HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

PASCAL’S LAW

“If a force is applied to a liquid in a confined space, then

force will be felt equally in all directions”.

BRAMAH’S PRESS

a. The smaller the area under load, the greater the

pressure generated
b. The larger the area under pressure, the greater
will be the load available

The ideal properties of a hydraulic fluid are:

a. Be relatively incompressible, i.e. up to 27.6 MN/m2(276 Bar), so ensuring instantaneous

operation.
b. Have good lubricating properties for metal and rubber
c. Have good viscosity with a high boiling point (helps prevent vapour locking and cavitation)
and low freezing point e.g. temperature range +80oC to -70oC.
d. Have a flash point above 1000 C
e. Be non-flammable
f. Be chemically inert
g. Be resistant to evaporation
h. Have freedom from sludging and foaming
i. Have good storage properties

BASIC SYSTEM

There are six main components to oil hydraulic systems:

A reservoir of oil, which delivers oil to the pump and receives

oil from the actuators
A pump either hand, engine or electrically driven.
A selector or control valve, enabling the operator to select
the direction of the flow of fluid to the
required service and providing a return
path for the oil to the reservoir
A jack or set of jacks or actuators, to
actuate the component
A filter, to keep the fluid clean
A relief valve as a safety device to
relieve excess pressure.

OPEN-CENTRE SYSTEM
 The main advantage of this system is that it is simple, the main disadvantage is that only one
service can be operated at a time
The relief valve will relieve excess pressure if the selector does not return to its neutral
position.
This type of system is popular in many light aircraft which do not require a constant pressure
to be maintained all the time as only items like landing gear and flaps will be powered for
short periods of time each flight

CLOSED CENTER SYSTEM

With this type of system, operating pressure is maintained in

that part of the system which leads to the selector valves, and
some method is used to prevent over-loading the pump. In
systems which employ a fixed volume pump (constant
delivery) an automatic cut-out valve is fitted to divert pump
output to the reservoir when pressure has built up to normal
operating pressure.

1. EMERGENCY SUPPLY IS TAKE FROM THE

BOTTOM OF THE RESERVOIR
2. STACK PIPE EVEN IF THE LEVEL DROPS BELOW
MIN LEVEL STACK PIPE KEEPS ITS OWN RESERVE
3. FINS AND BAFFIES – TO PREVENT SWIRLING AND
SURGING OF FLUIDS IN A TURNING FLIGHT
4. DE-AERATOR TRAY- REMOVES ANY DISSOLVED
GASES FROM THE RETURNING FLUID
5. WORKING FLUID LEVEL IS LOWER THAN FLUID
LEVEL WITH SYSTEM SWITCHED OFF
6. VENT PREVENTS CREATION OF PARTIAL VACUME
IN THE TANK

RESERVOIRS

A reservoir provides both storage space for the system fluid, and sufficient air space to allow for any
variation of fluid in the system which may be caused by:

Jack (actuator) ram displacement, since the capacity of the jack is less when contracted than
extended.
Thermal expansion, since the volume of oil increases with temperature.
It provides a head of fluid for the pump
It compensates for small leaks
Most reservoirs are pressurised, to provide a positive fluid pressure at the pump inlet and to
prevent air bubbles from forming in the fluid at high altitude.
Air pressure is normally supplied from the compressor section of the engine, or the cabin
pressurisation system.
PUMPS

Draw oil from the reservoir and deliver a supply of fluid to

the system. Pumps may be:

a. Hand operated
b. Engine driven
c. Electric motor driven
d. Pneumatically (Air Turbine Motor) (ATM)
e. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)
f. Hydraulically (Hyd. Motor Driving a Hyd. Pump) known
as a Power Transfer Unit or PTD. In most cases the ATM,
RAT or PTU is used to provide an alternate supply as
part of the redundancy provision for the sage
operation of the aircraft.

Engine driven pumps (EDP) or electrically driven pumps may be

classified as follows:

1- CONSTANT DELIVERY (FIXED VOLUME) TYPE PUMP

This pump supplies fluid at a constant rate and therefore needs an automatic cup-out or relief
valve to return the fluid to the reservoir when the jacks have reached the end of their travel and
when the system is not operating. It requires an idling circuit.

2- CONSTANT PRESSURE (VARIABLE VOLUME) PUMP – this pump supplies fluid at a variable
volume and controls its own pressure, this type of pump is typically fitted in modern aircraft
whose systems operate at 3,000-4,000 psi. IT IS GOVERNED BY THE CONTROL PISTON

AUTOMATIC CUT OUT VALVES (ACOV)

A automatic cut-out valve (ACOV) is fitted to a system

employing a constant delivery (fixed volume) pump, to
control system pressure and to provide the pump with an idling circuit when no services have been
selected.

An ACCUMULATOR is fitted as part of the power system when a cut out is fitted, since any slight
leakage through components, or from the system, would result in frequent operation of the cut-out,
and frequent loading and unloading of the pump. The accumulator maintains the system pressure
when the pump is in its ‘cut out’ position.

The automatic cut-out valve in its ‘cut in’ position allows the delivery from the pump to pass through
the non-return valve and pressurise the system. When system pressure has been reached the piston
is forced upwards by the pressure acting underneath it and opens the poppet valve allowing the
output of the pump to pass to the reservoir at low pressure. The ACOV is now in its ‘cut out’ position
allowing the pump to be offloaded but still maintaining a lubricating and cooling flow.

The Ram Air Turbine or RAT - is designed to give limited hydraulic power to the primary services in
the event the normal hydraulic power generation systems fails shows the RAT, which consists of a
variable pitch propeller driving a small hydraulic pump via a gearbox.

When not in use, the RAT is held in a bay, which is normally located in the underside of the aircraft,
by main system pressure. When stowed, the RAT’s propeller blades are kept in the feathered
position.

RAT provides services to

1. Flight controls
2. Flaps
3. Spoilers
4. Brakes

HYDRAULIC ACCUMULATORS

An accumulator is fitted:

a. To store hydraulic fluid under pressure

b. To dampen pressure fluctuations
c. To allow for thermal expansion
d. To provide an emergency supply of fluid to
the system in the event of pump failure
e. To prolong the period between cut-out
and cut-in time of the ACOV and so reduce
the wear on the pump
f. Provides the initial fluid when a selection is
made and the pump is cut-out

The gas side of the accumulator is charged to predetermined pressure with air and Nitrogen.

Incorrect pre-charge pressure of the main accumulator can cause the ACOV to cut in and out too
frequently. This may cause rapid fluctuations of system pressure which can be felt and heard as
‘hammering’ in the system. The initial gas charge of the accumulator is greater than the pressure
required to operate any service, and the fluid volume is usually sufficiently large to operate any
service once. Gas is compressed until it equalises the normal system pressure.

HYDRAULIC LOCK

When fluid is trapped between the piston of the jack and a non-return valve, a “hydraulic lock” is
said to be formed. Because the fluid is incompressible and is unable to flow through the system THE
PISTON CANNOT MOVE even if a load is applied to it and is therefore locked.

PRESSURE CONTROL

1. Relief valves: act as safety devices to relieve excess pressure in the system back to reservoir

2. Pressure Maintaining Valve: A pressure maintaining valve, or

priority valve, is basically a relief valve which maintains the
pressure in a primary service at a value suitable for operation of
that service, regardless of secondary service requirements.

3. Flow control valves: The components described in this paragraph

are used to control the flow of fluid to the various services
operated by the hydraulic system used

a. Non-return Valves (or choke) – the most common device

used to control the flow of fluid is the non-return valve,
which permits full flow in one direction, but blocks flow in
the opposite direction. Simple ball-type non-return valves
are included.

b. Restrictor Valves (or choke) – a restrictor valve

may be similar in construction to a non-return
valve, but a restrictor valve is designed to permit
limited flow in one direction and full flow in the
other direction. THIS REGULATED CONTROL IS
NEED IN OPERATION OF LANDING GEAR AND
FLAPS ALLOWING A DELAY IN TIME.

5. Shuttle Valves – these are often used in landing gear and brake systems, to enable on
alternate system to operate the same actuators as the normal system. When normal system
pressure is lost and the alternate system is selected, the shuttle valve moves across because
of the pressure difference, blocking the normal line and allowing the alternate supply to
operate the brakes
 6.

5. Hydraulic fuses – which sense increased flow rate are fitted upstream of components that could
be a potential source of an external leak. Under normal conditions, the piston is held against its
stops by a combination of fluid pressure and spring force.

If a leak occurs downstream of the fuse, a pressure differential occurs across the piston, resulting in
the piston moving across and blocking the flow. While the service downstream of the fuse is lost, the
other services supplied by the system remain serviceable.

1. HYDRAULIC SYSTEM IS ACTIVATED BY EDP OR ELECTRIC PUMP.

2. HYDRAULIC OIL FOR JET ENGINE IS SYNTHETIC OIL (SKYDROL) PRUPLE IN COLOUR
3. HYDRAULIC FUSE PROTECT VOLUME OF FLOW
4. HYDRAULIC PRESSURE – 3000-4000 P.S.I.
5. HYDRAULIC FUSE SENSE RATE OF FLOW AND VOLUME OF FLOW
6. FLOW CONTROL VALVES CONTROLS DIRECTION OF FLOW AND RATE OF FLOW
7. HYDRAULIC MOTOR CONVERTS FLUID PRESSURE TO ROTATORY MOTION
8. SEAL MATERIAL AND FLUID SHOULD ALWAYS BE THE SAME
9. NEOPRENE RUBBER SEAL FOR DEF STAN 91-48 (MINERAL OIL AND RED IN COLOUR)
10. BUTYL SEAL FOR SKYDROL PURPLE IN COLOUR
 PRESSURISATION SYSTEM

CABIN AMBIENT PRESSURE

The external ambient conditions at 8000 ft.

