Polity (250 MCQ) by Saurabh Kumar

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POLITY MCQ
Prelims 2021
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SAURABH KUMAR
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(Faculty SRIAS)
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FOR ALL CURRENT UPDATES RELATED TO POLITY AND GOVERNANCE, PLEASE FOLLOW SAURABH SIR TELEGRAM CHANNEL “SAURABH POLITY”
Q.1) Which of the following is the most Q.4) Which of the following arguments
important feature of Indian democracy? for the democratic government is/are
correct?
a) Head of the state is chosen by the
universal adult franchise. 1. It is a more accountable form of
b) Office of head of the state is open government.
for all the citizens of the country. 2. It involves improved quality of decision
c) Head of the state is directly making.
responsible to the people of the 3. It enhances the dignity of citizens.
country.
d) Head of the Government can be Select the correct answer using the codes
changed directly or indirectly by the given below:
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people of the country. a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
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Q.2) Which of the following is the most c) 2 and 3 only
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appropriate definition of a limited d) 1, 2 and 3
government?
a) A govt. that operates with limited ty Q.5) Which of the following correctly
manifest the form of direct democracy?
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powers when the elections are due 1. Lok Adalat
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and model code of conduct is in 2. Gram Sabha

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operation. 3. Gram Nyayalayas

b) A subsidiary govt. that owes its
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sovereignty to any other govt. Select the correct answer using the codes
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c) A govt. that rules within the limits given below:

set by constitutional law. a) 1 only
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d) A govt. that has lost the majority in b) 2 only

the House of people before the c) 1 and 2 only
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completion of its tenure. d) 2 and 3 only

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Q.3) Which of the following arguments Q.6) Which of the following statements is/
against democracy is/are correct? are correct regarding direct democracy?
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1. Democracy leads to instability. 1. It is suitable only for the countries that

2. Democracy leads to delay in decision have a sufficiently smaller population.
making. 2. It is suitable only for the questions of
3. Democracy is suitable only for the smaller decision making.
developed countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
given below: a) 1 only
a) 2 only b) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only c) Both 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q.7) Which of the following electoral a) 1 only

systems are followed in India? b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
1. First past the post. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Proportional representation.
3. Area based system of representation. Q.10) Consider the following statements,
with reference to the office of President in
Select the correct answer using the codes India.
given below:
a) 1 and 2 only 1. Any citizen of India can contest for the
b) 2 and 3 only election to the office of President.
c) 1 and 3 only 2. The office has a fixed tenure of five years
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d) 1, 2 and 3 for the maximum of two terms.
3. The office is an integral part of the
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Q.8) Which of the following statements Parliament.
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a re i n c o r r e c t , w i t h re f e re n c e t o
Panchayati raj elections in India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The elections are conducted by an ty incorrect:-

a) 1 and 2 only
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independent election commission appointed b) 2 only
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by the president of India. c) 1 and 3 only

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2. One third of the seats are reserved for d) 1, 2 and 3

scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.
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3. The age limit to contest in the elections is Q.11) Consider the following statements,
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25 years. with reference to the Presidential form of

government.
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given below: 1. The President is both the head of the state
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a) 1 and 2 only and the head of the government.

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b) 3 only 2. The President appoints the council of

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c) 1 and 3 only ministers on the advice of the prime

d) 1, 2 and 3 minister.
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3. The President can veto any law made by

Q.9) Which among the following belong the legislatures.
to the electoral college for the election to
the President of India? Which of the statements given above is/are
1) All the elected members of both the correct?
houses of Parliament. a) 1 and 2 only
2) All the elected members of State b) 2 and 3 only
Legislative Councils. c) 1 and 3 only
3) All the elected members of the d) 1, 2 and 3
Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories.
Q.12) Consider the following statements,
Select the correct answer using the codes with reference to the judiciary of India.
given below:
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1. The Supreme court and The High Courts c) Providing an atmosphere where
both have the power to interpret the everyone has the same rights and
constitution of India. duties.
2. The Supreme court and The High Courts d) Enabling everyone to have an equal
both can declare any law of the legislature opportunity to achieve whatever one
or the action of the executives as invalid is capable of.
whether at the union level or at the state
level. Q.15) Which of the statements given
below are true for the Right against
Which of the statements given above is/are Exploitation?
correct?
a) 1 only a) No person shall be detained without
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b) 2 only informing the reasons for the
c) Both 1 and 2 detention.
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Right against the practice of all the
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forms of untouchability.
Q.13) Which of the following statements c) Right against discrimination to
is/are correct with reference to the
parliamentary form of government in ty access public places.
d) Prohibition of traffic in human
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India? beings.
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1. The President and the Prime minister Q.16) Consider the following statement,
both are elected indirectly by the people. with reference to the uniqueness of
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2. The Prime minister can be a member Indian secularism.

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from any of the houses of Parliament.

3. The Council of ministers is responsible to 1. It allows everyone to freely practice and
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the Lok Sabha only. propagate a particular religion without any

limitation.
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Select the correct answer using the codes 2. Every religious group is free to manage
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given below: its religious affairs.

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a) 1 only 3. It follows a principled and equal distance

b) 2 and 3 only from all religions.
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c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.14) Which of the following is the most a) 1 and 2 only
appropriate definition of the Right to b) 2 and 3 only
Equality? c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Giving everyone the same treatment
irrespective of their status in the Q.17) Which of the following is regarded
society. as the heart and soul of Indian
b) To do away with all sorts of constitution?
distinctions in the society.
a) The preamble
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b) Directive principles of state policy 1. It helps accommodate regional diversity.

c) The right to constitutional remedies 2. It guarantees cooperation between federal
d) Both b and c and provincial governments as well as
among the provincial governments.
Q.18) Consider the following statements, 3. It promotes unity in the country.
with reference to the writs issued by
courts:- Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
1. It can be issued for the enforcement of a) 1 and 2 only
fundamental as well as legal rights. b) 2 and 3 only
2. It can be issued by the Supreme court as c) 1 and 3 only
well as the High courts. d) 1, 2 and 3
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3. It can be issued against the actions of the
executive as well as the judiciary. Q.21) Consider the following statements:-
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Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Reduction of corruption in the
correct? government.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only ty 2. Strengthening of democracy at the grass
root level.
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c) 1 and 3 only 3. Reduces the efficiency of policy
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d) 1, 2 and 3 implementation in the government.

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Q.19) Which of the following is an Which of the above statement(s) is/are the
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instance of an exercise of a fundamental merits of local self-government:-

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right? a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only
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1. An Indian from one state may travel c) 1 and 3 only

freely throughout the territory of India, and d) 1, 2 and 3
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may settle in part.

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2. Any Indian citizen may choose to own Q.22) With reference to Gram
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land in any part of the country to start a Panchayats under the Panchayati raj
business. system of India, consider the following
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3. A citizen of India who is accused of any statements:-

offence, may choose not to provide his/her
biometric details. 1. All the voters in the village are its
members.
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. It is the decision making body for the
given below: entire village.
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only Which of the above statement(s) is/are
c) 1 and 2 only correct?
d) 1, 2 and 3 a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.20) Which of the following is true for a
‘Federal form of government’:-
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c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q.23) With reference to Women’s b) 2, 3 and 4 only
political representation in India, consider c) 1, 2 and 4 only
the following statements:- d) All of the above
1. The percentage of elected women Q.26) With reference to Pressure groups,

members in Lok Sabha has always been consider the following statements:-
below 10 percent.
2 . Th e average s hare of w omen' s 1. They do not directly engage into party
participation in all the state assemblies has politics.
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always been more than their participation in 2. They try to influence government policies
Lok Sabha. by disrupting government programs and
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organising strikes.
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Which of the above statement(s) is/are 3. They employ professional lobbyists or
correct? offer expensive advertisements to gain
a) 1 only
b) 2 only ty public sympathy and media attention.
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c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements above is/are
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

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a) 2 only
Q.24) According to Census of India 2011, b) 1 and 3 only
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which among the following religions has c) 1 and 2 only

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the least share in total population of d) 2 and 3 only

India?
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Q.27) With reference to the political

a) Buddhism parties, consider the following
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b) Jainism statements:-
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c) Christians
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d) Sikhs 1. The Constitution has laid down detailed

criteria for a political party to be a
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Q.25) A democratic govt. is the one in recognised party.

which:- 2. The Election Commission of India has
recognised only six political parties as
1.) The rulers elected by the people take all National parties.
the major decisions.
2.) The elections offer a fair opportunity to Select the correct answer using the codes
the people to change the current rulers. given below:
3.) The citizen has the right to caste only a) 1 only
one vote and each vote has equal value. b) 2 only
4.) The rights of the citizen are protected by c) 1 and 2 both
an independent judiciary. d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q.28) Which of the followings is/are the c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by
conditions for a political party to become the President, there is no need for direct
a National party:- election.
d) In a Parliamentary democracy only the
1. A Party must secure at least six percent of leader of the majority party in Lok Sabha
the total votes in an election to the Lok can become Prime Minister.
Sabha. Q.31) In order to contest elections in
2. A Party must win at least four percent India, a candidate must declare the
seats in the Assembly elections to more than details of which of the following:-
two states.
Select the correct answer using the codes 1. All the civil and criminal cases pending
given below: against the candidate.
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a) 1 only 2. Details of the assets and liabilities of the
b) 2 only candidate and his/her family.
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c) 1 and 2 both 3. Education qualification of the candidate.
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d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.29) Consider the following statements:-
ty given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
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1. Democracies are based on economic b) 2 and 3 only
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equality and it guarantees economic c) 1 and 3 only

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equality. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The rates of economic growth in
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democratic regimes have been greater than Q.32) Which of the following pairs are
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the rates of economic growth in dictatorial correctly matched:-

regimes between 1950 and 2000.
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Slogan Party
Which of the statements given above is/are
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correct? 1. Save Democracy CPI

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a) 1 only 2. Garibi Hatao Congress Party

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b) 2 only 3. Land to the tiller. Janata Party

c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:
Q.30) Why is the Prime Minister of India a) 2 only
not directly elected by the people? b) 2 and 3 only
Choose the most appropriate answer:- c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Direct election for Prime Minister will
involve a lot of expenditure on election. Q.33) With reference to the Chief
b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Election Commissioner, consider the
Minister even before the expiry of his/her following statements:-
term.
1. CEC is appointed by the President on the
advice of the council of ministers.
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2. CEC is appointed for a maximum period Which among the following is correct?
of five years or continues till age of 65 1 2 3 4
years, whichever is earlier. a) D A B C
b) B C D A
Which of the statements given above is/are c) B D A C
correct? d) C D A B
a) 1 only
b) 2 only Q.36) Consider the following subjects:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Education
2. Forest
Q.34) In the context of democracies, 3. Administration of judgement
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which of the following have been 4. Cryptocurrency
successfully eliminated? 5. Cyber Security
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a) Conflicts among the social groups within Which of the subjects given above belong to
the country. the concurrent list of Indian Constitution?
b) Differences of opinion about how
marginalised sections are to be treated. ty a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
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c) The idea of political inequality. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
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d) Administrative inefficiencies and d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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corruption.
Q.37) Which among the following
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Q.35) Choose the appropriate code to statements is correct about democracy:-

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match List 1 and List 2

1. Due to political competitions in a
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List 1 List 2 democracy, social divisions get reflected in

politics.
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2. Democracy is the best way to

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Power shared among A. accommodate social diversity.

1. different organs of the Community
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3. In a democracy, it is impossible to create

government. government harmony among different social
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Power shared among B. Separa?on communities.

