghaffar 70. Who among the following was the frst
Khan's Red Shirt Movement were known as leader to organise Labour Movement in India?
(A) Khidmatgars (A) B.P. Wadia
(B) Insan-i-Khidmatgar (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Khuda-i-Khidmatgar (C) N.M. Lokhandy
(D) Angels of Freedom (D) N.G. Ranga
 B-9 ABC(C)-7/20

71. Which dynasty ruled over Magadha after 76. Vedic literature is also known as
the Mauryan dynasty? (A) Shruti
(A) Satavahana (B) Smriti
(B) Sunga (C) Sanhita
(C) Nanda (D) Vedanga
(D) Kanva

77. The Indian who was involved in the

72. Which particular city became the nodal excavations of Harppa and Mohenjodaro is
point for trade routes running from north to south
(A) S.D. Rathore
and eastto westin the pre-Gupta and Guptaperiods?
(B) K.K. Menon
(A) Taxila
(C) R.D. Banerjee
(B) Mathura
(D) R.D. Sharma
(C) Ujjain
(D) Vidisa

78. King Jaypala, who faced Sultan Mahmud's

invasion belonged to the
73. Which among the following is not a literary
work of Mahatma Gandhi? (A) Chalukya dynasty
(A) 'Hind Swaraj' (B) Hindushahi dynasty
(B) 'Indian Opinion' (C) Pandya dynasty
(C) 'Yugantar' (D) None of the above
(D) 'Young India'

79. Who was the founder of the Prarthana

74. Jizya.was abolished by the Mughal ruler Samaj?
(A) Babur (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Humayun (B) Dayanand Saraswati
(C) Akbar (C) Atmaram Pandurang
(D) Aurangzeb (D) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

75. Which of the following is correctly matched? 80. The Mughal Prince who was well versed in
(A) RabindraNath Tagore Nil Darpan' Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit was
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
-' Unrest' (A) Prince Akbar
(C) Dinabandhu Mitra
-'Indian (B) Prince Salim
-'Qsvs'
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt 'Economic (C) Prince Sulaiman Shukoh
History of India' - (D) Prince Dara Shukoh

Please Thrn Over

ABC(C)-7/20 B-10

81. Which European power was the last to E6. When and by whom were the Ashokan
reach India? Inscriptions deciphered for the frst time?
(A) Portuguese (A) 1787 - John Tower
(B) The Dutch (B) 1810-Harry Smith
(C) British (C) 1825 - Charles Metcalfe
(D) French (D) 1837 - James Prinsep

82. The treaty of Seringapatam is associated 87. Aurangzeb sent Mukarrab Khan against

with the end of (A) Shahji Bhonsle

(A) Second Anglo - Maratha war (B) Shivaji
(B) Third Anglo - Maratha war (C) Sambhaji
(C) Third Anglo - Mysore war (D) Shahu
(D) Fourth Anglo - Mysore war

88. In which year was Lala Lajpat Rai deported

to Mandalay for organising the agrarian movement
E3. Kalibangan is located at in Punjab?
(A) Gujarat (A) l90s
(B) Rajasthan (B) 1907
(C) Himachal Pradesh (c) le09
(D) Punjab (D) l9lr

84. The Non-cooperation Movement was called 89. The leaders of the Home Rule Movement
borrowed the term 'Home Rule' from a similar
off due to
movement in
(A) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(A) Ireland
(B) Chaurichaura Incident
(B) Scotland
(C) Poona Pact
(c) u.s.A.
(D) Gandhi-Irwin Pact
(D) Canada

85. Vasco da Gama, the sailor was a 90. The Cripps Mission visited India in
(A) Portuguese (A) 1927
(B) American (B) 1939
(C) German (c) 1942
(D) Italian (D) 1946
 B-11 ABC(C)-7/20

91. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil 96. Rani Gaidinliu, a rebel leader against the
Disobedience Movement in 1930 from British was from
(A) Sabarmati Ashram (A) Tripura
(B) Ahmedabad (B) Assam
(C) Porbandar (C) Nagaland
(D) Dandi (D) Manipur

92. Arrange the following events in a correct

Movement-
sequence of the Indian National
(i) Foundation of Indian National 97. The Kuka Movement was started in the mid
nineteenth century in
Congress
(ii) Simon Commission (A) Western Punjab
(iii) Home Rule Movement (B) Maharastra
(iv) Cabinet Mission (C) Bengal
(A) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) (D) Madhya Pradesh
(B) (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(D) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
98. Who was the founder of the Secret Society
Abhinava Bharat?
93. Ramchandra Yadav, who faced Alauddin's (A) Naren Bhattacharji
invasion was the ruler of (B) Jatin Mukherjee
(A) Devgiri (C) Damodar Chapekar
(B) Malwa (D) Ganesh Savarkar
(C) Ujjain
(D) Telengana

99. Universities in the Presidency towns in India

94. Which Mughal Emperor was a patron of
were established in the year
Hindustani music and was popularly known as
Rangila? (A) 18s7

(A) Bahadur Shah I (B) 18s8

(B) Bahadur Shah II (c) 1900

(C) Muhammad Shah (D) 1e09

(D) Ahmed Shah

95. Sant Jnaneshwar was the author of 100. The 'Young India' was edited by
(A) Amrutanubhav (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Rukmini Swayamvar (B) Mahadev Desai
(C) Dasbodha (C) MahatmaGandhi
(D) Vivek sindhu (D) Acharya Narendra Dev

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ABC(C)-7/20 B-12

101. Which State is the leading producer of 106. Loktak Lake is located in
coconut oil? (A) Assam
(A) Goa (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Kerala (C) Tripura
(C) Karnataka (D) Manipur
(D) Tamil Nadu

107. Which one of the following is not correct?

(A) Toy Train of Darjeeling has been given
102. The chief coal bearing formation in India is
known as the
Heritage Railway Station by
UNESCO.
(A) Siwaliks
(B) Mangpu of Kalimpong subdivision is
(B) Gondwanas famous for Cinchona cultivation.
(C) Vindhyans (C) Lyed Botanical Garden is situated in
(D) Cuddappahs Kurseong subdivision.
(D) Himalaya Mountaineering Institute is
located in the Darjeeling town.

103. Which of the following rivers is older than

the Himalayas?
108. 'Smart Cities Mission' was launched by
(A) Beas India Government in the year
(B) Sutlej (A) 2014
(C) Teesta (B) 201s
(D) Kosi (c) 2016
(D) 2013

104. Structurally, the Meghalaya Plateau is a

of
part 109. Sagar Samrat is
(A) Himalayas
(A) an oil drilling platform in Mumbai
High.
(B) Ganga Plains
(B) an island in Indian Ocean.
(C) Trans Himalayas
(C) a ship used for Antarctica expedition.
(D) Deccan Plateau
(D) a space craft.

105. Which one has not been correctly matched? 110. Sidrapong of Darjeeling has India's frst
(A) Burdwan: Coal (A) Plywood factory
(B) Purulia: Lime stone (B) Saw mill
(C) Birbhum: China clay (C) Hydropower station
(D) Bankura: Manganese (D) None of the above
 B-13 ABC(C)-7/20

111. Which one of the following reasons 116. Introduction of Joint Forest Management
dominates in Rural to Urban migration in India? was an important objective of
(A) Marriage (A) National Forest Policy, 1988
(B) Education (B) Man and Biosphere Program
(C) Family movement (C) Wild Life Protection Acl,1972
(D) Employment (D) None of the above

117. The tropical forest in India have been

exploited more in India as
112. Mohammed bazar of Birbhum is famous for
1. they are the only forest we have.
(A) China clay
(B) Lime stone 2. they provide good quality timber.
3. they are more accessible.
(C) Dolomite
(D) None of the above 4. there are restrictions on cutting of temperate
forests.
(A) 1 and 2 are tr:ue
(B) 2 and 3 are true
113. _ state of India has more females (C) 3 and 4 are true
in number than males a sex-ratio of 1084/1000 (D) 1 and 3 are true
according to the Census of India, 201 1 .

(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal 118. Vantawng falls with a height of 229m are
located in which district of Mizoram?
(C) Kerala
(A) Champhai District
(D) Orissa
(B) MamitDistrict
(C) Serchchip District
(D) Aizawl District
114. The northward shift of the ITC over India
leads to the onset of
119. Small areas of peaty soils occur in
(A) Northeast monsoon
(A) Haryana
(B) Retreating monsoon
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Southwest monsoon
(C) Uttaranchal
(D) Westerly depressions
(D) Madhya Pradesh

120. According to the Census Department of

115. In which of the following states is the Government of India, a class III urban place have
Karcham Wangtoo Hydroelectric plant located? a population between
(A) Jammu and Kashmir (A) 10000-19999
(B) Himachal Pradesh (B) 20000-49999
(C) Uttarakhand (c) 50000-99999
(D) Rajasthan (D) None of the above

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ABC(C)-7/20 B-14

121. Which one records the lowest normal 126. Most of the tribals of the cental and southern
temperature in the month of January?
'
regions of India belong to _ stock.
(A) Bikaner (A) Negrito
(B) Bengaluru (B) Proto-Australoid
(C) Jaisalmer (C) Mongoloid
(D) Firozpur (D) Australoid

127. SarvaShiksha Abhijan was launched in the

year
122. Tobacco was introduced into India by the
(A) 2000
(A) Chinese
(B) 200r
(B) Portuguese
(c) 2oo2
(C) English
(D) 2003
(D) French
128. Which State produces the high quality
Virginia tobacco?
123. The modern iron and steel industry in India (A) Tamil Nadu
has its beginning in 1870 when Bengal Iron Works (B) Andhra Pradesh
Company was established in (C) Karnataka
(A) Kulti (D) Maharashtra
(B) Bishnupur
(C) Cossipore 129. Murrah is a breed of
(D) None of the above (A) pie
(B) buffalo
(C) sheep
124. Titagarh, Amlai and Nepanagar are known (D) goat
for
(A) Sugar Industry 130. With reference to Indian forests, consider
(B) Ship Industry the following pairs:

(C) Iron and Steel Industry 1. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forest:

Sandalwood (Santalum album)
(D) Paper Industry
2. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests: (Shorea
robusta)
3. Tropical Thorn Forests : Shisham (Dalbeigia
125. In India which of the following criteria sissoo)
applied in defining a town has varied from census Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
to census in recent decades? matched?
(A) Density of population (A) l only
(B) Total population (B) 1 and 2
(C) Administrative status (C) 2 and 3
(D) Working population (D) l, 2 and3
 B-15 ABC(C)-7/20

13i. Given below are two statements, one labelled 136. Which of the following States in India is
asAssertion (A) and other labelled as R easons (R): passing through the stage of Demographic
Assertion (A): India is a multireligious and multi- Transition which entails low fertility and low
ethnic society. mortality?
Reasons (R): The Constitution of India offers to all (A) Assam
citizens, individually and collectively, fundamental (B) Haryana
rights without discrimination on grounds of
(C) Punjab
religion, race, caste, sex orplace ofbirth.
(D) Tamil Nadu
(A) Both (A) and (R) are rrue and (R) is the
correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not 137. Yelagiri is a branch of
the correct explanation of (A). (A) Sahyadris
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false. (B) Palni Hills
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (C) Nilgiri Hills
132. Nepal Himalayas extends between (D) Annamalai Hills
the rivers
(A) Sutlej and Beas
(B) Kali and Sutlej 138. The Ramen peak is situated in
(C) Kali and Teesta (A) Arabian Sea
(D) Teesta and Brahmaputra (B) Bay of Bengal
(C) Gulf of Mannar
133. fies between the outerHimalayas
and lower Himalayas. (D) Andaman & Nicobar
--
(A) Main Central Thrust
(B) Main Boundary Thrust 139. In India the most important source of
energy is
(C) Owen Fracture Zone
(D) Main Frontal Thrust (A) Petroleum
(B) Coal
134. Which one of the following is not a tributary (C) Nuclear
of Brahmaputra?
(D) Hydro-electricity
(A) Kameng
(B) Kopoli
140. Which among the following are the chief
(C) Seonath
characteristics of shifting cultivation?
(D) Dhansiri l. High dependence on manual labour
135. Which of the following is known as placer
2. Use of low level of technology
deposits? 3. Utilization of poor soils through fallowing
(A) Metals that occur as sandy deposits in 4. Use of chemical fertilizers
sands of sea floor. Choose the correct option from the codes given
(B) Minerals that occur as alluvial deposit below:
in sand of valley floor. (A) I and 2
(C) Metals that occur as sandy deposit in (B) 1, 2 and.3
sand of land floor. (C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) None of the above (D) 1, 2,3 and4

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ABC(C)-7/20 B-16

141. India is among the leading producers 145. The southernmost point of India in the
in the world. Nicobar Islands was formerly known as
(A) Tuna (A) Indira Point
(B) Shrimp (B) Pigmalion Point
(C) Salmon (C) Indira Col
(D) Sardines (D) Parson Point

142. Consider the following Canals of India with

146. Prince, Victoria and Alexandria are the three
their connecting states:
important and busy docks at
1. Munak Canal-Haryana and Delhi
(A) Cochin
2. Indira Gandhi Canal-Punjab and Rajasthan
3. Buckingham Canal-Andhra Pradesh and (B) Visakhapatnam
Karnataka (C) Chennai
4. Narmada Canal-Madhya Pradesh and (D) Mumbai
Gujarat
Which of the above are correctly matched?
(A) 1 and 2
147. What is Obra?
(B) 2 and 3 (A) Copper Project in Rajasthan
(C) 1, 2 allLd3 (B) Super thermal power project in Uttar
(D) 1,2,3 and4 Pradesh
(C) Atomic power plant at Kalpakkam
(D) Hydroelectric project in Uttar Pradesh
143. The temperature of Thiruvananthapuram ls
Rohtang
lower than that of Mumbai in May and higher than
that of Mumbai in January, because
(A) Thiruvananthapuram has cold current
and Mumbai is faced with warm 148. Who in census of India applied the 'ternary
current. diagram' for the functional classification of towns
(B) Thiruvananthapuram has higher in India?
rainfall in summer and it is nearer to (A) P.Padmanabha
the equator. (B) A.R. Nanda
(C) ThiruvananthaPuram is on the (C) Ashok Mitra
windward side and Mumbai is on the (D) Chandrasekhar
leeward side.
. (D) Thiruvananthapuram is vegetated
while Mumbai is not.
149. Promoting Energy Access through Clean
Energy (PEACE) is an initiative between
144. The Jhelum has its source from Government of India and
(A) Mount Kailash (A) France
(B) Rohtang (B) USA -.
(C) Verinag (C) Japan
(D) Kulu (D) UAE
 B-17 ABC(C)-7/20

150. Which one is not a Tidal river? 155. In which of the following North-Eastern
(A) Icchamati States of India inhabit the Nishi rribe?
(B) Vidyadhari (A) Meghalaya
(C) Kalindi (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Jalangi (C) Nagaland
(D) Manipur

151. The Duncan Passage separates the

(A) South Andamans from middle
Andamans 156. Pipavav in Gujarat is best known for which
among the following?
(B) Little Andamans from North
Andamans (A) India's first private port
(C) North Andamans from middle (B) India's frst Greenfield refinery
Andamans (C) India's first ship breaking yard
(D) Little Andamans from South (D) None of the above
Andamans

152. Which one of the following National 157. Jharkhand does not share boundary with
Highway has crossed Farrakka Barrage? (A) West Bengal
(A) NH 3l (B) Orissa
(B) NH 32 (C) Chhattisgarh
(c) NH 33 (D) Madhya Pradesh
(D) NH 34

153. The port oflndia connected to the interior 158. The Chennai-Bengaluru-Coimbatore_
through the Palghat gap is Madurai region is

(A) Madras (A) a major industrial region.

(B) Marmagao (B) a major agricultural region.
(C) Cochin (C) Mangrove forest region.
(D) New Mangalore (D) Dry Mountainous (Hilly) region.

154. The main species of the coniferous forests

Which among the following city is called
of the Himalayas between the altitudes 1600 metres .159.
"7*ro Mile Center" because of iis Iocation of
and 3300 meters are
India's Geographic center?
(A) Cedar, Pine, Sine, Silverfir, Spruce (A) Bhopat
(B) Sagon and Sakhu (B) Nagpur
(C) Sandalwood, Rosewood (C) Jabbalpur
(D) Oak, Chestnut, Chir, Chil (D) Indore

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ABC(C)-7/20 B-18

160. West Bengal shares boundaries with how 166. The deepest mine in India is
many foreign countries?
(A) Kolar
(A) Five (B) Ranigunj
(B) Two (C) Khetri
(C) Three
(D) Jharia
(D) Four

161. The Portuguese possessions Goa, Daman 167. Marmagao port is linked to the interior by
and Diu were liberated in means of cheap transport on rivers
(A) 1e61 (A) Zuari and Mandovi
(B) 1e71 (B) Bhima and Kalinadi
(c) 1981 (C) Varada and Malaprabha
(D) 19sl (D) Gangawali and Savitri

162. The full form of the abbreviation NLM is 168. Which one of the following is a 'Formal
(A) Northern Line of Monsoon Region'?
(B) Normal Line of Monsoon (A) Delhi metropolitan region
(C) Northern Limit of Monsoon (B) Hyderabad-Secunderabad region
(D) Normal Limit of Monsoon (C) Delhi-Jaipur-Agra Triangle
(D) Assam Valley
163. In Thanjavur delta, _ crop is
cultivated three times in a vear.
(A) Wheat 169. Which State is called the agriculture epitome
of India?
(B) Rice
(A) West Bengal
(C) Sugarcane
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Groundnut
(C) Punjab
(D) Haryana
164. Tadoba National Park known for Sheltering
tiger, panther and bear is located in
(A) Assam 170. Match List-I with List-II and select the
(B) Maharashtra correct answer from the codes given below:
(C) Karnataka List-I List-II
.(D) Tamil Nadu (a)Aw 1. RainshadowzoneofKarnafaka
(b)Amw 2. Thar desert
165. Which one of the following States has got (c)BShw 3. West Bengal and Bihar
highest density ofpopulation on the basis of 1991 (d)BWhw 4. Malabar Coast
census report? abcd
(A) Kerala (A) J 4 1 2
(B) West Bengal (B) J 1 4 2
(C) Bihar (c) 2 1 4 J
(D) None of the above (D) 2 4 1 J
 B,19 ABC(C)-7/20

171. Malda district of West Bengal is famous for 177. Site refers to the
(A) Sericulture (A) external features of a place.
(B) Horticulture (B) precise location of the centre of a city.
(C) Apiculture (C) proximity to natural resources or
(D) Aquaculture transportation routes.
(D) internal locational attributes ofaplace.
172. Which of the following is the oldest atomic
power station?
178. The Border Road Organization was
(A) Kalpakkam established in which year?
(B) Tarapur (A) 1960
(C) Narora (B) 1972
(D) Kota (c) 1988
(D) 19e1
173. The Vale of Kashmir is the only level strip
of land in the Himalayas. Which river has laid its
deposits to form this level plain? 179. The famous Sindri fertilizer plant is located
at
(A) Ravi
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Sutlej
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Beas
(C) Bihar
(D) Jhelum
(D) Jharkhand
174. In which State does most of the Vidarbha
region lie? 180. Where is pearl fishing done in India?
(A) Karnataka (A) Cochin
(B) Maharashtra (B) Kandla
(C) Gujarat (C) Nhava Sheva
(D) Madhya pradesh (D) Tuticorin

_175.
Through which of the following States 181. The minimum forest cover necessary to
Chambal river does not flow? maintain ecological balance is
(A) Unar Pradesh (A) 50Vo ofthe total land area.
(B) Madhya pradesh (B) 40Vo of the total land area.
(C) Rajasthan (C) 33Vo of the total land area.
(D) Gujarat (D) 25Vo of the total land area.

