GATE 2022 AR

GATE 2022 General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 After playing _________ hours of tennis, I am feeling _________ tired to walk
back.

(A) too / too

(B) too / two

(C) two / two

(D) two / too

Q.2 The average of the monthly salaries of M, N and S is ₹ 4000. The average of the
monthly salaries of N, S and P is ₹ 5000. The monthly salary of P is ₹ 6000.

What is the monthly salary of M as a percentage of the monthly salary of P?

(A) 50%

(B) 75%

(C) 100%

(D) 125%

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Q.3 A person travelled 80 km in 6 hours. If the person travelled the first part with a
uniform speed of 10 kmph and the remaining part with a uniform speed of 18
kmph.

What percentage of the total distance is travelled at a uniform speed

of 10 kmph?

(A) 28.25

(B) 37.25

(C) 43.75

(D) 50.00

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Q.4 Four girls P, Q, R and S are studying languages in a University. P is learning

French and Dutch. Q is learning Chinese and Japanese. R is learning Spanish
and French. S is learning Dutch and Japanese.

Given that: French is easier than Dutch; Chinese is harder than Japanese; Dutch
is easier than Japanese, and Spanish is easier than French.

Based on the above information, which girl is learning the most difficult pair of
languages?

(A) P

(B) Q

(C) R

(D) S

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Q.5

A block with a trapezoidal cross-section is placed over a block with rectangular

cross section as shown above.

Which one of the following is the correct drawing of the view of the 3D object
as viewed in the direction indicated by an arrow in the above figure?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.6 Humans are naturally compassionate and honest. In a study using strategically
placed wallets that appear “lost”, it was found that wallets with money are more
likely to be returned than wallets without money. Similarly, wallets that had a key
and money are more likely to be returned than wallets with the same amount of
money alone. This suggests that the primary reason for this behavior is
compassion and empathy.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?

(A) Wallets with a key are more likely to be returned because people do not care
about money

(B) Wallets with a key are more likely to be returned because people relate to
suffering of others

(C) Wallets used in experiments are more likely to be returned than wallets that are
really lost

(D) Money is always more important than keys

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A rhombus is formed by joining the midpoints of the sides of a unit square.

Q.7
What is the diameter of the largest circle that can be inscribed within the
rhombus?

(A) 1
√2

(B) 1
2√2

(C) √2

(D) 2√2

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Q.8 An equilateral triangle, a square and a circle have equal areas.

What is the ratio of the perimeters of the equilateral triangle to square to circle?

(A) 3√3 ∶ 2 ∶ √𝜋

(B)
3 √3 : 2 ∶ √𝜋

(C)
3 √3 : 4 ∶ 2√𝜋

(D)
3 √3 : 2 ∶ 2√𝜋

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Q.9 Given below are three conclusions drawn based on the following three
statements.

Statement 1: All teachers are professors.

Statement 2: No professor is a male.

Statement 3: Some males are engineers.

Conclusion I: No engineer is a professor.

Conclusion II: Some engineers are professors.

Conclusion III: No male is a teacher.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A) Only conclusion III is correct

(B) Only conclusion I and conclusion II are correct

(C) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct

(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

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Q.10 In a 12-hour clock that runs correctly, how many times do the second, minute,
and hour hands of the clock coincide, in a 12-hour duration from 3 PM in a day
to 3 AM the next day?

(A) 11

(B) 12

(C) 144

(D) 2

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GATE 2022 AR
PART A: Common FOR ALL CANDIDATES
Q.11 – Q .28 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.11 The concentric circles in a sun-path diagram represent ___________.

(A) Altitude angle

(B) Azimuth angle

(C) Day of the year

(D) Hour of the day

Q.12 The operational guidelines on Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme for Economically
Weaker Sections (EWS), January 2017, by the erstwhile Ministry of Housing &
Urban Poverty Alleviation, Government of India, defines EWS households as those
having an annual income up to ___________ (in Indian Rupees).

(A) 2,00,000

(B) 2,50,000

(C) 3,00,000

(D) 3,50,000

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Q.13 Which of the following is a Vector Graphics Software?