2. governments at of powers
different levels. Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Power shared by C. Coali?on a) 1 only
3. different social government b) 1 and 3 only
groups. c) 2 and 3 only
Power shared by two D. Federal d) 1 and 2 only
4. or more poli?cal government
par?es. Q.38) Which of the following statements
is incorrect with reference to the
independence of the judiciary in India:-
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1. Judges of the Supreme Court can be

removed only on the ground of proved Q.41) The Constitution of India is a blend
misbehaviour or incapacity. of rigidity and flexibility. Many of its
2. Discussion on the conduct of the judges provisions can be amended solely by the
of the Supreme Court is barred in the Parliament whereas others require a
Parliament. complex and lengthy process. With
reference to this, a bill must satisfy which
Select the correct answer using the codes of the following conditions in order to
given below: amend a provision of the constitution that
a) 1 only relates to the sharing of power between
b) 2 only the union and the states:-
c) Both 1 and 2
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d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The bill must be passed in both the
houses of parliament separately, with the
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Q.39) Consider the following statements majority of at least two-third of the
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with reference to the powers of Supreme members present and voting.
Court:- 2. The bill must be ratified by the
1. Its decisions are binding on all courts ty legislatures of at least half of the total states,
with the majority of at least one-half of the
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within the territory of India. members present and voting.
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2. It can transfer any case from one High

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Court to another. Select the correct answer using the codes

3. It can remove judges of High Courts. given below:
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a) 1 only
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Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only

correct? c) Both 1 and 2
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a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 1 and 3 only Q.42) Which of the following is not an

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d) 1, 2 and 3 essential feature of ‘federalism’:-

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Q.40) Which of the following statements a) Written constitution.

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is correct with reference to an advisory b) Independent judiciary.

jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:- c) Division of power among different
constituent units of government equally.
a) It allows a person to seek advice from the d) None of the above
Supreme Court against the judgments of
High Courts. Q.43) Consider the following statements,
b) It allows a state to seek advice from the with reference to the scheduled languages
Supreme Court in a matter of conflict with in India:-
the centre or any other state.
c) It allows the President to seek advice 1. There are 22 scheduled languages under
from the Supreme Court on a matter of the constitution of India.
public importance. 2. States may have their own list of
d) None of the above scheduled languages.
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3. A candidate in an examination conducted

for a central government position may opt Which of the statements is/are correct?
to take examination in any of these a) 1 only
languages. b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 1 and 3 only
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only Q.47) Which among the following is
b) 2 and 3 only matched correctly:-
c) 1 and 3 only Writs Situation
d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Mandamus: When a particular
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Q.44) Which of the following is referred office holder is not doing legal duty.
to as the third tier of our democracy:- 2. Certiorari: When a lower
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court has considered a case going beyond its
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a) Judiciary jurisdiction.
b) Executive 3. Prohibition: When a court
c) Media
d) Local governments ty has to order a lower court to transfer a
matter pending before it.
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Q.45) Which among the following is a Select the correct answer using the codes
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violation of fundamental rights:- given below:

a) 1 only
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1) Not paying minimum wages. b) 2 and 3 only

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2) Not allowing workers to go on strike. c) 1 and 3 only

3) Banning a movie. d) 1, 2 and 3
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Select the correct answer using the codes Q.48) Which among the following are the
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given below: true functions of a democracy:-

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a) 1 and 2 only
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b) 2 only 1. Set limits on governments.

c) 3 only 2. Create conditions for a just society.
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d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Enable government to fulfil the

aspirations of a society.
Q.46) With reference to the First Past the
Post System, consider the following Select the correct answer using the codes
statements:- given below:
a) 3 only
1) The entire country is divided into smaller b) 1 and 2 only
constituencies. c) 2 and 3 only
2) Every constituency elects only one d) 1, 2 and 3
representative.
3) Every political party gets seats in Q.49) Consider the following statements,
proportion to the percentage of votes polled with reference to Indian federalism:-
for it.
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1. Only the central government can make c) 1 and 3 Only

laws only on the subjects mentioned in the d) All of these
Union list.
2. Only state governments can make laws Q52:- “Supremacy of the Constitution”
on the subjects mentioned in the state list. means:-
3. Central and state governments both can
make laws on ‘residuary’ subjects. a. The Laws enacted by the Centre and
States must Conform to the
Which of the statements given above is/are Provisions of the Constitution.
incorrect? b. Parliament draws its authority from
a) 1 and 2 only the Constitution.
b) 2 and 3 only c. The Constitution draws its authority
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c) 1 and 3 only from the People.
d) 1, 2 and 3
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d. The Constitution can be amended
only by a Special Majority.
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Q.50) Which of the following are the
essential conditions for a democratic Q53:- Which of the following
government:-
ty characterises “Power Sharing” in
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Modern Democracies:-
1. Free and fair elections on a regular basis.
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2. Separation of power. 1. Power is being Shared between

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3. Right to vote for all its citizens. different levels of the Government
2. Power is being shared among
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Select the correct answer using the codes different Organs of the Government.
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given below: 3. Power is being Shared among

a) 1 only
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different Social Groups such as

b) 1 and 2 only Religious and linguistic groups.
c) 2 and 3 only
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d) 1, 2 and 3 Choose the Correct Code:-

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a) 2 Only
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Q51:- Which of the following is b) 1 and 3 Only

Considered as an important feature of
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c) 1 and 2 Only
“Parliamentary System of d) All of these
Government”:-
Q54:- Which of the following are the
1. The Ministers are the members of functions of the “Constitution”:-
both the Legislature and Executive.
2. Ministers take oath of Secrecy in the
Office before Pro-term Speaker. 1. To provide a set of rules that allow
3. It reflects the rule of majority. for coordination between members
of the society.
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. To specify the power who will take
a) 1 and 2 Only decisions in the society.
b) 2 and 3 Only
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3. To put a limit on the Government d) Neither 1 nor 2

Power to impose restriction on its
Citizens. Q 57:- What is the meaning of “Liberal”
in true Sense:-
Choose the correct
code:- 1. Tolerant to one’s views.
a) 1 Only 2. Right to express in case of
b) 2 Only disagreement.
c) 3 Only 3. Priority of Individual over society.
d) All of these
Choose the Correct Code:
Q55:- Consider the following a) 1 and 3 Only
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Statements:- b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 Only
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d) All of These
1. The Constitution is a written
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document describing the formation Q58:-Which of the following is/are not
and powers of the Government.
2. The Constitution exists and is ty “federal features” of the Constitution:-
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required only in democratic 1. The Constitution is written and not
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Countries. easily amenable.
3. The Constitution is a legal document
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2. Equal representation of all states in

that deals with ideas and values. Rajya Sabha.
4. A Constitution gives its Citizens a
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3. State governments derive authority

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new identity. from the Centre.

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Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:

a) 1,3 and 4 only a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 3 and 4 only
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b) 2 and 3 Only
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c) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 2 Only

d) All of these
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d) 3 Only
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Q56:- Which of the following jeopardise Q59:- Which of the following are the
the “Philosophy of the Constitution”:- necessary features of “Democracy”:-
1. It appears to have glossed over 1. Fundamental Principle of Equality.

important issues like Gender Justice. 2. Government runs within the limits
2. Socio-economic rights are relegated of Law and Rights of Citizens.
to Directives Principles, which are 3. Rulers elected by the People take all
Non- Justifiable. major decisions.
Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:-

a) 1 Only a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only b) 2 and 3 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 2 Only
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d) All of these a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q60:- Which of the following came into d) Neither 1 nor 2
force on “26th Nov 1949”:-
Q63:- Which of the following reflects the
1. Citizenship by Migration basic Principle of “Federalism”:-
2. Citizenship by Registration 1. Legislative authority is partitioned
3. Idea of having Election Commission between Centre and States by the
Law.
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. Executive authority is partitioned
a) 1 and 2 Only between Centre and State by the
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b) 2 Only Constitution.
c) 1 and 3 Only
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3. Executive authority is partitioned
d) All of these between Centre and State by the
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Law.
Q61:- Which of the following truly 4. Legislative authority is partitioned
describes the “Constituent Power of the
Parliament” :- ty between Centre and State by the
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Constitution
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1. Power to amend Fundamental Choose the Correct Code:-

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Rights. a) 2 and 4 Only

2. P o w e r t o m a k e l a w f o r t h e b) 2,3 and 4 Only
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enforcement of DPSP. c) 3 and 4 Only

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3. Power to abridge Fundamental d) All of these

Rights.
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4. Power to make law on all the

Q64:- Which of the following describes
matters listed in the Union list.
Federalism at its best:-
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Choose the Correct Code: 1. Courts have a power to interpret the

Constitution and Powers of the
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a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only different levels of the Government.
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c) 1, 3 and 4 Only 2. Sources of Revenue for each level

d) 1, 2 and 3 Only of the Government are clearly
specified to ensure its financial
Q62:- Consider the Following autonomy.
Statements:- 3. Different tiers of the Government
govern the same citizens, but each
1. The Constituent Assembly acted as tier has its own Jurisdiction.
Provisional Parliament till 1952.
Choose the Correct Code:-
2. The Law passed by Provisional
Parliament enjoys the status of a) 3 Only
Constitutional Provisions. b) 1 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the Correct Code:- d) All of these
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d) Recognition of Special needs

Q65:- Consider the following Statements
with respect to the “Constituent Q68:- Consider the following Statements
Assembly”:- with regard to “Preamble”:-
1. It was constituted roughly on lines
1. Preamble may be invoked to
of the Cabinet Mission Proposals.
determine the ambit of Fundamental
2. The authority of the Constituent
rights and DPSP.
Assembly comes from the
2. Preamble was put to vote in
procedures it adopted to frame the
Constituent assembly by a motion
Constitution.
which says Preamble is a part of the
3. O n l y o n e p r o v i s i o n i n t h e
constitution.
Constituent Assembly was passed
S)
without any debate.
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Choose the Correct a) 1 Only
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Code:- b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 Only ty d) Neither 1 nor 2
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c) 1 Only Q69:- Which of the following comes
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d) All of these under the ambit of word “Socialism”
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added in Preamble:-
Q66:- Which of the following is the main
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consideration of “Objectives Resolution”: 1. Equal pay for Equal work.

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1. All People shall be guaranteed with 2. State Ownership of any Industry.

Social, Political and Economic 3. Decent standard of living.
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Justice. 4. To reduce Inequalities.