176. The Grand Anicut Canal is located in

182. Which river valley has Gondwana rocks?
(A) Andhra pradesh (A) Ganga
(B) Tamil Nadu
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Karnataka (C) Damodar
(D) Kerala (D) Suaej

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ABC(C)-7/20 B-20

183. Which one of the following statements is 187. Which river forms the famous Gersoppa
not true? falls?
(A) Ghaggar's water is utilized in the Indira (A) Cauvery
Gandhi Canal. (B) Sharavati
(B) Narmada raised from Amarkantak (C) Narmada
region. (D) Godavari
(C) Nizam Sagaris situated on the Manjira
river.
188. The Steel mill of Durgapur was set up in
(D) Pengangais atributary ofthe Godavari.
collaboration with
(A) Russia
184. Which one of the following sequences of (B) Germany
the steel-plants from East to West is correct in (C) Britain
India?
(D) France
(A) Jamshedpur, Rourkela, DurgaPur,
Bhilai
189. The thickest coal seam is found in which of
(B) Bhilai, Rourkela, DurgaPur,
the following places of India?
Jamshedpur
(A) Singarauli
(C) Durgapur, JamshedPur, Rourkela,
Bhilai (B) Jhingurda
(D) Durgapur, Rourkela, Bhilai' (C) Kargail
Jamshedpur (D) Kampte

190. Which of the following hill stations is not

185. Indian Maritime University is located at located in Himachal Pradesh?
(A) Hyderabad (A) Kulu
(B) Vishakhapatnam (B) Manali
(C) Chennai (C) Shirnla
(D) Kochi (D) Ranikhet

191. The area from Punjab to Kutch falls under

186. Match the following: type of climate.
List I List II (A) Bsh
a. SAIL 1. Chemicals (B) Bwh
b. BALCO 2. Iron and Steel (C) Awf
c. BPCL 3. Electronics (D) Cwe
d. BEL 4. Aluminium
a bcd f92. Wild asses are found in
(A) 2 413 (A) Parkal, Warangal (Andhra Pradesh)

(B) 2 t43 (B) Rann of Kutch (Gujara|

(c) 4 213 (C) Manas, BarPeta (Assam)
(D) 2 134 (D) ChandraPrabha, Varanasi
,i

B-21 ABC(C)-7/20

193. The National Metallurgical Laboratory of 197. Rank the folded zones in India from oldest
India is at to youngest.
(A) Jamshedpur (A) Dharwar, Aravalli, Eastern Ghat,
(B) Dhanbad Satpura
(C) Roorkee (B) Dharwar, Eastern Ghat, Satpura,
(D) Ranchi Aravalli
(C) Eastern Ghat, Satpura, Aravalli,
Dharwar
(D) Satpura, Aravalli, Dharwar, Eastern
Ghat
194. Which one of the following sequences in
the ascending order of their geographical size is
correct? 198. Match the following:
(A) Bihar- Chhattisgartr - Jharl*rand - Orissa I
List List II
(B) Jharkhand - WestBengal - Tamil Nadu a. Carevas 1. Uttaranchal
- Chhauisgarh b. Chos 2. Jammu & Kashmir
(C) West Bengal - Bihar - Chhanisgarh
c. Duns and Bhabars 3. Tamil Nadu
- Tamil Nadu
(D) d. Circular huts 4. punjab
Ctrhattisgarh - Jharkhand - Tamil Nadu
- Orissa
a b c d
(A) 2 J 4 I
(B) 2 1 4 3

195. In which Five-yearplan, balancedregional (c) 2 4 I J

development was emphasized as one of the major (D) 2 J I 4
objectives of the planning excercise?
(A) Second
199. The Dravidian rock system is found in
(B) Third region.
(C) Fourth (A) Krishna Valley
(D) Fifth (B) Chotanagpur plateau
(C) Spiti Valley
(D) Damodar Valley
196. Cochin and Visakhapatnam sea ports of
200. The Baratang Island mangroves is located
India are situated on the
in which of the following places of India?
(A) East and West Coasts, respectively (A) Lakshadweep
(B) East Coast
.(B) Andaman and Nicobar
(C) West Coast
(C) New Moore
(D) West and East Coasts, respectively
(D) Odisha
ABC(C)-7/20 B-22

Space for Rough Work

 ABC(C)-8/20

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU AREASKED TO DO SO.

2021
TEST BOOKLET TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Paper-IV

Time allowed: 3 hours

Full marks: 200
Answer all the questions.

Questions are of equal value.

Serial No. 04922 Roll No.:

Signature of the Candidate:

INSTRACTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions:

1. This booklet consists of 24 pages including this front page. Verify the Page Nos. and Test Booklet
series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator's notice any discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheets supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the
Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will resuk in error in your marks.
4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will find four probable answers
(A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to you
to be correct or the best. Now darken the circle corresponding to the letter of the selected answer
in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the
Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.
5. One and only one circle is to be fully blackened for answer. Any spot in any other circle (multiple
circle) or in wrong circle will be considered as wrong answer.
6. There wilt be negative marking of t marX for each wrong answer.
7. There are blank pages at the end of this Booklet for Rough Work.
8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed oyer to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall. You are permilted to take away the used Test Booklct after completion of the examination.

20901 Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-8/20 B-2

l. A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into 6. Consider the following statements :

three equal parts. These parts are then connected in (i) An emf can be induced by moving a
parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this conductor in a magnetic field.
combination is R,, then the ratio R/R, is (ii) An emf can be induced by changing
(A) 1/3 the magnetic field.
(B) 1
(A) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(c) 3 (B) (ii) is true but (i) is false
(D) e (C) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are true

2. The NobelPize in Physiology orMedicine

in the year 2020 was awarded for 7. Gravitational force on the surface of the
(A) the developmenr of a method for moon is
genome editing. (A) l/6 of that on the surface of the earth.
(B) the discovery of Hepatitis C virus. (B) l/5 of that on the surface of the earth.
(C) the discovery of Hepatitis B virus. (C) ll4 of that on rhe surface of the earth.
(D) the discovery of directed evolution of (D) 1/3 of that on the surface of the earth.
enzymes.

3. E. Which of the following pairs representunits

The fundamental organisational unit of life
is of the same physical quanrity?
(A) protein (A) Kelvin and Joule
(B) cell (B) Kelvin and Calorie
(c) DNA
(C) Newton and Calorie
(D) RNA (D) Joule and Calorie

4. Diamond and graphite are allotropes of 9. The human eye forms the image of an object
(A) Iron at its

(B) Gold (A) cornea

(C) Carbon (B) iris
(D) Copper (C) pupil
(D) retina

5. Which of the following frequencies is not in

the audible range of sound for human beings? 10. Number of valence electrons in Cl- ion are
(A) 5 Hz (A) 16
(B) 50 Hz (B) 8
(C) 500 Hz (c) tz
(D) 5000 Hz (D) 18
 B-3 ABC(C)-8/20

11. The chemical formula C,H5OH stands for 16. In summer, a mild wind is often found on
(A) Methane the shore of a calm river. This is caused due to
(B) Methanol (A) difference in thermal conductivity of
water and soil.
(C) Ethane
(D) Ethanol
(B) convection currents.
(C) conduction between air and the soil.
(D) radiation from the soil.
12. Tissue that connects muscle to bone in
humans is known as
17. The first periodic table was given by
(A) Phloem (A) Mendel
(B) Adipose (B) Mendeleev
(C) Tendon (C) Bohr
(D) Epithelial (D) Dalton

13. Fep, +2Al -+ AP, * 2Fe. This reaction 18. Which of the following is a wrong
is an example of a description of binding energy of a nucleus?
(A) combination reaction
(A) It is the energy required to break a
nucleus into its constituent nucleons.
@) double displacement reaction (B) It is the energy made available when
(C) decomposition reaction free nucleons combine to form a
@) displacement reaction nucleus.
(C) It is the sum of the rest mass energies
of its nucleons minus the rest mass
14. A person travelling on a straight line moves energy of the nucleus.
with a uniform speed v, for a distance x and with a (D) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all
uniform speed v, for the next. equal distance. The the nucleons in the nucleus.
average speed v is given by

(A) v= \+v2 19. The reading in centigrade scale is (-)40".

2
What is the corresponding reading in Fahrenheit
(B) v= tlr:Pz scale?
(A) (-)60"
21
(c) -=-+-
1
(B) (-)40.
vrtv2
(c) 60'
111
(D) -=-+- (D) 40.
vttv2

20. The number of neutrons in Hydrogen

15. The pH value of a neutral solution is nucleus is
(A) 3 (A) 0
(B) s (B) I
(c) 7 (c) 2
(D) e (D) 3

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-4

21. How many atoms are there in one mole 26. The bacteria which causes peptic ulcer
atom of an element? (A) l,ocrobacillus acidophilu.s
-
(A) 5'015 x 1015 (B) Helicobacter pylori
(B) 6'022 x 1023 (C) P eptostreptococcus
(C) 4'397 x 10?6 (D) Streptococcus avium
(D) 6'539 x 1020

22. Cell was discovered by 27. ln one average-lit'e of radioactive decay

(A) Charles Darwin (A) half the active nuclei decay.
(B) Robert Hooke (B) less than half the active nuclei decay.
(C) Gregor Mendel (C) more than half the active nuclei decay.
(D) Robert Brown (D) all the nuclei decay.

23. A porter lifts a luggage of l5kg from the

gJound and puts it on his head l.5m above the
ground. The work done by him on the lugga_ee is 28. Einstein received Nobel Prize for his work
(given g = 10ms-2) on

(A) 25 Joule (A) special theory of relativity

(B) 125 Joule (B) general theory of relativity

(C) (C) brownian motion

225 Joule
(D) (D) photo electric effect
I12.5 Joule

24. Which of the followin-g elements is a

semiconductor? 29. What is the typical size of an atom?
(A) Aluminium (A) 1 meter

(B) Mercury (B) 10-2 meter

(C) Silicon (C) 10{ meter

(D) Silver (D) 10-10 meter

25. In terms of basic units of mass(If),length(L)

and time (71, dimension of energy is 30. The quanta of light is called
(A) ML7T-\ (A) proton
@) MLr (B) photon
(c) MLT-I (C) phonon
(D) ML2T-2 (D) neutron
 B-5 ABC(C)-8/20

3L. When light is refracted, which of the 36. ThefintNobelPrizeinPhysics was awarded
following does not change? for the discovery of
(A) Frequency (A) Photoelectric effect
(B) Wavelength (B) Atomic nucleus
(C) Velocity (C) X-ray
(D) Amplitude (D) Special theory of relativity

32. Which of the following statements is not a

correct statement about the trends when going
from left to right across the periods of Periodic 37. Energy generation in stars take place mainly
Table? via
(A) The elements become less metallic in (A) nuclear frssion
nature. (B) chemical displaeement reaction
(B) The number of valence electrons (C) nuclear fusion
increases. (D) chemical additive reaction
(C) The atoms lose their electrons more
easily.
(D) The oxides become more acidic.
38. The gap between two neurons is called a

33. Einstein proposed the idea of special theory

(A) dendrite
of relativity in the year (B) synapse
(A) 1e01 (C) axon
(B) 1903 (D) impulse
(c) 190s
(D) 1907

39. What is the typical size of a Prokaryotic

34. The anther contains cell?
(A) sepals (A) 1-10 meter
(B) ovules (B) l-10 millimeter
(C) pistil (C) 1-10 micrometer
(D) pollen grains (D) 1-10 nanometer

35. What happens when dilute hydrochloric

acid is added to iron fillings?
(A) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are 40. Asexual reproduction takes place through
produced. budding in
(B) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are (A) amoeba
produced. (B) yeast
(C) No reaction takes place. (C) plasmodium
(D) Iron salt and water are produced. (D) leishmania
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ABC(C)-8/20 B-6

41. The human eye can focus on objects at 46. Two isotopes have same
different distances by adjusting the focal length of (A) mass number
the eye lens. This is due to
(B) difference of neutron number and
(A) presbyopia proton number
(B) accommodation (C) neutron number
(C) near-si-ghtedness (D) proton number
(D) far-sightedness

47. ln the Rutherford experiment towards the

discovery of atomic nucleus the target used was
42. T\e xylem in plants are responsible for
(A) Gold
. (A) transport of water. (B) Silver
(B) transport of food.
(C) Platinum
(C) transport of amino acids.
(D) Copper
(D) transport of oxygen.

48. The kidneys in human beings are a part of

43. Which of the following is a plant hormone? the system for
(A) Insulin (A) Excretion
(B) Thyroxin (B) Nutrition
(C) Oestrogen (C) Respiration
(D) Cytokinin
(D) Transportation

44. Same mass of iron, copper, water and 49. A person clapped his hands near a cliff and
glycerine are heated to 80' centigrade. Which heard the echo after 2s. What is the distance of the
substance among these, will take largest time to cliff from the person if the speed of the sound is
cool down to 20"? taken as 346 meter/s?
(A) Iron (A) 173 meter
(B) Copper (B) 346 meter
(C) Water (C) 692 meter
(D) Glycerine (D) 1384 meter

50. An athlete completes one round of a circular

45. The metal which can be easily cut with a track of diameter 200m. What will be the distance
knife covered (closest value among the options)?
- (A)
Paper (A) 528 meter
(B) Silver (B) 628 meter
(C) Sodium (C) 314 meter
(D) Gold (D) 1256 meter
 B-7 ABC(C)-8/20

51. Write the chemical formulae of Magnesium 56. The stars twinkle because of
chloride. (A) reflection
(A) MeCl (B) refraction
(B) MgCl, (C) diffraction
(C) MgCl, (D) interference
(D) MgClo

57. The breakdown of pyruvate to give carbon

dioxide, water and energy takes place in
52. The age of our universe is closest to (A) cytoplasm
(A) 13'8 years (B) mitochondria
(B) 13'8 thousand years (C) chloroplast
(C) 13'8 million years (D) nucleus
(D) l3'S billion years

58. PCR is a relatively simple and widely used

molecul ar biology technique to amplify and detect
53. A metal sheet with a circular hole is heated. DNA and RNA sequences. PCR stands for
The hole (A) Protein chain reaction
(A) gets larger (B) Polymerase chain reaction
(B) gets smaller (C) Polymerase carbon reaction
(C) remains of the same size (D) Protein carbon reaction
(D) gets deformed

59. Which of the following is not a part of the

female reproductive system in human beings?
54. Uncertainty relation in quantum mechanics (A) Ovary
was proposed by
(B) Uterus
(A) Rutherford
(C) Vas deferens
(B) Bohr
(D) Fallopian tube
(C) Heisenberg
(D) Feynman

60. Acceleration due to gravity of earth is

maximum at
(A) the center of the earth.
55. Electron was discovered by (B) the midpoint of the center and the
(A) Bohr surface of the earth.
(B) Thomson (C) the surface of the earth.
(C) Planck (D) aheight equal to the radius of the earth
(D) Heisenberg from the surface of the earth.

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-8

61. The temperature, in centigrade scale, at 66. Two resistors R and 2R are connected in
which the density of water is maximum series in an electric circuit. The thermal energy
(A) 100. - developed in R and 2R are in the ratio
(B) 44' (A) 2:l
(c) 4' (B) 4:1
(D) 0' (c) l:4
(D) l:2
62. Which of the following parameters is the
same for molecules of all gases at a _qiven
temperature? 67. The unit of density in CGS system is
(A) Mass (A) gm/cma
(B) Speed
(B) gm/cm3
(C) Momentum
(D) Kinetic energy (C) gm/cm2
(D) gm/cm

63. Two bullets are fired simultaneously and

horizontally from the same vertical height. The
first bullet has mass and velocity m1 and v1 68. The nucleus of a living cell was discovered
respectively and the second one has mass and by
velocity m2and v2respectively. Which bullet will (A) Charles Darwin
hit the ground first? (B) Robert Hooke
(A) The faster one (C) Gregor Mendel
(B) The slower one (D) Robert Brown
(C) Both will reach simultaneously
(D) Will depend on masses

69. Penicillin was discovered by

64. At the time of short circuit, the current in the (A) Gregor Mendel
circuit
(B) Francis Crick
(A) reduces substantially
(C) James Watson
(B) does not change
(D) Alexander Fleming
(C) increases heavily
(D) vary continuously

70. A nucleus has 6 protons and 8 neutrons. The

65. Which of the following is nor an example of nucleus emits two o particles. How many protons
a bio-mass energy source? and neutrons will be left in the nucleus?
(A) Wood (A) 2 and 4
(B) Gobar gas (B) 2 and2
(C) Nuclear energy (C) 4 and 6
(D) Coal (D) 5 and 7
 B-9 ABC(C)-8/20

71. There were _ Mahajanapadas in 76. 10 miles is equivalent to _.

India (600BC - 3258C) (A) 12 km
(A) 14 (B) l8 km
(B) 12 (C) 14 km
(c) l6 (D) 16 km
(D) 20

77. National Ambient Air Quality Standards

72. is called the 'Land of White for major pollutants were notified by CPCB in
Clouds'. (A) 1ee4
(A) New T.ealand (B) 1984
-(B) Belgium (c) 2004
(C) Sri Lanka (D) re74
(D) South Africa

78. Minamata disease is caused by

73. _ is the currency of Turkey (A) As vapour
(A) Dirham (B) Hg vapour
(B) Zloty (C) organic Hg
(C) Riyal (D) Dissolved As
(D) Lira

79. The Saffron Revolution is associated with

74. OH radicals in atmosphere play a role of
(A) Scavenger (A) Ege
(B) Acidifier (B) Oilseeds
(C) Reducing agent (C) Solar Energy
(D) Greenhouse gas (D) Onion

75. The widely-used aerobic suspension type 80. The Suez Canal opened for traffic in
of liquid waste treatment system is
(A) Rotating Biological Contractor (A) 186e

@) Percolating filter (B) 1700

(C) Activated sludge process (c) 1800
(D) Septic tank (D) 1620

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-10

81. The name Arnoco Cadiz.is related with 86. Bosphorous Strait joins _.
(A) Nuclear waste site (A) Black Sea and Marmara Sea
(B) Oil slick (B) Tasman Sea and South Sea
(C) Toxic cloud (C) Java Sea and Indian Ocean
(D) Forest fire (D) Red Sea and Gulf of Aden

82. The Bhopal Disaster occurred on 87. Black foot disease is caused by
(A) December 3,1984 (A) excess of fluoride in water
(B) January 4,1984 (B) deficiency of iodine in water
(C) August 14,1984 (C) excess of arsenic in water
(D) None of the above (D) excess of iodine in water

83. E8. Which pollution causes Jaundice?

Sea water is
(A) acidic
(A) Water
.