The temperature of the cabin needs to be kept between 18 and 240C

The pressure within the cabin must be maintained at 10.92 psi or higher, which is referred to as
cabin ambient.

An increase in cabin ambient pressure relates to a decrease in cabin altitude and an increase in cabin
altitude relates to a decrease in cabin ambient pressure.

If an aircraft is flying at 40,000 ft. the ambient air pressure around the aircraft is 2.7 psi. The
differential between the two pressures (10.92 – 2.7) is 8.22 psi, giving a pressure of 8.22 pounds per
square inch. This may not seem much, but this pressure differential creates the hoop and axial
loads in the fuselage skins.

MAXIMUM DIFFERENTIAL

The maximum differential, or max diff, as it is also referred to, is determined by the aircraft’s
structural strength.

For air transport aircraft, this is currently considered between 7 to 9 p.s.i.

Of course, in reality, some aircraft exceed this. With new materials and building systems, the max
diff of aircraft will continue to rise. Existing aircraft could have been built with higher max diff using
existing materials but there would have been unacceptable weight penalties.

From the point of view of the cabin structure, the greater the max diff, the higher the aircraft can fly
while maintaining sea level conditions in the cabin.

For example, if one aircraft has a max diff of 6.4 psi and another a max diff of 8.6 psi, the first aircraft
would be able to fly at a maximum of 15 000 ft and maintain sea level conditions, whereas the
second aircraft would be able to maintain sea level cabin pressure at a maximum of 22 500 ft.

NEGATIVE DIFFERENTIAL

Pressurised aircraft are designed to act as pressure containers, withstanding a higher internal
pressure than that of the surrounding atmosphere. They are not designed to withstand higher
atmospheric ambient conditions than cabin ambient. If these conditions develop and are allowed
to increase, there is a real danger of structural damage due to the crushing effect of the pressure
differential.

SAFETY

To protect the aircraft from structural damage due to excessive LP caused by the failure of the
normal pressure control system, two outward pressure relief valves termed safety valves and two
inward pressure relief valves, termed inward relief valves are fitted.

SYSTEM CONTROL

Cabin pressurisation is controlled by having a constant mass flow of air entering the cabin and then
varying the rate of which it is discharged to atmosphere. The constant mass flow of air is supplied by
the air-conditioning system via the mass flow controlled and is discharged to atmosphere by the
discharge or outflow valves.

TWO MODES OF OPERATION

The operation of these valves is governed by the pressure controllers when in automatic control and
by the flight crew when in manual.

**Closing the valve reduces the outflow and increases the pressure, opening the valve increases the
outflow valves form a thrust recovery nozzle to regain lost thrust energy form the cabin exhaust air
(DGCA).

a. SAFETY VALVE (out flow relief value) A simple mechanical outwards pressure relief valve
fitted to relieve positive pressure in the cabin when the maximum pressure differential
allowed for the aircraft type is exceeded i.e. prevents the structural max. Diff. Being
exceeded. This valve will open if the pressure rises to max. diff. plus 0.25 psi.
 b. INWARDS RELIEF (INWARDS VENT) VALVE - a
simple mechanical inwards relief valve is fitted
to prevent excessive negative differential
pressure which will open if the pressure outside
the aircraft exceeds that inside the aircraft by
0.5 to 1.0 psi.

c. DUMP VALVE - a manually operated

component, the Dump Valve, will enable to
crew to reduce the cabin pressure to zero for
emergency depressurisation. This valve may
also be used as the air outlet during manual
operation of the pressurisation system an
aircraft fitted with pneumatic discharge valves.

d. DITCHING VALVE - addition some pressure controllers are fitted with a ditching control
which will close all the discharge valves to reduce the flow of water into the cabin in the
event of a forced landing on water. It helps A/C float on water due to air inside it.

RATE OF CHANGE

The term rate of change, or ROC is given to the value by which the cabin altitude is allowed to
ascend or descend. This is normally given in feet per minute or fpm. However, ROC can also be used
as rate of climb and ROD used for rate of descent. The aircraft also has a rate of change.

The maximum rate of ascent is 500 fpm and 300 fpm for descent respectively. These rates have been
determined by passenger comfort due to the human ear physiology.
SYSTEM OPERATION

The schematic arrangement of the pressurisation

control system of a modern passenger transport
aircraft.

INPUTS

The automatic controllers are duplicated and have

inputs from the aircraft static pressure sensing
system, the cabin pressure and air/ground logic
system.

If pre-pressurisation is part of the schedule then

inputs will be required from the thrust lever positions and the door warning system.

The cabin altitude control panel is generally being fitted to overhead panels on the flight deck.

There are two modes of operation, auto (1&2) and manual with the outflow valves being electrically
operated by either of the two AC motors under the control of the automatic controllers or by the DC
motor for emergency or manual operation.

Selection of manual will lock out all normal automatic functions and enable the outflow valve(s) to
be positioned by the manual control switch via the DC motor. The pilot will set the controller to
produce the required flight profile.

TAXI- when the aircraft begins to taxi the pressurisation GROUNDFLIGHT switch is selected to FLIGHT
and the aircraft is pre-pressurised to a differential pressure of 0.1 psi. This ensures that the
transition to pressurised flight will be gradual and that there will be no surges of pressure on
rotation and ingress of fumes from engine etc.

TAKE OFF AND CLIMB – as the aircraft takes off, the ‘ground/air’ logic system will signal the
controller to switch to proportional control. The controller will sense ambient and cabin pressure
and position the outflow valves to control the rate of change of cabin altitude in proportion to the
rate of climb of the aircraft (between 300 and 500 feet per minute)

CRUISE – when cruise altitude is reached the controller will switch to ISOBARIC CONTROL to
maintain a constant differential pressure.

Once established in the cruise small changes in altitude (+/-500 – 1000 feet) will be accommodated
without any change in cabin pressure, however if the cruise altitude has to be increased significantly,
then the flight altitude selection will have to be reset.

If the maximum differential pressure has been reached the controller will not allow any further
increase in differential pressure and the aircraft will now be in max. diff. control.
DESCENT AND LANDING - at commencement of the descent the controller will switch back to
proportional control and will give a cabin rate of descent of 300 feet/minute to produce a diff.
Pressure of 0.1 psi on touchdown (airfield altitude – 200 feet)

With the ‘ground/air’ logic system now in ground mode, changing the cabin pressure controller
GROUND/FLIGHT switch to GROUND will drive the outflow valves to fully open to equalise cabin and
ambient pressures. And Max. Differential to Zero.

TO SUMMARISE: if the differential pressure is increasing the discharge valves are closing. If the
differential pressure is decreasing then the discharge valves are opening and if the differential
pressure is constant then since the mass flow in is constant, the discharge valve will not move.

SYSTEM INSTRUMENTATION

The minimum indications required for a pressurisation

system are:

a. Cabin altimeter – this gauge reads cabin pressure

but is calibrated to read this in terms of the
equivalent altitude of the cabin.
b. Cabin vertical speed indicator – this indicates the
rate at which the aircraft cabin is climbing or
descending.
c. Cabin differential pressure gauge – this indicates the
difference in the absolute pressure between the
inside and outside of the aircraft cabin and is
generally calibrated in psi. In the event of a
malfunction of the pressure controller or outflow
valve, this instrument would indicate that the Safety
Valve were controlling the cabin pressure at the structural (emergency) maximum pressure
differential.

WARNING SYSTEM

CABIN ALTITUDE IN THE EVENT OF A PRESSURE FAILURE

10 000 ft above msl, an audible and red visual flight deck warning occurs
13 000 ft, outflow valves drive shut automatically
14 000 ft, passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically to the half-hung position.
 AIRCRAFT PNEUMATIC SYSTEMS
A pneumatic system is fitted in most modern
aircraft to supply some or all of the following
aircraft systems.

a. Air conditioning
b. Pressurisation
c. Aerofoil and engine anti-icing
d. Air turbine motors, e.g. i) engine
starting, ii) hydraulic power, iii)
thrust reverse, iv) leading and trailing
edge flap/slat operation
e. Pneumatic rams e.g. thrust reverse
actuation
f. Hydraulic reservoir and potable
water tank pressurisation

Most of these systems use high volume low

pressure airflow bled from the compressor
stages of a gas turbine engine. Other sources
of supply are engine driven compressors or
blowers, auxiliary power unit bleed air.

ENGINE BLEED AIR SYSTEM

Bleed Air is taken at two stages in the engine.

Why?

Because of the great variation of air output

available from a gas turbine engine between
idle and maximum RPM there is a need to
maintain a reasonable supply of air during low
RPM as well as restricting excessive pressure
when the engine is at maximum RPM. It is
usual to tap two pressure stages to maintain
a reasonable pressure band at all engine
speeds.

Bleed air system with air being ducted from

two stages of the compressor, a low pressure
(LP) stage and a higher pressure (HP) stage.

The two sources are combined together at the

High Pressure Shut-off Valve (HPSOV). This
valve is pressure
Pressure sensitive and pneumatically operated and is open when there is insufficient air pressure
from the LP system to maintain the required flow. As the engine speeds up the LP air pressure will
increase until it closes the high pressure shut-off valve so that, in all normal stages of flight, bleed air
will come from the LP stage.

The high pressure shut-off valves are designed to open relatively slowly on engine start up or when
air conditioning is selected to minimise the possibility of a surge of air pressure. They are also
designed to close very quickly to prevent an ingress of fumes or fire to the cabin in the event of an
engine fire.

The bleed air control valve is the separation point between the engine and the pneumatic system
manifold and allows the bleed air to enter the pneumatic system and is controlled electrically from
the flight deck.

Non-return valves (NRV) are installed in the LP stage ducts to prevent HP air entering the LP stages
of the engine when the high pressure shut-off valve is open.