2. India should promote World Peace
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and welfare of Mankind. Choose the Correct Code:-

ab
a) 1, 3 and 4 Only
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b) 1 and 4 Only
c) 1 Only
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a) 1 Only d) All of these

b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q70:- Which of the following Statements
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Incorrect :-
Q67:- Which of the following best 1. The Constitution of India does not
describes the idea of “Justice”:- guarantee the territorial integrity of
any state of the Union.
a) E q u a l C o n s i d e r a t i o n o f a l l 2. Under Article 3, Parliament can even
Individuals. cut the entire area of a state to form
b) Fairness in Giving Opportunity to all a new state.
Individuals.
c) Principle of Proportionate Justice Choose the correct Code:-
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a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only 1. Any person who is a citizen of
c) Both 1 and 2 another country but eligible to
d) Neither 1 nor 2 become citizen of India at the time
of commencement of the
Q71:- Which of the following statements constitution.
with respect to “Citizenship” is 2. Any person who is a citizen of any
Incorrect:- country, but belonged to the territory
that became part of India after 15th
1. One can be a Citizen of India even
August 1947.
without having a Domicile of India.
3. He is not eligible to enjoy equality
2. Citizenship Act 2003 provides for
in the matter of public employment.
dual Citizenship to Persons of
S)
Indian Origin.
IA
3. National Identity card is issued by
a) 1 and 2 Only
the Central Government to every
SR
b) 1 and 3 Only
citizen of India as per Citizenship
c) 1 and 2 Only
Act 2003.
ty d) All of these
ul
Choose the Correct Code:
Q74:- Consider the following statements
ac
a) 1 and 3 Only with respect to “National Population
b) 2 Only
(F
Register” :-
c) 3 Only
d) None of these
r
1. A resident identity card (RIC) will

ma
be issued only to individuals over

Q72:-Consider the following Statements the age of 18.
Ku
with respect to “Citizenship”:- 2. It is mandatory to enrol in NPR, and

false information amounts to an
1. It grants individuals a membership
h
offence.
ab
in the Political Community. 3. A respondent will not be required to

2. The idea of Citizenship came into
ur
produce any document for NPR.

existence on 26 January 1950.
Sa
3. All Citizens are Nationals of the Choose the Correct Code:-

Country and all the Nationals are not a) 1 and 2 Only
the Citizens of the Country. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 Only
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only Q75:-Which of the following is not the
c) 1 and 3 Only “Fundamental right of a Child” :-
d) 3 Only
1. Right against cyber bullying.
Q73:- Consider the following statements 2. Right to Education
with respect to “Overseas citizen of 3. Right to get proper nutrition.
India”:- 4. Right against work
15
2. No Law shall declare any action as

Choose the Correct Code:- illegal retrospectively.
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. No Person shall be asked to give
b) 2 and 3 Only evidence against himself.
c) 1, 2 and 4 Only
d) 2 and 3 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Q76:- Consider the following Statements b) 2 and 3 Only
with respect to “Minority Educational c) All of these
Institutions”:- d) None of these
1. The property can be acquired by the Q79:- Which of the following is included
S)
Government only through enactment in “Freedom of Religion”:-
of Law.
IA
2. The only limitation on the 1. It includes persuading people to
SR
government is to compensate convert from one religion to another.
adequately. 2. It also provides for not to follow any
Choose the Correct Code:- ty religion.

ul
a) 1 Only Consider the Correct Code:
ac
b) 2 Only a) 1 Only
(F
c) Both 1 and 2 b) 2 Only

d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Both 1 and 2
r
Q77:- Which of the following is part of d) Neither 1 and 2

ma
“Right against Exploitation”:-

Q80:- Which of the following Statements
Ku
1. Prohibition of Traffic. is correct with regard to “Reservation”:-

2. Prohibition of Employment of
h
Children in hazardous Jobs. 1. Reservation is a fundamental Right

ab
3. Abolition of Untouchability. of an individual.

ur
4. Equality of Opportunity in Public 2. R e s e r v a t i o n o n t h e b a s i s o f

Employment. “Residence” can be made by State
Sa
Legislature
a) 1 and 3 only Choose the correct code:-
b) 1, 2 and 3 only a) 1 Only
c) 1 and 2 only b) 2 Only
d) All of these c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q78:- The Constitution has provided
different “Rights to ensure Fair trial”.
Q81:- Which of the following statements
Which of the following are Such Rights:-
validate the objective of “Fundamental
Rights”:-
1. No person would be punished for the
Same Offence more than once.
16
1. These Rights are the consequence of a) 1 Only

the Declaration contained in the b) 1 and 2 only
Preamble. c) 2 and 3 only
2. These rights are guarantees of the d) 3 only
way of life.
3. An act of State, whether legislative Q84:- Consider the Following Statements
or executive, if inconsistent with with respect to Idea of “Freedom” in
fundamental rights will be Polity:-
considered null and void.
1. It is said to exist when there is an
Choose the Correct Code:- absence of Constraints.
a) 1 and 2 Only 2. Constraints on Freedom can result
S)
b) 2 Only from Social Inequality.
3. Freedom is about expanding
IA
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these P e o p l e ’s a b i l i t y t o d e v e l o p
SR
themselves.
Q82:- Which of the following

Fundamental Rights are available against ty Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
ul
“Private entity”:- b) 1 and 2 Only
ac
1. Prohibition of Discrimination on c) 3 Only

(F
Certain Grounds. d) All of these

2. Abolition of Untouchability
r
3. Right to Education
ma
4. Prohibition of Trafficking Q85:- Which of the following is not the

5. Right to Life correct justification of “Freedom of
Ku
Expression”:-
h
a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. No one can be always false.

ab
b) 1 ,3 and 5 only 2. It is required because Conflicting

ur
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only Ideas results into Right ideas.

d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 3. It is required for creation of
Sa
Knowledge as an asset.
Q83:- Which of the following are most
appropriate explanations for people Choose the correct code:-
claiming “Rights”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
1. Rights should be recognised by the c) 1 and 3 Only
Society d) All of these
2. Rights must be sanctioned by the
Law Q86:- Consider the following Statements
3. Rights Comes with the obligation to with respect to the claim of “Rights”:-
respect Other Rights.
1. All the Rights are derived from basic
Choose the Correct Code:- Right of Life and Liberty.
17
2. Rights are legitimate claims that 1. It is a sine qua non of Article 20.
must be recognised by the Society. 2. It protects against the risk that
3. Natural Rights keeps a check on evidence will be lost by the passage
arbitrariness of Government of time, thus impairing the ability of
the accused to defend himself.
Choose the Correct Code:- Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only a) 1 Only
b) 3 Only b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3 Only d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q87:- Which of the following Q90:- Which of the following is correct
S)
Fundamental rights are available against with respect to “Freedom of
“Private Individuals Only” :- Conscience”:-
IA
SR
1. Article 15(2) 1. It has no necessary connection with
2. Article 17 any particular religion or any faith in
3.
4.
Article 23
Article 16 ty God.
2. It implies the right not to be
ul
converted into another religion and
ac
Choose the Correct Code:- to belong to any religion at all.

(F
a) 1, 2 and 3 Only
b) 2, 3 and 4 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
r
c) None of these a) 1 Only

ma
d) All of these b) 2 Only

c) Both 1 and 2
Ku
Q88:- Which of the following constitutes d) Neither 1 nor 2

the part of “Freedom of Speech and
h
Expression”:- Q91:- Consider the following statements

ab
with respect to “Preventive Detention” :-

ur
1. Right to know Information

2. Right to maintain silence. 1. It is the right of detenu to be
Sa
3. Right to choose the medium of informed of the ground of detention.

Instruction. 2. The first law relating to Preventive
4. No pre censorship of the press. detention was enforced in 1950.
3. One can’t be detained beyond three
Choose the Correct Code:- months without the approval of the
a) 1 and 2 Only Advisory Committee.
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only Choose the Correct Code:-
d) All of these a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only
Q89:- Consider the following Statements c) 3 Only
with respect to “Free and Fair Trial”:- d) All of these
18
Q92:- Which of the following correctly 2. Law for the Preventive detention can
differentiates between “Article 26 and be enacted by the State Legislature
Article 30”:- also but only in case of national
security.
1. Article 26 provides the right to
maintain the institution while Article Choose the Correct Code:-
30 provides for the right to a) 1 Only
administer the institution. b) 2 Only
2. Article 26 is subjected to public c) Both 1 and 2
order, while article 30 is free from d) Neither 1 nor 2
such limitations.
3. Article 26 gives right to establish
S)
institution to the majority as well as Q95:- The right to move to the Court
minority while article gives right to under “Article 32” can be suspended in
IA
establish institution to the minorities the case of:-
SR
only.
1. Suspension of Fundamental Rights
a) 1 and 2 Only ty of Members of Armed forces.
2. Proclamation of emergency under
ul
b) 2 and 3 Only Article 359.
ac
c) 1 and 3 Only 3. Restriction on Fundamental Rights

(F
d) All of these under Martial Law.

r
Q93:- Which of the following is the part Choose the Correct Code:-
ma
of the “Right to establish and administer a) 1 and 3 Only

an institution” under Article 30:- b) 1 Only
Ku
c) 1 and 2 Only
1. Right to take disciplinary action. d) None of these
h
2. R i g h t t o i m p a r t R e l i g i o u s
ab
institutions. Q96:- “Article 32” of the Indian

ur
3. Right to select students and Constitution does not apply in the case
principal. of:-
Sa
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Reservation

a) 1 and 2 Only 2. Property outside ceiling limits
b) 2 Only 3. Free Trade and Commerce
c) 2 and 3 Only 4. Violation of Right of armed forces
d) All of these
Choose the correct code:-
Q94:- Consider the following statements a) 1,3 and 4 Only
with regard to “Fundamental Rights”:- b) 2, 3 and 4 Only
c) 1 Only
1. Not all the Fundamental rights are d) All of these
directly enforceable.
19
Q97:-Consider the following statements Choose the Correct Code:-

with regard to “Habeas Corpus”:- a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only
1. Only the aggrieved party can ask for c) 1 and 3 Only
the enforcement of the writ. d) None of these.
2. This is the oldest writ of common
law of England. Q100:- Which of the following are “Non-
Justifiable Rights”:-
Choose the Correct code:-
a) 1 Only 1. Right against Economic
b) 2 Only Exploitation.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Right to Adequate Livelihood.
S)
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Right to Work.
IA
4. Right to Drinking water
SR
with respect to "Fundamental Rights":- Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
1. These rights in India has its origins
in England bill of Rights and US ty b) 2 and 3 Only
ul
c) 1 Only
Bill of rights. d) 1, 3 and 4 Only
ac
2. F u n d a m e n t a l r i g h t s c a n ’t b e
(F
amended by the Parliament after Q101:- Which of the following arguments

Keshavananda Bharti case. are valid to Justify State action to provide
r
They allow concentration of power basic minimum Conditions of life to all

ma
in the hands of parliament and the Citizens:-

executive when necessary.
Ku
a. Providing free services to the poor

Choose the correct code:- and needy can be justified as an act
h
a) 1 Only of charity.
ab
b) 2 Only b. Providing all citizens with a basic

ur
c) 1 and 3 Only minimum standard is one way of

d) 2 and 3 Only ensuring equality of opportunity.
Sa
c. Some people in the state are

Q99:- Which of the following is incorrect naturally lazy and the State must
with respect to Directive Principles of think of their welfare.
State Policy:- d. Ensuring basic facilities and a
1. Directive Principles proceeded on minimum standard of living to all is
the basis of Human Rights. recognition of our shared humanity
2. The Concept of Public Interest and also stands to be a Human
receives orientation from the Right.
Directive Principles.
3. Directives do not confer upon or
take away any legislation from the
appropriate legislature.
20
Q102:- Consider the following statements a) 1 and 3 Only

with respect to “DPSP” :- b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
1. These directives are forerunners of d) All of these
the UN Convention on Right to
Development. Q105:- Consider the following Statements
2. These directives do not confer upon with respect to “veto Power”:-
or take away any legislative power
from the appropriate legislature. 1. The President enjoys a Pocket veto
in case of Ordinary Bill reserved by
Choose the Correct Code:- the Governor.
a) 1 Only 2. The President does not enjoy a
S)
b) 2 Only Suspensive Veto in case of a
c) Both 1 and 2 Constitutional Amendment Bill.
IA
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Absolute Veto has been used by the
SR
President twice till today.
Q103:- Consider the statements
“Fundamental Duties”:-
ty Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
ul
1. The duties may be referred by the b) 2 and 3 Only
ac
court while harmonizing them with c) 1 and 2 Only