(B) alkaline
(B) Air
(C) neutral (C) Land
(D) hypotonic (D) Thermal

89. The finest 'Glass Industry' is associated

M. Gobar gas contains mainly
with _.
(A) Ethylene (A) France
(B) Methane (B) Belgium
(C) Hydrogen and Ethylene (C) Germany
(D) Hydrogen and Oxygen (D) Italy

85. Air pollutant causing leaf curling is 90. The deepest lake in the world is _.
(A) SOz (A) Titicaca
(B) o: (B) Baikal
(c) H2s (C) Superior
(D) CO (D) Ontario
 B-11 ABC(C)-8/20

91. Lightening in the atmosphere produces 96. Which secondary pollutant is produced by
(A) NO UV rays of sun lights?
(B) CO (A) SO2
(c) co2 (B) co
(D) NH3 (C) Fluorides
(D) o:

92. In turbidity analysis, formazin is used

97. The major stratospheric ozone layer over
(A) to stabilize the samples. Antartica was discovered in
(B) to preserve the sample. (A) le83
(C) to make turbidity standard. (B) i98s
(D) to remove colour interferences. (c) 1987
(D) 1980

93. The term 'Bhugol' was first used in the

book 'Surya Siddhanta' written by 98. Peeling of Ozone umbrella is due to
(A) Brahmagupta (A) CFCs
(B) Aryabhatta (B) PAN
(C) Bhaskaracharya (C) COz
(D) Varah Mihir (D) Coal burning

99. The treatment designed to remove non-

94. MPN (Most Probable Number) indicates
biodegradable organic pollutants and mineral
(A) Thermal pollution nutrients from waste water is
(B) Airpollution (A) Lagoons
(C) Faecal pollution (B) Imhoff tank
(D) Industrial pollution (C) Secondary treatment
(D) Tertiary treatment

95. Right to Information came into force on

100. Jar test is used to determine
(A) 10tr2t2005 (A) Turbidity of water
(B) t2n0t200s (B) Settling of solids
(c) 01/10/200s (C) Coagulant dose
(D) 10/01/2005 (D) Coagulant time '

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-t2

l0l. The Environmental Protection Act was 107. Taiwan was earlier known as
enacted in (A) Tai Pe
(A) 1986 (B) Hongkong
(B) 1985 (C) Yangon
(c) 1987 (D) Formosa
(D) te72

102. takes only 9.9 hours for 108. Gol Gumbaz is in

a
complete rotation around its own axis. (A) Jaipur
(A) Jupiter (B) Junagadh
(B) Mars (C) Bijapur
(C) Saturn (D) Gwalior
(D) Neptune

109. Result of Ozone hole is

103. Layer of Ozone is present in
(A) greenhouse effect
(A) Stratosphere
(B) global warming
(B) Troposphere
(C) acid rain
(C) Thermosphere
(D) UV radiations reach the earth
(D) Mesosphere

104. Banabhatta was the court poet of 110. Rajaji National Park is situated in
(A) Harshavardhana (A) Delhi
(B) Kumarpala (B) Unarakhand
(C) Ramapala (C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Prithwiraja-Ill (D) Karnataka

105. Which species of chromium is toxic in

111. NITI Aayog was constituted on
water?
(A) Cr*2 (A) 0t/0u2016
(B) Cr* (B) 10/10/201s

(c) (c) l0/10/2016

cr-6
(D) (D) 0l/01/201s
Cro

106. Cyclone collector is used for minimizing 112. Venice of the East is _.
(A) Radioactivepollution (A) Shillong
(B) Airpollution (B) Kolkata
(C) Noise pollurion (C) Allapuzha
(D) Water pollution (D) Bengaluru
 B-13 ABC(C)-8/20

113. The city of Seven Hills is _. 119. Animal species protected in Kaziranga
(A) Milan National Park is
(B) Athens (A) Pantherleo
(C) Bercelona (B) Rhinoceros unicornis
(D) Rome (C) Panther tigris
(D) Macacamulatta
114. Lucknow is situated on the bank of
120. BOD is related to
(A) Gomati
(A) detergents
(B) Ganga
(B) putrescibility
(C) Yamuna
(C) inorganic pollutants
(D) Son
(D) organic pollutants

115. Photochemical smog is related to pollution l2l. In which Industry, workers suffer from
of Byssinosis?
(A) air (A) Cardboard
(B) water (B) Textile
(C) soil (C) Plastic
(D) nostoc (D) Paper

1.16. Which one of the following is used as 122. Line joining places with equal temperature
microbial indicator of water contamination? is called
(A) Coliform bacteda (A) Isotim
(B) Giardia (B) Isohyet
I
(C) Cryptosporidium (C) Isobar
(D) Tobacco mosaic virus (D) Isotherm

123. Most abundant pollutant in the atmosphere

117. Pollutants in soil can be broken by among hydrocarbon is
microorganisms. The process is called
(A) methane
(A) Probiotics
(B) propane
(B) Bioremediation
(C) butane
(C) Bio-augmentation
(D) bezypyrene
(D) None of the above
124. Nalgonda method was developed by Indian
118. _ is known as 'The Father of Scientist to remove which chemical species from
History'. water?
(A) Nearchus (A) Iron
(B) Herodotus (B) Manganese
(C) Megasthenese (C) Chromium
(D) Von Ranke (D) Fluoride

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-14

125. Which of the following is used as a coagulant 131. Kanha National Park is situated in
for removal of phosphates in water? (A) Assam
(A) Aluminium sulphate (B) Rajasthan
(B) lron carbonate (C) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Copper sulphate (D) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Potassium chromate

126. Dr. Zakir Hussain was the

President of India. 132. Which Vitamin was discovered by Henrik
(A) 3rd Dam?
(B) 4rh (A) Vitamin K
(C) 2nd (B) Vitamin C
(D) srh (C) Vitamin E
(D) Vitamin A
127. lO"C is equivalent to _.
(A) 55'F
(B) 60"F
(c) 50"F 133. 38th Parallel separates
(D) 52'F (A) North Korea from South Korea
(B) Japan from North Korea
(C) New Zealand from Aushalia
128. Flame photometry is suitable method for
the determination of
(D) Vietnam from Kampuchia
(A) heavy metals
(B) dissolved gases
(C) dissolved organics
(D) alkali merals 134. Pink City refers to _.
(A) Chitor
(B) Udaipur
129. BOD stands for
(C) Ajmer
(A) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(D) Jaipur
(B) Biotic Oxygen Dropping
(C) Biochemical Oxygen Dressing
(D) None of the above

135. The Namami Gange Scheme was announced

130. _ is known as the 'Morning Stzr'. on _.
(A) Mars (A) 07 t07 /2016
(B) Moon (B) 0l/01/2016
(C) Jupiter (c) 0l/03/2016
(D) Venus (D) 3y03t20t6
 B-15 ABC(C)-8/20

136. Ozone day is 141. The National Highway linking Delhi-Agra

(A) January 30 -Kanpur-Varanasi-Kolkata is
(B) September 16 (A) NH-1
(C) April2l (B) NH-3
(D) December 25 (c) NH-2
(D) NH-4

137. Cement dust is characteized by very fine

particles. Which of the following air pollution
142. The headquarters of South Eastern Railway
control devices is appropriate for removing them
is at
from hot exhaust gases emanating from cement
kiln?
(A) Kolkata
(A) Bag house
(B) Kharagpur

(B) Cyclone
(C) Bilaspur
(C) Venture scrubber (D) Durgapur
(D) Electrostatic precipitator

143. _is known as the Hermit Kingdom.

L38. Activated sludge is associated with (A) Nepal
management of waste and it is a kind of (B) Tibet
(A) Chemical treatment (C) Bhutan
(B) Mechanical means (D) Korea
(C) Biological treatment
(D) Nuclear means

144. Savannahs are

(A) Tropical rain forests
139. Strait of Gibraltar is known as _. (B) Desert scrubs
(A) Pillars of Hercules (C) Grassland with scattered trees
(B) Pearl of Antilles Dense forests with closed canopy
@)
(C) Honeymoon Lake
(D) None of the above

145. For the detection of polyaromatic

hydrocarbons which of the following instruments
140. 49th Parallel seDarates is used?
(A) India from Pakistan (A) Atomic absorption spectrophotometer
(B) India from Tibet (B) X-ray Diffractometer
(C) USA from Canada (C) Gas Chromatography
(D) France from Germany (D) Flame photometer

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-16

146. Technically, there are _ Articles in l5l. Ozone undergoes photolysis due to ultra-
the Constitution of India. violet radiations of wavelength
(A) 2es (A) <320 nm
(B) 380 (B) <400 nm
(c) 39s (C) <500 nm
(D) 37s (D) <600 nm

147. Queen of Adriatic is the nickname of 152. The largest Tiger Reserve in India is
(A) Rome (A) Sundarban
(B) Paris (B) Periyar
(C) Tokyo (C) Kanha
(D) Venice (D) Nagarjunsagar Srisailam

148. E. Coli is used as an indicator organism to

determine pollution of water with
153. Mango necrosis (Black Tip) is due ro
(A) pollen of aquatic plants (A) SO2
(B) heavy metals (B) HCI
(C) faecal matter (c) PAH
(D) industrial effluents (D) PAN

149. Gate of Tears is in 154. Kanha National Park is famous for

(A) New Delhi (A) Rhinoceros
(B) Mumbai (B) Tiger
(C) Jerusalem (C) Birds
(D) Ahmedabad (D) Crocodiles

150. Jawahar Lal Nehru port is in _. 155. Overgrazingcauses

(A) Maharashtra (A) Negative pollution
(B) Goa (B) Positive pollution
(C) Odisha (C) Soil erosion
(D) Karnataka (D) Reduction in crop yield
 B-17 ABC(C)-8/20

156. In which year Alexander Flemming 161. When is International Yoga Day celebrated?
discovered Penicilline? (A) June 21
(A) 1930 (B) July 20
(B) 1928 (C) March 2l
(c) te32 (D) June 20
(D) 1e34

162. Who has won the Booker Prize 2020 for his
debut novel "Shuggie Bain"?
157. Biome have
(A) James Kelman
(A) plantcommunities (B) Marieke Lucas Rijneveld
(B) animal communities (C) Margaret Atwood
(C) trees only
(D) Douglas Stuart
(D) Both (A) and (B)

163. Which port is renamed as Shyama Prasad

Mukherjee Port?
L58. MAB stands for
(A) Paradeep
(A) Man and Biosphere
(B) Kolkata
(B) Man, Antibiotic and Bacteria
(C) Chennai
(C) Man and Biotic Community
(D) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Mayer, Andersand and Bisby

164. When is the United Nations (UN)'s World

159. is known as 'The Father of Tsunami Awareness Day observed?
Geography'. (A) November I
(A) Hipparchus (B) November 2
-(B) Hecataeuss (C) November 3

(C) Ptolemy (D) November 5

(D) Eratosthenes

165. United Nations (UN)'s World Science Day

for Peace and Development is observed on which
160. Ultrafiltration can remove date?
(A) suspended solids (A) November 7
(B) bacteria (B) November l0
(C) protozoa (C) November 8

(D) All of the above (D) November 9

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-18

166. Ministry of Shipping has been renamed as l7t. ISRO plans to launch Venus mission named
"Shukrayaan-1" by which year?
(A) Ministry of Ports (A) 2024
(B) Ministry of Coast (B) 2022
(C) Ministry of Waterways (c) 2021
(D) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and (D) 202s
Waterways

167. What is the name of the latest earth 172. On which river is the Ratle Hydropower
observation satellite launched by ISRO (November project located?
2020) along with 9 international customer satellites (A) Beas
from Andhra Pradesh? (B) Ravi
(A) G Sat-30 (C) Chenub
(B) India Sat (D) Sutlej
(c) Eos-t
(D) EOS-2

173. Name the first Country to formally exit the

Paris Climate Agreement (November 2020).
168. Which country named the Cyclone "Yaas"?
(A) Oman
(A) China

(B) India
(B) United Srates (US)

(C) Myanmar (C) India

(D) Srilanka
(D) Australia

169. Where willbe UnitedNations (UN) Climate 174. Who has developed the new anri-covid drug
Conference also known as COP 26 held in20Zl? "z-DG" in collaboration with DRL?
(A) Rome,Italy (A) DRDO
(B) Glasgow, United Kingdom (B) Bharat Biotech
(C) Madrid, Spain (c) rcMR
(D) Santiago, Chile (D) Serum lnstirure

170. Which popular social media/messaging app

got approval to launch
a payment system on Unified 175. India's first-ever e-resource centre, 'Nyay
Payments Interface (UPI) in the multi-bank model Kaushal' has been inaugurated (October 31,2020)
in lndia? in which State?
(A) Facebook (A) Karnataka
(B) Telegram (B) Maharashtra
(C) Whatsapp (C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Insragram (D) Gujarat
 B-19 ABC(C)-8/20

176. Shane Watson announced his retirement 181. Who is now the CBI chief?
fi'om all forms of Cricket. He belongs to which (A) Rishi Kumar Shukla
country?
(B) Alok Verma
(A) England
(C) Subodh Kumar Jaiswal
(B) New Zealand
(D) Kumar Rajesh Chandra
(C) Australia
(D) South Africa

182. Which state reported the first confirmed

177. Name the first country to launch the world's coronavirus case in India?
first 6G satellite named "UESTC" satellite (Star (A) Odisha
Era-12) to test communications from space?
(B) Kerala
(A) China
(C) Goa
(B) United States (US)
(D) Punjab
(C) Japan
(D) France

183. Which is lst srate in India ro use euick

178. Who won the Dreamll Indian premier Deployment Antenna (QDA) rechnology for
League 2020 (l3thEdirion of IPL) held in UAE? disaster management?
(A) Delhi Capiral (A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Chennai Superkings (B) Uttarakhand
(C) Kings XI Punjab (C) Gujarat
(D) Mumbai Indians
. (D) Sikkim

179. Which Tiger Reserve received TX2 Tiger

Conservation Awards 2020 for doubling the number
184. Indira Gandhi peace prize, 2020 has been
oftigers in 4 years ahead ofthe target of l0 years?
awarded to
(A) Nagarjunsagar_Srisailam Tiger (A) Donald Trump
Reserve, Andhra pradesh
(B) Sir David Atrenborou_sh
(B) Bor Tiger Reserve, Maharashtra
(C) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Amrabad Tiger Reserve, Hyderabad
(D) Manmohan Singh
(D) Pilibhit Tiger Reserve, Uttar pradesh

180. Who became the fastest Indian spinner to

185. Alassane Outtara has been elected
claim 100 wickets in One Day Internationals? as
President of which country?
(A) K yadav (A) Turkey
(B) R Ashwin
(B) Brazit
(C) R Jadeja
(C) Ghana
(D) Y Chahal
(D) Ivory Coast

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ABC(C)-8/20 B-20

186. Who won the International Children's Peace 191. Which film won the 'Best Picture' award at
Pize2020.l the Oscars (93rd Academy Awards),202t?
(A) Greta Thunberg (A) Minari
(B) Sadat Rahman (B) The Father
(C) Aava Murto (C) Nomadland
(D) Khusi Chindaliya (D) My Octopus Teacher

187. Where the Second World Health Expo held 192. Where has been India's first solar-based
in November 2020? Integrated Multi-Village Water Supply Project
(A) Wuhan, China (IMVWSP) inaugurated?
(B) Geneva, Switzerland (A) Gujarat
(C) New York, USA (B) Assam
(D) New Delhi, India (C) Sikkim
(D) Arunachal Pradesh

188. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of

the lnternational Cricket Council (ICC)? 193. When was UN's International Day of Older
(A) Shashank Manohar Persons observed annually?

(B) Manu Sawhney (A) October 2

(C) tmran Khwaja (B) September 29

(D) Greg Barclay (C) October 1

(D) September 30

189. Who authored the book titled

"Pandemonium: The Great Indian Banking 194. Who won the French Open,202l in the
Tragedy"? Men's Singles category?
(A) PradeeP Srivastava (A) Rafael Nadal
(B) SarbPreet Singh (B) TsitsiPas
(C) Tamal BandYoPadhYaY (C) AlexanderZverev
(D) Anand Neelakantan (D) Novak Djokovic

190. The new National Education Policy (NEP) 195. Where is the world's largest care and cure
centre for elephants being set up in India?
was passed by Government of India on
(A) 20 JulY,2020 (A) Kerala
(B) 29 JulY,2019 (B) MeghalaYa
(C) 29 JulY,2020 (C) Chhattisgarh
(D) 20 January,2020 (D) Odisha
 B-21 ABC(C)-8/20

196. Where has India's First Moss Garden been 199. Roger Penrose, Reinhard Genzel, and
inaugurated? Andrea Ghez have _qot the 2020 Nobel Prize in
(A) Kevadia, Gujarat which field?
(B) Nainital, Uttarakhand (A) Physics
(C) Mandi, Himachal Pradesh (B) Economics
(D) Subansiri, Arunachal Pradesh (C) Medicine
(D) Chemistry
197. Foundation Day of NDRF was obserued on
(A) January 20
(B) January 15
(C) January 23
(D) lantary 22
200. Who has been named as the Brand
198. The Lai Haraoba festival is observed in Ambassador for Namami Gange Project during
the Ganga Utsav, 2020?
(A) Mizoram (A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Sikkim (B) Aamir Khan
(C) Nagaland (C) Akshay Kumar
(D) Tripura (D) Chacha Chaudhary
ABC(C)-8/20 B-22

Space for Rough Work

 B-23 ABC(C)-8/20

Space for Rough Work

 -=-\_/

ABC(C)-8/20 B-24

Space for Rough Work

 ABC(C)-e/20

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2021
TEST BOOKLET TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Paper-V

Time allowed: 3 hours D

Full marks:
Answer oll
200
the questions.
D
Questions are of equal value

Seriar No. ... 919:99.......... Roll No.:

Signalure of the Candidate:

INSTRACTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions

1. This booklet consists of 24 pages including this front page. Verify the Page Nos. and Test Booklet
series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator's notice any discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheets supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the
Admit Card. Da not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in yoar marks.
4. All questions are of multiple-choiceanswer-type. You will find four probable answers
(A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to you
to be correct or the best. Now darken the circle correspondihg to the letter of the selected answer
in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the
Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.
5. One and only one circle is to be fully blackened for answer. Any spot in any other circle (multiple
circle) or in wrong circle will be considered as wrong answer.
6. There will be negative marking of t mark for each wrong answer.
7. There is a blank pagg at the end of this Booklet for Rough Work.
8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

21073 Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-9/20 B-2

1. ChoosethecorrectAmendmenttothe Indian 5. Hindi in Devanagari script is the official

Constitution which has delinked the Right to language of the Union according to which Article
Property from the Chapter on Fundamental Rights. in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 43rd Amendment (A) Article 342
(B) '+4thAmendment (B) Article 383
(C) 45th Amendment (C) Article 343
(D) 46th Amendment (D) Article 344

6. Who is a Pro-tem Speaker in the Lok Sabha?

(A) The frstmeeting after generalelection

in which the Speaker is elected by the
2. The Directive Principles of State Policy
(Art. 36 to Art. 5 1) is included in which part of the members of Lok Sabha, is held under
Indian Constitution? the senior most member of Parliament
(A) Part III is commonly known as Pro-tem
(B) Part IV Speaker.