Most multi-engine aircraft also keep the supplying engine or sides separate with each engine
supplying its own user services. These are kept independent by ISOLATION VALVES which are
normally closed but which may be opened of an engine supply is lost to feed the other side’s
services.

The system will also be fitted with safety devices to prevent damage to the supply ducting due to
over pressure or overheat.

a. OVER PRESSURE – this is usually caused by failure of the high pressure shut-off valve
and a pressure relief valve is fitted to the engine bleed air ducting.
If the over pressure persists a sensor bleeds high pressure shut-off valve opening
pressure and forces the valve to close.
b. OVERHEAT – an electrical temperature switch downstream of the bleed air control valve
will close the valve if the temperature of the air reaches a predetermined level.

Both overheated and over pressure conditions will be indicated to the pilots by warning lights. If
an overheat occurrence took place, the bleed valve switch would be selected ‘OFF’ and the
isolation valve opened to restore the lost system.

BASIC PRINCIPLES OF AIRCRAFT AIR CONDITIONING

An aircraft are going to be operated at different flight levels in different temperature zones
around the world, the aircraft’s air conditioning system must be capable of taking extremely cold
air and warming it, or extremely hot humid air and cooling and dehumidifying it.

REQUIREMENTS OF AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM

1. Provision of fresh air – fresh air must be provided at a rate of 1 lb per seat per minute in
normal circumstances or at not less than 0.5 lb following a failure of any part of the
duplicated air-conditioning system.
2. Temperature- cabin air temperature should be maintained within the range 650F to 750F
(180C to 240C)
 3. Relative humidity – the relative humidity of the cabin air must be maintained at
approximately 30% (at 40,000 ft the relative humidity is only 1 to 2%)
4. Contamination – carbon monoxide contamination of the cabin air must not exceed 1 part in
20,000
5. Ventilation – adequate ventilation must be provided on the ground and during
unpressurised phase off flight.
6. Duplication – the air-conditioning system must be duplicated to the extent that no single
component failure will cause the provision of fresh air to fall to rate which is lower than 0.5
lb per seat per minute.

Hot bleed air is taken from a gas turbine’s compressor. This heated air, often referred to as charge
air, is then split and a proportion cooled, before it is mixed together to achieve the required
temperature.

Cooling the charge air is a major function of the pack. There are two different methods in which this
can be achieved the use of air as a cooling medium referred to as Air Cycle, or the use of a
Refrigerant referred to as vapour cycle.

AIR CYCLE MACHINES

The component that cools the charge air is termed a Cold Air Unit or CAU. There are three different
designs. Each comes under the heading of air cycle machines. The types are:

THE BOOTSTRAP
THE BRAKE TURBINE
THE TURBO FAN

BOOTSTRAP IN CONJUNCTION WITH A MECHANICAL BLOWER

This type of system is used on larger piston engine aircraft and smaller turboprop, where the engines
are not designed to supply bleed air for the aircraft’s air condition system.

Their function and location in the system is what DGCA wants you to know.

BLOWER

Ambient air is drawn into a blower. The blower

consists of two lobes which are engine driven and
geared to rotate and mesh. This draws a large
volume of air in and forces it into the supply duct.
The restriction of the duct raises both air pressure
and temperature. Since the blower is mechanical it
requires lubrication. Failure of the oil seals can
result in blue smoke in the aircraft as the oil
vaporises in the hot air.

The rotation of the lobes creates a pulsing,

changing air pressure (whomp-whomp effect)
which is removed by the silencer unit located downstream.
SPILL VALVE AND FLOW CONTROL VALVE

FUNCTION- the spill valve is designed to allow charge air to bleed overboard (leave the airplane) in
different conditions and is linked to the flow control valve.

During flight, the flow control valve also referred to as a mass flow controller, determines the
correct mass of air passing through the system to ventilate the aircraft. This is done by venting
charge air to atmosphere.

As the aircraft climbs and the ambient density decreases, the flow control valve progressively
closes the spill valve (so more air can get in).

In the event of an engine fire, to prevent contamination of the cabin air, the spill valve is fully
opened when the pilot operates the engine’s fire handle.

A non-return valve (NRV) is fitted downstream of the spill valve to prevent loss of cabin air
pressure in the event that the spill valve is opened or failure of the blower.

DUCT RELIEF VALVE

Location - a duct relief valve is located downstream of the NRV.

Function – the function of this valve is to protect the duct from over pressurisation. There is a real
danger that if the duct ruptures, high temperature air could play onto fuel lines or electrical cables
and start a fire.

The relief valve is set to operate at 10 psi above the ducts normal pressure. The standard used in
examination questions is the valve’s value (10 psi)

CHOKE VALVE AND DUAL PRESSURE SWITCH

The choke valve is fitted as a means of increasing the charge air’s temperature in certain conditions,
by restricting the flow and creating a backpressure. The choke valve only restricts the airflow when
the bypass valve downstream is fully open.

BYPASS VALVES

There are two bypass valves fitted in this system.

Location 1 – one downstream of the choke valve

Location 2 – second downstream of the primary heat exchanger

They function as temperature control valves

Function 1 – the first bypass valve can direct all the air through the heat exchanger or allow a
percentage of air to bypass the heat exchanger.

Function 2 – the second valve controls the amount of air that enters the CAU.

Both valves are controlled by temperature sensors, either mounted in the aircraft’s cabin or in the
duct leading into the aircraft’s cabin.
PRIMARY HEAT EXCHANGER

The system has two heat exchangers which act as radiators. Charge air from the first bypass valve is
ducted into the primary heat exchanger, also known as a pre-cooler. In the heat exchanger, the hot
charge air is passed through a matrix of small-bore pipes, while ram ambient air passes around
them. As the heat exchanger is open ended, this results in adiabatic cooling, where the temperature
decreases, but there is no significant change in the pressure.

BOOTSTRAP

The bootstrap consists of three components in the following order: compressor, heat exchanger
and turbine.

The compressor and turbine are linked together and form on CAU.

The system is referred to as a bootstrap as it is able to self-start. As soon as there is air flowing
across the turbine, it starts to revolve itself and the compressor.

Due to the compression and work done by the cold air unit and the speed of rotation, these units
must be lubricated. Failure of the oil seals can result in blue smoke entering the cabin.

Air that has been cooled by the pre-cooler is directed by the second bypass valve into the eye of the
CAU’s centrifugal compressor.

At COMPRESSOR- here, it is compressed, raising both pressure and temperature.

The output from the compressor is then passed through the secondary heat exchanger, also
referred to as an intercooler, before being ducted on to the edge of a turbine.

In the turbine, the air is made to work by rotating the turbine and compressor.

This work absorbs pressure energy and, at the same time, the air is able to expand. The combined
effect reduces the temperature of the air, resulting in a stream of cold air leaving the turbine.

The speed of the CAU is determined by the temperature requirements of the system and the air’s
density.

WATER EXTRACTOR

Excess humidity inside the aircraft would

manifest itself as condensation or even
water droplets falling from the air
conditioning low-pressure duct. This would
lead to discomfort for the passengers and
crew, as well as the possible shorting of
electrical circuits, corrosion and an increase
in mass over time as the insulation blankets
become sodden.
LOCATION – to remove this excess moisture, water extractors also known as water separators, are
fitted downstream of the cold air unit.

There are different designs of water extractors. However, they all work on the same basic principle
of diffusion, coalition and extraction. As the air enters the water extractor, it passes through a
diffuser section that slows the airflow and guides it over a coalescer section.

Here, the moisture is coalesced (merged) into larger droplets.

HUMIDIFIER

In aircraft operating at high altitude (greater than 40,000 feet)

for long periods of time it may be necessary to increase the
moisture content of the conditioning air to 1-2% relative
humidity to prevent physical discomfort arising from low
relative humidity. This is the function of the humidifier, a
typical example of which is shown below. The aircraft’s
drinking water supply is used and the water is atomised by air
from the air conditioning supply.

BLEED AIR BOOTSTRAP

Bootstrap used in conjunction with bleed air from a gas turbine engine. Turbine powered aircraft,
where the compressor section can supply more
air than the core engine requires, are able to
supply bleed air to the packs.

This air has been heated due to compression.

Therefore, in the system, there is no
requirement for a blower and silencer.

In the event of any problem, the bleed air to

the air conditioning pack can be cut by closing
the bleed air shut off valve (SOV). This isolates
the engine, and as the air entering the engine
passes through it, there is no need for a spill
valve.

A mass flow controller linked to a flow control

valve ensures that the correct mass of air is
supplied to the system as the aircraft changes
altitudes and engine rpm settings.

BRAKE TURBINE

In this system, the bleed air is passed through a pre-cooler to obtain adiabatic cooling and then to a
temperature control valve, or TCV. This directs the precooled air to the turbine or plenum chamber.
To ensure that the air passing across the turbine loses
pressure and temperature, a compressor draws in
ambient air at static pressure by taking its supply from
within a vented bay. This air passes across the
compressor and is dumped overboard via a restricted
pine.

The restriction creates a backpressure that acts to

slow the compressor and place a load on the turbine.
The speed of these machines is self-regulating and is
determined by the mass of air that passes across the
turbine and the air’s density. They can be turning at
40,000 to 45,000 rpm at high altitude.

In these systems, if hotter air is required in the system, the bleed air can be taken from later stages
of compression in the engine. As before, the streams of air are mixed in a plenum chamber before
passing in to the aircraft cabin.

This system is lighter (only one heat exchanger) and the mass flow/ weight ratio is higher.

FAN TURBINE (TURBO – FAN)

This is a refinement of the brake turbine unit, in which, instead of a compressor, the turbine is
coupled to a fan of sufficient capacity to draw the required volume of cooling airflow through the
primary heat exchanger so that the unit is not dependent on ram air for its operation and can
therefore be operated on the ground.