(F
Fundamental Rights. d) All of these

2. Legislation is necessary for their
r
enforcement. Q106:- Which of the following statements

ma
with respect to election of “President” is

Choose the Correct Code: correct :-
Ku
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only 1. The drafting committee of the
h
c) Both 1 and 2 Constituent assembly explained the

ab
d) Neither 1 nor 2 formula for the calculation of Vote

of MP and MLA.
ur
Q104:- Which of the following Statement 2. An election to fill the vacancy

Sa
is/are Correct with respect to caused by the death must be held

“Fundamental Duties”:- within six months.
1. It can be made enforceable by Choose the Correct Code:-

Parliament. a) 1 Only
2. Any Law in relation to Fundamental b) 2 Only
Duties will be considered c) Both 1 and 2
unreasonable if it violates Right to d) Neither 1 nor 2
Equality.
3. Parliament can impose Penalty for Q107:- Consider the following statements
failure to fulfil Fundamental Duties. regarding “Oath of Vice President”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. To bear true faith to the constitution.
21
2. To uphold the constitution of India. d) None of these

3. To uphold the law of the land.
4. To discharge duty faithfully. Q110:- Which of the following is correct
with respect to “Floor Test”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. It is done by an effective Majority.
a) 1 and 3 Only 2. Legislators may choose not to be
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only present and vote during the Floor
c) 1 and 4 Only Test.
d) 1 Only 3. Composite Floor Test means when
there is more than One Person
Q108:- Consider the following statements making a claim to form the
regarding participation of members in Government.
S)
election of “Vice President”:-
IA
1. Elected Member of Parliament a) 1 and 2 Only
SR
Only. b) 2 and 3 Only
2. Elected and nominated members of c) 3 Only
Parliament only.
3. Elected member of State legislative ty d) 2 Only
ul
assemblies.
ac
are Correct:-
(F

a) 1 Only 1. “Session” refers to the time period
between the first meeting of the
r
b) 2 Only
ma
c) 2 and 3 Only house and ending with Prorogation.

d) All of these 2. The period between Adjournment of
Ku
the house and reassembly in a new

session is termed as “Recess”.
h
with respect to “Privilege Motion”:-

ab

a) 1 Only
ur
1. Rules of Both Lok Sabha and Rajya b) 2 Only

Sa
Sabha Regulates Privilege Motion. c) Both 1 and 2

2. The Speaker/Chairman can decide d) Neither 1 nor 2
on the privilege motion himself or
herself or refer it to the privileges Q112:- Which of the following is the best
committee of Parliament. Characteristic of “Parliamentary
3. Privilege Committee can give the Executive”:-
punishment of Imprisonment for the
breach of Privileges. a) They are routinely under the Control
and Supervision of the Legislature.
Choose the Incorrect Code:-
b) They are responsible for day to day
a) 1 and 3 Only Policy making.
b) 2 Only
c) 3 Only
22
c) The Prime Minister must have the shown in the Annual Financial
support of majority in the Lok Statement.
Sabha. 3. An amendment to reduce tax can be
d) The Prime Minister decides who brought under Finance Bill Only.
will be the Ministers in the Council
of Ministers. Choose the Correct Code:
a) 1 and 2 Only
Q113:- Which of the following are the b) 1 and 3 Only
Instruments of Parliamentary Control:- c) 3 Only
d) All of these
1. Deliberation and Discussion
2. Approval or Refusal of Laws Q116:- Which of the following is Correct
S)
3. Financial Control with respect to “Calling Attention
4. No Confidence Motion Motion”:-
IA
SR
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Only those matters which are
a) 1 and 2 Only primarily the concern of the Union
b) 3 and 4 Only
c) All of these ty Government can be raised through a
Calling Attention notice.
ul
d) None of these 2. The Calling Attention matter is not
ac
subject to the vote of the House.

(F
Q114:- Which of the following calls for 3. Prior Permission of the Speaker is
“Joint Sitting":- required to bring Calling Attention
r
Motion.
ma
1. Ordinary Bill
2. Financial Bill Choose the Correct Code:-
Ku
3. Bill involving Expenditure from a) 1 and 3 Only

Consolidated Fund of India. b) 1 and 2 Only
h
c) 2 and 3 Only
ab

ur
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only Q117:- Consider the following Statements
Sa
c) 1 Only with respect to “Zero Hour”:-

d) All of these
1. Twenty matters per day as per their
Q115:- Consider the following Statements priority in the ballot are allowed to
with respect to “Annual Financial be raised during "Zero Hour".
Statement”:- 2. The term `Zero Hour' is now
formally recognised in Rules of
1. It is a constitutional obligation to Procedure.
mention Revenue and Capital 3. The name Zero Hour has been
Expenditure in the Budget. assigned as it starts at 12 Noon.
2. The Appropriation Bill contains the
expenditure exceeding the amount Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
23
b) 1 and 3 Only d) None of these

c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these Q120:- Consider the following statements
regarding the “Speaker of Lok Sabha”:-
are correct with respect to “Presidential 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha leaves
Address” of the House:- the office just after dissolution of the
assembly.
1. The Constitution makes it incumbent 2. The Business Advisory Committee
upon the President to address both and Rules Committee work directly
Houses of Parliament assembled under the Chairmanship of the
together at the commencement of Speaker.
S)
the first Session after each General 3. In the case Speaker decides some
Election to the Lok Sabha and at the bill as a money bill, this decision can
IA
commencement of the first Session be challenged in parliament
SR
each year.
2. No Member can raise questions on Choose the correct Option:-
the Address by the President.
3. Discussion on matters referred to in ty a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
ul
the Address takes place on a Motion c) 2 only
ac
of Thanks moved by a Member and d) 1 and 2 only

(F
seconded by another Member.

Q121:- Consider the following with
r
Choose the Correct Code:- reference the “Budget”. Which one of the
ma
a) 1 and 3 Only following is Incorrect:-

b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
c) 1 Only 1. Departmental Standing committees

d) All of these have the responsibility to draft and
h
create the annual budget.

ab
Q119:- Consider the following statements 2. Estimates Committee can impose

ur
with respect to “Motions”:- cuts on the budget if the government

cannot justify expenditure on a
Sa
1. The mover of a motion frames it in a particular head.

form in which he/she wishes it to be 3. No money from the Consolidated
ultimately passed by the House. Fund of India can be withdrawn
2. The House has a power to reject the without the consent of the
motion, but no power to amend it. Parliament.
3. All the motions are not required to
put to Vote. Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the Incorrect Code:- b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only
a) 2 and 3 Only d) 3 Only
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 Only
24
Q122: Consider the following statements 2. Appropriation Bill is introduced

about “Joint sitting” of the parliament:- after the voting on demand for
grants is over.
1. The speaker of the Lok Sabha
summons and presides over the joint Choose the Correct Code:-
sitting of both the houses. a) 1 Only
2. Joint sitting is applicable to ordinary b) 2 Only
bills and financial bills only. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 Only Q125:- Which of the following is correct
b) 2 Only with respect to “Cabinet Committees”:-
S)
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. These posts have been introduced by
IA
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.
SR
Q123:- Which of the following Statement 2. These executives in India work as
is incorrect with regard to “Deputy per GOI Transaction of Business
Chairman of Rajya Sabha”:-
ty Rules 1961.
3. Rules of Business Provides for their
ul
1. A substantive motion is moved after establishment.
ac
the date for his election is 4. These include cabinet Ministers

(F
announced by the Chairman. only.

2. The Deputy Chairman presides over
r
the Rajya Sabha in the absence of Choose the Correct Code:-

ma
the Chairman and performs the a) 1, 2 and 3 Only

duties of the office of the Chairman b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
if the Vice- President is acting as c) 1,3 and 4 Only

President or if there is a vacancy in d) 2,3, and 4 Only
h
the office of the Vice-President.

ab

ur
Choose the Correct Code:- with Respect to “Parliamentary

a) 1 Only Committees”:-
Sa
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Parliamentary Committees draw
d) Neither 1 nor 2 their authority from the Constitution.
2. The Constitution mentions their
Q124:- Consider the following statements Composition, Tenure, and Functions.
regarding presentation of “Budget in the 3. These Committees look after the
Parliament”:- Cases of Corruption or advise the
Government in respect of Policy
1. The Finance Bill is introduced on Decisions
the very first day when the Finance
Minister presents the Budget in the Choose the Correct Code:-
Parliament. a) 1 and 2 Only
25
b) 2 and 3 Only 3. Pension of the HC Judges is charged

c) 1 and 3 Only on Consolidated Fund of India.
d) All of these 4. Salaries of HC Judges are charged
on the Consolidated Fund of State.
are correct in regard to “Appeal by Choose the Correct Code:-
Special Leave”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
1. The proposed appeal must be against c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
Judicial and Quasi Judicial order d) All of these
only.
1. It is available when the order must Q130:- Which of the following is not the
S)
have been passed by Court or any part of “Original Jurisdiction” of
Tribunal. Supreme Court:-
IA
SR
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. D i s p u t e a r i s i n g o u t o f n o n -
a) 1 Only implementation of river dispute
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 ty Tribunal award.
2. Dispute between Citizens and the
ul
d) Neither 1 nor 2 GOI.
ac
3. Matters with regard to the Finance

(F
Q128:- Consider the following statements Commission.

regarding “Judiciary” :-
r

ma
1. The dispute over the age of SC a) 2 Only

Judge is decided by Parliament. b) 1 and 3 Only
Ku
2. The order of the President to remove c) 3 Only

the Judge can only be passed if the d) All of these
h
impeachment process gets

ab
completed within the same session Q131:- Consider the following statements
ur
from both the houses. with respect to “Rule making Power of

Judiciary” under Article 145:-
Sa

a) 1 Only 1. The Constitution confers SC the
b) 2 Only power to make rules and regulations
c) Both 1 and 2 relating to its procedure.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. This rule making power is subjected
to the provisions of any law made by
Q129:- Consider the following statements Parliament.
with regard to “Judiciary” :-
1. Parliament decides the salaries of a) 1 Only
both SC and HC Judges. b) 2 Only
2. The salary of CJI and Judges of SC c) Both 1 and 2
is different. d) Neither 1 nor 2
26

Q132:- Consider the following statements a) 1 Only
with regard to “Judiciary” :- b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Constitution debars SC Judges d) Neither 1 nor 2
to appear before any court and
tribunal after retirement.
2. The judges of HC however can
Statements with respect to ‘Writ
practice in the Supreme Court or in
Jurisdiction of Supreme Court’ is
any High court.
Incorrect:-
1. SC Can’t refuse to exercise its writ
S)
a) 1 Only Jurisdiction.
IA
b) 2 Only 2. It is because of Writ Jurisdiction
SR
c) Both 1 and 2 that SC is called as Protector and
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Guarantor of the Constitution.
3. Proceedings under Article 32 can be
Q133:- Consider the following Statements ty transferred by the Supreme Court to
ul
with regard to “Judiciary”:- the High Court and NHRC also.
ac