(C) Part V (B) A temporary Speaker elected by the

(D) Part VI House when the Speaker has taken a
leave of absence.

(C) The Speaker elected by the House

when both the Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker are absent.
3. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of (D) The Speaker who presides over a joint
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth is a
session of Parliament.
fundamental right and is included in which
Fundamental Right?
(A) Right against Exploitation
7. Fill in the blank:
(B) Right to Freedom of Religion The office of the President of India can fall
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies vacant
(D) Right to Equality (a) in ro." of death of a President
(B) if a President resigns from his post
(C) on the commencement of
impeachment in the Lok Sabha
(D) Only (A) and (B)
4. Which Article in the Indian Constitution
provides forprotection against arbitrary arrest and E. Who is the highest law officer in the States
detention? of India under Article 165?
(A) ArticleZ2 (A) Secretary General of the State
(B) Article 23 (B) Advocate General
(C) Article24 (C) Chief Justice of the State High Court
(D) Article 25 (D) The Governor of the State
 B-3 ABC(C)-9/20

9. What are the qualifications for election as 11. The Constitution (Ninety-second
President of India? Choose the correct answer: Amendment) Act, 2003, amended the Eighth
schedule to the Constitution so as to include Bodo,
(A) No person shall be eligible for election
Dogri, Maithili and Santhali languages, thereby
as President unless raising the total number of languages listed in the
-
(a) He is a citizen of India. schedule to
(b) He has completed the age of (A) 20
thirty five. (B) 21
(c)
(c) 22
He is amemberofthe Rajya Sabha.
(D) 23
(B) No person shall be eligible for election
as President unless
- 12. How many members are nominated by the
(a) He is a citizen of India. President of India to the Rajya Sabha?
(b) He has completed the age of (A) 20
thirty years. (B) l8
(c) He is a member of the Lok Sabha. (c) 1s

(C) Noperson shallbeeligibleforelection (D) 12

as President unless
-
(a) He is a citizen of India. 13. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(b) He has completed the age of envisages that there shall be an Attorney General
forty years. of India?
(A) Article 78
(c) Unless he holds any office of profit
(B) Article 76
under the Government of India or
(C) Article 67
under the Government of the
(D) Article 113
states.

(D) No person shall be eligible for election

14. Under which Article of the Indian
as President unless
- Constitution the Supreme Court has original
(a) He is a citizen of India. jurisdiction to deal with any dispute between the
(b) He has completedthirty five years Centre and the State, the Cenfte and a State on the
of age. one side and another State on the other or between
two or more States ..........?
(c) He is qualified to become a
(A) Article 131
member of the Lok Sabha.
(B) Article 132
(C) Article 133
(D) Article 134
10. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
was inspired by the Preamble of the Constitution of
15. Which Article in the Indian Constitution
which country?
contains provisions dealing with a Money Bill?
(A) U.S. Constitution (A) Article 100
(B) Swiss Constitution (B) Article 110
(C) British Constitution (C) Article 122
(D) Constitution of Canada (D) Article 125

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ABC(C)-9/20 B-4

16. The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 21. Choose the case in which the Supreme
1992 has introduced Court by a majority ruled that Parliament could
(A) a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj amend any part of the Constitution of India, but it
for all States, having population of could not alter or destroy 'The basic structure' of
over 20 lakh. the Constitution.
(B) a federal form of Government. (A) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
(C) the term 'Socialist' in the Preamble to (B) Golaknath Case, 1967
the Indian Constitution. (C) Keshavananda Bharati Case, 1973
(D) reservation of seats for the Anglo- (D) A. K. Gopalan Case, 1950
Indian Community in the Parliament.
22, Fill in the blank:
The Supreme Court of India tenders legal
17. Which Article in the Indian Constitution
empowers the Supreme Court of India to issue
advice to the President of India when _.
(A) the Cabinet recommends it
writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus,
(B) the Council of Ministers recommends
prohibition, quo-warranto and certiorari which ever
it
may be appropriate for the enforcement of
(C) the President asks for it
Fundamental Rights?
(A) Article 32 (D) the Supreme Court wants to tender the
advice
(B) Article226
(C) ArticleZ27 23. To ensure free and fair elections the
(D) Article 33 Constitution of India establishes an Election
Commission. The members of the Election
Commission in the Centre are appointed by whom?
18. Under the Indian Constitution it is necessary
to be a member of a house after 6 months of (A) President of India
becoming aminister. In what way should aminister (B) Prime Minister of India
become a member of the house? (C) Chief Justice of India
(A) By nomination (D) Vice-President of India
(B) By election 24. Choose the correct alternative :
(C) Either by election or nomination The President of India is elected by the
(D) None of the above electoral college. The electoral college consists
of-
19. Who is the highest law officer of India (A) (a) the elected members of both
under Article 76 of the Constitution of India? Houses of Parliament, and
(A) The Solicitor General of India (b) the elected members of the
(B) The Secretary General of the Dept. of Legislative Assemblies of the
States.
Law in Centre
(B) (a) allthemembersofboththeHouses
(C) The Attorney General of India
of Parliament, and
(D) The Vice-President of India (b) all the members of the kgislative
Assemblies of the States.
20. Who appoints the Chairman and Members (C) (a) the elected members of the Lok
of the State Public Service Commission?
Sabha,
(A) The Governor of a State (b) the elected members of the
(B) The Chief Justice of the High Court of Legislative Assemblies.
the State (D) (a) the members of the Rajya Sabha,
(C) The President of India (b) the members of the Legislative
(D) The Chief Minister of the State Assemblies.
 B-5 ABC(C)-9/20

25. Which is the oldest High Court established 30. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has
in India n 1862? been amended and the terms 'Socialist', 'Secular'
(A) The Bombay High Court and 'Integrity' have been added by which
Amendment Act? Choose the correct option.
(B) The Calcutta High Court
(C) The Madras High Court
(A) 42nd Amendment Act
(B) 43rd Amendment Act
(D) The Allahabad High Court
(C) 45th Amendment Act
26. How many rights are guaranteed under (D) 46th Amendment Act
Article 19 of the Constitution of India?
(A) 7
(B) s 31. Who is known as the Father of the Indian
(c) 6 Constitution?
(D) 4 (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
27 . Bett Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Yojanaor
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
in other words, 'Save the Girl Child' has been (C) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar
launched to generate awareness and improve the (D) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
efficiency of welfare services intended for girls in
India.
The prime concerns of BBBP are 32. "Untouchability" is abolished and its
(A) prevention of gender based sex practice in any form is forbidden under which
selective elimination. Article of the Constitution of India?
(B) ensuring survival and protection of (A) Article 17
the girl child. (B) Article 18
(C) ensuring education and participation (C) Article 20
of the girl child. (D) Article 21
(D) All the above concerns.

28. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected

for a term consisting of how many years? 33. Who chooses the representatives of the state
in the Rajya Sabha?
(A) 3 years
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) 4 years
(B) Elected members of the State
(C) 5 years
Legislative Assembly
(D) 6 years
(C) Governor
29. How is the Chief Minister of a State (D) President
appointed in India?
(A) The Chief Minister of a State is
appointed by the Governor. 34. Which of the following Articles contain the
(B) The Chief Minister of a State is right to religious freedom enshrined in the
appointed by the Speaker. Constitution of India?
(C) The Chief Minister is appointed by (A) Art 32-35
the Chief Justice of the State.
(B) Art 29 -30
(D) The Chief Minister is appointed by
the majority political party in the (C) Art 25 -28
Legislative Assembly of the State. (D) Art 23 -24

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ABC(C)-e/20 B-6

35. Which of the following are Fundamental 40. During the Proclamation of Emergency the
Duties of an Indian Citizen? term of Lok Sabha may be extended at a time for
(A) Safeguarding public property. a period not exceeding
(B) To abide by the Constitution and (A) 2 years
respect its ideals and institutions, the (B) 1 year
National Flag and the National (C) 1.5 years
Anthem.
(D) depends on the discretion of the
(C) To cherish and follow the noble ideals President of India.
which inspired our national struggle
for freedom.
41. How many seats are reserved for women at
(D) All the above all levels in the Panchayati Raj System in India?

36. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated

(A) ll2 of seats of Panchayati Raj
in the Indian Constitution by which Constitutional institutions.
Amendment Act? (B) 1/3 of seats of Panchayati Raj and
(A) 41st Amendment Act. 1/3rd offices of Chairperson at all
levels of Panchayati Raj institutions.
(B) 42nd Amendment Act.
(O 3rd Amendment Act.
(C) ll4 of offices of Chairperson of
Panchayati Raj institutions.
(D) 44th Amendment Act. (D) 213 of seats of Panchayati Raj
institutions.
37. If the post of both the President and the Vice
President of India falls vacant who discharges the
functions of the President till the new incumbent is 42. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or
elected? Council of States?
(A) The Prime Minister of India (A) The Vice-President of India is the ex-
(B) The Speaker ofthe Lok Sabha officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(C) The Chief Justice ofthe Supreme Court
of India (B) The leader of the majority party in the
(D) The Attorney General of India Rajya Sabha.

(C) The leader of the opposition party in

38. In which year did Goa become the 25th
the Rajya Sabha.
State of India?
(A) 1e87 (D) The person elected from among the
(B) 1e88 elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) 1e89 by a simple majority of members
(D) 1eeO present and voting.

39. Which part of the Constitution of India 43. As per the Constitution of India how many
describes citizenship at the commencement of the members are elected in the Lok Sabha from the
Constitution? Union Territories?
(A) Part I (A) 20
(B) II
Part (B) 22
(C) Part III (c) 30
(D) Part IV (D) 3s
 B-7 ABC(C)-e/20

44. Choose the correct answer: 47. Who is known as the Father of the Lok
(A) The Constituent Assembly of India Sabha?
took about one ye:r to complete its (A) G.V. Mavalankar
work.
(B) Rabi Ray
(B) The Constituent Assembly of India
took about two years to complete its (C) Balram Jakhar
work. (D) P.A. Sangma
(C) The Constituent Assembly of India
took about three yeurs to complete its
work. 48. Which one of the following Parliamentary
(D) The Constituent Assembly of India Committees consistexclusively of members of the
took about four years to complete its Lok Sabha?
work. (A) The Public Accounts Committee.
45. Which one of the following right under the (B) The Estimates Committee.
Indian Constitution guarantees the fundamental (C) The Committee of Public
right to every resident of a country? Undertakings.
(A) Right to Freedom (D) The Committee on the Welfare of
(B) Right to Equality Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
(C) Right against Exploitation Tribes.
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
46. The qualifications for a person to be
appointed as theJudgeof the Supreme Courtunder
49. Which Article of the Constitution of India
say that there shall be a President of India?
Article 124(3) ne
(A) He must be a citizen of India.
(A) Art 61
In the opinion of the Ministry of Law (B) Art 62
a distinguished jurist. (C) Art 74
Has been a Judge of a High Court for (D) Art 52
at least five years, or
Has been an advocate of a High Court
for five years. 50. Which among the following is the final
(B) He must be acitizen of India. authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
In the opinion of the President a (A) The President
distinguished jurist. (B) The Council of Ministers
Has been a Judge of a High Court for
at least five years..., or
(C) The Supreme Court
Has been an advocate of a High Court (D) The Parliament
(or two or more such courts in
succession) for at least ten years.
(C) He must be acitizen of India. 51. Choose the correct statement with respect
Has been a Judge of the High Court for to "Right against exploitation" under the Indian
ten years Constitution.
Has been an advocate of the High (A) Freedomto pay taxes forthe promotion
Court. of any particular religion.
(D) He must be a citizen of India. (B) Prohibition of traffic in human beings
In the opinion of the President a
and forced labour.
distinguishedjurist.
He must be a sitting judge of a High
(C) Protection of minority schools.
Court for ten years. (D) Compulsory military service.

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ABC(C)-e/20 B-8

52. Which Amendment Act made Sikkim a 56. Till now how many Judges of the Supreme
full-fledged state of India? Court of India have been removed from office
(A) 34th Constitutional Amendment Act through impeachment?
(B) 35th Constitutional Amendment Act (A) I
(C) 36th Constitutional Amendment Act (B) 2
(D) 37tn Constitutional Amendment Act (c) 3
(D) None

53. Choose t}te correct alternative : 57. Article 2l-A of the Constitution of India
Art. 368 deals with the Constitution provides for free and compulsory education of all
amending bills.
children in the age group of 6 to 14 years
(A) A Bill to amend the Constitution may (A) is a Fundamental Right
be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. (B) is a Legal Right
(B) A Bill to amend the Constitution may (C) is a Moral Right
be introduced in either the Lok Sabha (D) is included in the Directive Principles
or the Rajya Sabha. Prior of state policy
recommendation of the President is
not required.
58. The Provision of Declaration of National
(C) A Bill to amend the Constitution may
Emergency is mentioned in which of the following
be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha.
Article?
(D) A Bill to amend the Constitution may (A) Article 352
be introduced only in ajoint sitting of
Parliament after receiving the assent
(B) Article 356
of the President. (C) Article 360
(D) Article 365

54. Which one of the following High Courts has 59. Name the Constitutional Amendment Act
the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
that was passed to provide free and compulsory
Nicobar Islands?
education ofall children between 6 and 14 years of
(A) Calcutta High Court age.
(B) Orissa High Court (A) 86th Amendment Act.
(C) Andhra Pradesh High Court (B) 84th Amendment Act.
(D) Madras High Court (C) 83rd Amendment Act.
(D) 82nd Amendment Act.

55. Fill in the blank:

A Bill cannot become an Act of Parliament 60. Choose the correct option:
in India, unless and until (A) A Money Bill may be introduced only
(A) it is passed by the Lok Sabha in the Lok Sabha.
(B) A Money Bill may be introduced only
(B) it is passed by the Rajya Sabha
in the Rajya Sabha.
(C) it is passed by both the Lok Sabha and (C) A Money Bill may be introduced in
Rajya Sabha both Houses of Parliament.
(D) the President of India gives his assent (D) A Money Bill cannot be endorsed by
to the Bill the Speakerofthe Lok Sabha.
 B-9 ABC(C)-9/20

61. Fill in the blank: 66. The Head of the Executive in all States is the
In India the concept of single citizenship is Governor of the State. How is he appointed?
adopted from _. (A) The Govemor is elected by the people
(A) The French Constitution of the State on the basis of adult
(B) The Swiss Constitution suffrage.
(C) The Constitution of United States of (B) TheGovernoris appointedbythe Chief
America Justice oflndia.

@) The British Constitution (C) The Governor is appointed by the

President and holds office during the
62. Choose the correct alternative : pleasure of the President.
(A) The Lok Sabha alone may vote on (D) The Governor is appointed by an
expenditure charged upon the electoral college like the President of
Consolidated Fund of India. India.
(B) The expenditure that is charged upon
the Consolidated Fund of India is not
votable in eitherHouse of Parliament.
(C) The expenditure that is charged upon
67. A motion of no confidence against the
Govemment can be introduced in
the Consolidated Fund of India is
votable in eitherHouse of Parliament. (A) Rajya Sabha
(D) The Rajya Sabha alone may vote on (B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
expenditure charged upon the (C) Lok Sabha
Consolidated Fund of India. (D) Neither (A) nor (C)
63. As per the Indian Constitution the Right to
Property is a
(A) Fundamental Right 68. As per the Constitution of India, what is the
(B) Natural Right maximum strength (number of members) of the
(C) Economic Right Lok Sabha?
(D) Legal Right (A) s30
(B) s40
il. \f a High Court judgement is issued in a (c) s5o
state's official language a translation in which
language must also be made available?
(D) ss2
(A) Hindi
(B) Both Hindi and English
(C) Translation not required 69. What is the name of the motion to draw the
(D) English attention of the Lok Sabha to a recent matter of
urgent public importance? If admitted it leads to
65. Which ofthefollowingcommittee suggested setting aside the normal business of the House for
incorporating Fundamental Duties in the [ndian discussing a definite matter of urgent public
Constitution? importance.
(A) Swaran Singh Committee (A) Privilege Motion
(B) Narasimhan Committee (B) No Confidence Motion
(C) Raghavan Committee (C) Calling Attention Motion
(D) MalhotraCommittee (D) Adjournment Motion

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ABC(C)-e/20 B-10

70. According to Article 85(1) of the 74. Ajudge of a High Court can be removed
Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha must meet at from office during his tenure by
least how many times? (A) the Governor, if the state legislature
(A) Three times each year with no more passes a resolution to this effect by
than four months between sessions. 213 rdmajoity.
(B) At least once a year. (B) the President, on the basis of a
(C) Four times each year. resolution passed by the Parliament
(D) Twice a year with no more than six by two-thirds majority in each House
months between sessions. of Parliament.
71. Who may by law provide for the abolition of (C) the ChiefJustice of the Supreme Court
the Legislative Council in a State underthe Indian on the recommendation of the
Constitution? Parliament.
(A) Parliament may by law abolish a (D) the Chief Justice of the High Courr on
Legislative Council in a State afterthe the recommendation of the State
Legislative Assembly of the State legislature.
passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) The State Legislative Assembly may 75. Which of the following statements is not
by law provide for the abolition of the correct?
Legislative Council in a State. (A) The President is the head of military
(C) The Rajya Sabha may by a resolution forces in India.
provide for the abolition of the (B) The President can appoint a
Legislative Council in a State. Commission to investigate into the
(D) The President on the advice of the conditions of SCs and STs.
Council of Ministers may by law (C) The President can declare any irea as
provide for the abolition of the a Scheduled Area.
Legislative Council in a State.
(D) The President of India chooses the
72. Which Constitutional Amendment Act Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
discontinued the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in
the Parliament and State legislatures?
76. Which is the longest written constitution in
(A) 104th Amendment Act. the world?
'
(B) 103rd Amendment Act.
(A) The Constitution of the United States
(C) l02nd Amendment Act.
(D) 101 st Amendment Act. (B) The Constitution of India
(C) The Constitution of the Fifth Republic
73. When was the Indian Constitution frst
of France
adopted?
(A) The Constituent Assembly adopted (D) The Constitution of Switzerland
the Constitution of lndia on 26th
January, 1950. 77. Choose the correct option:
(B) The Constituent Assembly adopted India has adopted the Parliamentary form of
the Constitution of India on 26th democracy also called the Westminister model.
January, 1949. The Parliament consists of
(C) The Constitution oflndiawas adopted (A) the President and the Lok Sabha
by the Constituent Assembly on 26th (B) the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
November, 1949. (C) the President and the Lok Sabha and
(D) The Constitution of India was adopted Rajya Sabha
on26thNovember, 1948. (D) the Lok Sabha only
 B-11 ABC(C)-e/20

78. Sanskrit is the 2nd bfficial language of 82. Fill in the blank :
which state in India? According to Article_' Notrvithstanding
(A) Karnataka anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in
(B) Madhya Pradesh exercise of its constituent power amend by way of
(C) Uttarakhand addition, variation or repeal any provision ofthe
(D) Himachal hadesh Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid
down in this Article'.
(A) 36s
79. When can the Parliament in India make a (B) 366
law on a matter enumerated in the 'State list'? (c) 367
(A) When a joint sitting of Parliament (D) 368
passes a resolution to that effect.
(B) When the Lok Sabha by a 2l3rds 83. How many Fundamental Duties are included
majority of members present and in the Indian Constitution?
voting passes a resolution saying that
it is necessary or expedient in the (A) 10
national interest. (B) 11
(C) When both the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha separately passes a
(c) t2
resolution that it is necessary and (D) 13
expedient in the national interest.
(D) When the Rajya Sabha passes a 84. Which is the 25th High Court in India?
resolution supported by not less than (A) Allahabad High Court
two-thirds ofthe members present and (B) Andhra Pradesh High Court
voting that such legislation is in the (C) Bombay High Court
national interest. (D) Calcutta High Court

85. Which one among the following features of

80. Choose the number of representatives of the the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact
Rajya Sabha from the States and the Union that the real executive power is vested in the
Territories: Council of Ministers headedby the Prime Minister
(A) 238 in tndia?
(B) 212 (A) Universal adult suffrage
(c) 200 (B) Federalism
(D) 2s0 (C) Representative legislature
(D) Parliameltary Democracy

81. The Govemmentof Indiarevokedthe special 86. If the Government of a State fails to enforce
status, or limited autonomy granted under the Directive Principles of the State Policy, a
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to Jammu citizen can move which among the following courts
and Kashmir-when? to file a writ petition to get them enforced?
(A) August,z0tg (A) District Court
(B) September,20l9 (B) No Court
(C) October,z0lg (C) High Court
(D) November,Z0l9 (D) Supreme Court
Please Tirrn Over
ABC(C)-9/20 B-12

87. Which Amendment introduced a national 92. Choose the correct statement:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India from (A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) refers
Ju,ly,2017? to litigation undertaken to secure public
(A) 100th Amendment Act interest and demonstrates the
(B) 101st Amendment Act availability of justice to socially
disadvantaged parties and was
(C) l02nd Amendment Act
introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(D) 103rd Amendment Act and Justice Krishna Ayer. It is an extra
judicious remedy and a part ofjudicial
activism to enforce public interest and
EE. The Chairman of the Public Accounts a vehicle to enforce rights.
Committee of Parliament is appointed by the (B) Only Supreme Court in India can
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. entertain Public Interest Litigation
(B) Prime Minister of India. (PL).
(C) President of India. (C) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(D) Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India
has not helped deal with major
89. The Fundamental Duties are mentioned in environmental grievances and has not
(A) Part III of the Constitution of India. helped victims who are handicapped
by poverty, illiteracy, ignorance who
(B) Part IV of the Constitution of India. have not benefitted by the
(C) Part IV A of the Constitution of India. implementation of the laws enacted
(D) Schedule IV-A of the Constitution of by the legislature for the benefits of
India. the have nots.