VAPOUR CYCLE (REFRIGERATION) SYSTEM:

The vapour cycle air conditioning system is

similar in operation to the domestic
refrigerator or the galley cart cooling system
used on some large aircraft. Its use for aircraft
os now generally limited to small piston engine
types.

A refrigerant is used to absorb heat from the

refrigerant alternates between the vapour and
liquid to gas. The heat is carried by the
refrigerant to a condenser where it is given up
to the atmosphere and the refrigerant returns
to its liquid state.

**In the vapour cycle system, the refrigerant

alternates between the vapour and liquid
phases. It is compressed, cooled expanded and
heated in that order. The refrigerant is a liquid (freon) which boils at approx. 3.50C (380F) at sea level
atmospheric pressure.

**At higher pressures the boiling point is increased and vice versa.

Working –

Refrigerant at low pressure is drawn through the evaporator by the compressor (which may be
electrically or air driven). As it passes through the evaporator the refrigerant changes state from
liquid to gas absorbing heat from the cabin air supply and therefore cooling the air as it does so.

The COMPRESSOR raises the pressure and therefore the boiling point of the refrigerant before it
enters the condenser.

The CONDENSER is positioned so that cold ram air passes over it and the refrigerant changes back to
its liquid state giving up latent heat to the ram air. The pressurised liquid then passes to the receiver
which acts as a reservoir and then through an EXPANSION VALVE which reduces its pressure and
boiling point before entering the evaporator to repeat the cycle.

RE-CIRCULATION FANS

These augment the air conditioning packs allowing the packs to be operated at a reduced rate
during the cruise which decreases engine bleed requirements and maintain a constant ventilation
rate throughout the cabin.

The fans draw cabin air from the under-floor area through filters then reintroduce the air into the
Mix manifold conditioned distribution system where it is mixed with fresh air from the packs and
resend to the cabin. Air from the region of toilets and galleys is not re-circulated but is vented
directly overboard by the pressurisation discharge valves.

TEMPERATURE CONTROL

RAM AIR MUFFLER TYPE HEAT EXCHANGER

In these systems, which are used in

unpressurised piston engine aircraft, ambient
atmospheric air is introduced to the cabin
through forward facing air intake. Some of this
ram air can be heated by exhaust o combustion
heaters and then mixed with the cold ambient air
in varying proportions to give a comfortable
cabin temperature.

The heater muff or exhaust muff is a close-fitting

cowl around the exhaust pipe which allows ram
air to come into close contact with the hot
exhaust pipe to provide hot air for heating the
cabin. Fresh cold air can be allowed into the
cabin through the ram air inlets on the wing leading edge. After use the air is dumped overboard
through a vent on the underside of the aircraft.

COMBUSTION HEATER

More sophisticated light aircraft can use a dedicated combustion heater to heat ram air. The fuel
used in the heater is normally that which is used in the aircraft’s engines and the heater works by
burning a fuel/air mixture within the combustion chamber. Air for combustion is supplied by a fan or
blower and the fuel is supplied via a solenoid operated fuel valve.

The fuel valve is controlled by duct temperature sensors but can be manually overridden. The
system is designed so that there is no possibility of leaks from inside the chamber contaminating the
cabin air. In addition, the system must be provided with a number of safety devices which must
include:

a. Automatic fuel shut-off in the event of any malfunction

b. Adequate fire protection in the event of failure of the structural integrity of the combustion
chamber.
c. Automatic shut-off if the outlet air temperature becomes too high.

PRESSURISED AIRCRAFT

For larger and faster pressurised aircraft, it is standard to fit two air conditioning units (referred
to as air conditioning packs, abbreviated to ACS packs o just packs) to serve the system. This
allow for redundancy, as one pack is able to maintain the minimum conditions required by the
regulation.
OXYGEN SYSTEM

RAPID DECOMPRESSION

A rapid decompression occurs when the cabin pressure decreases to ambient in a period of 5 to
7 seconds.

As the pressure drops, air and gases within the body expand and rush to atmosphere. Normally,
air rushes from the mouth and nasal passages, allowing the lungs and middle ear to equalise.

The main danger is hypoxia. Unless rapid utilisation of the aircraft’s supplementary oxygen
system is made, unconsciousness occurs. This is done by the oxygen system of the aircraft.

If the flight crew believe that they are in danger of a decompression (cracked windscreen, etc.)
they must place themselves on oxygen, initiate a let-down, and raise the cabin altitude to
minimise the differential to reduce the effect of any subsequent decompression.

If an aircraft suffers decompression at high altitude, the maximum rate of descent that the crew
can ever initiate is Vd or dive velocity.

Insufficient oxygen is known as Hypoxia. The importance of aircrew being able to recognise
Hypoxia cannot be overstated.

The drills to overcome this can be summarised as:

a. Provide oxygen
b. Descend to a level where atmospheric oxygen is present in sufficient quantities to meet the
body’s needs.

CABIN ALTITUDE IN THE EVENT OF A PRESSURE FAILURE

In the event of cabin pressure failure, as the cabin altitude rises, the following warnings and actions
occur:

1. 8,000 ft Max Normal Cabin Altitude

2. 10 000 ft above msl, an audible and red visual flight deck warning occurs
3. 14,000 ft passenger oxygen masks deploy automatically to the half-hung position 13,000 ft
Outflow Valve Closes Automatically.
4. 15,000 ft Max Permissible emergency Cabin Altitude

The 10,000 ft audible and visual warning occurs to alert the crew of possible problems, so that they
have time to correct where possible, to minimise passenger discomfort and possibly to prevent
passenger oxygen masks from dropping.

If the problem cannot be solved, the pressure controller signals the outflow valve to close to
minimise the loss of cabin pressure.

If the cabin altitude reaches 14,000 ft the passenger oxygen masks that are stored in the passenger’s
overhead service unit (PSU), are deployed to the half-hung position by a baro-static controller. This is
done at this altitude to ensure that supplementary oxygen is available before the cabin reaches
15,000 ft.

NUMBER OF PASSENGER MASKS AND DISTRIBUTION

Aircraft that operates above 25,000 ft, or those that operate at or below 25,000 ft but cannot
descend safely within 4 minutes to 13,000 ft , must be fitted with automatically deployable oxygen
equipment immediately available to each occupant, wherever seated. The total number of masks
exceed the number of seats by at least 10%. The extra masks are to be evenly distributed throughout
the cabin.

These extra masks are to enable cabin crew or passengers who are away from their seats to gain
immediate access to oxygen. As crew or passengers might be in the aircraft lavatories when oxygen
is required, each aircraft lavatory must have two face masks.

OXYGEN

In aviation there are three physical states for the transportation of oxygen:

1. Liquid
2. Gaseous
3. Chemical

Liquid oxygen is not used in the civil aviation industry as it is very expensive and poses handling,
storage and safety problems. Flight crew are always supplied with gaseous oxygen, as this is the
most economical and effective way to meet the regulations.

Depending on design, some air transport aircraft have gaseous supplementary oxygen systems for
the passengers.

However, it is more common to find that passenger oxygen is produced by chemical oxygen
generators as these are cheaper to produce have a five-year shelf life, and requires no servicing as
they are replaced, not serviced.

GASEOUS OXYGEN SYSTEMS

There are two gaseous oxygen systems in current use:

The continuous flow system

The diluter demand system

PASSENGER OXYGEN SYSTEM

Provides an emergency oxygen supply to the passengers and cabin attendants and is of the
continuous flow type supplied either by high pressure gaseous system or a chemical generator
system.

The continuous flow system is normally used in light un-pressurised aircraft intending to fly above
10,000 ft, or as the passenger supplementary oxygen system for some pressurised aircraft. The
diluter demand system, a more sophisticated and more expensive system, is used for flight crew of
air transport aircraft.

In these systems, gaseous oxygen stored in a cylinder at 1800 psi is passed through an intermediate
pressure regulator, where the pressure is dropped to between 80 – 100 psi. It is then fed into a ring
main or manifold. A barometric valve prevents the oxygen from flowing to the passenger masks.

When the cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft the barometric valve opens and allows oxygen to pass
into the low-pressure regulator. At the same time, pneumatic pressure opens a latch allowing the
PSU door to open and deploy the masks in the half-hung condition. The act of pulling the face mask
down opens the valve to the mask, allowing a continuous flow of oxygen into a one-size fits-all
rubber cup that covers the mouth and nose and has an elasticised head.

CONTINUOUS FLOW PASSENGER SUPPLEMENTARY OXYGEN SYSTEM

The masks are stowed in the passenger service units (PSU), the doors of which will open
automatically by a barometrically controlled release mechanism if the cabin altitude reaches 14000
ft or by manual selection from the flight by the crew at any altitude below this.

The release mechanism is actuated electrically for the chemical generator system and
pneumatically for the gaseous system.

When the PSU doors open the masks drop to the “half-hung” position.

Pulling the mask towards the face initiates the oxygen flow by opening a check valve on the gas
supplied system or operating the electrical or percussion cap firing mechanism on the chemical
generator.

PASSENGER OXYGEN GENERATOR SYSTEM

The generators are located in each passenger, cabin attendants and lavatory service units.

Oxygen is generated by the chemical reaction of sodium chlorate (NaCl03) and iron (Fe),
The complete reaction is NaCI03 +Fe -------- NaCI + FeO + O2

The sodium chlorate and iron core is

shaped to provide maximum oxygen
flow at starting.

A filter in the generator removes

any contaminates and cools the
oxygen to a temperature not
exceeding 100C above cabin
ambient temperature.

A relief valve prevents the internal

pressure in the generator exceeding
50 psi. The normal flow pressure is
10psi. Sufficient oxygen is supplied from the generator to meet the requirements of descent in
emergency conditions (min of 15 mins)

Caution

Once the chemical reaction has started, it cannot be stopped.