(F
1. SC has a power to make law under

Article 141 of Indian Constitution. a) 1 and 3 Only
r
2. The judges of the High Court can be b) 1 Only

ma
transferred on the charges of c) 1 and 2 Only

corruption. d) All of these
Ku
Choose the Correct Code:- Q136:- The final decision in matters of

h
a) 1 Only appointment of Judges of Supreme

ab
b) 2 Only Court rests with:-

ur
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Chief Justice of India
Sa
b) Prime Minister
Q134:- Which of the following statement c) Council of Ministers headed by
is Correct:- Prime minister
d) President
1. The constitution says that HC will
consist of Chief justice and such Q137:- Which of the following is
other judges as determined by the Incorrect with respect to “Review
President. Petition”:-
2. The constitution says that the
minimum number of the judges to 1. Only the parties to a case can seek a
decide the case relating to review of the judgement.
interpretation of the Constitution 2. It must be filed within 45 days of
should be Five. the date of judgement.
27
3. Only SC can review its judgement Q140:- Which of the following Legislation
as per Constitution of India. will come under “Judicial Review”:-
1. Subordinate Legislation
Choose the Correct Code:- 2. Constitutional Amendment laws.
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. Administrative action of States.
b) 2 and 3 Only 4. Ordinary Legislation.
c) 3 Only
d) All of these Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1, 2, 4 Only
Q138:- Consider the following Statements b) 2 and 4 Only
with respect to “Subordinate Judiciary”:- c) 2 Only
d) All of these
S)
1. Only the initial Promotion and
posting of District judge is done by Q141:- Consider the following Statements
IA
the Governor. with respect to “Power of Contempt”:-
SR
2. Session judges have both Original
and appellate Jurisdiction. 1. The Constitution of India empowers
Choose the Correct Code:- ty the Supreme Court and High Court
respectively to punish people for
ul
a) 1 Only their respective contempt.
ac
b) 2 Only 2. The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971

(F
c) Both 1 and 2 defines the power of the High Court

d) Neither 1 nor 2 to punish contempt of its
r
subordinate courts.
ma
Q139:- Which of the Following

Statements is Correct with respect to Choose the Correct Code:-
Ku
“Human Rights Court”:- a) 1 Only

b) 2 Only
h
1. These Courts are constituted at State c) Both 1 and 2

ab
Level under the supervision of the d) Neither 1 nor 2

ur
High Court.
2. These are constituted by the State in Q142:- Which of the following is
Sa
Concurrence with the Chief Justice necessary for admission of “Contempt of

of the High Court. Court petition”:-
3. The State Government specifies
Public Prosecutors for these Courts. 1. Suo-Moto by Supreme Court
2. On the motion of the Attorney-
Choose the Correct Code:- General or the Solicitor-General
a) 1 and 3 Only 3. On motion by any other person with
b) 2 and 3 Only the consent of the Attorney-General
c) 2 Only or the Solicitor-General.
d) 1 Only
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 Only
28
c) 1 and 3 Only statutory backing was given for the

d) All of these position.
2. In India, CAG is not a member of
Q143:- Consider the following statements the parliament while in Britain;
with respect to use of “Language in CAG is a member of the House of
Judiciary”:- the Commons.
1. The Constitution is silent on the use Choose the Correct Code:-

of regional language in the High a) 1 Only
Court. b) 2 Only
2. The Parliament can make the c) Both 1 and 2
provision for the use of language d) Neither 1 nor 2
S)
other than English in the Supreme
Court. Q146:- Consider the following statements
IA
with respect to “Audit and accounts on
SR
Choose the correct code:- India”:-
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 ty 1. Accountant General in state is
equivalent in status to CAG of India.
ul
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. The Muddiman committee has
ac
recommended separation of account

(F
Q144:- Which of the following statements and audit as a necessary financial

are correct with respect to “Office of reform for the first time.
r
CAG”:-
ma

1. He compiles the account of the state
a) 1 Only
Ku
government and does auditing of

b) 2 Only
both Central and State government.
c) Both 1 and 2
2. He ascertains net proceeds of tax.
h
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. CAG cannot ask for details of a
ab
particular expenditure.
ur

Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to “Centre- State Relation”:-
Sa
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only 1. If State requests a parliament to
c) 1 and 3 Only make a law on the State List, State
d) All of these ceases to enact a law on that matter.
2. The law once enacted by the
Q145:- Which of the following is Parliament will survive for the
incorrect with respect to the office of maximum period of one year at a
CAG:- time.
1. Under the Government of India Act Choose a correct code:-

1919, the Auditor General became a) 1 Only
independent of the government as b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
29
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. This office can be traced to the

system of the USA.
Q148:- Which of the following can’t be 3. The Remuneration is the same as the
audited by the “CAG” directly:- judge of the Supreme Court.
1. Panchayati Raj Institution Choose the correct Code:-

2. RBI a) 1 and 2 Only
3. Issues related to Biodiversity b) 2 and 3 Only
4. LIC c) 3 Only
d) None of these
a) 1 and 4 Only Q151:- Consider the following Statements
S)
b) 1, 2 and 4 Only with regard to “Additional Advocate
c) 3 and 4 Only General “:-
IA
d) All of these
SR
1. The State Government may appoint
Q149:- Consider the following Statements him in discharge of constitutional
with respect to “Comptroller and Auditor
General of India”:- ty Power.
2. He will perform such functions as
ul
assigned by the Governor from time
ac
1. CAG ascertains and certifies the net to time.

(F
proceeds of any tax or duty and his

certificate is final on the matter. Choose the Correct Code:-
r
2. The salaries and service conditions a) 1 Only

ma
of CAG is decided by Parliament. b) 2 Only

3. He is not eligible for further office, c) Both 1 and 2
Ku
either under the Government of d) Neither 1 nor 2

India or of any state, after he ceases
h
to hold his office Q152:- Which of the following statements

ab
is correct with respect to the

ur
Choose the Correct Code:- discretionary power of the “Governor of

a) 1 and 3Only the State”:-
Sa
b) 1 and 2 Only
c) 2 Only 1. He can dissolve the State Legislative
d) All of these assembly in case of President’s rule.
2. He can appoint any person as Chief
Minister in case of Hung assembly.
Q150:- Which of the following is correct
with respect to “Attorney General of
India”:-
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
1. The Attorney General of India is c) Both 1 and 2
responsible for the amendment and d) Neither 1 nor 2
enforcement of laws.
30
Q153:- Which of the following are not the 1. The constitution says that the State
Conditions for the “Office of Governor”:- Legislature may by law provide for
quorum to constitute a meeting in
1. The Governor shall not hold any the house.
office of Profit. 2. Rules for communication between
2. T h e G o v e r n o r i s e n t i t l e d t o state legislative assembly and state
allowance as determined by the legislative council are made by
State Government. Governor.
3. The Governor must take the Oath of
upholding sovereignty and integrity Choose the Correct Code:-
of India before entering into the a) 1 Only
office. b) 2 Only
S)
c) Both 1 and 2
Choose the Correct Code:- d) Neither 1 nor 2
IA
a) 1 and 2 Only
SR
b) 1 Only Q156:- Which of the following statements
c) 1 and 3 Only is correct with respect to “Pending
d) 2 and 3 Only
ty bills” :-
ul
Q154:- Who among the following is 1. Adjournment does not have any
ac
eligible to form the Government in the effect on Pending bills, but

(F
case none of the parties obtained Prorogation has.

majority in the “Legislative Assembly of 2. The Bill passed by the State
r
the State”:- Legislative assembly but pending in

ma
Legislative Council does not lapse.

1. The leader of an alliance or coalition
Ku
formed before the election. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. The leader of an alliance or coalition a) 1 Only
h
formed after the election. b) 2 Only

ab
3. The leader of the single largest c) Both 1 and 2

ur
party in the Lower House. d) Neither 1 nor 2

4. The leader of the single largest party
Sa
ignoring the claim of alliance having Q157:- Which of the following is incorrect
a majority is invited by the with respect to “Legislative Council”:-
Governor.
1. The members can be reappointed for
Choose the Correct Code:- a maximum of 2 terms only.
a) 1 and 3 Only 2. The nomination of the members is
b) 1, 3 and 4 Only done at the start of 3rd year by the
c) 1 and 4 Only Governor.
d) All of these 3. Representation of People’s Act 1951
provides for a 6 year term of
Q155:- Consider the following members of Legislative Council.
Statements:-
31
a) 2 Only 1. Centre Imposes taxes on stamp

b) 1 and 3 Only duties but are collected by the
c) 1 Only States.
d) 2 and 3 Only 2. The State can’t impose Cess but can
collect if imposed by the Centre.
Q158:- Which of the following Statements 3. The Central Government can give
is correct with respect to “Council of grants in aid to the states who are in
Minister”:- the need of financial assistance.
1. The number of ministers including Choose the Correct Code:-

Chief Minister should not be less a) 1 and 2 Only
than 12% of the total strength of the b) 1 and 3 Only
S)
State Legislative assembly. c) 2 and 3 Only
2. The provision of minimum and d) 2 Only
IA
maximum strength of CoM was
SR
introduced through the 91st Q161:- Consider the following Statements
Constitution (Amendment) Act, with respect to “Inter State water
2003.
ty dispute”:-
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. The first water dispute Tribunal is
ac
a) 1 Only for Krishna and Mahanadi

(F
b) 2 Only respectively.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. A River board can be established by
r
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the central Government even

ma
without the consent of the State

Q159:- Consider the following statements Government
Ku
regarding “Inter Governmental 3. SC can issue Mandamus to the

Delegation of power”:- Central Government to carry out
h
obligations under Article 262.

ab
1. It can be done through agreement

ur
and legislation both. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. T h e S t a t e c a n d e l e g a t e i t s a) 1 and 2 Only
Sa
administrative power on the Centre b) 2 and 3 Only

only under the agreement with the c) 1 and 3 Only
Centre. d) All of these
Choose the Correct Code:- Q162:- Consider the following Statements

a) 1 Only with respect to “Office of Profit”:-
b) 2 Only
1. The President decides in case a MP
c) Both 1 and 2
is holding Office of Profit or not.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. As per RPA 1951, President accepts
the Opinion of Election Commission
regarding “Fiscal Federalism”:- in case of Office of Profit.
32
Choose the Correct Code:- Q165:- Consider the Following

a) 1 Only Statements with respect to “Inter-
b) 2 Only Governmental Tax Immunities”:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Property and income of Local
Authorities within the State are
exempted from Central Taxation.
Q163:- Which of the following truly 2. The Share & Debt of the Central
represents ‘Administrative relations’ Government can be taxed by the
between Centre and State:- State Government.
1. The executive power with respect to
Concurrent List rests upon the Choose the Correct Code:-
S)
Centre only if the Constitution a) 1 Only
provides for the same. b) 2 Only
IA
2. States are bound to follow the c) Both 1 and 2
SR
Centre's Directives, otherwise they d) Neither 1 Nor 2
are liable for the President's Rule.
Choose the Correct Code:- ty Q166:- Which of the Following is

incorrect with respect to “Office of
ul
a) 1 only Profit”:-
ac
b) 2 Only
(F
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Holding Office of Profit under Local

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Authority is not a disqualification
r
for being elected to Lok Sabha or

ma
Q164:- Consider the following with State Legislature.