93. The Constitution 89th Amendment Act,

90. Choose the correct statement stated in the 2003 established:
Constitution of India: (A) Right to Education as the Fundamental

(A) India, that is Bharat,' shall be a Right to all the children under 14 years
Federation of States. ' in India.
(B) (B) The "National Commission for
India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union
Scheduled Castes" and the "National
of States.
Commission for Scheduled Tribes".
(C) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Quasi (C) Reservation of seats for women in
federal State.
local bodies.
(D) India, that is Bharat, shall be a Unitary (D) Three language policy.
State.
94. The sixty-first Amendment of the
Constitution of India, lowered the voting age of
91. Choose the most appropriate alternative : elections to the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative
Parliamentary Government is also known Assemblies of States from 21 years to I 8 years in
AS which year?
(A) Responsible Government (A) 1e84
(B) Cabinet Government (B) 1987
(C) Westminister forms of Government (c) l98e
(D) All of the above (D) 1990
 B-13 ABC(C)-9/20

95. Fill in the blank: 99. Fill in the blank:

The Constitutional position of the President lmpeachment of the President of India can
of India is comparable to _. be initiated
(A) The US President (A) only in the Lok Sabha
(B) The British Monarch (B) only in the Rajya Sabha
(C) The French President (C) in either House of Parliament
(D) The Russian President (D) in the Supreme Court

96. Which of the following statements is not

true?
lfi). Who can extend the jurisdiction of a
High Court?
(A) The Supreme Court in India is the
(A) The Parliament of India
highest court in appeals.
(B) The President of India
(B) The power of 'Judicial Review' is
mentioned in the Constitution of India. (C) The Supreme Court of India
(C) All doubts arising out of or in (D) The Governor of the State
connection with the election of a
President shall be inquired into and
decided by the Supreme Court whose 101. Following concept of money supply is called
decision shall be final under the 'narrow money':
Constitution of India.
(A) Mr
(D) The Supreme Court shall be aCourt of
(B) Mz
Record and shall have all the powers
of such a court including the power to (C) M:
punish for contempt of itself according (D) M+
to the Constitution of India.

102. Exclusive power to issue currency notes

97. When was the first general election to the
lies with
Lok Sabha in India held?
(A) l9s0 - sl (A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) r9sr -s2 (B) Central Govt. Ministry of Finance
(C) Central Govt. Ministry of Home
(c) l9s3 - s4
(D) l9s4 - ss (D) Both (B) and (C)

98. Which Article in the Indian Constitution 103. In the post economic reform period, the tax
states that the state shall not deny to any person reform measures implied the following:
'equality before the law' or the 'equal protection of (A) Decline in the rates of taxes and
the laws' within the territory of India? reducing evasion
(A) Article 13 (B) Increase in tax exemption
(B) Article 14 (C) lncrease in the tax rates
(C) Article 15 (D) lncrease in the administrative
(D) Article 16 complexity

Please Tlrrn Over

ABC(C)-9/20 B-14

104. Overall responsibility of agricultural credit 109. Indicate the incorrect statement:
and refinance lies on Impact of economic reforrn was,
(A) RBr (A) unsatisfactory progress ofbasic capital
(B) NABARD goods industries.
(C) Co-operative bank (B) neglect of agriculture.
(D) Land Development Bank (C) increase in security of workers.
(D) growth of unemployment.

105. Finance Commission is appointed for a

term of 110. The Panchayat system was introduced after
this Amendment of the Constitution:
(A) three years
(B)
(A) 65th Amendment
four years
(B) 68th Amendment
(C) five years
(C) T2ndAmendment
(D) six years
(D) 73rd Amendment

106. Find which statement is correct. 111. Impact of bank nationalisation did riot
Sales Tax include this:
(A) is progressive. (A) Total deposits increased
(B) is regressive. (B) Priority sector loan increased much
(C) is non-inflationary. (C) Security of depositors' fund declined
(D) brings distributive justice. (D) Branch expansion took place

107. Which item does not usually come under 112. Abolition of Zamindary system in West
India's import basket now-a-days? Bengal took place in the year

(A) Petroleum
(A) 19s1

(B) Crude oil

(B) 19s3

(C) Fertiliser (c) 1960

(D) Food grains (D) 1961

ll3. Government expenditure on the following

10E. Finance Commission is appointed by item do not contribute to national income:
(A) The Prime Minister (A) Defence expenditure
(B) The President (B) Subsidy on public enterprises
(C) The Parliament (C) Interest on loan
(D) The Planning Commission (D) Administrative expenditure
 B-15 ABC(C)-9/20

114. Which one of the following does not come 1L9. Inflation appears when there occurs,
under the economic liberalisation programme? (A) increase in money supply.
(A) Removal of the system of industrial (B) one time increase in price level.
licensing
(C) increase in profit and production.
(B) Reduction of restrictions relating
(D) continuous increase in price level.
Monopolies & Restricted Trade
Practices (MRTP)
(C) Increase in the import restrictions
(D) Increase in the limit of Foreign Direct 120. Cash reserve ratio (CRR) as an instrument
lnvestment of credit control is,
(A) Direct and mostly effective
(B) Indirect
115. Deficit financing is strongly inflationary
(C) Effective in a few circumstances
when
(D) Uncertain in its effectiveness
(A) Govt. takes loan from the RBI
(B) Govt. takes loan from the capital
market
(C) Govt. borrowsfromcommercialbanks 121. Disinvestment of the public sector
(D) Govt. mobilises small savings from enterprises took place because of
the market (A) capacity unutilisation.
(B) low profitability.
(C) increased burden of subsidy.
116. Taxation on agricultural income in India is (D) All of the above
(A) relatively high.
(B) low.
(C) proportionate to its contribution.
122. NABARD provides help in the following
@) None of the above way:
(A) Providing agricultural refinance
facilities
117. First Industrial Policy came into existence
in the year, (B) Giving term loans to commercial
banks
(A) 1947
(C) Giving long-term loans to small
(B) r948 industries
(c) 19s0
(D) Giving loan to State Governments
(D) 19s6

118. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 123. Interest rate paid on cash reserves kept by
provides employment to, the banks with RBI is
(A) skilled rural workers. (A) lower than market lending rate.
(B) semi skilled rural workers. (B) higher than market lending rate.
(C) unskilled workers. (C) equal to market rate.
(D) Both (A) and (B) (D) no interest paid.

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-9/20 B-16

12. Which of the following items does not come 129. Land revenue is
under National Income measurement? (A) collected by Central Government and
(A) Wages to agricultural labourer paid in distributed among states.
kind. (B) collected and retained by Central
(B) Receipt from second hand sale of an Government.
automobile. (C) collected by States and taken by
(C) Profit of the public sector enterprises. Central Government.
(D) Value of the product kept for self (D) collected and utilised by State
consumption. Governments.

125. Long-term loan to the corporate sector 130. Post economic reform witnessed _
usually comes from (A) Very high growth of employment in
(A) Commercial banks organised sector.
(B) NABARD (B) Very low growth in same sector.
(C) Lead Banks (C) Moderate growth.
(D) Capital market (D) Jobless growth in organised sector.

126. Which one of the following does not come 131. Privatisation policy under the structural
reform does not imply this:
under Central Government expenditure:
(A) Debt servicing (A) Increase in monopoly power in
industrial field.
(B) Defense expenditure
(B) Decrease in the role of industrial
(C) Maintenance of law and order and Iicensing.
police force
(C) Increase in the importance of public
(D) Administrativeexpenses of the Central
sector enterprise.
Government
(D) Both (A) and (B)

127 .' Oper ation B arga' pro grarnme benefic ial I y

132. Contribution of savings as a percentage to
affected the following class: G.D.P. is the highest in the sector _
(A) Landlords (A) Public sector
(B) Agricultural labourer (B) Corporate business sector
(C) Share croppers (C) Household sector
(D) Intermediaries (D) Industry sector

128. Volume of bill finance in the Indian money 133. Public Sector Enterprises (PSE) assumed
market is this role after new economic policy
(A) relatively high. (A) Their importance increased.
(B) relatively low. (B) Their importance decreased.
(C) medium. (C) Neutral.
(D) excessive. (D) Uncertain.
 B-t7 ABC(C)-9/20

134. Amount earned by Union Excise Duty is 139. Role of the RBI during the plan period
shared by followed this line:
(A) Central Government (A) Expansion of developmental loan
(B) State Governments (B) Control of speculative loan
(C) State Governments and Local Self (C) Expansion of banking activities
Governments through bill discounting
(D) Central and State Governments (D) All of the above

140. In the pre reform period, monetary, fiscal

135. During frst two decades of planning foreign and administrative connection for banking activities
exchange position was were
(A) very satisfactory (A) causes of low profitability of
commercial banks.
(B) unsatisfactory
(C) moderate
(B) raised profitability of banks.
(C) supported by financial reforms
(D) uncertain to state
committees.
(D) raised banking efficiency.

136. Indicate which one does not apply existence

of huge black income creates 141. The new economic policy tookthis approach
toward foreign direct investment _
(A) Inequality in income distribution
(B) Fall in the contribution to Govt. tax (A) Encouragement
pool (B) Discouragement
(C) High living standard for all (C) Neutral
(D) Luxury consumption increases (D) No change in previous approval

142. Which statement does not apply

137. Rate of recovery of agricultural credit issued In the pre-reform period public sector
by the commercial banks is enterprises in India witnessed
(A) very high (A) high inefficiency and subsidy
(B) moderate (B) increased cost of production
(C) hieh (C) high degree of profit
(D) low (D) Both (A) and (B)

143. Treasury bills are instruments ofthe Central

138. The Panchayat system is a Government to secure
(A) two tier system (A) Long term credit
(B) three tier system (B) Very long term credit
(C) four tier system (C) Short term credit
(D) five tier system (D) Medium term credit

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-e/20 B-18

144. Find the incorrect statement : 149. Most important source of energy in India
Green revolution made possible _ (A) Hydel power
(A) Very.low use of chemical fertiliser (B) Solar power
(B) Used of HYV seeds (C) Nuclear power
(C) lncrease in the use of agromachinery (D) Thermal power
(D) Multiple cropping

150. Indian agriculture mostly shows this type of

unemployment _
145. Corporate profit tax is (A) Voluntary unemployment
(A) a state level tax (B) Cyclical unemployment
(B) collected and used by Union (C) Disguised unemployment
Government
(D) Frictional unemployment
(C) collected by State Government
(D) collected by centre, used by State
Govt.
151. Central Government do not collect revenue
from these sources:
(A) Central excise duty andCustoms duty
146. Bank nationalisation had the following
(B) Personal lncome tax and Corporate
tax
objective:
(C) Agricultural Income tax and Land
(A) Branch expansion
Revenue
(B) Extension of loan to priority sectors
(D) Wealth tax and Capital gains tax
(C) Ensure depositors' security
(D) All the above
152. Land Reform aimed at
(A) raising control of Government on land
sale.
147. Which one of the following items is included
(B) raising power of the actual farmers.
in National income?
(A) (C) raising power of the intermediary
Subsidy on rationing
class.
(B) Scholarship
(D) None of the above
(C) Administrative expenditure
(D) Relief grant
153. Which concept of money supply includes
currency, demand deposits with commercial banks,
other deposits with RBI, time deposits with
148. Open market operations practiced by RBI commercial banks?
(A) are direct credit control technique. (A) Mr
(B) are indirect credit control technique. (B) Mz
(C) assist foreign exchange dealers. (C) M:
(D) (A) and (C) above (D) M+
 B-19 ABC(C)-9/20

154. Sectoral distribution as to gross domestic 159. Major part of employment in India arise in
product (G D P) in India shows the following this field
pattern now-a-days: (A) Organised sector
(A) Percentage share of industry sector is (B) Unorganised sector
the highest
(C) Fublic sector
(B) Percentage share of the services sector
(D) Both (A) and (C)
is the highest
(C) Percentage share of industries and
services sector together are around
50Vo 160. Which one is correct?
(D) To control inflation, RBI
None of the above
(A) instructs banks to reduce interest rate
on lending.
155. Percentage of people giving personal income (B) purchases bonds from public.
tax in India is
(C) reduces SLR.
(A) high
(D) raises CRR (Cash Reserve Ratio)
(B) low
(C) medium
(D) uncertain 161. Which statement is not correct?
Small scale industries in India are
advantageous as
156. Contribution of agricultural sector in G.D.P.
in India (A) they have high employment potential.
(A) More than its percentage share in total
(B) highly capital intensive.
employment of that sector. (C) use of local skill and material.
(B) Less than the percentage share in total (D) capital used per workerrelatively low.
employment of that sector.
(C) Both are approximately equal.
(D) Uncertain. 162. Post 1991 reform measures gave emphasis
on_
(A) lmport restriction
157. Agriculture budget in the plan period was
proportionately high in
(B) Import substitution
(A) First plan
(C) Import liberalisation and export
promotion
(B) Second plan
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(C) Third plan
(D) Fourth plan
163. Policy of freight equalisation affected West
1.58. RBI practices Repo rate to Bengal
(A) absorb liquidity. (A) beneficially
(B) increase supply of liquiditY (B) adversely
(C) uncertain impact. (C) it was neutral
(D) regulate interest rate. (D) uncertain

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-e/20 B-20

164. Inflationary pressure in the domestic market 169. The programme 'Operation Barga' was
(A) makes balance of trade unfavourable. undertaken with quick success in
(B) improves balance of trade. (A) Punjab.
(C) does not affect foreign exchange (B) West Bengal.
reserve & foreign trade. (C) Maharastra.
(D) the relationship is uncertain. (D) None of the above

165. Which one of the following is a correct

statement?
(A) RBI does notcontrol foreignexchange
reserve. 170. First five decades of planning observed,
(B) RBI does not provide short-term loan (A) Hindu rate of growth of GDP
to the Central Government. (B) High growth of per capita income
(C) RBI controls foreign exchange (C) Decline in per capita income
reserve. (D) High growth of GDP
(D) RBI has direct control on the
non-banking financial intermediaries.

166. Which statement is correct?

In cooperative farms 171. Money defined as M, consists _
(A) Farmers pool theirland to form a large (A) Only chequeable deposits
holding. (B) (A) above + currency
(B) Farmers do not face joint (C) (B) above + mutual fund deposits
responsibility.
(D) None of the above
(C) Private ownership of land does not
remain.
(D) Farmers do not join voluntarily.

167. Committee on financial reform 172. The year of setting up of the Reserve Bank
recommended _ of India is
(A) Phasereductionof Statutory Liquidity (A) t92t
Ratio (SLR) (B) l93s
(B) Gradual increase in SLR (c) t947
(C) Making SLR an important credit (D) 1949
'
control measure
(D) Both (B) and (C)

l6E. Structural Adjustment Programme in India

required 173. The status of the Bargadars is
(A) fiscal deficit zero (A) Owner cultivator.
(B) fiscal deficit very low (B) Share cropper.
(C) fiscal deficit very high (C) Agriculrural labourer.
(D) fiscal deficit moderately high (D) Marginal farmer.
 B-21 ABC(C)-9/20

174. During the pre reform period this technique 179. Impact of economic reform policies on
was less used _ agriculture was
(A) Varying CRR (A) beneficial.
(B) Varying SLR (B) adverse.
(C) Discount rate mechanism (C) remained neutral.
(D) All of the above (D) uncertain.

175. Point out the wrong statement. 180. Indicate the statement which is not correct:
Increase in money supply through deficit The Industrial Policy 1991 witnessed _
financing, (A) Abolition of industrial licence for
(A) raises production if supply condition majority industries.
is elastic. (B) Upper limit of foreign investment
(B) it starts multiplier working. reduced.

(C) ithelps to employ unutilisedresources. (C) Upper limit of foreign investment

raised.
(D) it is always inflationary.
(D) Privatisation of public sector
enterprises introduced.

176. ln a well developed bill market

(A) frequency of bills changing hands will
181. The second five year plan gave utmost
be low.
emphasis on the growth of the following industry:
(B) frequency of bills changing hands will
(A) Consumer goods
be high.
(C)
(B) Capital goods
frequency of bills changing hands will
be medium. (C) Small scale industries and ancillaries
@) market will be neutral. (D) Electronic goods industry

177. The new economic policy observed this 182. Green revolution and new agricultural
approach toward monopolies strategy first appear in the production of
(A) Remove all restrictions on monopolies (A) paddy.
(B) Tighten such restrictions (B) oil seed.
(C) Keep neutral approach (C) wheat.
(D) Regulate monopolies partly (D) pulses.

