MACHINE DESIGN, MATERIALS AND SHOP PRACTICE

(Trivia Examination 2)

Prepared by: Engr. Jose R. Francisco, PME

August 2006

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by
shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED. Use pencil No. 1 only.

1. What modulus of elasticity in tension is required to obtain a unit deformation of 0.00105 from a load producing a unit
tensile stress of 45 000 psi?
a) 40 x 106 psi b) 43 x 106 psi c) 45 x 106 psi d) 46 x 106 psi

2. Calculate the compressive stress of a sign board support with a load of 2000 lb. A hollow cylinder is used with an
outside diameter of 6 inches and thickness of 0.75 inches.
a) 161.68 psi b) 200.68 psi c) 160.95 psi d) 320.445 psi

3. A thrust washer has an inside diameter of 0.5 inch and an outside diameter of 3 inches. For an allowable bearing
pressure of 90 psi, how much axial load can it sustain?
a) 618.5 lb b) 537.2 lb c) 702.2 lb d) 871.2 lb

4. An air cylinder has a bore of 25 mm and is operated with shop air at a pressure of 90 psi. Find the push force exerted
by the piston rod, in N.
a) 127 b) 70 c) 402 d) 305

5. A solid shaft is to be used to transmit 75 kW at 550 rpm. If the shaft design stress will not exceed 26 N/mm 2, determine
the diameter of the shaft.
a) 63.42 mm b) 49.21 mm c) 69.84 mm d) 52.30 mm

6. A line shaft is to transmit 200 Hp at 900rpm. Find the diameter of the shaft.
a) b) c) d)

7. A main transmitting shaft transmits 350 kW to drive a generator at 2500 rpm, what is the required diameter of the
shaft?
a) 58.5 mm b) 62.7 mm c) 65.3 mm d) 56.2 mm

8. What factor of safety is needed for a 1.998-inch diameter shaft with an ultimate strength of 50 000 psi to transmit
40000 in-lb of torque?
a) 2.25 b) 2.14 c) 1.95 d) 1.55

9. What is the moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft with a radius of 30 cm?
a) b) c) d)

10. A 3-inch diameter short shaft carrying two pulleys close to the bearings transmits how much Hp if the shaft makes 280
rpm?
a) 199 Hp b) 198 Hp c) 200 Hp d) 210 Hp

11. A round steel shaft rotates at 200 rpm and is subjected to a torque of 275 N-m and a bending moment of 415 N-m.
Determine the equivalent twisting moment.
a) 597.84 N-m b) 456.42 N-m c) 546.43 N-m d) 497.85 N-m

12. A 4 inches shaft using a flat key, whose width is 1 inch, is transmitting a torque of 63 000 in-lb. If the design shearing
stress is 5000 psi, determine the safe length of key.
a) 6.3 inches b) 5.3 inches c) 4.3 inches d) 7.0 inches

13. A 1200 mm cast iron pulley is fastened to 112.5 mm shaft by means of a 28.13 mm square key 175 mm long. The key
and shaft have a shearing stress of 14 000 psi. Determine the force acting at the pulley that will shear the key.
a) 10 015 lb b) 11 005 lb c) 11 050 lb d) 10 501 lb

14. Design a vertical steel cylindrical water tank 30 m in diameter and 45 m high. Consider the pressure variation in the
water to follow a straight line from the edge of the top to the center of the bottom and the allowable stress of the plate
is 120 MPa. Without reinforcing bars and rods, find the thickness of the steel plate.
a) 59.22 mm b) 32.45 mm c) 45.20 mm d) 55.18 mm

15. A thin hollow sphere of radius of 10 inches and thickness 0.10 inch is subjected to an internal pressure of 100 psi. The
maximum normal stress on an element of the sphere is equal to:
 a) 5 000 psi b) 7 070 psi c) 14 140 psi d) 20 000 psi
16. The load on a helical spring is 1600 lb and the corresponding deflection is to be 4 inches. Rigidity modulus is 11 x 10 6
psi and the maximum intensity of safe torsional stress is 60 000 psi. Design the spring for total numbers of turns if the
wires is circular in cross section with a diameter of 5/8-inch and a center line radius of 1.5 inches. The spring is
squared and ground ends.
a) 19 coils b) 20 coils c) 21 coils d) 22 coils