2. Holding Office of Profit under Local
Ku
respect to the Power of “Taxation of

State”:- authority means disqualified for
being elected as President or Vice
h
President.
ab
1. A State Legislature can impose tax 3. Judges of SC and HC cannot contest

only on the supply of goods inside
ur
Elections because they were

the State. working in affairs of the Union and
Sa
2. A State Legislature can’t impose tax thus holding Office of Profit.

on the Inter State River Valley
Project. Choose the Correct Code:-
3. A State Legislature can impose tax a) 1 and 3 Only
on Goods and services in Course of b) 1 and 2 Only
Inter State Trade and Commerce. c) All of these
d) None of these
a) 1 Only Q167:- Consider the following statements
b) 1 and 3 Only with respect to “Chief Secretary of the
c) 1 and 2 Only State”:-
d) 2 and 3 Only
33
1. He is the head of secretariat at the 3. The number of seats in Puducherry

State level. Assembly has been fixed at 30.
2. He is appointed by the Governor in
Consultation with the Chief Minister Choose the Correct Code:-
of the State. a) 2 and 3 Only
b) 3 Only
Choose the correct code:- c) 1 and 2 Only
a) 1 Only d) None of these
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Q170:- Which of the following
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Statements with respect to “Official
Language” is Incorrect:-
S)
regarding “Inter State Council” :- 1. The State can have any medium of
IA
instruction for interaction but should
SR
1. All questions at a meeting of the be accompanied with English
council are decided by the translation.
2. The High Court can use Hindi as a
consensus.
2. Though it is constituted by the ty language for judgment also along
ul
President, the procedure to be with the Proceedings of the Court.
ac
followed in the meeting is decided

Choose the correct Code:-
(F
by the Chairman of the Interstate

council. a) 1 Only
r
3. The president issued the Interstate b) 2 Only

ma
council order 1990 for the setting of c) Both 1 and 2

Interstate council for the first time. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ku
Choose the Correct Code:- Q171:- Who among the following cannot
h
a) 1 and 3 Only sought for “Constitutional safeguards

ab
b) 1 and 2 Only under Article 311”:-

ur
c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All of these 1. Member of civil service of the
Sa
Union.
2. Member of All India service.
Q169: Which of the following Statements
3. Member of Civil service of the state.
is/are with respect to administration of
4. Person holding civil post under
Union Territories?
Union or states.
1. Union Territory of Jammu and
Kashmir has the same power of Choose the Correct Code:-
legislation on State List and a) 1 and 3 Only
Concurrent List as Delhi has. b) 1, 3 and 4 Only
2. Lt. Governor can issue Ordinance c) None of these
only when assembly is suspended or d) All of these
dissolved.
34
Q172:- Consider the following 2. The expense of the tribunal is

Statements with respect to “Tribunals”:- charged on Consolidated Fund of
India.
1. Appointment of CAT Members are 3. The Government sent any matter to
made after Concurrence with Chief tribunal regarding declaration of
Justice of India. individual as terrorist.
2. National Green Tribunal has power
of Granting Imprisonment for 3 Choose the Correct Code:-
years along with imposition of Fine a) 1 Only
up to 10 Crores or more. b) 1 and 2 Only
3. Members of Tribunal are eligible for c) 2 and 3 Only
reappointment. d) All of these
S)
Choose the Correct Code:- Q175:- Consider the following statements
IA
a) 1 and 3 Only with respect to Family Court :-
SR
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 2 Only 1. The judges are appointed by the
d) All of these
ty Governor in consultation with the
High court of the state.
ul
Q173:- Consider the following 2. It is mandatory for the State
ac
statements with respect to “National Government to constitute Family

(F
Green Tribunal” :- court if the population of the town

exceeds 1 million.
r
1. NGT has power to review its own

ma
judgement. Choose the Correct Code:-

2. NGT can provide for imprisonment a) 1 Only
Ku
for maximum of 3 years and fine b) 2 Only

too. c) Both 1 and 2
h
3. The tribunal can have a maximum of d) Neither 1 nor 2

ab
20 judicial members and minimum

ur
of 10 expert members. Q176:- Which of the following Statements

are incorrect:-
Sa

a) 1 and 2 Only 1. Delimitation is a mandate of the
b) 2 and 3 Only Constitution while readjustment
c) 1 and 3 Only after each Census is not the mandate
d) All of these of the Constitution.
2. Readjustment can be carried out
Q174:- Consider the following statements during the duration of life of the Lok
with respect to “UAPA Tribunal” :- Sabha.
3. P o w e r f o r e n f o r c e m e n t o f
1. It must be headed by a High court D e l i m i t a t i o n o f Te r r i t o r i a l
judge. Constituencies rests with Parliament.
35
a) 1 and 3 Only Q179:- Consider the following statements

b) 1 and 2 Only w i t h re s p e c t t o “ e x p e n d i t u re i n
c) 2 and 3 Only Election”:-
d) 3 Only
1. In case of a state Legislative
Q177:- Consider the following Statements assembly election, entire
with respect to “Election machineries”:- expenditure is incurred by the State
Government.
1. Chief Electoral officer is the head of 2. T h e e x p e n d i t u r e o n c a p i t a l
election machinery at the State level equipment is shared equally between
for State Assembly elections only. Centre and States.
2. Candidates take oath after filing
S)
nomination before Assistant Choose the Correct Code:-
Returning officer if Returning a) 1 Only
IA
officer is absent. b) 2 Only
SR
3. No polling station in general should c) Both 1 and 2
have to deal with more than d) Neither 1 nor 2
1500-2000 voters.
ty Q180:- Which of the following is Correct
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- in relation to 15th Finance Commission:-
ac
a) 1 and 3 Only
(F
b) 2 Only 1. It is for the first time that Grants in

c) 2 and 3 Only aid has been provided for the Local
r
d) 1 and 2 Only Bodies.

ma
2. It has recommended for Sector

Q178:- Consider the following specific Grants which was stopped
Ku
Statements with respect to “Electronic by 14th Finance Commission.

Voting Machine”:- 3. T h e C o m m i s s i o n h a s a l s o
h
recommended Special Grants to

ab
1. It was first introduced in Kerala in three States.

ur
1978.
2. It can field a maximum of 64 Choose the Correct Code:-
Sa
Candidates. a) 1 and 2 Only

3. It has been synchronised with b) 2 and 3 Only
VVPAT in 2013 in Nagaland c) 1 and 3 Only
Assembly Elections. d) All of these

Q181:- Consider the following
a) 1 and 3 Only
Statements with respect to “Finance
b) 2 and 3 Only
Commission”:-
c) 1 and 2 Only
d) 3 Only 1. The State Finance Commission has
been granted Constitutional status
as per the 74th Amendment for the
first Time.
36
2. The members of the Finance 3. It recommends for grant of Minority

Commission are eligible for Status to Educational Institutions.
reappointment.
3. Union Finance Commission can be Choose the Correct Code:-
constituted before the term of 5 a) 1 and 2 Only
years. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
Choose the Correct Code:- d) 3 Only
a) 1 and 3 Only
b) 2 and 3 Only Q184:- Consider the following Statement
c) 1 and 2 Only with respect to “National Human Right
d) 2 Only Commission”:-
S)
1. The Chief Commissioner of persons
IA
Q182:- Consider the following Statement
with Disabilities is the ex officio
with respect to the “National
SR
Commission for Scheduled Caste”:- Member of NHRC.
2. The salaries and service Conditions
1. The President by Notification ty of the members are determined by

Parliament.
ul
declares any Community as 3. The serving judicial members of
ac
Scheduled Caste. NHRC are appointed only after the

2. His decision can be modified by the
(F
consultation with CJI.

Central Government.
r
3. The Commission can submit a Choose the Correct Code:-

ma
report anytime within a Year. a) 1 and 3 Only

4. The Commission presents its reports b) 2 and 3 Only
Ku
to the President or Governor of c) 3 Only

State Concerned. d) All of these
h
ab
Choose the Correct Code:- Q185:- Consider the following Statement

a) 1, 2 and 4 Only with respect to “Public Services”. Which
ur
b) 2, 3 and 4 Only one of the following is Correct:-

Sa
c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
d) 1 and 3 Only 1. Rules and regulations regarding
Service Conditions of Public
Q183:- Which of the following is Servants can be notified by the
incorrect with respect to “National President and Governor.
Commission for Minorities”:- 2. “Reasonable opportunity” of being
heard is not available to Public
Servants in case of criminal charges.
1. It consists of a Chairperson, Vice
Chairperson and 5 members.
2. All the members shall be from
a) 1 Only
Minority Community.
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
37
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. T h e m e m b e r s o f N a g a l a n d
Legislative Assembly from this area
Q186:- Consider the following statements are elected by Regional council only.
with respect to “National Emergency”:-
1. The 44th Amendment Act provides a) 1 Only
that emergency can be declared only b) 2 Only
on the recommendation of the c) Both 1 and 2
cabinet. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. If Lok Sabha is not in session, notice
for revocation of emergency is
Q189:- Which one of the following is/are
served to the President.
correct with respect to administration of
S)
3. The Parliament can modify the
“Tribal areas under 6th Schedule”:-
transfer of Finance from Centre to
IA
the State.
SR
1. The district Council can have their
Choose the Correct Code:- own court to hear the appeals from
a) 2 Only
b) 3 Only ty the tribes.
2. Governor can dissolve a district and
ul
c) 1 and 2 Only regional Council on the basis of a
ac
d) 1 Only report of the Commission

(F
Constituted to examine the

Q187:- Which of the following is invalid administration of these areas.
r
during “President Rule”:- 3. The entire State of Meghalaya

ma
comes under Autonomous District

1. The President can dissolve the State Council.
Ku
Legislative Assembly on the aid and

advice of Council of Ministers. Choose the Correct Code:-
h
2. The President can provide power to

ab
a) 1 and 2 only
the Chief Secretary for State
b) 2 and 3 only
ur
Administration.
c) All of the above
Sa
d) None of these
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
Statements with respect to “Anti
c) Both 1 and 2
Defection” is correct:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Judicial review is not available at a

stage prior to the making of a
with respect to administration of
decision by the Speaker/Chairman.
“Regional council in Nagaland”:-
2. The Court can review the Speaker's
decision based on violation of
1. The composition of the Regional
council is entirely decided by the constitutional mandate Only.
Governor.
38

a) 1 Only 1. The term of Mayor is not fixed in
b) 2 Only India.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Mayor is directly elected in some of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 the states in India.
3. A Mayor is the legislative and
Q191:- Consider the following statements executive head of Municipal
with respect to “Anti Defection Law”:- Corporation.
1. The resignation from the party Choose the correct code:-

simply means voluntarily giving up a) 1 and 2 Only
membership, this calls for b) 1 and 3 Only
S)
disqualification. c) 1 Only
2. If the member has taken prior d) None of these
IA
permission, or is condoned by the
SR
party within 15 days from such Q194:- Which of the following is the
voting or abstention, the member correct explanation of the meaning of
shall not be disqualified.
ty “Local authority”:-
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. The authority must have a separate
ac
a) 1 Only legal existence.

(F
b) 2 Only 2. It must function in a defined area.

c) Both 1 and 2 3. It must be entrusted by the Statute as
r
d) Neither 1 nor 2 are usually entrusted to Municipal

ma
Bodies.
Q192:- Which of the Following is Correct
Ku
w i t h re s p e c t t o “ R e s e r v a t i o n i n Choose the Correct Code:-

Panchayats”:- a) 1 and 2 Only
h
b) 1 and 3 Only
ab
1. Reservation for Women does not c) 2 and 3 Only

ur
mean merely for General Category d) All of these

but also for Women from SC/ST.
Sa
2. Reservation is restricted not only to Q195:- Consider the following statement

ordinary members in the Panchayats with respect to “Urban Governance”:-
but also extends to the Position of
Chairperson at all the three levels. 1. The 74th Constitutional amendment
does apply to Union Territory only
Choose the Correct Code:- when the President directs so.
a) 1 Only 2. District planning committee shall
b) 2 Only consult such institutions as the
c) Both 1 and 2 Governor specify for drafting
d) Neither 1 nor 2 developmental plans.
Q193:- Consider the following statements Choose the Correct Code:-

with respect to “Municipal Authorities”:- a) 1 Only
39
b) 2 Only Q199:- Consider the following statements

c) Both 1 and 2 with respect to the meaning of “law
d) Neither 1 nor 2 under Article 13 of the Constitution”:-
Q196:- Which of the following Statements 1. Constitutional amendment is not a

is correct with respect to Lokpal:- law and thus can’t be challenged.
2. Non legislative source of law can
1. Lokpal cannot initiate Suo-moto also be challenged in the court.
proceedings against any public
servant. Choose the correct code:-
2. It will also provide Legal assistance a) 1 Only
to the Public Servant against whom b) 2 Only
S)
Complaint is filed. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
IA
SR
a) 1 Only Q200:-Which of the following best
b) 2 Only describes the role of Returning officer:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 ty a) He is the person responsible for
ul
preparation of electoral roll in the
ac
Q197:- Consider the Following Constituency.