(A) Inkscape

(B) Odeon

(C) Adobe Dreamweaver

(D) DesignBuilder

Q.14 The main cable of a suspension bridge supports the deck with hangars. These
hangars are equidistant along the length of the bridge and represent a uniformly
distributed load. Assuming the cable to be weightless as compared to the applied
loading, the best approximation of the shape that the cable takes for this loading is
a ___________.

(A) Catenary curve

(B) Circular arc

(C) Parabolic curve

(D) Hyperbolic curve

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Q.15 Arrange the following road types in descending order of accessibility.

(P) Arterial Road

(Q) Expressway

(R) Collector Road

(S) Local Street

(A) Q-P-R-S

(B) S-R-P-Q

(C) S-P-R-Q

(D) P-Q-S-R

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Q.16 The following two-dimensional visual composition represents ___________.

(A) Interlocking

(B) Intersecting

(C) Interlacing

(D) Interpenetrating

Q.17 The Golden Ratio refers to ___________.

(A) 1:√2

(B) 2: 1 + √5

(C) 1:1

(D) 16:9

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Q.18 Hogarth’s Line of Beauty is a ___________.

(A) Horizontal straight line

(B) Zigzag line

(C) Vertical straight line

(D) Serpentine line

Q.19 Which of the following sites were added to Ramsar List in the year 2020?

(A) Ashtamudi Wetland

(B) Asan Conservation Reserve

(C) Chilika Lake

(D) Lonar Lake

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Q.20 Which of the following help(s) in keeping direct solar radiation out of the building?

(A) Mashrabiya

(B) Badgir

(C) Malquf

(D) Chajja

Q.21 As per the Handbook of Professional Documents 2015, Council of Architecture,

India, architects are liable ___________.

(A) If the building is used for any other purpose than the one for which it was designed

(B) If any unauthorised changes or illegal modifications are made by the

owner(s)/occupant(s)

(C) If the client suffers damage/loss due to lack of proper professional service

(D) If the architect fails to attain the standard of care as prescribed by law

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Q.22 As per the United Nations Transforming our world: The 2030 agenda for
sustainable development, 2015, which of the following Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs) directly address water related issues?

(A) SDG-1

(B) SDG-4

(C) SDG-6

(D) SDG-14

Q.23 For a masonry section, the line of action of force shifts to incorporate the effects of
lateral forces and induced moments. Consider a masonry section of width 600 mm.
Assuming a zero tensile stress capacity and a linear stress-strain response for the
entire domain of loading, the minimum value of eccentricity at which the section
will crack (in mm, rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________.

Q.24 The maximum and minimum indoor dry bulb temperature of a room are 38 oC and
34 oC, respectively. If the corresponding outdoor maximum and minimum dry bulb
temperature are 42 oC and 30 oC, respectively, then the thermal damping of the
room (in percentage, rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.25 A building site measures 96 sq.cm on a scale of 1:12500. The actual area it
represents (in hectare, in integer) is ___________.

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Q.26 An off-street car parking lot contains a total of 75 bays. If the parking lot was used
by 687 cars over a period of 12 hours, the average parking turn-over of the parking
lot (in vehicles per hour per bay, rounded off to two decimal places) is
___________.

Q.27 The hydraulic radius of the following rectangular open drainage section (in mm,
rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.28 A town with 0.45 million population sends its entire organic waste to a composting
site on a daily basis through a truck of 15 ton carrying capacity. Assume total waste
generated per capita per day is 0.21 kg and 40% of the total waste is organic waste.
The minimum number of weekly round trips required by the truck (in integer) will
be ___________.

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GATE 2022 AR
Q.29 – Q .49 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.29 The correct sequence of the following Construction Project Development stages, as
per the National Building Code of India 2016 is ___________.