178. Petrochemical industries have a long chain 183. Indicate the incorrect statement:
effect on downstream industries. Land reform porgramme in India aimed at
(A) True (A) rent regulation.
(B) False (B) land ceiling.
(C) Applies to some extent (C) tenancy security.
(D) Uncertain (D) increasing power of intermediaries
Please Turn Over
ABC(C)-e/20 B-22

184. Re-Discounting of bills is a source of 190. Major part of Indian agriculture shows
(A) long term credit. (A) capitalist agricultural system.
(B) short term trade credit. (B) small size farm.
(C) medium term credit. (C) large size farm.
(D) assistance for Govt. loans taken from (D) Co operative farm.
market

185. Proceeds of Personal income tax go to 191. Devaluationoflndiancurrencyin 1991 was

(A) Central Government expected to have this effect:
(B) State Governments (A) Decline in exports
(C) State Governments and Local Self (B) Increase in exports
Governments (C) Decline in exports and imports
(D) Central and State Governments (D) Increase in imports

1E6. Maintenance of high statutory liquidity ratio

(SLR) was not favoured by 192. Priority sector lending by commercial
(A) The Chelliah Committee banks
(B) The Chakraborty Committee (A) Raised the level of non productive
(C) The Narasimham Committee assets (npa)

(D) The Tarapore Committee (B) Reduced npa

(C) Uncertain
187. Economic infrastructure does not include (D) Remained neutral as to npa
this item:
(A) Road-rail network
(B) Electricity generation 193. Which one of the following statements is
not true?
(C) Telecomrnunication
Mahalanobis strategy of planning implied:
(D) Programme for literacy (A) Import substitution
(B) Building of infrastructure and heavy
188. Relative importance in Governmentrevenue
industries
in India is high in case of
(A) Direct tax (C) High pri,,ority on industrialisation
(B) Indirect tax (D) Globalisation of the economy
(C) Public debt
(D) Deficit financing 194. Money supply when defined as M3, consists
of
189. Financial Reforms Committee (A) Commercial bank time deposits only
recommended _ (B) (A) above and currency plus demand
(A) Administered rate of interest deposit
(B) Deregulation of rate of interest (C) (B) above plus post office bank
(C) More loan to non-profitable priority deposits
sector
(D) Includes (B) above and High power
(D) Both (B) and (C) money
 F

B-23 ABC(C)-9/20

195. Literacy rate is the highest among India in 198. Indicate the correct statement.
(A) Maharashtra Early phase of lndian planning experienced,
(B) West Bengal (A) tmport substitution
(C) Kerala (B) Import liberalisation
(D) Tamil Nadu (C) Freely floating exchange rate
(D) Both (B) and (C)

199. C.R.R. instruments are applicable

196. Tertiary sector activities include _ on
(A) Mining activity. (A) Scheduled commercial banks only
(B) Banking activity. (B) (A) + the investment companies
(C) Dairy farming. (C) All commercial banks andnonbanking
(D) All of the above financial companies
(D) All of the above

200. Point out the incorrect statement :

197. The year of Bank nationalisation is Excise duty is
(A) le6s (A) not regressive.
(B) 1e69 (B) not unpopular.
(c) 1971 (C) imposed on exfactory production.
(D) 1973 (D) None of the above
 -l g

ABC(C)-e/20 B-24

Space for Rough Work

 ABC(C)-10/20

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET IINTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO.

2021
TEST BOOKLET TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Paper-VI

Time allowed: 3 hours

Full marks: 200
Answer all the questions.

Questions are of equal value.

Serial No. 05030 Roll No.:

Signalure of the Candidate:

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should read the following instructions carefully before answering the questions

1. This booklet consists of 32 pages including this front page. Verify the Page Nos. and Test Booklet
series on each page and bring at once to the Invigilator's notice any discrepancy.

2. Answers will have to be given in the Special Answer-Sheets supplied for the purpose.

3. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer-Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer-Sheet as per instructions sent to you in the
Admit Card. Do not fold the Answer-Sheet as this will result in error in your marks.
4. All questions are of multiple-choice answer-type. You will find four probable answers
(A), (B), (C) and (D) against each question. Find out which of the four answers appears to you
to be correct or the best. Now darken the circle corresponding to the letter of the selected answer
in the Answer-Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen as per instructions printed on the reverse of the
Admit Card and in the Answer-Sheet.
5. One and only one circle is to be fully blackened for answer. Any spot in any other circle (multiple
circle) or in wrong circle will be considered as wrong answer'
6. There will be negative marking of t mark for each wrong a.nswer.
7. There are blank pages at the end of this Booklet for Rough Work.
8. The Special Answer-Sheet should be handed over to the Invigilator before leaving the Examination
Hall. You are permitted to take away the used Test Booklet after completion of the examination.

20902 Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-2

1. 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work 6. The compound interest on Rs. 10,000 in
in 20 days. The number of days needed to complete I
the job, if l0 men and 15 women are employed to 2, yeau.s at l07o per annum is
do the same piece of work is
(A) Rs.2010
(A) 10 (B) Rs.2250
(B) 1s
(C) Rs.2705
(c) 8 (D) Rs.2833
(D) 20

2. Raju invested Rs. 15,000 in two parts. One 7. If a = 2021, b = 2022, c = 2023, then the
part on 87o and other at l27o per annum. His value of a3 + b3 + c3 -3abc is
annual income is Rs 1640. Ratio of the two parts (A) 18198
respectively
(B) 201s8
(A) 3:7
(c) 19288
(B) 5 :9
(D) 19188
(C) 4: 11
(D) 7: 11
8. The marked price of a pen is Rs. 200 and a
3. If a sum of money doubles itself at customer buy it for Rs. 153 after two successive
compound interestin 12yeus.In how many years discounts. Iffirst is 107o, then the second is
will it become four times? (A) 207o
(A) 26 years (B) rSEa
(B) 24 years (C) t07o
(C) 20 years (D) l57o
(D) 18 years

4. Successive discounts of xVo and y%o are

9. If cr and B be the roots of the quadratic
equivalent to a single discount of equation axz + 2bx* c = 0 and cr + y, B + y be
those of Ax2 + ZBx + C = 0, then which one is
(A) (x + y)Vo
correct?
(B) '!zY q" (A) A2(82 - AC) = a2(b2 - ac)
(c) (x+ r-ffi>v, . (B) A2(b2 - ac) - a2182 - Aq
(C) b2(A2 - BQ = 821a2 - bcy
(D) x;v Eo (D) B2(A2 - BC) = b21a2 - bcy

5. Gold and Copper are heavier than water by 10. A bus travels from Kolkata to Digha at
19 and 9 times respectively. In what proportion the rate of 55 km/hour and returns at the rate of
should they be mixed to form an alloy so that it will 66 km/hour. Then the average rate of the whole
be heavier than water by 15 times? journey is
(A) I :2 (A) 50 kmlhour
(B) 2:3 (B) 55 km/hour
(C) 3 :4 (C) 60 km./hour
(D) 3 :2 (D) l2kmltrour
 B-3 ABC(C)-10/20

11. Rahul's salary is firstincreasedby 107o and 16. Sneha wants to buy a furniture worth
then again by 20%. But due to covid the salary is Rs. 1 2,500, she gets a discount of lOVo on it. After
decreased by 257o. By what per cent the initial getting the discount, she pays 187o GST. Find the
salary changes? amount she will have to pay for the furniture.
(A) l%o increased (A) Rs. 12,540
(B) l7o decreased (B) Rs. t3.t2s
(C) ZVo increased (C) Rs. 13.275
(D) 27o decreased (D) Rs. 14,250
12. A man buys two types of oranges equal in
number one at 5 for a rupee and the other at 3 for 17. If 2x2 + 5y2 + 222 - 2xy - 6yz = 0, then
a rupee and sells the whole at 6 for Rs. 2, then his
x:y:zis
gain or loss per cent is (A) 1:2:3
(A) 25Vo gain (B) 2: 1 :3
(B) 207o loss (C) 2:3 :4
(C) ll%o gar, (D) 3:2:4
(D) 257o loss
18. A pipe can fill a tank in 16 hours. Due to
13. A train travels at a speed of 30 km/hour for a leak in the bottom, it's filled in 24 hours. If the
12 minutes and then for the next 8 minutes at a tank is full, how much time will the leak take
speed of 45 kmlhour, then the average speed for to empty it?
the journey is (A) 36 hours
(A) 36 km./hour (B) 42 hours
(B) 39 km./hour (C) 45 hours
(C) 40 km/hour (D) 48 hours
(D) 4zkm./hour
19. A man travels three-fifth of a distance AB at
14. If tan 20 tan0 = 1, then the value of tan 20
a speed 3x and the remaining at a speed 2y.If he
is goes from B to A and returns at a speed 5z in the
(A) I same time, then which one is correct?
(B) -,F
1
I*1=1
{J (A) xyz
(c) .6 (B) XIY=7
(D) None of the above
l,l_2
(c) xyz
15. AABC is a triangle whose lC =90" 'lf p is (D) x+z=y
the length of the perpendicular from C to AB, then
1.1: 20. A man buys milk at Rs. 60 per litre, adds
BCz, AC2 water to it and then sells it at Rs. 50 per litre.
(A) p2 What is the ratio of milk and water if his profit in
the deal is207o?
(B) 2p2
(A) 5 :9
(c)p', I
(B) 25 : 11
)
(C) 16: 19
(D) +
p' (D) 13: 16
Please Turn Over
 ABC(C)-10/20 B-4

21. Avishek sells a book at a profit of 207o.Ifhe 26. If the first and second of the five numbers in
had bought itatZUVo less and sold it for Rs. 18 less, continued proportion are 2 and 8 respectively, then
he would have gained 257o.The cost price of the the fifth number is
book is (A) 512
(A) Rs.80 (B) 16
(B) Rs.70 (c) 64
(C) Rs.60 (D) 256
(D) Rs.90
27. The simple interest and compound interest
22. If a2 + b2 + c2 = ab + bc + ca,then which one of a certain sum of money for two years are
is correct? Rs. 400 and Rs. 410 respectively. Then the rate of
(A) a+ b+c=0 interest per annum is
(B) a=b=c (A) 5%o
(C) a-b-c=O (B) 67o
(D) None of the above (C) 5.5Vo
(D) 6.57o
23. Ram and Shyam solve quadratic equation.
a
Ram makes a mistake in the constant term and 28. Average age of 8 sons of a family is 12
finds the roots as 5, -3. Shyam makes a mistake in years. Average age of the sons together with their
the co-efficient of .r gets the roots as 1, -3. The parents is 21 years. Ifthe father is older than the
correct roots are mother by 8 years, then the age of the mother is
(A) l,3 (A) 48 years
(B) -1,3 (B) 53 years
(c) -1, -3 (C) 60 years
(D) 1, -1 (D) 62 years

24. Rs. 6000 is divided among 40 boys and 29. Rohit sold two books at Rs. 60 each. On one
some girls so that each boy gets Rs. 100 and each he gains 20Vo andon tlre other loses ZO%o.Thenhe
girl gets Rs. 250, then the number of girls is made
(A) 20 (A) no profit no loss
(B) 15 (B) loss of 47o
(c) 8 (C) gun of l%o
(D) e (D) loss of l%o

25. A man gets a simple interest of Rs. 3500 on 30. Barun invests Rs. 5000 for a year and Tarun
a certain principal at the rate of llvo per annum in joins him with Rs. 8000 after six months. After the
5 years. What compound interest will the man get year they receive a return of Rs. 4500, then Tarun's
on twice the principal in two years at the same rate? share is
(A) Rs.2520 (A) Rs.2000
(B) Rs. 1750 (B) Rs.2500
(C) Rs.2100 (C) Rs.2200
(D) Rs.2940 (D) None of the above
 B-5 ABC(C)-10/20

31. In the figure (not drawn to scale), a circle 36. If a+b+c=0,then

touches the side BC of AABC at P and sides AB and
ACproduced at Q andRrespectively. lf AQ=10 cm, I :^ ^^.,^r to
ls equal
then the perimeter of AABC is rb - t, +l- *, *-" *r- , . -u -
(A) 10 cm CR (A) abc
(B) 20 cm A (B)+
abc
(C) 5 cm
(D) 25 cm
B (c) 0
(D) I
32. If the semi perimter
of aright-angled triangle
be s cm and hypotenuse be c cm, then the area of 37. In an examination,34Vo of the candidates
the triangle is fail in Bengali and 427o in English. If 20Vo fail in
Bengali and English, the percentage of those
(A) a
.t-c
sq.cm passing in both subjects is
(B) sc sq.cm (A) 44
(C) s(s - c) sq.cm (B) 4s
(D) None of the above (c) 46
(D) 4l
33. The income of Priya is 407o higher than
that of Liza and the income of Disha is 207o less 38. Mohit went to a shop to buy 50 kg of rice.
than that of Liza.Income of Priya is higher than He buys two varieties of rice which cost him
income of Disha by Rs. 4.50 per kg and Rs. 5 per kg. He spends a total

(A) 257o of Rs. 240. What was the quantity of less

expensive rice bought by him?
(B) 75Vo
(A) 20 kg
(C) t00Vo
(B) 25 kg
(D) None of the above
(C) 30 kg
34. Three solid spheres of gold whose radii are (D) 3s kg
1 cm, 6 cm and 8 cm respectively are melted into 39. The ratio of syrup and water in 30 litre of a
a single solid sphere. Then the radius ofthe sphere
mixture is I : 5, then the amount of water required
is to mix to make the ratio 1 : 6 is
(A) 7 cm (A) 3 litres
(B) 8 cm (B) 4 litres
(C) 9 cm (C) 5 litres
(D) 10 cm (D) 6litres
35. Present ages of Ram and Laxman are in the 40. In an examinationTl%o passed in Maths,
ratio of5 : 4 respectively. Three years hence, the 807o passed in B engali, 65 7o in both and 45 students
ratio of their ages will become 11 : 9 respectively. failed in both subj ects . Then the number of students
What is Laxman's present age? appeared are
(A) 24 years (A) 400
(B) 27 years (B) s00
(C) 40 years (c) 600
(D) 30 years (D) None of the above

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-6

' 41. A conical container of base diameter 2R 45. In the given figure, (not drawn to scale)
and height Il is full of water which is poured into LABC is a right angled triangle, lB = 90",
a cylindrical container of diameter ZpR, then it AB = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm, the value of r is
will occupy a height equal to (A) 1cm A
(A) 3p2tt (B) 2 cm
(C) 2.5 cm
H
(B)
3p (D) 3cm B C

(c) pH
J
H 46. A right circular cone, a right circular cylinder
(D) and a hemisphere, all have the same radius and the
^2
rp heights of cone and cylinder equal their diameters.
Then their volumes are proportional respectively
to
(A) 2: l:3
42. lf the time taken to go from one station to
other is required to be decreased by 207o thenby (B) 1: 3:1
what per cent the speed of the train will have to be (c) 1: 2:3
increased? (D )3 2:l
(A) 2OVo
(B) 25Vo
(C) t5%o 47.
Amerchantpurchases 1 1 toys forRs.10 and
sold 10 toys for Rs. I 1. His profit is
(D) t27o
(A) l5Vo
(B) 20Vo
(C) 2l%o

43. Satyajit is younger than Diganta by 8 years.

(D) 25Vo

If their ages are in the ratio of 5 :7 , then how old

is Satyajit?
48. A sum of money lent by Jadu at simple
(A) 18 years
interest becomes double of itself in 8 years. Then
(B) 22 years the sum will, triple itself in
(C) 25 years (A) 16 years
(D) 20 years (B) 15 years
(C) 20 years
(D) 24 years

44. The mean of five observations x, x + 2,

x + 6, x + 4, x + 8 is 11. The mean of last three 49. An article is sold at Rs. 972, then profit is
observations is 8Vo.If it is sold at Rs. 872, then there is a loss of
(A) e (A) Rs.28
(B) e.33 (B) Rs.25
(c) 13 (C) Rs.20
(D) e.66 (D) Rs. 15
 B-7 ABC(C)-10/20

50. If tan 0 + sin 0 = m and tan 0 - sin 0 = n, then 54. The cost price of an article A is Rs. 200 and
which one is correct? selling price of another article n is Rs. 308. If the
(A) selling price of A will be equal to the cost price of
m2 * n2 =2Jn1n
B, then the profit after selling A is 107o. What is
(B) *2 - n2 = 4mn the profit on B?

(C) m2 - n2 = 4Jmn (A) 20Vo

(B) 30Vo
(D) m2 - 12 =2Jmn
(C) 40vo
(D) 507o

l+984762x984764
51. Simplified value of 99o163"93Or., is 55. In an election l5?o ofvoters did not vote.
Ratanbabu got 62.5Vo of votes cast was declared
(A) 984762 elected by 3400 votes. Then the total number of
(B) 984763 votes are
(c) 0 (A) 1s000
(D) 1 (B) 16000
(c) 17000
(D) 19000

52. The income from a bus in every trip is

If the bus fare increase s by 5OVo and the
Rs. 1 00.
number ofpassengers decreases by 207o, then the 56. The radius of a solid sphere is R cm. It is
income in every trip is bisected, then the total surface area of the two
(A) Rs. 120 pieces obtained is,

(B) Rs.80 (A) 5nR2 sq.cm

(C) Rs. 130 (B) 4nR2 sq.cm
(D) Rs. 110 (C) 6nR2 sq.cm
(D) 3rR2 sq.cm

53. The price of sugarcane rises by 2U%o.Then 57. In atiangle PQR, pointsA, B and C are the
by how muchpercent does ahousewifereduce her midpoints ofthe sides PQ, QR andRPrespectively.
consumption so that her expenditure remains same? If the area of the.triangle ABC is 16 sq.units, then
)
(^) t6;Eo the area of the triangle PQR is

(B) 20Vo
(A) 32 sq.unit
(B) 48 sq.unit
C) 25Vo
(C) 50 sq.unit
@) rz+Eo (D) None of the above

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-8

58. The speed of a boat in still water is 62. The age of father today is thrice as that of
If it can travel 20 km downstream and
8 km/trour. his son. After l5 years, the age of the father will be
l2 km upstream at the same time, the speed of the twice that of his son. The age of the son today is
stream is (A) 12 years
(A) 2 km/hour (B) l5 years
(B) 2.5 km/hour (C) 18 years
(C) 3 km/hour (D) 24 years
(D) 3.5 km./hour

63. A cylinder and a cone have equal radii of

their bases and equal heights. If their curved
s9. If x=5+2J6, th", *u*3i'*1 is equal to surface areas are in the ratio 8 : 5, the ratio ofradius
to the height is
(A) s (A) 3:5
(B) 864 (B) 3 :4
(c) e73
(C) 4: 5
(D) 874 (D) 2: I

60. The lengths of two parallel chords of a U. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral and the
circle are 6 cm and 8 cm. If the smaller chord is at sides DC and AB, are produced to meet at P.
distance 4 cm from the centre, then the distance of If IAPD = 25"and ZPBC = 70o then IBAD is
the other chord from the centre is equal to
(A) 5 cm (A) 25.
(B) 4 cm (B) 70.
(C) 3 cm (c) 95'
(D) 2 cm (D) 85.