(F
Statements with respect to “National b) He is the person who assists Chief

Investigation Agency”:- electoral officer while determining
r
star campaigner.
ma
1. It is headed by DG Rank Officer. c) He is the person responsible for

2. It can investigate cases related to timely start and end of voting in a
Ku
UAPA and Atomic Energy act. polling booth.

3. Session Court will act as Special d) He administers the oath of candidate
h
NIA Court for trial. after filling of nomination.

ab
ur
Choose the Incorrect Code:-

a) 1 and 2 Only
Sa
b) 2 and 3 Only
c) All of these Questions Related to Governance
d) None of these
Q198:- Who is the Chairperson of Delhi Q1:- Consider the following Statements
Disaster Management Authority:- with respect to “Committee against
a) Lt Governor Torture” (CAT)
b) Chief Minister
c) Home Minister 1. It is a body of human rights experts
d) Secretary of Delhi that monitors implementation of the
Convention by State parties.
2. The Committee is one of the UN-
linked human rights treaty bodies.
40
Choose the Correct Code:- Q4:- Consider the following statements

a) 1 Only with respect to “Export Credit Guarantee
b) 2 Only Corporation of India”:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It is a non-profit company registered
under companies Act 2013.
Q2:- Consider the following statements 2. It functions under the administration
regarding “Data Security Council of of the Ministry of Finance.
India”:- 3. The corporation provides credit
insurance to banks on account of
1. It has been established by CERT in export credit to exporters.
collaboration with business
S)
conglomerates. Choose the correct code:-
2. It endeavours to increase India’s a) 1 and 3 Only
IA
share in the global security product b) 2 and 3 Only
SR
and services market through global c) 3 Only
trade development initiatives. d) None of these
Choose the Correct Code:- ty Q5:- Consider the following statement

ul
a) 1 Only regarding the “Higher Education
ac
b) 2 Only Financing Agency”(HEFA):-

(F
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. HEFA is a non-profit, Non-Banking
r
Financing Company for mobilising

ma
Q3:- Which of the following statements is extra-budgetary resources for

correct with respect to “Competition building crucial infrastructure in the
Ku
Commission of India”:- higher educational institutions.

2. The HEFA is jointly promoted by
h
1. This is a statutory body under the the identified Promoter and the
ab
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Ministry of Human Resource

ur
2. The commission being a quasi Development (MHRD)

judicial body, and thus the chairman
Sa
must be retired or serving as a judge Choose the Correct Code:-

of the High Court. a) 1 Only
3. CCI lacks power for imposing b) 2 Only
penalties. c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) 1 and 3 Only Q6:- Consider the following statements
b) 2 and 3 Only regarding Advertising Standards Council
c) 3 Only of India (ASCI):-
d) None of these
1. ASCI, established in 1985, a
statutory body under the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting.
41
2. ASCI is committed to the cause of b) 2 and 3 Only

self- regulation in advertising c) 1 and 3 Only
ensuring the protection of the d) All of these
interest of consumers.
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to Internet and mobile
a) 1 Only association of India is correct:-
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. It is a company registered under
d) Neither 1 nor 2 companies act 2013.
2. It is a joint collaboration of the
Q7:- Consider the following statements Government and Industry
S)
with respect to “Central Consumer association.
Protection Authority”:- 3. The recent report indicates that the
IA
number of internet users has been
SR
1. It will have a Chief Commissioner more in Rural areas as compared to
as head, and only two other urban areas.
commissioners as members.
2. It has the power to provide ty Choose the Correct Code:-
ul
punishment for subsequent offences a) 1 and 3 Only
ac
committed by the endorser of the b) 2 and 3 Only

(F
product. c) 3 Only
d) 2 Only
r

ma
a) 1 Only Q10:- Consider the following Statements

b) 2 Only with respect to “ National Health
Ku
c) Both 1 and 2 Authority”:-

d) Neither 1 nor 2
h
1. It is governed by a Governing Board

ab
Q8:- Consider the following statements chaired by the Union Minister for
ur
with respect to “National Health System Health and Family Welfare.

Resource Centre”:- 2. It has been set up as a statutory body
Sa
under the Ministry of health and

1. It is designated as a WHO family welfare.
collaborating centre for priority
medical devices and health Choose the Correct Code:-
Technology policy. a) 1 Only
2. The Governing body is chaired by b) 2 Only
secretary Ministry of Health and c) Both 1 and 2
family welfare. d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It was set up under the National
Health Mission. Q11:- Which of the following statements
is correct with respect to “Right to
Choose the correct code:- Information Act”:-
a) 1 and 2 Only
42
1. The authorities under RTI are Quasi- on written Request or Request by

Judicial Authorities. Electronic means only.
2. The Second appellate authority in 3. The definition of Public Authority
case of appeal is Chief PIO. would include any NGO
3. NGOs whose 50% financial needs Substantially financed by
are met by the Government will be Government (Directly or indirectly
considered as Public Authority. or both).
4. The information sought under
PMNRF can’t be rejected while in Choose the Correct Code:-
case of PMCARES, it can be a) 1 and 2 Only
rejected by PIO. b) 2 and 3 Only
c) 1 and 3 Only
S)
a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
IA
b) 1 Only Q14:- Which of the following is Correct
SR
c) 2, 3 and 4 Only with respect to AFSPA:-
d) 1 and 4 Only
Q12:- Which of the following statements ty 1. The Governor of the State Can
ul
declare any area as Disturbed Area
is correct with respect to “Essential
ac
under AFSPA.
commodities Act”:-
2. It Gives Power to the Army, State
(F
1. The centre cannot give executive

Police Force and Central Police
directions to the State on the matters
Forces to shoot to kill.
r
listed in Essential commodities Act.

ma
3. AFSPA has been declared in the

2. Only the Central Government can
entire State of Nagaland.
add products as essential items, but
Ku
items can be removed by both the Choose the Correct Code:-

central and state government. a) 1 and 3 Only
h
b) 2 and 3 Only
ab
Choose the correct code:- c) 1 and 2 Only

ur
d) All of these
a) 1 Only
Sa
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
is incorrect with respect to “RPA 1951”:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Representation of People’s Act
1951 provides for vacancy of seat in
with respect to “Right to Information
Parliament if one is elected to State
Act”:-
Legislature also.
2. P r o h i b i t i o n o f S i m u l t a n e o u s
1. The Act recognises Suo-moto
Membership Rules prescribe a
Declaration of the information by
period of 14 days for making a
the Public Authority.
choice of the House if one is elected
2. Every Public authority is under
to both State Legislature and
Obligation to provide Information
Parliament.
43

Choose the Correct Code:- with regard to “District Mineral
a) 1 Only Foundation Trust”:-
b) 2 Only 1. Its manner of operation comes under
c) Both 1 and 2 the jurisdiction of the relevant State
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Government.
2. The funds of DMF Trust is expected
Q16:-Consider the following statements to implement Pradhan Mantri Khanij
with respect to “Forest Rights Act 2006”:- Kalyan Yojana.
3. The rate of contribution to DMF is
1. The Act also provides for diversion 30% of the royalty of mining leases.
of forest land for public utility
S)
facilities. Choose the Correct Code:-
a) 1 Only
IA
2. Ownership is only for land that is b) 1 and 2 Only
SR
actually being cultivated by the c) 1 and 3 Only
concerned family and no new lands d) All of these
will be granted.
ty Q19:- Consider the following statements
ul
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to “Permanent Lok
ac
a) 1 Only Adalat”:-
(F
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Permanent Lok Adalat have been set
r
d) Neither 1 nor 2 up as permanent bodies with a

ma
Chairman and two members for

Q17:- Consider the following Statements providing compulsory pre-litigative
Ku
with respect to Power of “National mechanism for conciliation .

Commission for protection of child 2. The jurisdiction of the Permanent
h
Rights” under Right to education Act:- Lok Adalat is up to Rs. One Crore.
ab
ur
1. It can summon an individual and Choose the Correct Code:-

demand evidence in case of a) 1 Only
Sa
Violation of law. b) 2 Only

2. It can file a writ petition in the High c) Both 1 and 2
Court or Supreme Court both in case d) Neither 1 nor 2
of any matter related to RTE Act.
Choose the Correct Code:- with respect to the “NGT Power of using
a) 1 Only different principles” while deciding
b) 2 Only environmental cases:-
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. For the first time, Polluter pays
principle was introduced in Solid
Waste Management Rules 2016.
44
2. Strict liability allows exceptions to b) 2 and 3 only

the industry, if the liability has been c) 3 only
accrued by an Act of God. d) None of these
3. A b s o l u t e l i a b i l i t y o ff e r s n o
exception to industries involved in Q23:- To boost the domestic defence,
hazardous activities. “Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme”
has been launched, Which of the
Choose the Correct code:- following statements is incorrect in this
a) 1 and 3 Only regard:-
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only 1. The government and Private sector
d) None of these will invest in the scheme in the ratio
S)
of 50 :50.
Q21:- Consider the following statements 2. In case of any shortage of the fund,
IA
with respect to “One Nation One Ration it will be supported by the Special
SR
Card” Scheme:- purpose vehicle.
1. Beneficiaries will be tied to any PDS

Shop of the State. ty Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 Only
ul
2. It will issue 12 digit Standard Ration b) 2 Only
ac
Card number in the name of the c) Both 1 and 2

(F
elder member of the family. d) Neither 1 nor 2

r
Choose the Correct Code:- Q24:- Which of the following comes

ma
a) 1 Only under the definition of “Public

b) 2 Only Authority”:-
Ku
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Any authority constituted by the
h
Constitution.
ab
Q22:- Consider the following Statements 2. Any authority controlled by the

ur
with respect to “Inter State Migration Government.