(P) Resource Planning

(Q) Project Inception

(R) Commissioning and Handing over

(S) Tendering

(T) Site Survey and Soil Investigation

(U) Selection of Construction Methodology

(A) P-Q-R-T-U-S

(B) T-Q-R-U-S-P

(C) Q-T-U-P-S-R

(D) Q-T-P-S-U-R

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Q.30 Match the aspects in Group I with the corresponding items in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Fire safety (1) Intruder alarm

(Q) Seismic safety (2) Zero–strength barrier

(R) Water efficiency (3) Stair lift

(S) Accessible design (4) Aerator

(5) Auxiliary damper

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-3

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Q.31 Match the States in Group I with the corresponding Vernacular Building Typologies
in Group II

Group I Group II

(P) Kerala (1) Morung

(Q) Jharkhand (2) Pol

(R) Nagaland (3) Dhumkuria

(S) Gujarat (4) Nalukettu

(5) Ghotul

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-3, S-2

(B) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

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Q.32 Match the examples in Group I with their corresponding typologies in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Navi Mumbai (1) Counter Magnet

(Q) Hissar (2) Urban Agglomeration

(R) Greater Mumbai (3) Satellite Town

(S) Delhi-Mumbai Industrial (4) University Town

Corridor

(5) Investment Region

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-4

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Q.33 Match the Place(s)/Event(s) in Group I with the corresponding

Heritage Significance/Characteristics in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus, (1) A long interaction between

Mumbai people and the landscape

(Q) Kumbh Mela (2) Cultural routes

(R) Walled City of Jaipur (3) Victorian Gothic revival and

traditional Indian features

(S) Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (4) Intangible cultural heritage

(5) Traditional human settlement,

land use reflecting an
interchange of ancient Hindu
and Mughal ideas

(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

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Q.34 Match the Urban Design Concepts in Group I with their corresponding Proponents
in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Vertical theory of Urban (1) Ian Bentley

Design

(Q) Theory of Responsive (2) Gordon Cullen

Environments

(R) Serial Vision (3) Norman Pressman

(S) Winter Urbanism (4) Ken Yeang

(5) Paul Oliver

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3

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Q.35 In the following sketch, P, Q, R, and S refer to elements of an urban space.

Identify P, Q, R, S.

(A) P-Path, Q-Vista, R- Edge, S-Landmark

(B) P-Vista, Q-Edge, R- Landmark, S-Path

(C) P-Landmark, Q-Vista, R- Path, S-Edge

(D) P-Landmark, Q-Edge, R- Path, S-Vista

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.36 As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, match the type of Health Care Facilities in
Group I to the corresponding population served per unit in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Multi-Speciality Hospital (1) 15,000

(Q) Dispensary (2) 50,000

(R) Veterinary Hospital (3) 1,00,000

(S) General Hospital (4) 2,50,000

(5) 5,00,000

(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

(D) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-3

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.37 Match the plan forms in Group I with their corresponding project names in
Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) (1) New Parliament of Egypt,

Cairo

(Q) (2) Apple Park Campus,

California

(R) (3) Commerzbank, Frankfurt

(S) (4) 30 St. Mary Axe, London

(5) Parliament Building, Dhaka

(A) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-5

(C) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

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Q.38 Match the Biosphere reserves in India in Group I with their corresponding locations
in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Agasthyamala Biosphere (1) Western Himalayan region,

Reserve Himachal Pradesh

(Q) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve (2) Western Ghats, Kerala and

Tamil Nadu

(R) Cold desert Biosphere Reserve (3) Tura range, Meghalaya

(S) Simlipal Biosphere Reserve (4) Kachchh, Rajkot,

Surendranagar, and Patan
districts, Gujarat

(5) Mayurbhanj district, Odisha

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-5

(D) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-3

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Q.39 In traditional Persian context, qanat system refers to

(A) An underground water-way, tunnelled and channelled

(B) A system where water is raised by a series of scoops fixed to a moving belt
stretched between two wheels

(C) A method of conducting water from a source-well rather than raising it

(D) A system where water is conducted from enclosure to enclosure by straightforward

gravity fall

Q.40 Which of the following is/are classified as the Principles of Universal Design?

(A) Perceptible Information

(B) Tolerance for Error

(C) Occult Balance

(D) Simple and Intuitive Use

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Q.41 As per the URDPFI Guidelines 2015, which of the following Organoleptic and
Physical parameters comply with the acceptable limit requirements of drinking water
quality?

(A) Colour: Maximum 5 Hazen units

(B) Turbidity: Maximum 1 NTU

(C) pH Value: Minimum 10

(D) Total Dissolved Solids: Maximum 500 mg/l

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Q.42 In an ideal air-conditioning cycle shown below, which of the following statement(s)
is/are true in the segments P, Q, R, S?