17. A triple-thread worm has a lead angle of 17 o and a pitch diameter of 2.2802 inches. Find the center distance when the
worm is mated with a wheel of 48 teeth.
a) 6.72 inches b) 7.26 inches c) 6.27 inches d) 7.62 inches

18. A double-thread worm has a pitch diameter of 3 inches. The wheel has 20 teeth and a pitch diameter of 5 inches. Find
the gear helix angle.
a) 4.69o b) 9.46o c) 6.49o d) 6.94o
19. A 36-tooth pinion turning at 300 rpm drives 120-tooth gear of 14.5 involute full depth pressure angle. Determine the
o

rpm of the driven gear.

a) 60 rpm b) 45 rpm c) 75 rpm d) 90 rpm

20. Two parallel shafts connected by cylinders in pure rolling contact and turning in the same direction, having a speed
ratio of 2.75. Determine the center distance of the two shafts if the diameter of the smaller cylinder is 22 cm.
a) 18.25 cm b) 19.25 cm c) 20.25 cm d) 17.25 cm

21. A 75-mm diameter shaft is transmitting 300 kW at 600 rpm. A flange coupling is used and has 6 bolts, each 18 mm in
diameter. Find the required diameter of the bolts circle based on an average shearing stress of 27.5 MPa.
a) 227.4 mm b) 477.2 mm c) 274.7 mm d) 247.7 mm

22. A 1.75-inch-diameter shaft is supported by two sleeve bearings. The total load on the two bearings is 2800 lb. Find the
friction power loss, in Hp, if the coefficient of friction between shaft and bearing is 0.10 and the shaft rotates 200 rpm.
a) 0.88 Hp b) 0.78 Hp c) 0.98 Hp d) 0.68 Hp

23. A sleeve bearing has an outside diameter of 38.1 mm and a length of 50.8 mm, the wall thickness is 3/16 inch. The
bearing is subjected to a radial load of 450 lb. Determine the bearing pressure.
a) 100 psi b) 150 psi c) 200 psi d) 250 psi

24. The root diameter of a double square thread is 0.55 inch. The screw has a pitch of 0.2 inch. Find the outside diameter
and the number of threads per inch.
a) 0.75 inch and 5 threads/inch b) 0.50 inch and 5 threads/inch
c) 0.75 inch and 4 threads/inch d) 0.50 inch and 4 threads/inch

25. A vise is equipped with a 1-inch single square thread, with 4 threads per inch. The frictional radius of the collar is 0.5
inch. The coefficient of friction for both the collar and threads is 0.20. How much external torque must be applied to
produce a force of 200 lb against the jaws of the vise?
a) 39.73 in-lb b) 33.97 in-lb c) 37.93 in-lb d) 39.37 in-lb

26. Two shafts 3.6 m between centers carry pulleys 1.2 m in diameter and 0.91 m in diameter respectively, connected by a
crossed belt. It is desired to put the belt on as an open belt. How long a piece must be cut of it?
a) 300 mm b) 350 mm c) 400 mm d) 250 mm

27. A pulley 600 mm in diameter transmits 40 kW at 500 rpm. The arc of contact between the belt and pulley is 144 o, the
coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.35 and the safe working stress of the belt is 2.1 MPa. Determine the
belt tensions ratio, neglecting the effect of centrifugal force.
a) 2.41 b) 2.14 c) 1.24 d) 4.12

28. A roller chain and sprocket is to drive vertical centrifugal discharge bucket elevator. The pitch of chain connecting
sprockets is 1.75”. The driving sprocket is rotating at 120 rpm and has 11 teeth while the driven sprocket is rotating at
38 rpm. Determine the number of teeth of driven sprocket.
a) 33 teeth b) 35 teeth c) 30 teeth d) 37 teeth

29. In Problem # 28, determine the length of the chain if the minimum center distance is equal to the pitch diameter of the
bigger sprocket.
a) 46 pitches b) 47 pitches c) 48 pitches d) 49 pitches