(Regulation of Employment and 3. Regulators such as SEBI, RBI
Sa
conditions of service) Act:-

1. I t i s a p p l i c a b l e o n a l l t h e a) 1 and 2 Only
establishments having 10 or more b) 1 Only
migrant workers. c) 1 and 3 Only
2. The exemption has been provided to d) All of these
the Cantonment Board and ports.
3. It provides for license to the Q25:-Which of the following comes under
employers involved in the the definition of Minor Forest produce
recruitment of the migrant workers. under “Forest Right Act 2006”:-
Choose the Correct Code:- 1. Bamboo

a) 1 and 3 only 2. Cane
45
3. Brushwood
4. Stumps Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Choose the correct code:- b) 2 and 3 Only
a) 1 and 4 Only c) 2 Only
b) 1, 2 and 3 Only d) None of these
c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
d) All of these Q29:- WHO is the authority to decide the
name of any disease. Consider the
Q26:- Which is the “Nodal agency” that following statements in this regard:-
gives permission to any foreigner to
participate in any international event:- 1. The name is decided in consultation
S)
with World Organization for Animal
a) Ministry of External Affairs Health (OIE) and the Food and
IA
b) Ministry of Home Affairs Agriculture Organization of the
SR
c) PMO United Nations (FAO).
d) Indian Consulate of the departure 2. The main aim behind naming any
country
ty disease is to avoid any offence to
cultural and ethnic groups.
ul
Q27:- Consider the following Statements 3. The disease can be named on
ac
with respect to “ Public Safety Act”:- geographical location and name of

(F
the person who identified the

1. It allows for detention without trial disease.
r
for 2 years.
ma
2. The only remedy for the detente is to Choose the correct code:-
file a Habeas Corpus before SC only. a) 1 and 3 only
Ku
b) 1 and 2 only
Choose the correct code:- c) 3 only
h
a) 1 Only d) All of these

ab
b) 2 Only
ur
c) Both 1 and 2 Q30:- Consider the following statement

d) Neither 1 nor 2 with regard to “National Knowledge
Sa
Network”:-
with respect to “Disaster Management 1. It was established in 2010 and
Act”:- attached office under MeitY.
2. It is the only network globally that
1. The legal basis for the disaster carries Research and evaluation and
management is Concurrent List. Internet and e-governance traffic
2. It provides for National executive under one umbrella.
committee to be headed by Cabinet 3. It is implemented by NIC.
secretary.
3. The National Disaster management Which of the following is Incorrect:-
authority consists of Chairperson a) 1 and 3 only
and not more than 10 members. b) 2 only
46
c) 1 only Q33:- Which of the following falls under

d) 2 and 3 Only the definition of Foreign Source
according to the “Foreign Control
Q31:- Consider the following statements Regulation Act”:-
with respect to “Bharat Net Project”:-
1. Foreign Government
1. Bharat Broadband Network Ltd 2. Trade Union
(BBNL), under the telecom ministry 3. Foreign Universities
is handling the roll out of optical 4. Citizens of Foreign Country
fibre network under Bharat Net
project. Choose the correct code:-
2. The project is being executed by a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
S)
BSNL, RailTel and Power Grid. b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
3. The project is in the fourth stage of c) 1, 3 and 4 Only
IA
its implementation. d) All of these
SR
Choose the correct code:- Q34:- "Poverty and share prosperity"
a) 1 and 3 ty report is released by World bank.

Consider the following statements
ul
b) 1 and 2 associated with the report:-
ac
c) 2 only
d) All of these
(F
1. It is released annually at the joint

meeting of World Bank and IMF.
r
2. The CoVID year will be marked by

ma
with respect to “Arbitration and the more urban poor compared to

Conciliation Act 2021”:- rural poor.
Ku
3. As per the report, this is for the first

1. This is the third amendment to the time in last 20 years, global poverty
h
Arbitration and conciliation act will increase.

ab
1996.
2. According to the amendment in
ur

2021,Parties are free to appoint a) 3 Only
Sa
arbitrators regardless of their b) 1 and 2 Only

qualifications. c) 2 and 3 Only
3. An amendment has been done on the d) All of these
lines of The United Nations
Commission on International Trade Q35:- Consider the following statements:-
Law .
1. Start-up seed fund, announced in
Choose the correct code:- budget 2020 with a corpus fund of
a) 1 and 3 Only 500 crore.
b) 2 and 3 Only 2. There is a steady increase in unicorn
c) 1 and 2 Only club since the start of Start-up India
d) All of these program.
47

a) 1 Only 1. The Indian Society of Advertisers.
b) 2 Only 2. The Indian Broadcasting Foundation
c) Both 1 and 2 3. The Advertising Council of India.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. The Bureau of Indian Standards
Q36:- Which of the following best Choose the correct code:-

summarises the concept of “ Learning a) 1 and 3 Only
adjusted year of schooling:- b) 3 and 4 Only
c) 2 and 4 Only
a) It is the sum of year of schooling d) None of these
and kids learning outcomes.
S)
b) It is the automatic promotion of the Q39:- Which of the following provides
kid based on his learning outcomes. power to the Government to suspend
IA
c) It is a metric to arrange students as Internet services?
SR
per their learning in the appropriate
classes. 1. IPC
d) I t i s a c o n t i n u o u s a n d
comprehensive analysis of the ty 2.
3.
CrPC
Telegraph Act
ul
students in the line with No 4. Informational Technology act, 2000
ac
Detention Policy.
(F

Q37:- Consider the following statements a) 1,3 and 4 Only
r
with respect to “Strengthening Teaching- b) 2, 3 and 4 Only

ma
Learning and Results for States c) 3 and 4 Only

Program”:- d) All of these
Ku
1. It will be implemented as centrally Q40:- Which of the following is

h
sponsored scheme. prerequisite with respect to “Procedure

ab
2. The scheme has been assisted by the for Clinical Trials in India”:-
ur
World Bank.
3. The focus of the scheme is to reap 1. P e r m i s s i o n f r o m t h e D r u g s
Sa
the benefits of demographic Controller General, India (DCGI).

dividend by focussing on secondary 2. Approval from respective Ethics
education. Committee where the study is
planned.
Choose the correct code:- 3. M a n d a t o r y r e g i s t r a t i o n o n
a) 1 and 3 Only the Ministry of health and Family
b) 1 and 2 Only welfare.
c) 1 Only
d) None of these Choose the correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only
Q38:- Who among the following is not b) 2 and 3 Only
represented in “Broadcast Audience c) 1 and 2 Only
Research Council”:- d) All of these
48

Q41:- Consider the following statements a) 1 Only
with respect to Mines and Minerals b) 2 Only
(Development and Regulation) amended c) Both 1 and 2
Act 2020 :- d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. License for coal mining to the Q44:- “Annual Democracy Report” is

companies in schedule II can be Published by:-
given only for end uses.
2. Companies need not possess any a) Varieties of Democracy Institute
prior coal mining experience for b) Oxford University in collaboration
exploration in India. with Cornell.
S)
3. A separate licenses are provided for c) PeW Research centre.
prospecting and mining of coal and d) Alternative Democracy NGO
IA
lignite, called prospecting license,
SR
and mining lease, respectively. Q45:- Consider the following statements
with respect to “Corruption Perception
Choose a correct code:-
a) 1 and 3 Only ty Index”:-
ul
b) 2 Only 1. It ranks the countries on the scale of
ac
c) 2 and 3 Only 0 to 100, 0 being most corrupt.

(F
d) None of these 2. India’s position has improved this

time after a gap of 5 years.
r
Q42:- Which of the following State is

ma
excluded from the Citizenship Choose the correct code:-

Amendment Act:- a) 1 Only
Ku
1. Assam b) 2 Only
2. Meghalaya c) Both 1 and 2
h
3. Tripura d) Neither 1 nor 2

ab
4. Mizoram
ur
Q46:- “The Human Freedom Index” is

Choose the Correct code:- released by:-
Sa
a) 1 2, and 4 Only
b) 2 and 4 Only a) World Economic Forum
c) 2 Only b) American and Canadian Think Tank
d) All of these c) The United Nations Commission on
International Religious Freedom
Q43:- Consider the following statements d) Australian Institute of Business
with respect to “Press Freedom Index”:-
1. The India’s ranking is steadily with respect to “Human Development
decreasing for the last 5 years. index”:-
2. There are Four different parameters
of ranking the country in this index. 1. For the first time, the index is going
to reflect the impact caused by each
49
c o u n t r y ’s p e r - c a p i t a c a r b o n 3. Biometric information means all the

emissions. five fingers of either hand along
2. India’s ranking has dropped to 7 with iris should be captured by
position this year compared to 2020. UIDAI.
4. Ration card can be linked to Aadhar
Choose the correct code:- through online and offline
a) 1 Only mechanism both.
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2 Choose the Correct Code:-
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
b) 1, 3 and 4 Only
Q48:- Consider the following Statements c) 2 and 4 Only
S)
with respect to “International Vaccine d) All of these
Access centre”:-
IA
SR
1. It is an administrative and executive
arm of WHO that focuses on
increasing access of vaccines.
2. It releases an annual Pneumonia and ty
ul
Diarrhoea Progress Report.
ac
(F
Choose the Correct code:-

a) 1 Only
r
b) 2 Only
ma
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ku
Q49:- Global Nutrition Report is released

h
by:-
ab
ur
a) World Health Organisation

b) Food and Research Organisation
Sa
c) International Food Policy Research

Institute
d) World Bank and UNICEF

with respect to "Aadhar":-
1. Aadhar seeding means linking 12

digit Aadhar number with benefit
cards like Pension and scholarship.
2. Aadhar enabled service is a service
provided by an authentication user
agency.
50

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FOR ALL CURRENT UPDATES RELATED TO POLITY AND GOVERNANCE, PLEASE FOLLOW SAURABH SIR TELEGRAM CHANNEL “SAURABH

and model code of conduct is in 2. Gram Sabha

operation. 3. Gram Nyayalayas

c) A govt. that rules within the limits given below:

d) A govt. that has lost the majority in b) 2 only

completion of its tenure. d) 2 and 3 only

1. Democracy leads to instability. 1. It is suitable only for the countries that

Q.7) Which of the following electoral a) 1 only

1. The elections are conducted by an ty incorrect:-

by the president of India. c) 1 and 3 only

2. One third of the seats are reserved for d) 1, 2 and 3

25 years. with reference to the Presidential form of

Select the correct answer using the codes

a) 1 and 2 only and the head of the government.

b) 3 only 2. The President appoints the council of

c) 1 and 3 only ministers on the advice of the prime

3. The President can veto any law made by

2. The Prime minister can be a member Indian secularism.

from any of the houses of Parliament.

the Lok Sabha only. propagate a particular religion without any

given below: its religious affairs.

a) 1 only 3. It follows a principled and equal distance

b) Directive principles of state policy 1. It helps accommodate regional diversity.

d) 1, 2 and 3 implementation in the government.

instance of an exercise of a fundamental merits of local self-government:-

right? a) 1 and 2 only

1. An Indian from one state may travel c) 1 and 3 only

may settle in part.

3. A citizen of India who is accused of any statements:-

c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

1. The percentage of elected women Q.26) With reference to Pressure groups,

d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?

which among the following religions has c) 1 and 2 only

the least share in total population of d) 2 and 3 only

Q.27) With reference to the political

d) Sikhs 1. The Constitution has laid down detailed

Q.25) A democratic govt. is the one in recognised party.

equality and it guarantees economic c) 1 and 3 only

the rates of economic growth in dictatorial correctly matched:-

correct? 1. Save Democracy CPI

a) 1 only 2. Garibi Hatao Congress Party

b) 2 only 3. Land to the tiller. Janata Party

d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the codes

d) Administrative inefficiencies and d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q.35) Choose the appropriate code to statements is correct about democracy:-

match List 1 and List 2

List 1 List 2 democracy, social divisions get reflected in

2. Democracy is the best way to

Power shared among A. accommodate social diversity.

3. In a democracy, it is impossible to create

Power shared among B. Separa?on communities.

1. Judges of the Supreme Court can be

2. It can transfer any case from one High

Court to another. Select the correct answer using the codes

Which of the statements given above is/are b) 2 only

a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2

c) 1 and 3 only Q.42) Which of the following is not an

d) 1, 2 and 3 essential feature of ‘federalism’:-