(A) P: Vapour at low pressure

(B) Q: Vapour at low pressure

(C) R: Liquid at high pressure

(D) S: Liquid-Vapour mixture at low pressure

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Q.43 Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of a Mughal Garden?

(A) Symmetrical and geometrical

(B) Fountain and channelled water

(C) Winding road and untrimmed vegetation

(D) Vista with terminal building

Q.44 As per the Central Pollution Control Board’s National Air Quality Index (AQI) of
India 2014, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) AQI is computed considering 8-hourly value of CO

(B) AQI is computed considering 2-hourly value of PM2.5

(C) AQI considers the O3 concentrations

(D) AQI considers the CO2 concentrations

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Q.45 The decadal population data of a city are given in the following Table. The domestic
water consumption of the city is estimated to be 175 litres per capita per day in the
year 2041. Considering 2011 population as the base year and using arithmetic growth
method of population forecasting, the daily domestic water demand of the city in the
year 2041 (in million litres per day, rounded off to two decimal places) will be
___________.

Year 1981 1991 2001 2011

Population 1,80,750 1,95,850 2,15,300 2,45,450

Q.46 The activity duration, early start, early finish, late start, and late finish (in weeks) for
activities P, Q, R, and S are shown in the following figure. The interfering float of
activity R (in weeks, in integer) is ___________.

Q.47 A 230 mm thick brick wall of 10 m length and 3 m height is built using a Flemish
bond. The size of the bricks used is 230 mm x 112.5 mm x 70 mm. Assuming a mortar
thickness of 5 mm, the number of bricks required (in integer) is ___________.

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Q.48 The reflected ceiling plan and section of a reinforced cement concrete roof are shown
in the following Figure. All the beams are 300 mm wide, 600 mm deep (including
150 mm slab) equidistantly placed center to center. Assuming 1% of concrete volume
is occupied by reinforcement bars, the volume of concrete (in cubic meters, rounded
off to two decimal places) is ___________.

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Q.49 The following graph represents the income distribution among the population of a
country. The Gini Coefficient of the country (rounded off to three decimal places) is
___________.

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GATE 2022 AR
PART B1: FOR Architecture CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.50 – Q.56 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.50 Which of the following processes is used for surface treatment of metals?

(A) Soldering

(B) Thermoplating

(C) Extrusion

(D) Riveting

Q.51 Among the following monuments of ancient Greece, the only Octastyle Peripteral
temple with eight towering Doric columns lining both east and west facades is
___________.

(A) Temple of Athena

(B) Temple of Apollo

(C) The Parthenon

(D) Temple of Horus

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Q. 52 An Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity (UPV) test was done on a hardened concrete element
using a direct transmission method as per IS 516 (Part 5/Section 1): 2018. The
distance between the transducer and receiver was 600 mm. The time taken for the
induced wave to travel this distance is measured as 0.18 milliseconds. Based on the
following Table, the concrete quality grading is ___________.

Velocity (km/s) – cross probing Concrete quality grading

Above 4.4 Excellent

3.75 – 4.4 Good

3.0 – 3.75 Doubtful

Less than 3.0 Poor

(A) Excellent

(B) Good

(C) Doubtful

(D) Poor

Q.53 Which of the following is/are example(s) of Tomb Architecture of Ancient Egypt?

(A) Step Pyramid of Zoser, Sakkara

(B) Great Temple of Abu-Simbel

(C) Temple of Khons, Karnak

(D) Mastabas of Gizeh

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Q.54 If Aluminium : Anodisation :: Glazing : X, which of the following choices

represent X?

(A) Hard coating

(B) External cement plastering

(C) Tempering

(D) Free-standing vertical greening

Q.55 A blackbody radiant heating panel of 5 m2 surface area at 35 oC surface temperature

is located 1 m away from a 1 m2 surface at 20 oC. The Stefan-Boltzmann constant
is 5.6703×10−8 W m−2 K−4. The rate of radiant heat emission by the radiant heating
panel (in W, rounded off to two decimal places) is ___________.

Q.56 A hypothetical truss comprising of weightless members is shown in the following

Figure. Assuming tension to be positive and compression to be negative, the value
of force in member TU (in kN, rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________.