Surface temperature of the generator can reach 2320C (4500F).
A strip of heat sensitive tape or paint changes colour, usually to black, when the generator is
used and provides visual indication that the generator is expended.
Chemical generators have a shelf life of ten years.

FLIGHT CREW’S DILUTER DEMAND SYSTEM

This type of system is provided in most

aircraft for flight crew use and is
separate and additional to the
passenger system.

Oxygen is diluted with air and

supplied as demanded by the user’s
respiration cycle and the oxygen
regulator.

Low-pressure regulation is controlled

by the demand valve, diaphragm, and
bow spring. When “normal” is
selected, and the pilot is not breathing
in or in the process of exhaling, the
demand valve is closed by spring and
oxygen pressure. As the pilot inhales, a
partial vacuum is formed in the mask
and is felt by the diaphragm.
The other side of the diaphragm is subjected to cabin ambient.

The differential created biases the

diaphragm across to the right. The
bow spring, oxygen pressure acting on
the demand valve, and the demand
valve’s spring limit its movement.

This allows oxygen to flow past the

demand valve.

A typical regulator operates as

follows:

With the oxygen supply “ON”

and ‘NORMAL’ oxygen
selected, diluted oxygen will
be supplied to the crew members mask as he/she inhales. As the cabin altitude increases
and cabin air pressure decreases the percentage oxygen increases until, at 34000 ft cabin
altitude, 100% oxygen is supplied.
100% oxygen will be supplied, regardless of altitude, if the crew member selects 100%O2 on
the regulator control panel.
Selecting ‘EMERGENCY’ on the regulator will provide protection against the inhalation of
smoke and harmful gases by supplying 100% O2 at a positive pressure.
When ‘TEST’ is selected, oxygen at a high positive pressure is supplied to check masks for fit
and other equipment for leakage.

PORTABLE OXYGEN SYSTEMS

First aid and sustaining portable oxygen cylinders are installed at suitable location in the passenger
cabin.

They consist of a cylinder containing normally

120 litres of oxygen at a pressure of 18000 psi
in a carrying bag with straps.

It is usually possible to set one of two flow rates

depending on requirement.

These are normal and high which correspond to

flow rates of 2 and 4 litres per minute.

At these rates a 120-litre bottle would last 60 or

30 minutes.

SAFETY PRECAUTIONS

The following general safety precautions apply

to all oxygen systems.
 a. Oxygen is a non-flammable heavier than air gas which supports combustion as well as life.
Any flammable material will burn more fiercely in the presence of oxygen than in air.
Smoking is therefore banned in oxygen rich atmospheres.
b. No oil or grease should be allowed to come into contact with oxygen as there is the
possibility of a severe chemical reaction.
c. Any moisture present will react with gaseous oxygen and can cause corrosion and the
possibility of valves freezing.
d. During replenishment of maintenance of oxygen systems, the surrounding area must be
adequately ventilated. Remember that oxygen is heavier than air and will fill low lying areas
such as servicing pits, aircraft bilges etc.
e. Only lubricants specified in the maintenance manuals may be used e.g. graphite.

SUMMARY

MAX ALTITUDE WITHOUT O2 AT WHICH FLYING EFFICIENCY IS NOT IMPAIRED 10000

O2 CYLINDERS ARE NORMALLY CHARGED AT 1800 PSI
IN PRESSURE DEMAND O2 SYSTEM EACH CREW HAS A REGULATOR
IF A/C SUFFERS RAPID DECOMPRESSION O2 MASK AUTOMATICALLY DEPLOY TO HALF
HUNG POSITION
RATE OF FLOW OF O2 IS MEASURED IN LITRES/MIN
AMERICAN O2 CYLINDER IS GREEN IN COLOUR
BRITISH O2 CYLINDER IS BLACK WITH WHITE NECK
WHEN AIR IS PRESSURISED % OF O2 REMAINS THE SAME
AT 34000 FT DILUTED DEMAND SYSTEM WILL PROVIDE 100% O2
LUBRICATION OF O2 IS DONE BY GRAPHITE
CONTROL KNOB IS SET TO HIGH CYLINDER WILL LAST FOR 30 MIN
CHANCES OF HYPOXIA IS INCREASED BY SMOKING
TO CHECK FOR LEAKS, USE DISTILLED WATER AND ACID FREE SOLUTION.
ELECTRICITY

An electric current is created when electrons car caused to move through a conductor. Moving
electrons can explain most electrical effects.

There are six basic means to provide the force which causes electrons to flow:

a. Friction – static electricity

b. Chemical action – cells and batteries (primary and secondary cells)
c. Magnetism – generators and alternators
d. Heat – thermocouples (junction of two dissimilar metals)
e. Light – photo electric cell
f. Pressure – piezo electric crystals

Of these only Chemical Action (batteries) and Magnetism (generators) produce electrical power in
sufficient quantities for normal daily needs in the same way that water needs a force (pressure) to
make it flow, electricity needs pressure, electro motive force (EMF), to make it flow.

EMF is measured in units of Voltage. The number of volts is a measure of the EMF or Potential
Difference (the difference in electrical potential between the positive and negative terminal).
Voltage is given the symbol V or E.

To measure voltage a voltmeter is used. It is connected across the two points between which the
voltage is to be measured without disconnecting the circuit.

CURRENT

The current (symbol) in a conductor is the number of electrons

passing any point in the conductor in one second and is measured
in amperes or amps (symbol A).

Current can be measured by an instrument called an ammeter

which is connected into the circuit so that the current in the circuit
passes through the ammeter.

AMMETER ARE PLACE IN SERIES AND HAVE LOW

RESISTANCE
VOLTAGE IS MEASURED BY VOLTMETER AND IS CONNECTED IN PARALLEL AND HAVE HIGH
RESISTANCE

Effects of an electric current:

a. Heating Effect – conductor to become hot-electric fires, irons, light bulbs and fuses
b. Magnetic Effect – when a current flows through a conductor it always causes the A magnetic
field is always produced around the conductor when a current flows through it – motors,
generators and transformers.
c. Chemical effect- when a current flows through certain liquids (electrolytes) a chemical
change occurs in the liquid and any metal immersed in it – battery charging and
electroplating.
RESISTANCE

The obstruction in the circuit which opposes the current flow is called resistance different materials
have different number of free electrons, those with freer electrons will have a lower resistance than
those with few free electrons, so those with freer electrons are better conductors of electricity.

FACTORS AFFECTING THE RESISTANCE

a. Length – the longer the wire the greater the resistance.

b. Cross section area – the thicker the wire the smaller the resistance.
c. Temperature – the symbol of temperature coefficient is a (alpha). If resistance increases
with an increase of temperature, the resistor is said to have a Positive Temperature
Coefficient (PTC). If the resistance decreases with an increase of temperature, the resistor is
said to have Negative Temperature Coefficient (NTC). Resistors having these characteristics
are used in aircraft systems for temperature measurement.

UNITS OF RESISTANCE

The unit of resistance in the Ohm (symbol Ω) A material has a resistance of one ohm if an applied
voltage of one volt produces a current flow of one ampere.

RESISTORS

Sometimes resistance is used to adjust the current flow in a circuit by fitting resistors of known
value. Could be of two types fixed and variable resistors.

OHMS law

V=IR

If the resistance remains the same any increase in voltage will cause an increase in current and vice
versa (current directly proportional to voltage)

POWER

When a Force produces a movement then work is said to have been done, the rate at which work is
done is called Power.

In an electric circuit work is done by the voltage causing the current to flow through a resistance,
creating heat, magnetism or chemical action.

The rate of which work is done is called power and is measured in Watts

Watts (W) = Voltage (V) x Amperes (I)

CIRCUIT PROTECTION DEVICES

There are a number of protection devices used in aircraft electrical systems but only 2 basic types
are discussed here:
 a. Fuses
b. Circuit breakers

A fuse normally opens the circuit (No Current Flows) before full fault current is reached, whereas
the circuit breaker opens after the full fault current is reached.

This means that when circuit breakers are used as the protection device, both the circuit breaker
and the component must be capable of withstanding the full fault current for a short time.

The circuit breaker has the capability, which the fuse has not, of opening and closing the circuit,
and can perform many such operations before replacement is necessary, it may also be used as
a circuit isolation switch.

FUSES

There are 3 basic types of fuse currently in use on aircraft:

a. Cartridge fuse
b. High rupture capacity (HRC) fuse
c. Current limiter fuse

THE CARTRIDGE FUSE

The cartridge type fuse consists of a tubular glass or ceramic body, 2 brass end caps and a fuse
element.

Fuses are made of a type of wire which has a low melting point, and when it is placed in series
with the electrical load it will melt, blow or rupture when a current of higher value than its
ampere rating is placed upon it.

Fuses are rated in ‘amps’

HIGH RUPTURE CAPACITY (HRC) FUSES

The high rupture capacity (HRC) fuse is an improvement on the cartridge type fuse. It is used mainly
for high current rated circuits.

CURRENT LIMITERS

Current limiters, as the name suggests, are designed to limit the current to some predetermined
amperage value.

They are also thermal devices, but unlike ordinary fuses they have a high melting point, so that their
time/current characteristics permit them to carry a considerable overload current before rupturing.

For this reason, their application is confined to the protection of heavy duty power distribution
circuits. The output of a Transformer Rectifier Unit would be a prime location for a current limiter to
be used.

CIRCUIT BREAKERS
Circuit breakers combine the function of fuse and switch and can be used for switching circuits on
and off in certain circumstances.

Circuit breakers are common on the flight deck of modern aircraft and can be categorised as either:

a. A Not-Trip Free Circuit Breaker

b. A Trip Free Circuit Breaker

The non-trip free circuit breaker may be held in under fault conditions and the circuit will be made,
this is clearly dangerous.

The trip free circuit breaker if held in under the same circumstances the circuit cannot be made.