61. If x = by * cz, y = g7 I ax and z= ax + by,then 65. The price of coal being increasedby 209o,
abc family reduce the consumption of coalby 20Vo.
l+o*1+b+l+c isequalto Then how much per cent will the family' s expenses
for coal be increased or decreased?
(A) 0
(A) No change
(B) I
(B) 4Vo increased
(c) +
aDc (C) 4Vo decreased
(D) abc (D) 37o decreased
 B-9 ABC(C)-10/20

66. Ranjan sold his bag to Joydip at a gain of 70. Lateral surface area of a right circular cone
8Vo and Joydip sold it to Raju at a gain of l0Vo. is three times the volume of that cone.If the height
If Raju paid Rs. 297 for it, the price paid by and the radius of the cone are h unit and r unit
Ranjan is respectively, then {+{ is equal to
(A) Rs.250 ht r'
(A) 1
(B) Rs.260
(B) 3
(C) Rs.270
(D) Rs.280
(c) e
I
(D) 9

a
z+
67. [f x= {Js
+
- .,6+r -,tt-z"lz then
71. A hemispherical bowl is made of steel sheet
x equals to - 0.8 cm thick. The inside radius of the bowl is 5 cm.
(N 2Jr-l Volume of steel used in making it is
(B) 1
(A) 146 cm3

2
(B) 144.9 cm3
(c) t- (C) 146.9 cm3
VJs+t
(D) 148.6 cm3
(,)+ t=

'4b3-o3 4b3 - a3
68. While preparing mixture of tea, teais 5Vo 72. If 2x=a+
5A
AnO 2\)=a - --------,
3a
lost. In what ratio a trader should mix two kinds of then which one is correct?
tea costing Rs. 600/kg and Rs. 450/kg respectively
(A) -x+Y=a
so that he might gain 257o onselling the mixed tea
at Rs. 625lkg? (B) x3*Y3=b3
(A) 3 :5 (C) i*Y2=a2
(B) 4: 5 (D) None of the above
(C) 5 :2
(D) l: s

73. A person walks from his house at a speed of

4 km/hour and reaches his school 5 minutes late.

69. If ",=#,1f;u,)s and x4=160 then If his speed has been 5 km/ hour he would have
reached 10 minutes earlier. The distance of the
the value of x (mean) is school from his house is
(A) l0 (A) 5 km
(B) 2s (B) 6 km
(c) 20 (C) 7 km
(D) 27 (D) 8 km
Please Turn Over
 ABC(C)-10/20 B-10

74. The greatest and the least value of 78. If the cost price of 12 articles is equal to
a + b sine (0" < 0 < 90") are 7 and 3 respectively. selling price of l0 articles, the4 percentage of
The value of a and b are profit is
(A) a=2,b=5 (A) 25Vo
(B) a=3,b=4 (B) 307o
(C) a=O,b=7 (C) 22.5Vo
(D) a=3,b=7 (D) 207o

x+4a x+4b
79. If x=34,then x-4a x- is equal to

75. If P(1, 2), Q(4,6), R(5, 7) and S(a,b) are the (A) 1
vertices of a parallelogam PORS, then the values (B) 2
ofaandbare (C) 8ab
(A) a=2,b=6 (D) 4ab
(B) a=l,b=5
(C) a=2,b=3
(D) a =6,b=7
80. Ir
*.*5ffi=,,,n"n
x Yz is equal to
l+x 2+y 1009+ z
-+ I
(A) 0 {
(B) I J
76. The radius and height of a cone are each
increased by l1%o, then the volume of the cone is (c) 2
increased by (D) J
(A) 2l7o
(B) 33.1Eo
(C) 25.3Vo 81. A number is increased by lOVo and then
decreased by IUVo, then the number
(D) 30.4Vo
(A) doesn't change
(B) decreasesby lVo
(C) increasesby l%o
(D) None of the above
77. lf H,,S, Vbe the height, curved surface area
and volume of a cone respectively, then the value
82. A man invests Rs. 5000 at arate of 6Vo per
of 3nVH3 + 9lP - S2H2 is
annum. How much more should he invest at a rate
(A) 0 of 97o , so that he can earn a total o f 7 Vo per anntm?
(B) I (A) Rs.5000
(c) r (B) Rs.2500
(C) Rs.3000
(o); (D) Rs.4500
 B-11 ABC(C)-10/20

83. A sum of money compounded annually 87. Pipe A can fill a tank in 3 hours and pipe
becomes Rs. 500 in two ye:rs and Rs. 550 in three B can fill it in 4 hours. If they are opened at
years. The rate of interest per annum is alternate hours and ifpipe A is opened first, in how
(A) 8Vo many hours will the tank filled?
I
(B) lOVo (A) 3i hours
(C) lZVo
(B) 4 hours
(D) r57o
(c) 4+ hours

^l hours
(D) 31

M. The areas of two similar triangles are

36 sq.cm and 8 I sq.cm respectively. If the median 88. Six years hence, a man's age will be three
of smaller triangle is 12 cm then the corresponding times the age of his son and three years ago he was
median of the larger triangle is nine times as old as his son. The present age of the
(A) 12 cm man is

(B) 18 cm
(A) 28 yrs
(C) 24 cm
(B) 30 yrs
(D) l0 cm (C) 32 yrs
(D) 34 yrs

E9. T6ladies can do a job in 33 days. Due to

some reason, some ladies did notjoin the work and
85. If the rate of compound interest for the first
therefore, it was completed in 44 days. The number
year is 4Vo and second year is 57o, then the
of ladies who did not join the work is
compound interest on Rs. 25,000 for 2 years is
(A) Rs.2000
(A) 22
(B) 21
(B) Rs.2300
(C) Rs.2400
(c) 20

(D) Rs.2500 (D) Ie

90. In a joint business, ratio of the capitals of

lll first
three friends was ):i: o. After 4 months the

86. A and B can do a piece of work in l0 days, friend withdrew half of his capital and 8 months
B and C 12 days, C and A in 15 days, then that
in thereafter Rs. 2024 was recorded as their total
numbers of days taken by A, B and C together to profit. What was the share of profit of the first
finish the work are friend?
(A) 6 days (A) Rs.542
(B) 8 days (B) Rs.672
(C) 10 days (C) Rs.736
(D) 18 days (D) Rs.816
Please Turn Over
ABC(C)-10/20 B-12

91. The difference between simple interest and 95. Out of 15 cows one worth Rs. 1800 was
compound interest on a sum for 3 years at I07o removed and horse was taken in. If their average
a
when the interest is compounded annualy is price is thereby increased by Rs. 300, then the
Rs. 155. Then the principal value is price ofthe horse is
(A) Rs.4000 (A) Rs.6000
(B) Rs.5000 (B) Rs.6300
(C) Rs.5500 (C) Rs.3600
(D) Rs.6000 (D) None of the above

96. The production of scooters rose to 48400

from 40000. If rate of growth is 107o, then the
92. The currentpopulation ofatown is 120000.
time required
If the population increases by
lOVo every lear, (A) 5 years
then the population of the town. after three years (B) 4 years
will be (C) 3 years
(A) 12ss50 (D) 2 years
(B) 162e00
(c) 1346s0
(D) rs9720 97. Two circles with radii rt and 12
respectively, touch each other externally.
Let R be the radius of a circle that touches these
two circles as well as a cortmon tangent to the two
circles, which of the following is true?

(A)
lll
93. If (x + l)' = 3, then the value of 6-6=E
x2o20 +;2o2t + i2o2z + i20t4 + i)a$ +x2016 + I is (B) +-+=+
(A) 0 Jrz Jrr ../n
(B) I rcl ***=*
(c) 2020 Vt ..lrz vR
(D) 2016 (o) Jt-Jt=Jft

98. Amalinvests j ofhiscapital at8Vop.a.,!

94. If 3 sin cr + 5 cos o = 5, then the value of at l07o p.a. and the remainder at j%o p.a. If his
(3 cos cr - 5 sin a)2 is equal to
annual income is Rs. 628, then the capital is
(A) e (A) Rs.7500
(B) 2s
(B) Rs.7700
(c) I
5 (C) Rs.8000
(D) None of the above (D) Rs. 8500
 B-13 ABC(C)-10/20

99. The mean of a frequency distribution is 8. 1, 103. What fraction of 4/7 must be added to itself
if Zfix,=ll2 + 5,t and ,,fi:20 then the value of k to make the sum 15/14?
is (A) U2
(A) 2 (B) 4t7
(B) 4 (c) 7t8
(c) s (D) 1sll4
(D) 6

100. A manufacturer marked an article at

Rs. 120 and sold it allowing 157o discount. If his
profit was 20Vo, then the prime cost of the article
is
(A) Rs.85
(B) Rs.90
(C) Rs. 100 104. A man can row upstream at 8 kmph and
(D) Rs. 110 downstream at 13 kmph. The speed of the stream
is
(A) 2.s kmph
(B) 4.2 kmph
101. A boatman goes 2 km against the current of (C) 5 kmph
the stream in t hour and goes I km along the (D) 10.5 kmph
current in 10 minutes. How long will it take to go
5 km in stationary water?
(A) 40 mins
(B) t hour
(C) t hr 15 mins
(D) t hr 30 mins

Direction: Study the following alphabetical

sequence and answer the question based on it. Direction: Suppose the following words
GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRAB ICDDC Man, Men, Machine, Method, Methodical, Make,
RFFAHAHAIH Mentor, Map
are arranged according to dictionary rule.
102. If we write the letters of the above series in
the reverse order which letter is the middlemost? 105. Which of them will be at the start?
(A) K (A) Man
(B) V (B) Map
(C) R (C) Make
(D) A (D) Machine

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-14

106. Study the following table and answer the 109. Three times the first of three consecutive
question based on it: odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. The
Number of Candidates Appeared, Qualified and third integer is
Selected in a Competitive Examination from (A) 9
Five States Delhi, H.P, U.P, Punjab and (B) 1l
Haryana Over the Years 1994 to 1998
(c) 13
Delhi H.P. u.P. Punjab Haryana
eaI
rpp.louat. Sel APP. Sel App. Iual. Sel App. Sel APP. Sel
(D) 1s
1997 eoool eso 94 7800 810 zsool zzo 78 8200 680 85 6400 700

+aool soo 48 7500 800 sooo I ozo 85 6800 600 70 71 00 650 75

1999 zsool ono 82 7400 560 +ooo I loo 48 6500 525 65 5200 350

200c 850 90 8800 920 86 650 70 7800 720 84 6400 540 60

2001 goool aoo 70 7200 850 asoo I gso 80 5700 485 60 4500 600 75

Direction: Study the following alphabetical

In the year 1997, which state had the lowest sequence and answer the question based on it.
percentage of candidates selected over the GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRABICDDC
candidates appeared?
RFFAHAHAIH
(A) Delhi
I 10. The number of vowels that are absent in the
(B) H.P. above series is
(c) u.P. (A) 0
(D) Punjab (B) I
(c) 2
(D) 3

107. Jaya and Hima are competing in a 200 meter

race. Both start the race at the same time, but Jaya
starts the race 40 meters ahead of the starting point,
whereas Hima starts the race at the starting point.
Assume that Himaruns at a speed of 10 meters per 111. The 5th term in the following series:
second, whereas Jaya runs at a speed of x meters ab2 + bc2 + cd2 +....... + to 25 terms will be
per second. If both reach the finish line at the same (A) de2
time, then what is the value of -r?
(A) 8 meters per second @ef
(c) fs2
(B) l0 meters per second
(D) czf
(C) 6 meters per second
(D) 2 meters per second

108. Three cubes ofedges 6 cm, 8 cm and l0 cm

ll2. lf all the letters of the word
RATIONALISATION are written according to
are melted without loss of metal into a single cube.
the alphabetical order, which letter will be farthest
The edge of the new cube will be:
from the first letter?
(A) l6 cm
(A) T
(B) 14 cm (B) L
(C) 12 cm (C) R
(D) 8 cm (D) N
 B-15 ABC(C)-10/20

113. A and B are at a distance of 800 m. They Direction: Monica, Amar, Akbar and Anthony
start towards each other at 20 and 24 kmph. As live in the four apartments that are arran ged side by
they start a bird sitting on the cap of A, starts flying side. Only one of the above four persons is the
towards B, touches B and then returns towards landlordwhose apartmentis atthe one end. Amar's
A and so on, till they meet. What is the distance apartrnent is neither next to Monica's apartment
traveled by the bird, if its speed is 176 kmph? nor next to Akbar' s apartment. Monica' s apartment
(A) 3040 m is not at one end. Amar is not the landlord.
(B) 3200 m 117. Who lives just beside the landlord?
(C) 3100 m (A) Monica
(D) 2600 m (B) Amar
(C) Akbar
(D) Anthony

114. A boat running downstream covers a

distance of 16 km in 2 hours while for covering the
same distance upstream, it takes 4 hours. What is 118. A man rows downstream 32krn and 14 km
the speed of the boat in still water? upstream. [f he takes 6 hours to cover each distance,
(A) a kmph then the velocity (in kmph) of the current is
(B) 6 kmph (A) U2
(C) 8 kmph (B) 1
(D) Data inadequate (c) 3t2
(D) 2

115. When a number is added to seven-ninth of

I 19. If one-third of a tank hold 80 litres of water,
thirty-five per cent of 900, the resultant is 325.
then the quantity of water that half of the tank holds
What is the number?
is
(A) 8l
(A) 80/3litre
(B) 80
(B) 100litre
(c) es
(C) 120litre
(D) 60
(D) 240litre

116. If the letters in the word "PSCEXAM" are 120. From a group of 7 men and 6 women, five
rearranged according to the English alphabetical persons are to be selected to form a committee so
order, how many letter(s) will remain in the same that at least 3 men are there in the committee. [n
position after the rearrangement? how many ways can it be done?
(A) 0 (A) 624
(B) I (B) 209
(c) 2 (c) 7s6
(D) 3 (D) 2r2
Please Turn Over
ABC(C)-10/20 B-16

l2l. A shopkeeper gives two successive 124. The following pie-charts show the
discounts of 20Vo and lOTo on surplus stock. distribution of students of graduate and post-
Further, he also gives 57o extra discount on cash graduate levels in seven different institutes in a
payment. If aperson buys a shirt from the surplus town.
stock and pays in cash, what overall discount Distribution of students at graduate and
percent will he get on the shirt? post-graduate levels in seven institutes:
(A) 60Vo Total number of Students of
(B) 5.67Vo Graduate Level = 27300
(C) 31.67o
(D) 2Vo
N P
M
12t/o 12%
17% a
13%

T
R
15r/o
17%
\

122. It the letters in the word "PSCEXAM" Total number of Students of

are rearranged according to the reverse English Post-Graduate Level = 24700
alphabetical order, how many letter(s) will remain
in the same position after the rearrangement? N P
15% a
(A) 0 8%
L2"/o
t3%
(B) 1 T
R
(c) 2 17%
L-*N14%
(D) 3

What is the total number of graduate and post-

graduate level students in institute R?
(A) 8320
(B) 7916
(c) 9116
123. A person travels 3.5 km from place A to (D) 80e9
place B. Out of this distance, he travels 5/3 km on
bicycle, 716 l<n on scooter and the rest on foot.
What portion of the whole distance does.he cover
on foot?
(A) 3n9
(B) 4nt
(c) st2r
(D) s/6
 B-17 ABC(C)-10/20

125. When a ball bounces, it rises to 3/t of the 128. Consider the following three statements by
height from which it fell. If the ball is dropped Amar, Akbar and Anthony.
from a height of 32 m, how high will it rise at the Amar : "Anthony is a good boy." Akbar : "Amar is
third bounce? a liar." Anthony : "I am not a good boy."
(A) 13 m You know that at least two of them are telling the
(B) 13.5 m truth. Who is/are telling the truth?
(C) 14.5 m (A) Only Amar
(D) None of the above (B) Amar and Akbar
(C) Akbar and Anthony
(D) All of them
126. Study the following table and answer the
question based on it:
Number of Candidates Appeared, Quali{ied and
Selected in a Competitive Examination from
Five States Delhi, H.P, U.P, Punjab and
Haryana Over the Years 1994 to 1998
Delhi H.P. U.P. Puniab Haryana
ear
lpp.Iuat. Sel. App. Sel. APp. Sel. lpp.louat, App. Qual. Sel.

soool sso 94 7800 810 82 7500 720 78 ozool oao 6400 700

1998 500 48 7500 800 65 5600 620 85 600 71 00 650 75

zsool olo 82 7400 560 70 4800 400 48 osool szs 65 5200 350

200c lsool aso 90 8800 920 86 7000 650 70 720 84 6400 540 60 129. IfPamela ranks seventeenth in a class of
2001 goool aoo 70 7200 850 75 8500 950 80 szool +ss bU 4500 600 75
thirty-one, what is her rank from the last?

The percentage ofcandidates qualified from

(A) l2
Punjab overthose appeared from Punjab is highest (B) 14
in the year (c) 1s

(A) 1997
(D) l6
(B) 1998
(c) r999
(D) 2000

Direction: Monica, Amar, Akbar and Anthony

live in the four apartments that are arranged side by
side. Only one of the above four persons is the
landlord whose apartrnent is at the one end. Amar's
apartment is neither next to Monica's apartment Direction: Suppose the day after tomorrow is
nor next to Akbar' s apartment. Monica' s apartment NOT Saturday
is not at one end. Amar is not the landlord. 130. Which of the following day CANNOT be
127. Amar lives the day before yesterday?
(A) at one extreme end. (A) Sunday
(B) between Akbar and Monica. (B) Monday
(C) between Akbar and Anthony. (C) Tuesday
(D) between Monica and Anthony. (D) Wednesday

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-18

Direction: Monica, Amar, Akbar and Anthony Direction: Monica, Amar, Akbar and Anthony
live inthe fourapartments thatare arranged side by live in the four apartments that are arranged side by
side. Only one of the above four persons is the side. Only one of the above four persons is the
landlordwhose apartmentis atthe one end. Amar's landlordwhose apartmentis atthe one end. Amar's
apartment is neither next to Monica's apartment apartment is neither next to Monica's apartment
nor next to Akbar' s apartment. Monica' s apartment nor next to Akbar's apartment. Monica' s apartment
is not at one end. Amar is not the landlord. is not at one end. Amar is not the landlord.
131. Who is the landlord? 135. Monica lives
(A) Monica (A) at one extreme end.
(B) Amar (B) between Akbar and Amar.
(C) Akbar (C) between Akbar and Anthony.
(D) Anthony (D) between Amar and Anthony.

132. It (a, b) x (c, A = <" * A -t then

(; a .C ,3)wi,, be
(A) 1 136. If " p ,= n (n-r) (n-a) ...(n-r) and n p 3= 24 ,
(B) 0 then the value of n will be
(c) 7
(A) 5
(D) 2
(B) 4
(c) 2
(D) J

133. Simplify: logo3 logrur64

(A) 3/s
(B) zts
(c) 3t4
(D) 1/3
Direction: Study the following alphabetical
sequence and answer the question based on it.
GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRAB ICDDC
RFFAHAHAIH
134. If the current ratio of the father' s age to the 137. How many vowels are there in the above
son's age is 4 : 1 and the product is 256, what will series which are immediately preceded by a
be the ratio of ages after 5 years? consonant?
(A) 37: 13 (A) 6
(B) 38 : 12 (B) 7
(C) 35 : 15 (c) 8
(D) 50: 1 (D) e
 B-19 ABC(C)-10/20

138. In acertain codelanguage PREMOMTION 141. Out of the two bar graphs provided below,
being coded as 68530492901, you will write one shows the amount (in Lakh Rs.) invested by a
MONITOR as: Company in purchasing raw materials over the
(A) 30s920s years andthe other shows the values (in Lakh Rs.)