30. A disc clutch has 6 pairs of contacting friction surfaces with an outside diameter of 200 mm and an inside diameter of
100 mm. The coefficient of friction of the clutch materials is 0.4 and the axial force is 1500 N. The shaft speed is 1200
rpm. Find the Hp that can be transmitted by the clutch assuming uniform pressure.
a) 35.2 Hp b) 23.5 Hp c) 47.2 Hp d) 27.4 Hp

31. Determine the power capacity of a cone clutch under uniform pressure and assuming the following conditions: major
diameter = 250 mm; minor diameter = 200 mm; length of conical elements in contact = 125 mm; rotational speed =
870 rpm; coefficient of friction = 0.30; and allowable pressure = 70 kPa.
a) 19.2 kW b) 21.9 kW c) 29.1 kW 12.9 kW
32. A flywheel has a mean diameter of 4 ft and is required to handle 2250 ft-lb of kinetic energy. It has a width of 8 inches,
mean operating speed is 300 rpm and the coefficient of fluctuation is to be 0.05. Find the weight of rim, assuming that
the arms and hub are equivalent to 10 % of the total rim weight. The flywheel is made up of cast iron with specific
weight of 0.26 lb per cubic inch.
a) 334 lb b) 434 lb c) 433 lb d) 343 lb

33. A 20o involute spur gear has a tooth whole depth of 16.95 mm, a tooth thickness of 13.2 mm, and a pitch of 3.
Determine the circular pitch of the gear.
a) 26.6 mm b) 16.6 mm c) 25.6 mm d) 24.6 mm

34. A parallel helical gear-set consists of a 19-tooth pinion driving a 57-teeth gear. The pinion has a left-hand helix angle
of 20o, a normal pressure angle of 14½o, and a normal diametal pitch of 10 teeth/inch. Determine the center distance of
the two gears.
a) 2.02 inches b) 6.06 inches c) 4.04 inches d) 2.06 inches

35. A 20o straight-tooth bevel pinion having 14 teeth and a diametral pitch of 6 teeth/inch drives a 42-tooth gear. The two
shafts are at right angles and in the same plane. Find the pitch angle of the pinion.
a) 18.4o b) 20o c) 14.5o d) 20.5o

36. In a straight bevel gear the angle between an element on the pitch cone and an element on the face cone is called:
a) Face angle b) Pitch angle c) Addendum angle d) Dedendum angle

37. A four-bar mechanism in which one of the links can perform a full rotation relative to the other three links.
a) Geneva mechanism b) Crossover-position mechanism
c) Triple rocker mechanism d) Grashof mechanism

38. A Grashof four-bar mechanism in which the shortest link is the frame or fixed link and the other two cranks completely
rotate with their axes.
a) Drag-link mechanism b) Crank-rocker mechanism
c) Double-rocker mechanism d) Triple-rocker mechanism

39. A mechanism that includes an oscillating link or reciprocating slider that moves forward slowly and returns quickly,
with constant speed input.
a) Slider-crank mechanism b) Crank-rocker mechanism
c) Quick-return mechanism d) Drag-link mechanism

40. “For a planar four-bar linkage, the sum of the shortest and longest lengths cannot be greater than the sum of the
remaining two link lengths if there is to be a continuous relative rotation between two members.” The preceding
statement is known as:
a) Grubler’s Law b) Coriolli’s Law c) Grashof’s Law d) Freudentein’s Law

41. Which of the following is not true for an instant center or centro of planar linkages?
a) Centro is a point common to two bodies having the same velocity in each.
b) Centro is a point in one body about which another body does not rotate.
c) Centro is a point in one body about which another body actually turns.
d) Centro is a point in one body about which another body tends to turn.

42. The most common work holding devices of a shaper machine with the base graduated in degrees that makes it possible
to swivel any angle.
a) Shaper vise b) Parallel bars and hold down bars c) Lathe holder d) Swivel head

43. Shaper operation which is shaping the given stock and having the excess material remain with a tolerable allowance for
finishing.
a) Roughing b) Finishing c) Angular cutting d) Contouring

44. A cutting tool that has two or more cutting edges as in drill presses and milling machine cutters.
a) Grinder b) Single-point cutting tool c) Multi-point cutting tool d) Two-point cutting tool

45. The trade name for a patented alloy made up chiefly of cobalt, chromium, and tungsten in varying proportions.
a) Stellite b) Carboloy c) Stainless steel d) Copper