CAPACITORS

A capacitor can perform three basic functions

1. Store an electrical charge by creating an electric field between the places.

2. Will behave as if it passes Alternating Current
3. Blocks Direct Current flow

Construction

In its simplest form a capacitor consists of two metal places separated by an insulator called a
dielectric. Wires connected to the places allow the capacitor to be connected into the circuit.

CAPACITANCE

The capacitance (C) of a capacitor measures its ability to store an

electrical charge. The unit of capacitance is the FARAD (F). The farad is
subdivided into smaller, more convenient units.

Factors Affecting Capacitance

a. Area of the plates – a large area gives a large capacitance

b. Distance between the plates – a small distance gives a large
capacitance
c. Material of the dielectric – different materials give different
values of capacitance

CAPACITOR IN A DC CIRCUIT

A capacitor in series with a battery and a switch

After a short time, the difference in charge between the plates results in
a potential difference existing between the plates. The flow of electrons
will reduce and stop when the potential difference between the plates is
equal to the supply voltage. The capacitor is now fully charged, current
has stopped flowing, the plates are said to be charged and there exists an
electric field between the plates. The capacitor is now blocking DC flow. The capacitor will only
discharge if it is now connected to an external circuit.

CAPACITOR IN AN AC CIRCUIT

The battery replaced with a Alternating Current Supply. A light bulb is placed in series with the
supply and the capacitor.

Therefore: a capacitor appears to pass AC

CAPACITORS IN PARALLEL

Capacitors connected in parallel are effectively

increasing the area of the plates. The total
capacitance Ct can be found by adding the
individual capacitances

CAPACITORS IN SERIES

Capacitors in series have effectively increased the

distance between the plates and therefore the total
capacitance has decreased. The total capacitance is found
by using the formula for resistances in parallel.

BATTERIES

A battery is made up of one or more cells which convert chemical energy to electrical energy.

PRIMARY CELLS are of type that is normally used in torches and transistor radios. A fully charged
Primary Cell gives rise to a potential difference of 1.5 volts. Once discharged, Primary Cells cannot be
recharged. A primary cell consists of two electrodes immersed in a chemical called an electrolyte.
The electrolyte encourages electron transfer between the electrodes until there is a potential
difference between them.

The capacity of a cell is a measure of how much current it can provide over a certain period of time.

In aircraft batteries, cells are usually connected in series with other cells of the same voltage and
capacity. The presentation shows a battery with six cells, connected in series.

SECONDARY CELLS work on the same principle as primary cells, but the chemical energy in the cell
can be restored when the cell has been discharged by passing a “charging current” through the cell
in the reverse direction to that of the discharge current. The Capacity of a cell is a measure of how
much current a cell can provide in a certain time.

Capacity is measured in Ampere hour (Ah)

One of the most common types of secondary cell is the lead Acid cell.

The active material of the positive plate is lead peroxide and the negative plate is spongy lead, both
plates are immersed in an electrolyte solution of water and sulphuric acid.
The lead acid battery is the most commonly used in light aircraft.

The electrolyte of a fully charged cell will have a specific gravity of approx. 1.3. the specific gravity of
the electrolyte can be measured with a HYDROMETER.

ADDING CELLS IN SERIES

Voltage increases and capacity remains same

ADDING CELLS IN PARALLEL CAPACITY INCREASES VOLTAGE CONSTANT

REVERSE CUT OUT – OPEN WHEN GENERATOR VOLTAGE DROP BELOW BATTERY VOLTAGE
SUMMARY.

BATTERY ARE CHARGED AT A CONSTANT VOLTAGE VARYING CURRENT (CVVC)

OVERHEATING OF BATTERY MAY TAKE PLACE DUE TO CHARGING THE BATTERY AT A
CONSTANT CURRENT MORE THAN CAPACITY.
A/C BATTERY ARE CHECKED EVERY 3 MONTHS
BEFORE FLIGHT BATTERY CAPACITY SHOULD BE 80%
LIGHT AIRCRAFT BATTERY IS NORMALLY 24 VOLTS
MORE THAN ONE BATTERY IN A/C WILL BE CONNECTED IN PARALLEL
CELLS IN A BATTERY ARE CONNECTED IN SERIES
VENT IN A BATTERY EXHAUST THE GASSES OUT FORMED WHILE CHARGING
A FULLY EFFICIENT BATTERY 60 AMPH CAN GIVE 6 AMPERES FOR 10 HOURS
BATTERY VOLTAGE IS CHECKED ON LOAD WITH ALL CIRCUITS SWITCHED ON BY A
VOLTMETER

TEMPORATY MAGNETS

Temporary magnets are made from soft iron which is easily magnetised but readily loses its
magnetic properties.

PERMANENT MAGNETS

Permanent magnets are made from hard alloy steels which are difficult to magnetise but retain their
magnetism well.

THE MAGNETIC FIELD OF A SOLENOID

A solenoid (electromagnet) is a coil of a large number of turns of insulated wire.

THE STRENGTH OF THE FIELD OF A SOLENOID

The strength of the field of a solenoid can be increased by:

a. Increasing the number of turns on the coil

b. Increasing the current
c. Using a soft iron core
When the current is switched off the magnetic field collapses leaving a little residual magnetism in
the soft iron core.

SOLENOID AND RELAY

Solenoid and relays are nothing more than remotely controlled switches. By switching a small
current from the flight deck a large current cab can be switched at the solenoid or relay. Eg. The
starter solenoid in the starting circuit for a piston engine.

The solenoid has a moving core whereas the relay has a stationary core and an attracted armature.

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

Batteries are a good source of DC electricity by conversion of chemical energy, but they are not
inexhaustible and will go flat after a period of time and need recharging. The primary source of
electricity in an aircraft is always the generator or alternator.

Magnetism can be used to generate electricity be converting mechanical energy to electrical

energy by Electromagnetic Induction.

If a conductor is moved in a magnetic field the conductor will ‘cut through’ the invisible lines of flux.
When this happens an Electromotive Force EMF (voltage) is induced into the conductor as long as
the conductor keeps moving. If the conductor stops the induced EMF ceases. It does not matter if
the conductor or the magnetic field is moved as long as there is relative movement between the
two.

EARADAY’S LAW

Faraday’s law states:

When the magnetic flux through a coil is made to vary, a voltage is set up. The magnitude of this
induced voltage is proportional to the rate of charge of flux.

SIMPLE GENERATOR

The rotating loop is known as the armature

The magnetic field is termed the field

In a simple generator the armature rotates in the field

An EMF is induced in the armature by electromagnetic induction.

This type of generator produces an AC voltage in the armature and therefore an Alternating Current
in the external circuit (first flowing one way, then changing direction and flowing the opposite way).

Layout of a generator system

In an aircraft system the generator, load and battery are all in parallel with each other. The bus bar is
a distribution point. The generator output voltage is maintained slightly higher than battery voltage
to maintain the battery charged.
ALTERNATORS

Most modem light aircraft use an alternator rather than a DC generator to provide constant voltage
electricity for its electrical system because of the advantages an alternator has.

The alternator has a much better power to weight ratio, will produce a stable output at low RPM and
does not suffer with the problems of a commutator as it uses a rectifier to convert AC to DC.

DC GENERATOR ALTERNATOR
Output rating is in kilo watts (kW) Output rating is in volts ampere (VA) or kilo
volts ampere (kVA), the apparent power
Rotating armature Stationary armature
Stationary field Rotating field
Converts AC to DC by means of a commutator Converts AC to DC by means of a rectifier
Suffers from arcing and sparking at the High load current taken from stationary
commutator as the high load current has to armature eliminates arcing and sparking
flow through the commutator and the brushes

VOLTAGE CONTROL

Most light aircraft DC electrical systems operate at 14 volts and so all the equipment it designed to
operate correctly when supplied with 14 volts. It is therefore necessary for the output of the
generator of alternator to be controlled, or regulated, to ensure that at all times it supplies 14 volts.

The generator or alternator is driven by a drive belt or an engine accessory gearbox and therefore
the speed of rotation of the armature or field is linked to the speed of rotation of the engine.

Controlling the output voltage by controlling the speed of the engine is not a practical solution.

The only practical method of controlling the output voltage of a generator is to control the strength
of the magnetic field by controlling the current flow in a coil wound around the magnetic pole pieces
(field coil or field winding). Control of the current flow is achieved by a voltage regulator.

A voltage regulator consists of:

a. A variable resistance in series with the field coil

b. A control coil parallel with the field coil and the armature

The voltage regulator senses the output voltage of the generator or alternator and adjusts the
field current to maintain the correct output voltage irrespective of generator speed or electrical
load.

AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM

The power system for a single-engine aircraft consists of a generator or alternator with the control
and indication equipment necessary to supply all the electrical power once the system is on-line.

The term on-line means that the generator or alternator has been switched into the electrical
system and is actually supplying power to the system.
With multi-engine aircraft two or more generators or alternators are installed in parallel. The
ampere capacity of an aircraft electrical system is determined by the number of power-consuming
devices fitted.

DI-POLE TWO WIRE SYSTEM

A dipole or two wire system is required where an aircraft is made of a nonconductive material.

The current needs a complete circuit to flow and therefore needs a negative wire to connect the
load to the negative side of the generator as well as a positive or “live wire” to connect from the Bus
bar (distribution point) to the load.

SINGLE POLE (UNIPOLE OR EARTH RETURN SYSTEM)

This is the most common type of system on an aircraft with metal construction. The metal airframe
is used as the negative conductor completing the circuit for the current flow. The negative side of
the generator is connected to an “airframe earth” as is the negative side of each load.

CENTER ZERO AMMETER

The Load Meter shows the total current output of the alternator. The Centre Zero Ammeter reads
the current flowing into and out of the battery.

CENTRE ZERO AMMETER- BEFORE ENGINE START

Prior to the engine start, the pointer of the Centre Zero Ammeter will be in the negative part of the
dial, indicating that the battery is discharging.