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GATE 2022 AR
Q.47 – Q .55 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.47 Match the illustrations of Arch Types in Group I with their corresponding names
in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) (1) Venetian Arch

(Q) (2) Ogee Arch

(R) (3) Moorish Multifoil Arch

(S) (4) Corbelled Arch

(5) Shouldered Arch

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(C) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-1

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Q.58 Match the architectural projects in Group I with their corresponding architects in
Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Indian Institute of (1) Revathi Kamath

Management Bangalore

(Q) Osho International Meditation (2) Brinda Somaya

Resort, Pune

(R) Nalanda International School, (3) Roger Anger

Vadodara

(S) Matrimandir, Auroville (4) B. V. Doshi

(5) Hafeez Contractor

(A) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

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Q.59 Match the structural joining systems in Group I with the corresponding materials
for which they are commonly used in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Welding (1) Glass

(Q) Spider Connector (2) Plastic

(R) Mortise and Tenon (3) Brick

(S) Mortar (4) Steel

(5) Timber

(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

(B) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

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Q.60 Match the Instruments in Group I with the corresponding climate parameters in
Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Pyranometer (1) Humidity

(Q) Disdrometer (2) Wind

(R) Hygrometer (3) Solar Radiation

(S) Anemometer (4) Pressure

(5) Precipitation

(A) P-3, Q-5, R-1, S-2

(B) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5

Q.61 In traditional Indian temple architecture, which of the following statement(s) is/are
true?

(A) Jagamohana refers to a dancing hall

(B) Gopuram refers to an entrance tower

(C) Char-chala refers to a roof composed of four triangular segments

(D) Vimana refers to the structure over the Garbhagriha

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Q.62 Which of the following factors impact Daylight Autonomy of a built space?

(A) Orientation of building

(B) Glare caused by daylight

(C) Latitude and longitude of building location

(D) Fenestration size

Q.63 For the beam shown in the following Figure, assuming a sagging moment
(generating tensile stresses at the bottom fibre) as positive and a hogging moment
(generating tensile stresses at the top fibre) as negative, the bending moment (in
kN.m, rounded off to one decimal place) at section X-X is ___________.

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Q.64 The acoustical absorption of a wall panel in each octave band is tabulated below.
The Noise Reduction Coefficient of the wall panel (rounded off to two decimal
places) is ___________.

63 125 250 500 1000 2000 4000 8000 16000

Hz Hz Hz Hz Hz Hz Hz Hz Hz

0.1 0.2 0.5 0.5 0.7 0.8 0.8 0.9 0.9

Q.65 A room is maintained at a wet bulb temperature of 25 oC, globe temperature of

30 oC, and air velocity of 0.5 m/s. The decrease in Tropical Summer Index when
the air velocity is increased to 3 m/s (in oC, rounded off to two decimal places) is
___________.

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GATE 2022 AR
PART B2: FOR Planning CANDIDATES ONLY
Q.66 – Q.72 Carry ONE mark Each

Q.66 Which of the following is the National Electronic Toll Collection System
implemented by the National Payment Corporation of India?

(A) e-Pass

(B) E-ZPass

(C) HashTag

(D) FASTag

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Q.67 The shaded area in the following demand-supply graph is known as ___________.

(A) Consumer Surplus

(B) Consumer Deficit

(C) Producer Surplus

(D) Producer Deficit

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Q.68 Identify the following traffic interchange.

(A) Directional

(B) Trumpet

(C) Clover-Leaf

(D) Diamond

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Q.69 Which of the following is/are Value Capture Method(s)?

(A) Building construction fees

(B) Fees for changing agricultural to non-agricultural land use

(C) User charge

(D) Premium on additional FSI/FAR

Q.70 Which among the following is/are model(s) of Public-Private Partnership (PPP)
used for infrastructure projects?

(A) BOLD

(B) BOLT

(C) BOOT

(D) BPOT

Q. 71 The measured spot speeds (in km/h) of 10 vehicles from a traffic stream are 45, 35,
25, 51, 45, 38, 61, 42, 47, and 49. The Time Mean Speed of the traffic stream (in
km/h, rounded off to one decimal place) is ___________.