46. The transformation of concepts and ideas into useful machinery is called as:
a) Design b) Synthesis c) Analysis d) Theorem

47. It is a combination of mechanisms and other components that transforms, transmits, or uses energy, load, or motion for
a specific purpose.
a) Mechanism b) Engine c) Machine d) Linkage

48. It is defined as synergistic collection of machine elements; synergistic because as a design it represents an idea or
concept greater than the sum of the individual parts.
 a) System of mechanisms b) Mechanical system c) Design system d) Expert system

49. It may be defined the displacement per length produced in a solid as the result of stress.
a) Deformation b) Elongation c) Strain d) Stress
50. The combination of applied normal and shear stresses that produces maximum principal normal stress or minimum
principal normal stress, with a third principal stress between or equivalent to the extremes.
a) Principal shear stress b) Principal normal stress
c) Maximum shear stress d) Bending and shear stresses

51. It is a load applied transversely to longitudinal axis of member.

a) Combined loads b) Concentrated load c) Bending load d) Distributed load

52. It is the intensity and direction of internal force acting at given point on particular plane.
a) Load b) Strain c) Stress d) Sustained load

53. It is the capacity of a material to absorb energy when it is deformed elastically and then, upon unloading, to increase
this energy.
a) Resilience b) Toughness c) Rigidity d) Ductility

54. It is the strain energy per unit volume required to stress a material from an unloaded state to the point of yielding.
a) Modulus of roughness b) Modulus of elasticity c) Modulus of rigidity d) Modulus of resilience

55. The ability of the material to absorb energy up to fracture.

a) Toughness b) Rigidity c) Resilience d) Stiffness

56. The Maximum-Shear-Stress Theory, as a failure prediction theory, is also known as:
a) von Mises criterion b) Tresca yield criterion
c) Coulomb-Mohr theory d) Modified Mohr theory

57. A failure prediction theory, which states that a part subjected to any combination of loads will fail (by yielding or
fracturing) whenever the maximum shear stress exceeds a critical value.
a) Distortion-energy theory b) Maximum-shear-stress theory
c) Internal friction theory d) Modified Mohr theory

58. A theory in cyclic and impact loading, which states that damage at any stress level is proportional to number of cycles.
a) Miner’s Rule b) Paris Power Law c) Goodman Rule d) Manson-Coffin Relationship

59. A journal bearing where the radius of the journal is less than the radius of the bushing or bearing.
a) Fitted journal bearing b) Clearance journal bearing
c) Partial journal bearing d) Full journal bearing

60. A lubrication where the load-carrying surfaces of the bearing are separated by a relatively thick film of lubricant, so as
to prevent metal-to-metal contact; and where the stability of the film can be explained by the laws of fluid mechanics.
a) Hydrostatic lubrication b) Hydrodynamic lubrication
c) Elastohydrodynamic lubrication d) Boundary lubrication

61. A lubrication condition where non-conformal surfaces are completely separated by lubricant film and no asperities are
in contact.
a) Elastohydrodynamic lubrication b) Boundary lubrication
c) Hydrodynamic lubrication d) Hydrostatic lubrication

62. A speed at which rotating shaft becomes dynamically unstable.

a) Normal speed b) Variable speed c) Critical speed d) Average speed

63. A ball bearing with race containing pronounced groove for rolling elements.
a) Crown bearing b) Conrad bearing c) Angular-contact bearing d) Cylindrical bearing

64. A machining process for producing internal straight cylindrical surface or profiles, with process characteristics and
tooling similar to those for turning operations.
a) Boring b) Drilling c) Reaming d) Milling

65. A machining operation for all types of metallic and nonmetallic materials and is capable of producing circular parts
with straight or various profiles.
a) Boring b) Turning c) Drilling d) Milling

66. A set of specification for parts, materials, or processes intended to achieve uniformity, efficiency, and a specified
quality.
a) Code b) Standard c) Law d) Theorem

67. A set of specifications for the analysis, design, manufacture, and construction of something; the purpose of which is to
achieve a specified degree of safety, efficiency, and performance or quality.
 a) Code b) Standard c) Law d) Theorem