CENTRE ZERO AMMETER – AFTER ENGINE START

Just after engine start-up, the pointer of the Centre Zero Ammeter will be in the positive sector,
indicating that the alternator is able to provide for all the electrical loads, and to continue charging
the battery.

If, with the engine running, the pointer of the Centre Zero Ammeter is well into the negative
sector of the dial, it must be deduced that the alternator has failed and is not supplying the
electrical loads and the battery is discharging, in this case you should switch off any unnecessary
electrical services.

A zero reading on the load meter indicates alternator failure.

If during flight the Load Meter reading remains high, this may indicate that the battery is recharging
at too high a rate. This will damage the battery and cause it to overheat.

The high charge rate may indicate a faulty voltage regulator.

A negative ammeter reading, showing, heavy discharge, indicates that the alternator is incapable of
supplying demand and that the battery is discharging.

If the electrons flowing in a circuit move backwards and forwards about a mean position then the
current produced is known as Alternating current (AC).
Alternating current (AC) is used in most large modern transport aircraft becase of the following
advantages that it holds over direct current.

AC generators are simpler and more robust in construction than DC

The power to weight ratio of AC machines is better, than comparable DC machine.
The supply voltage can be converted to a higher or lower value with almost 100%
efficiency using transformers.
Any required DC voltage can be obtained simply and efficiently using transformer rectifier
units. (T.R.U.S.)
Three phase AC motors which are simpler, more robust and more efficient than DC motor,
can be operated from a constant frequency source. (AC generators)

AC machine do not suffer from the commutation problems associated with DC machines and
consequently are more reliable, especially at high altitude.

AC CURRENT TERMINOLOGY

CYCLE – A cycle is one complete series of values.

PHASE- A sine wave can be given an angular notation called phase. One cycle represents from 00 –
3600 of phase.

FREQUENCY – the number of cycles occurring each second is the frequency of the supply. The
frequency is measured in Hertz (Hz). One cycle per second is equal to one Hertz. Constant frequency
AC supply systems usually have a frequency of 400 Hz. For modern a/c system.

Frequency is dependent upon the number of times a North and a South pole pass the armature in a
given time period.

For example, an 8 pole generator rotating at 6,000 R.P.M. will have an output frequency of :-

Ans: 400 Hertz

The INDUSTRY STANDARD that has evolved for constant frequency aircraft is: (DGCA)

115/200v AC, 3 phase, 400 Hz

And the requirement for DC is satisfied by converting AC to 28v DC using transformer rectifier
units (TRU’s), while retaining the battery for emergency use.

ALTERNATOR OUTPUT RATING

Alternators are rated in terms of this armature current as well as by their voltage output. Thus, every
alternator is rated in Volt Amperes (VA) or Kilo Volt Amperes (KVA), the Apparent Power.

POLYPHASE CIRCUITS (THREE PHASE ALTERNATOR)

“Three – phase” alternators have two or more single phase windings symmetrically spaced around
the stator. The number of separate stator windings determines the number of phases present in the
supply.
The currents and voltage generated in this type of machine will have the same frequency but be out
of phase with each other.

The phase windings are mechanically arranged to be at 1200 to each other in the sequence A,B,C so
that the outputs are electrically separated by 1200

It can be seen that “A” phase reaches a peak going positive before “B” phase reaches a peak going
positive before “C” phase reaches a peak going positive. This is the phase sequence ABC.

The ADVANTAGES of a three phase system are: -

1. They have a greater power/ weight ratio

2. They are easier to work in parallel

CONSTANT FREQUENCY ALTERNATORS

For A/c Systems to work constant frequency AC is needed but the question is how to keep the
frequency constant?

If an alternator can be driven at a constant speed, then the output frequency will be constant.

Driving the engine at a constant speed is not a practical proposition so a device is required to keep
the speed of the alternator constant irrespective of the engine speed.

CONSTANT SPEED GENERATOR DRIVE SYSTEMS

The Constant Speed Drive Unit (C.S.D.U.) consists of an engine driven hydraulic pump, the output
of which drives a hydraulic motor which itself in turn drives the alternator. The oil which forms the
medium through which the mechanism operates and also facilitates lubrication and cooling, is
contained within a reservoir, entirely separate from the engine oil system.

The output of the hydraulic pump, and therefore the speed of the hydraulic motor, depends on the
angle of a swash plate (constant pressure pump) within the pump. The angle of the swash plate is
controlled by a device called a speed governor.

The speed governor is controlled by the load controller which senses the output frequency of the
alternator and is responsible for increasing or decreasing the torque output of the C.S.D.U. to the
alternator drive.

Most C.S.D.U. are capable of maintaining the alternator output frequency within 5% of 400 Hz
(380 -420 Hz)

The CSDU operates in one of three modes overdrive, straight through drive or under drive.

Overdrive = engine speed less than generator speed

Straight through drive = engine speed same as generator speed
Under drive = engine speed greater than generator speed
Some constant frequency generators have their CSDU and generator combined in one unit called an
integrated Drive Unit (IDU) or integrated Drive Generator (IDG)

C.S.D.U. FAULT INDICATIONS IN THE COCKPIT

There are several indications in the cockpit associated with the Constant Speed Drive Unit and the
problems which might occur with it. The two main ones are: -

a. Low Oil Pressure Warning Lights – these will illuminate when the oil pressure drops
b. High Oil Temperature warning – monitors the CSDU oil outlet temperature

DGCA – remember Battery is getting charged through a TRU in Series. And is parallel to the AC
generator.

LOAD SHARING OR PARALLELLING OF CONSTANT FREQUENCY ALTERNATORS

When running two or more constant frequency alternators in parallel they must be controlled in
order that each one takes a fair and equal share of the load.

This “load sharing” or “paralleling” requires that two parameters are regulated:-

1.REAL LOAD

Real load is the actual working load output available for supplying the various electrical services and
it is measured in Kilowatts (real power or true power). Real Load Sharing is achieved by controlling
the Constant Speed Drive Unit (C.S.D.U.)

2.RELATIVE LOAD

Relative Load is the so-called Wattless Load which is the vector sum of inductive and capacitive
currents and voltage expressed in KVARs (Kilo Volt-Amperes Reactive). Reactive Load Sharing is
achieved by controlling the Voltage Output (Exciter Field Current) of each generator that is
connected in parallel.

TRANSFORMERS

One of the biggest advantages that an AC supply has over a DC supply is the ease with which the
value of alternating voltage can be raised or lowered with extreme efficiency by the use of
Transformers.

A simple transformer would consist of two electrically separate coils wound over iron laminations to
form a common core.

Transformation ratio ( r ) = N2/N1 = E2/E1

If the transformation ratio is greater than one, then the transformer is a Step-Up transformer. If the
ratio is less than one, then the transformer is a Step-Down transformer.
TRANSFORMER RECTIFIER UNITS (TRU’S)

TRU’S convert AC at one voltage to DC at another voltage by combining the transformer and rectifier
in one unit (usually 115/200vAC to 28vDC) to supply the DC needs of an AC distribution system.

TRU’s are invariably multi-phase units to achieve a smooth DC output, INDICATIONS OF TRUE
OUTPUT (AMPS) can be shown on the main electrical panel on the flight deck. Cooling is achieved by
drawing air through the unit which may be monitored for temperature with an overheat warning
supplied.

THE RAM AIR TURBINE (R.A.T.)

The Ram Air Turbine (R.AT.), when lowered into the slipstream of an aircraft in flight will produce an
emergency source of AC power. The output is controlled at a nominal produce an emergency source
of AC power. The output is controlled at a nominal 200/115 volt, three phase 400 Hz. It will give
limited operation only of Flight Instrument and Radio services in the event of Total Alternator
Failure.

THE AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (A.P.U.)

The Auxiliary Power Unit (A.P.U.) is usually a small gas turbine engine mounted in the aircraft tail
cone. It can be used, among other things, to drive a 200/115-volt, three phase alternators for ground
servicing supplies, or, in some aircraft, for emergency supplies in the air.

The A.P.U. alternator cannot normally be paralleled with the engine driven alternators and will
usually only supply power to the bus bars when no other source is feeding them.

INVERTERS

An inverter converts DC to AC

The inverter in a constant frequency AC equipment aircraft is used as a source of emergency supply
if the AC generators fail, then the inverter is powered by the battery. Inverters are invariably “solid
state” static inverters, (transistorised), in modem aircraft providing constant frequency AC for
operation of flight instruments and other essential AC consumers.

BONDING

An aircraft in flight will pick up, or become charged with, static electricity from the atmosphere.

Bonding will prevent any part of the aircraft from building up a potential so great that it will create
a spark and generate a fire risk.

Each piece – o the metal structure of the aircraft, and each component on the aircraft, is joined to
the other by flexible wire strips.

This process is called bonding, and it provides an easy path for the electrons from one part of the
aircraft to another.
SCREENING

Screening is designed to prevent radio interference by absorbing electrical energy. Static electrical
charges, produced by the operation of certain electrical equipment, create interference on radio
circuits.

THE STATIC DISCHARGE SYSTEM OR STATIC WICKS

The static discharge systems, or static wicks, are fitted to reduce static build up on the airframe.
They were originally made of cotton.
 STRUCTURE

FUSELAGE, COMPONENTS, AIRFRAME STRUCTURE

The fuselage is the main structure or body of the aircraft. There are three main types of construction
in use: -

1. TRUSS OR FRAMEWORK CONSTUCTION

Framework consists a light gauge steel tubes which form a

space frame of triangular shape to give the most rigid of
geometric forms. Each tube carries a specific load, the
magnitude of which depends on whether the aircraft is
airborne or on the ground. A strong, easily built basic
structure.

The framework is covered by a lightweight aluminium alloy

a fabric ‘skin’ to give an enclosed aerodynamically efficient
compartment.