(B) of finished goods sold by the Company over the

3042900
years.
(c) 3M92O3
Amountinvested inRaw Materials (Rs in Lakhs)
(D) 3049208
600
525

420
450
375
330
J
300
225
&
720
150

0
1995 1996 t997 19$ 1999 200
Years
Value of Sales of Finished Goods (Rs. in Lakhs)
800

Direction: Suppose the following words

600
Man, Men, Machine, Method, Methodical, Make, 500
500 450
Mentor, Map J 400
are arranged according to dictionary rule. 400
300
139. Which of them will be at the end? 200

(A) Men 200

(B) Method
0
(C) Methodical 1ee5 1ee6 t::*, rse8 lees 20m

(D) Mentor
The value of sales of finished goods in 1999 was
approximately what percent of the sum of amount
invested in Raw materials in the years 1997, 1998
and 1999?
(A) 33Vo
(B) 37Vo
(C) 45Vo
(D) 49V.o

140. What is the smallest number which when

decreased by 8 is divisible by 21,27,33 and 55?
(A) 1490
(B) 1040s
(c) 1s490
(D) None of the above

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-20

142. The following pie-chart gives the 145. The average weight of 8 persons increases
distribution of the overseas tourist traffic from by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one
India. of themweighing 65kg. Whatmightbe the weight
of the new person?
UK (A) 76 kg
Others 10% U5A
4A/s
(B) 5 kg
2tr/o
(C) 8s ke
Japan
(D) None of the above
3ff/,

What percentage of Indian tourist went to either

USA or UK?
(A) 407o
(B) 50Vo
(C) 60Vo
(D) 70Vo 146. The difference between a two-digit number
and the number obtained by interchanging the digits
is 36. What is the difference between the sum and
the difference of the digits of the numberif the ratio
between the digits of the number is I : 2?
143. A box contains 15 marbles out of which 4 (A) 4
are white, 5 are red and 6 are blue. Three balls are (B) 8
to be drawn at random from the bag. What is the
probability that all of them are red?
(c) 16

(A) 1t22
(D) None of the above
(B) 2t8e
(c) 2t77
(D) 2t9r

144. In a certain code language

I 2 3 means 'sober nice lady,
3 5 6 means 'nice sunny day' 147. Ankit is the son of Zubin. Manju is the
5 8 9 means 'a rainy day' daughter ofAnil. Sheela is the mother of Manju.
Which of the following numeral stands for Mohan is the brother of Manju. How is Mohan
'sunny'? related to Sheela?
(A) 3 (A) Brother
(B) 5 (B) Father
(c) 6 (C) Son
(D) e (D) Cannot be determined
 B-21 ABC(C)-10/20

148. A sum of Rs. 312 was divided among 100 152. A car is running first 5 kilometers at a speed
boys and girls in such a way that each boy gets of 40 km./hr., next 20 kilometers at 60 km./[r. and
Rs. 3.60 andeach girl Rs. 2.40. The numberofgirls then another 30 kilometers at 50 km./hr. speed.
is Then the average speed of the car is
(A) 40 (A) 51'97 km./hr.
(B) 4s (B) 50 km./hr.
(c) 35 (C) 52'3 km./hr.
(D) 30 (D) 50'6 km./hr.

149. A two-digit number is such that the product 153. A problem is given to three students whose
of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, chances of solving it are ll2, ll3 and ll4
then the digits are reversed. The number is respectively. What is the probability that the
problem will be solved?
(A) 18
(A) U4
(B) 24
(B) u2
(c) 42
(c) 3t4
(D) 8r
(D) 7tr2

150. How many numbers between 400 and 600 154. In one hour, a boat goes 1l km along the
begin with or end with the digit 5? stream and 5 km against the stream. The speed of
(A) 40 the boat in still water (in km/hr) is
(B) 100 (A) 3
(c) r l0 (B) s
(D) 120 (c) 8
(D) e

151. Suppose milk is sold at the rates of 5.50,

6.00, 5.75 and 5. 25 rupees per litre in four different 155. A tap can filI a bucket in 6 hours. After half
months. Assuming that equal amount of money the bucket is filled, three more similar taps are
are spent on milk by a family in the four months, opened. What is the total time taken to fill the
the average price in rupees per litre will be bucket completely?
(A) s.61 (A) 3 hrs 15 mins
(B) s.62 (B) 3 hrs 45 mins
(c) s.63 (C) 4 hrs 25 mins
(D) s.64 (D) 4 hrs 15 mins

Please Turn Over

ABC(C)-10/20 B-22

156. The following line graph gives the ratio of 157. Out of the two bar graphs provided below,
the'amounts of imports by a company to the one shows the amount (in Lakh Rs.) invested by a
amount of exports from that company over the Company in purchasing raw materials over the
period from 1995 to 2001. years and the other shows the values (in Lakh Rs.)
Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a of finished goods sold by the Company over the
Company Over the Years. years.
1.6
1-5
Amountinvested in RawMaterials (Rs inLakhs)
1.4
1.3 6m
t.2 525
1.1
1 420
o.9 450
0.8 t 375
0.6s 330
o.7
o.6
J
0.5
3m
o.4
q 225
&
0.3
120
150
0.1
1995 1996 t997 1998 1999 2000 2q)1
Years
0
1995 1996 L99? 1998 1999 20@
The imports were minimum proportionate Yeas
to the exports of the company in the year Value of Sales of Finished Goods (Rs. in Lakhs)
(A) 1e9s 800

(B) 1ee6
(c) te97 600
6m

(D) 2000 J
500 460

400
a '|o0
c 300
200
200

0
1995 1996 7997 1998 1999 2(m
Yers

The maximum difference between the amount

invested in raw materials and value of sales of
finished goods was during the year
(A) 199s
(B) 19e6
(c) teeT
(D) 1998

158. A whole number n which when divided by

4 gives 3 as remainder. What
will be the remainder
when2n is divided by 4?
(A) 0
(B) I
(c) 4
(D) 2
 B-23
ABC(C)-10/20
Direction: Study the following alphabetical
sequence and answer the question
The following pie_charts show the
basid on it. -162.
distribution of students of graduate and post_
GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRAB ICDDC graduate levels in seven diffirent
RFFAHAHAIH institutes in a
town.
159. If we drop all the vowels from the Distribution of students at graduate and
above
series which letter will be in the middle post-graduate levels in seven institutes:
position?
(A) K Total number of Students of
(B) v Graduate Level = 27300
(c) s
(D) R
M.\
17% N m a
I)irection: Study the following alphabetical \ 1,3%

sequence and answer the question based

on it.
GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRAB ICDDC v
RFFAHAHAIH
160. The difference between the number of
consonants and the number of vowels in the
above
series is
Total number of Students of
(A) 10 Post-Graduate Level = 24700
(B) 13
(c) 17 P
72% a
(D) 2s 1.3%

3.4%
161. Study the following table and answer the
N"
question based on it:
Number of Candidates Appeared, eualified and
Selected in a Competitive Examination from
Five States Delhi, H.p, U.p, punjab and What is the ratio between the number of students
Haryana Over the years studying at post-graduate and graduate levels
Delhi H.P. U.P. Puniab Haryana respectively from institute S?
App.Iuat. Sel 4p.louat. Sel App. Qual. Sel
1997 aoool aso
App. Qual Sel App. Qual. Sel
(A) 14: 19
94 zeool aro 82 7500 720 78 8200 680 6400 700 75
1998 500 48 800 65 5600 620 85 6800 600 70 7100 650 75
(B) 19:21
1999 zsool olo zloo I soo 70 (C) t7:2t
ill*
82 4800 400 48 6500 65 5200 350 55

2000 90 oaoo I szo 86 7000 650 70 7800 720 84 ;noo s+o 60

2001 goool aoo 70 850 75 8500 950 80 5700 485 60

I
600 75
(D) 19: 14

For which state the average number of

candidates selected overthe years is the maximum?
(A) Delhi
(B) H.P.
(c) u.P.
(D) Punjab

Please Turn Over

 B-24
ABC(C)-10/20
166. The following chart shows the age
163. What is the number of triangles in the
distribution of overseas tourist from India'
following figure?
Age Distribution of Overseas Tourist Traffic
from India'

years

E 30-39 Years L5o/o

15o/o
(A ) 10
(B) e 4G49
years
(c) 11
Zff/o
(D) 12

Which of the following statements is not TRUE?

(A) Elderly people are most likely to travel
overseas.
(B) Elderly people are least likely to travel
overseas.
(C) Youngerpeople areless likely totravel
overseas.
(D) One fifth of the overseas tourist from
164. If words : language then line : India is middle aged (i.e' aged 40-49
(A) mathematics Years)

(B) figure
(C) algebra -
(D) geometry

167. Games, cricket and football represent which

of the following figures?

(A)
165. How long will a boy take to run round a
square field of side 35 meters, if he runs at the rate
of 9 km/hr?
(A) 40 sec
(B)
@
(B) 50 sec (c)
(C) 56 sec
(D) 54 sec (D) CBD
 B-25 ABC(C)-10/20

168. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 1 5, L70. Study the following table and answer the
then three-tenth of that number is question:
(A) 35 Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a
(B) 36 Competitive Examination from Different States
Over the Years.
(c) 45
Year
(D) s4 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001

App. App. Qual. App. Qual. App. Qual. App.lQual.

M s200 720 8s00 980 7400 850 6800 715 esoo I r r:s
N 7500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 ssoo I r ozo
P 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 l0l0 9750 I r2so
o 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 I 200 assol sqs
R 7800 870 7600 940 9800 1350 7600 945 zeeol sas

Total number of candidates qualified from

all the states together in 1997 is approximately
what percentage of the total number of candidates
qualified from all the states together in 1998?
(A) 72Vo
(B) 77Vo
(C) SOVo
(D) 837o

171. Soldiers serve their country. There are four

references. Choose the correct one.
169. Study the following table and answer the (A) Those who serve their country are
question: soldiers.
Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a (B) Women do not serve their country as

Competitive Examination from Different States theY are not soldiers.

Over the Years. (C) Men generally serve their country'
Year (D) Some men who are soldiers serve
2000 2001
1997 199E r999 their countrY.
Qual.
980 7400 850 715 1 125
M 5200 720 8500
qr00 orn qrml qro lrrnl r nro
N ?500 eto I O<n R450

p ?9n ,tRfy'l TROO aoA or.ul,n,n or.nl , r.o

or*l ,r*
o{no ta^i a?m
172. How many 3-letter words with or without
meaning, can be formed out of the letters of
R ?R00 870 7600 940 gRo0 I 3s0 945 88s the
of letters is
What is the average candidates who word 'iOGARITHMS', if repetition
years?
appeared from State Q during the given not allowed?
(A) 8700 (A) 720
(B) 8760 (B) 420
(c) 8990 (c) s040
(D) 8920 (D) 2s6

Please Turn Over

 ABC(C)-10/20 B-26

173. Sanket earns twice as much in the month of 177. Mr. and Mrs. Basu live in a house only with
March as in each of the other months of the year. their children. They have three sons and each of
What part of his entire annual earnings was earned the sons has exactly one sister. How many persons
in March? live in that house?
(A) t/7 (A) 6
(B) 1/6 (B) 7
(c) znt (c) 8
(D) 2/13 (D) e

178. Which number will occupy the blank space?

,!
9
7 16
17 4. lftheaverage of a, b,c is 15, the average of
b, c, d is 12 andthe average of a, d is 13, the value 4 \+q
ofdis J 36\
(A) 34
(A) 6
(B) 30
(B) 8
(c) 24
(c) 2
(D) l0 (D) 5

175. Raju, Ramu and Razi can do apiece of work

in20,30 and 60 days respectively depending on
179. Study the following data carefully and
their capacity of doing work. If Raju is assisted by
answer the following:
Ramu and Razi on every third day, then in how
many days Raju will complete the work? Number ofCandidates Appeared and eualified
in a Competitive Examination from Different
(A) 12 days
States Over the years.
(B) 15 days
Year
(C) t6 days Stalr 1997 1998 1999 2000 2001
(D) l8 days App. vuar App. Qual, App' Qual. App.
Qual. epp.lQuat.
M 5200 720 8500 980 7400 850 6800 775 esool r rzs
N 7500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 ssool rozo
P u00 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 l0l0 susol rzso
a 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 aesol res
R 7800 870 7600 940 9800 1350 7600 945 zreol ars
In which of the given years the number
176. All fish can swim. No fish can of
walk. So candidates appeared from State p has
maximum
nothing that can walk, swims percentage of qualified candidates?
(A) Inference is true (A) 1997
(B) Inference is false (B) 1e98
(C) Inference is probably true (c) 1e9e
(D) Inference is probably false (D) 2001
 B-27 ABC(C)-10/20

180. The difference between a two-digit number 185. The bar graph given below shows the sales
and the number obtained by interchanging the of books (in thousand number) from six branches
positions of its digits is 36. What is the difference of a publishing company during two consecutive
between the two digits of that number? years 2000 and 2001.
(A) 3 Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from
(B) 4 Six Branches- B1, B2, 83,84, B5 and 86 of
a publishing company in 2000 and 2001.
(c) e
(D) Cannot be determined 720
110
^ r_______95-
b
D
100

Ero -------_m.-
tr80 .--ZtrM-
181. At 3 pm the minute hand of a wall clock, 870 i-
3so F-
placednormally on the wall, points to the West. [n o
€50 I
which direction the hour hand will point at 9 am? €ao
!so
r
I

L-
(A) East
(B) West
a20
10
0
t
I

B1 B2 B4 85 B6
(C) South
Branches ! 2000 r 2001
(D) North
Total sales of branch 86 for both the years is what
percent of the total sales of branches 83 for both
the years?
182. If [+.s] = [++o.s] = 4, then [- +'s] will be
(A) 68.547o
(A) -4
(B) 1r.tt%o
(B) 4
(C) 73.r77o
(c) s
(D) 75.557o
(D) -s

183. If the given interchanges namely : signs +

and + and numbers 6 and 3 are made in signs and
numbers, which one of the following four equations
would be correct?
(A) 6+3+3=3
(B) 3 + 6+2=5
(C) 3+6+4=6
(D) 6+3+5=7
186. At both hands of a wall clock' placed
12 pm
normally on ihe wall, point to the South' In which
direction the hour hand will point at 9 am?
184. What is the number of digits in (33)3?

(A) 4 (A) East

(B) s (B) West
(c) 6
(C) South
(D) 7
(D) North
Please Turn Over
 ABC(C)-10/20 B-28

187. Out of the two bar graphs provided below, 189. The following line graph gives the ratio of
one shows the amount (in Lakh Rs.) invested by a the amounts of imports by a company to the
Company in purchasing raw materials over the amount of exports from that company over the
years and the other shows the values (in Lakh Rs.)
period from 1995 to 2001.
of finished goods sold by the Company over the
years. Ratio of Value of Imports to Exports by a
Amount invested in Raw Materials Company Over the Years.
(Rs. in Lakhs) 1.S
500 1.4
s2s 1.3
t.2
2 4so 1.1
J 375 1

sg o.9
o.a
300
225 o.7
,; 0.6
& 120 o.5
150 o.4
0.3
0.2
0 0.1
199s 1996 797 1998 1999 2000 1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 2oO0 2001

Years
Value of sales of Finished Goods (Rs. in Lakhs) If the import, ,JTr% was Rs. 250 crores
800
and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999
600 together was Rs.500 crores, then the imports in
600
500
450
1999 was
-J
't00
400 (A) Rs. 250 crores
*
o
200
300
(B) Rs. 300 crores
200 (C) Rs. 357 crores
(D) Rs. 420 crores
1995 1996 1997 1998 1999 20@

Years

What was the difference between the

average amount invested in Raw materials during
the given period and the average value of sales of
finished goods during this period?
(A) Rs. 62.5 takhs
(B) Rs. 68.5lakhs
(C) Rs.7t.5lakhs
(D) Rs. 77.5lakhs

Direction: Suppose the day after tomorrow is

NOT Saturday
188. Which of the folowing day CANNOT
be
the day after yesterday?
190. What fraction of an hour is a second?
(A) Thursday
(A) r/24
(B) Monday
(B) 1/60
(C) Tuesday
(c) t/120
(D) Wednesday
(D) 1/3600
 B-29 ABC(C)-10/20

191. The bar graph given below shows the sales 192. The following pie-chart shows the
ofbooks (in thousand number) from six branches percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred
of a publishing company during two consecutive in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the
years 2000 and 2001. answer the questions based on it.
Sales of Books (in thousand numbers)from Various Expenditures (in percentage)
Six Branches- 81, 82,83, 84, B5 and 86 of Incurred in Publishing a Book
a publishing company in 2000 and 2001.
Promotion
Transportatim
120 cost
Cost
110 LO% Printing cost
^
-E
t* Royrtty
-{ 2W6
E90 :-----Etr- L5%
c80
E
870
3s
o Paper cost
€so
€ao
!so --l4
o20
10
0
B1 B2 B3 g4 85

Branches r 2000 r 2001

lf for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has
to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be
What is the ratio of the total sales of branch 82 for the amount of royalty to be paid for these books?
both years to the total sales of branch 84 for both (A) Rs. 19,450
years? (B) Rs.2l,2OO
(A) 2:3 (C) Rs.22,950
(B) 3:5 (D) Rs.26,150
(c) 4:5
(D) 7:9
193. Theratioof theno. of whiteballsinabagto
I : 2. If 9 grey balls are added
that of black balls is
the ratio of nos. of white, black and grey becomes
2: 4 :3. How many black balls were in the bag?
(A) 6
(B) e
(c) 12
(D) 8

194. A reduction of 20Vo in the price of

strawberries enables aperson to purchase t2more
for Rs. 15. What was the price of 16 strawberries
before reduction of price?
(A) Rs.6
(B) Rs.5
(C) Rs.7
(D) Rs.9
Please Turn Over
ABC(C)-10/20 B-30

195. _ vegetable :: wheat 198. The digit in unit's place of the product
Which one of the following is the correct 81 x82x...x89is
pair? (A) 0
(A) plant, cake (B) 2
(B) barley, flour (c) 6
(C) cabbage, corn (D) 8
(D) leaves, rice

Direction: Study the following alphabetical

sequence and answer the question based on it.
GAGHUTAAKHGAOYYDKKVRAB ICDDC
196. Which of the following words can be RI.-FAIIAA{tH
formed using only the letters of the word
"PSCEXAMINATION"? (When framing a word 199. The sum of the number of consonants and
the number of vowels in the above series is
you can use any letter at most the number of time/
times it appears in the above word.) (A) 3s
(A) SCTENCE (B) 36
(B) MOTHER (c) 37
(c) MSCEXAMTNATTON (D) 38
(D) STEPTN

200. If f(r) =: where c * o , then

cf(x)+!tt4-1 willbe
197. The unit's digit present in the product
274x318x577 x 313 is (A) _L
x
(A) 2 (B) I
x
(B) 3
(c) 4
(c) r
(D) 5 (D) -x
 B-31 ABC(C)-10/20

Space for Rough Work

ABC(C)-10/20 B-32

Space for Rough Work