68. An American nonprofit society, founded in 1921, whose objectives are to improve and advance the use of fabricated
structural steel.
a) American Iron and Steel Institute (AISI) b) American Institute of Steel Construction (AISC)
c) American Society for Metals (ASM) d) American Society of Testing and materials (ASTM)

69. A sketch of a machine, a machine element, or part of a machine element that shows all acting forces, such as applied
loads and gravity forces, and all reactive forces.
a) Schematic diagram b) Free body diagram c) Moment diagram d) Skeletal diagram

70. The size to which limits or deviations is assigned and is the same for both members of the fit; it is the exact theoretical
size.
a) Nominal size b) Basic size c) Maximum size d) Minimum size

71. The algebraic difference between a size and the corresponding basic size.
a) Tolerance b) Allowance c) Deviation d) Limit

72. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the corresponding basic size.
a) Fundamental deviation b) Upper deviation c) Lower deviation d) Tolerance

73. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the corresponding basic size.
a) Fundamental deviation b) Upper deviation c) Lower deviation d) Tolerance

74. Either the upper or the lower deviation, depending on which is closer to the basic size.
a) Fundamental deviation b) Upper deviation c) Lower deviation d) Tolerance

75. The difference between the maximum and minimum size limits of a part.
a) Allowance b) Tolerance c) Deviation d) Basic size

76. The property of a material that measures the degree of plastic deformation sustained at fracture.
a) Toughness b) Stiffness c) Ductility d) Brittleness

77. Compounds of metallic elements, most frequently oxides, nitrides, and carbides.
a) Plastic b) Polymers c) Ceramics d) Alloy

78. A material having different properties in all directions at point in solid.

a) Isotropic material b) Anisotropic material c) Orthotropic material d) Ceramic material

79. A material having different properties in three mutually perpendicular directions at point in solid and having three
mutually perpendicular planes of material symmetry.
a) Orthotropic material b) Isotropic material c) Anisotropic material d) Thermoplastic material

80. The combinations of two or more materials, usually consisting of fiber and thermosetting polymer.
a) Brittle materials b) Composite materials c) Polymers d) Ceramics

81. A theorem stating that “when a body is elastically deformed by a system of loads, the deflection at any point p in any
direction a is a equal to the partial derivative of the strain energy (with the system of loads acting) with respect to a
load at p in the direction a”.
a) Poisson’s Theorem b) Newton’s Theorem c) Castigliano’s Theorem d) Mohr’s Theorem

82. A principle or method that a deflection at any point in bar is equal to sum of deflections caused by each load acting
separately.
a) Summation Method b) Method of balancing
c) Method of superposition d) Shear and Moment diagram method

83. A failure prediction theory in which failure is caused by the elastic energy associated with shear deformation.
a) Maximum-shear-stress theory b) Distortion-energy theory
c) Maximum-normal-stress theory d) Internal friction theory

84. A failure prediction theory in which a part subjected to any combination of loads will fail (by yielding or fracturing)
whenever the maximum shear stress exceeds a critical value.
a) Maximum-shear-stress theory b) Distortion-energy theory
c) Maximum-normal-stress theory d) Internal friction theory

85. It is a form of correction that develops on highly localized areas on a metal surface.
a) Crevice b) Erosion c) Galvanic d) Apitting

86. The corrosion of iron-base-alloys:

a) Rusting b) Crazing c) Chalking d) Fritting
87. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined with the iron.
a) Cast iron b) Gray iron c) White iron d) Malleable iron

ANSWERS

1. b
2. a
3. a
4. d 46. a
5. a 47. c
48. b
6. b 49. c
7. b 50. b
8. c
9. c 51. c
10. a 52. c
53. a
11. d 54. d
12. a 55. a
13. a
14. d 56. b
15. a 57. b
58. a
16. d 59. b
17. a 60. b
18. b
19. d 61. a
20. b 62. c
63. b
21. a 64. a
22. b 65. b
23. c
24. a 66. b
25. c 67. a
68. b
26. a 69. b
27. a 70. b
28. b
29. c 71. c
30. c 72. b
73. c
31. a 74. a
32. a 75. b
33. a
34. c 76. c
35. a 77. c
78. b
36. c 79. a
37. d 80. b
38. a
39. c 81. c
40. c 82. c
83. b
41. b 84. a
42. a 85. d
43. a
44. c 86. a
45. a 87. c