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Q. 72 In a township, the price of each house was 25,00,000 (in Indian Rupees) last month.
The number of houses sold in a month (Q in thousands) is sensitive to the price of
the house (P in Indian Rupees) and establishes a relationship as
Q = 6685 – 0.00158P. If the price of each house increases by 20% in the current
month, then the decrease in sale of the houses (in percentage, rounded off to two
decimal places) compared to last month will be ___________.

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GATE 2022 AR
Q.73 – Q.81 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.73 Match the models in Group I with their corresponding applications in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Logit model (1) Trip assignment

(Q) Greenshield model (2) Modal split

(R) Gravity model (3) Traffic flow

(S) Multiple regression model (4) Trip generation

(5) Trip distribution

(A) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-4

(B) P-1, Q-5, R-2, S-3

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-5, S-4

(D) P-5, Q-3, R-4, S-2

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GATE 2022 AR

Q. 74 Match the proponents in Group I with the corresponding theories in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) James Q Wilson and (1) Creative Class

George K. Kelling

(Q) Sherry Arnstein (2) Right to City

(R) Henry Lefebvre (3) Drive-in Culture

(S) Richard Florida (4) Ladder of Citizen Participation

(5) Broken Window

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-5

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1

(C) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-1

(D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.75 Match the Artists/Scientists in Group I with their corresponding

contributions in Group II.

Group I Group II

(P) Robert Park and Louis Wirth (1) Poverty Map

(Q) Jacob August Riis (2) Cholera Map

(R) Charles Booth (3) Tenement Shelter Photography

(S) John Snow (4) Urban Ethnography

(5) Underground Sewerage Systems

(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(C) P-5, Q-3, R-1, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-1

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.76 In the conceptual diagram of the city given below, P, Q, R, and S refer to urban
patterns. Among the choices given below, the correct association is

(A) P-Satellite town, Q-Urban fringe, R-TOD, S-Central Business District

(B) P-Central Business District, Q-Satellite town, R-TOD, S-Urban fringe

(C) P-Urban fringe, Q-TOD, R-Satellite town, S-Central Business District

(D) P-Satellite town, Q-Central Business District, R-TOD, S-Urban fringe

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.77 Which among the following is/are the component(s) of the assimilative carrying
capacity of urban environment?

(A) Air

(B) Water

(C) Economy

(D) Soil

Q. 78 In the transportation network given below, P, Q, R, S, T, and U are the nodes and
values mentioned on the links denote time in minutes. Which of the following
options represent the minimum spanning tree?

(A) PQ, QR, QT, TS, SU

(B) PR, QR, RT, TU, SU

(C) PQ, QR, RT, TS, SU

(D) PQ, QR, RS, ST, TU

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.79 A vehicle count survey (in Passenger Car Unit) is conducted on a mid-block section
of a road at regular intervals of 15 minutes from 8:00 AM to 10:00 AM. Based on
the data given in Table below, the Peak Hour Factor (rounded off to two decimal
places) for the given survey duration is ___________.

Time Interval Passenger Car Unit

8:00 AM – 8:15 AM 212

8:15 AM – 8:30 AM 248

8:30 AM – 8:45 AM 272

8:45 AM – 9:00 AM 315

9:00 AM – 9:15 AM 337

9:15 AM – 9:30 AM 405

9:30 AM – 9:45 AM 320

9:45 AM – 10:00 AM 267

Q.80 A land owner has shown interest in a Town Planning Scheme. Based on the details
of the scheme given in the following Table, the estimated Net Benefit to the land
owner after land development (in Indian Rupees, in integer) is ___________.

Original plot size 500 Sq. m

Original land value 1200 Indian Rupees per Sq.m

Plot deduction for development 40%

Developed land value 2800 Indian Rupees per Sq.m

Total betterment cost to be paid by 50% of the increased total land

the land owner value

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GATE 2022 AR

Q.81 The year-wise cash flows (in Indian Rupees) of a construction project are given in
the following Table. If the annual discount rate for the project is assumed to be 12%,
the Net Present Value (in Indian Rupees, rounded off to two decimal places) for the
project will be ___________.

Year Annual Cash Outflow Annual Cash Inflow

0 5,00,000 0

1 0 0

2 0 0

3 50,000 1,80,000

4 50,000 2,20,000

5 50,000 2,90,000

6 0 3,30,000

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