2. MONOCOQUE CONSTRUCTION

‘Monocoque’ is a French word meaning ‘single shell’. In a monocoque

structure. All the loads are taken by a stressed skin with just light
internal frames or formers to give the required shape. Formers also
help the A/C to withstand hoop stress which arises because of the
pressurisation cycle.

3. SEMI-MONOCOQUE CONSTRUCTION

As aircraft became larger, the pure monocoque was found not to be

strong enough. Longerons run lengthwise along the fuselage joining
the frames together. The light alloy skin is attached to the frames and
longerons by riveting or adhesive bonding. Remember: Longerons are
also called as Stringers (Stiffeners) Function – Stiffens the skin and
assist the sheet materials to carry loads along their length.

Bulkheads isolate different sections of the aircraft, for instance the

engine compartment from the passenger compartment. Bulkheads
are of much stronger construction than frames or formers, as the
loads upon them are so much greater.

FLIGHT DECK WINDOWS

The flight deck windows fitted to pressurised aircraft must withstand both the loads of
pressurisation and impact loads from bird strikes. They are constructed from toughened glass
panels attached to each side of a clear vinyl interlayer.
An electrically conducting coating applied to the inside of the outer glass panel is used to heat the
window.

WINGS, TAILPLANE AND FIN

Type of construction are:

1. Bi-plane
2. Braced monoplane
3. Cantilever monoplane

BI-PLANE CONSTUCTION

For biplanes which fly less than 200 kts in level flight, so a truss
type design is adequate. The bracing wires form of great rigidity
which is highly resistant to bending and twisting. Large amounts
of drag are produced, hence lower airspeed.

BRACED MONOPLANE

Wings are supported at more than one point by the fuselage.

CANTILEVER MONOPLANE (NON-BRACED)

Cantilever wings have to absorb the stresses and strains of lift and drag in flight, and their own
weight when on the ground.

CANTILEVER MONOPLANE

A cantilever structure would consist of a front and rear spar, with the metal skin attached to the
spars to form a torsion box.

The stringers are spanwise members which give the wing rigidity
by stiffening the skin in compression.

Formers, or ribs, maintain the aerofoil shape of the wings. They

support the spars, stringers and skin against buckling, and pass
concentrated loads from engines, landing gear and control
surfaces into the skin and spars.

TAIL UNITS OR STABILISING SURFACES

The tail unit or stabilising unit, sometimes called the empennage, comes in many different designs. It
can be:

1. Conventional
2. T-tail
3. H-tail
4. V-tail
DEFINITIONS, LOADS APPLIED TO AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES

Tension

A tension, or tensile, load is one which tends to stretch a structural member. Components designed
to resist tensile loads are known as ties.

Compression

Compressive loads are the opposite of tensile loads and

tend to shorten structural members.

Component designed to resist compressive loads are

known as Struts.

Shear

Shear is a force which tends to slide one face of the

material over an adjacent face.

Rivetted joints are designed to resist shear forces

COMBINATION LOADINGS

Bending

Bending of the structure involves the three basic loadings i.e.

a. Tension as the outer edge stretches

b. Compression as the inner edge squeezes together
c. Shear across the structure as the forces try to split it

Torsion

Torsion or twisted forces produce tension at the outer edge, compression in the centre and shear
across the structure.

Stress

Stress is the internal force inside a structural member which resists an externally applied force and,
therefore, a tensile load or force will set up a tensile stress, compression loads compressive stresses
etc.

Stress is defined as the force per unit of area

Strain

When an external force of sufficient magnitude acts on a structure, the structural dimensions
change. This change is known as strain and is the ratio of the change in length to the original length
and is a measure of the deformation of any loaded structure.
Buckling

Buckling occurs to thin sheet materials when they are subjected to end loads and to ties if subjected
to compressive forces.

Design limit load (DLL)

This the maximum load that the designer would expect the airframe or component to experience in
service.

Design Ultimate Load (DUL)

The DUL is the DLL x the safety factor. The minimum safety factor specified in design requirements is
1.5. The structure must withstand DUL without collapse.

COMPOSITE MATERIALS

Composite materials are manufactured from reinforcing fibres embedded in a bonding resin. As the
materials can be moulded, they are described as plastic.

ADVANTAGES OF COMPOSITE MATERIALS

The advantages of using composite material over alloys are:

The ability to arrange the fibres to obtain directional properties consistent with the load
The ability to make complex shapes, since the material is not homogeneous
Weight savings
Resistance to corrosion
High specific strength
High specific stiffness

DISADVANTAGES OF COMPOSITE MATERIALS

The disadvantages of composite materials are:

They are quickly eroded by hail, sand etc. so leading edges must be sheathed
They are difficult to repair
They can absorb moisture if the material is not correctly sealed

EACH MATERIAL IS CHOOSEN FOR A PARTICULAR PROPERTY

Titanium is much lighter than steel and can be used where fire protection is required i.e. firewalls. It
has good strength and retains this and its corrosion resistance up to temperatures of 4000 C

Magnesium alloys are also used, their principal advantage being their weight. This gives an excellent
strength to weight ratio (aluminium is one and a half times heavier). The elastic properties of
magnesium are not very satisfactory so its use in primary structures is limited.

Aluminium and its alloys are the most widely used metals for structural use due to a good strength
to weight ratio with duralumin type alloys predominating due to their good fatigue resistance
Steel and its alloys are only used where strength is vital and weight penalties can be ignored.

When aluminium is alloyed with 4% copper (Al-Cu) the resulting alloy has a higher strength to weight
ratio, a good fatigue resistance and is easier to use in manufacturing since it is softer than Al-Zn
alloys. This material is often called Duralumin and is extensively used in the
Production of Aircraft.

SAFE LIFE

The aircraft structure as a whole and components within the aircraft are given a safe life. This is
based on one, several, or all of the following:

Cumulative flying hours

Landings
Pressurisation
Calendar time

FAIL-SAFE STRUCTURE

FAIL- SAFE

To achieve a fail-safe structure, no one item within a structure

takes the entire load. It is shared by several components, thus
there are multiple load paths. This redundancy of items allows
the structure to continue operating normally up to the static
ultimate for a limited period.

These are not preferred due to the fact it is difficult to find

out the damage occurrence area in the structure.

Therefore, a programmed inspection is required.

Damage tolerant structure –

Fail safe structure are rather heavy due to the extra structural members required to protect the
integrity of the structure. Damage tolerant structure eliminates the extra structural members by
spreading the loading of a particular structure over a larger area. This means that the structure is
designed so that damage can be detected during the normal inspection cycle before a failure
occurs.

SPEED BRAKES

Speed brakes are devices in increase the drag of an aircraft when it is

required to decelerate quickly or to descend rapidly. To operate them
as speed brakes they are controlled by a separate lever in the cockpit
and moves symmetrically. Spoilers function as a roll control whilst
being used as speed brakes, by moving differentially from the selected
brake position.
 LANDING GEAR

The function of the landing gear is:

a. To provide a means of manoeuvring the aircraft on the ground

b. To support the aircraft at a convenient height to give clearance for propellers and flaps etc.
And to facilitate loading.
c. To absorb the kinetic energy of landing and provide a means of controlling deceleration.

LANDING GEAR TYPES - FIXED OR RETRACTABLE

With slow, light aircraft, and some larger aircraft on which simplicity is of prime importance, a fixed
(non-retractable) landing gear is often fitted, the reduced performance caused by the drag of the
landing gear during flight is offset by the simplicity, reduced maintenance and low initial cost.

With higher performance aircraft, drag becomes progressively more important and the landing gear
is retracted into the wings.

FIXED LANDING GEAR

Spring Steel Legs – spring steel legs are usually employed at the
main undercarriage position. The leg consists of a tube, or strip of
tapered spring steel, the upper end being attached by bolts to the
fuselage and the lower end terminating in an axle on which the
wheel and brake are assembled.

Rubber Cord – when rubber cord is used as a

shock-absorber, the undercarriage is usually in the
form of tubular struts, designed and installed so
that the landing force is directed against a number
of turns of rubber in the form of a grommet or
loop.
Oleo-pneumatic struts – some fixed main undercarriages
and most fixed nose undercarriages are fitted with an oleo-
pneumatic shock absorber strut.

Spats are an aerodynamic fairing which may be required

to minimise the drag of the landing gear structure.

The outer cylinder is fixed rigidly to the airframe

structure by two mounting brackets and houses an inner
cylinder and a piston assembly, the interior space being
partially filled with hydraulic fluid and inflated with
compressed gas (air or nitrogen).
OLEO-PNEUMATIC STRUT OPERATION

Under static conditions the weight of the aircraft is balanced by the strut gas pressure and
the inner cylinder takes up a position approximately midway up its stroke.
Under compression (e.g. when landing), the strut shortens and fluid is forced through the
gap between the piston orifice and the metering rod, this restriction limiting the speed of
upward movement of the inner cylinder.
As the internal volume of the cylinders decreases, the gas pressure rises until it balances the
upward force
As the upward force decreases, the gas pressure acts as a spring and extends the inner
cylinder. The speed of extension is limited by the restricted flow of fluid through the orifice.
Normal taxying bumps are cushioned by the gas pressure and dampened by the limited flow
of fluid through the orifice.

Oleo-pneumatic shock absorbers generically referred to as oleos, function on the principle that
fluid is considered incompressible, and that gas can be compressed. The pressure raised in the gas
is equal to the force exerted in compressing it.

THE OIL CHARGE

An oil charge acts as a damper to control both the rate of compression during initial touchdown
landing load and the recoil action of the leg.

THE GAS CHARGE

The gas charge, normally nitrogen as it is inert (can be compressed air for light aircraft), supports the
weight of the aircraft and absorbs the loads.

OIL CHARGE – LEAKS OR LOSSES

The most likely place for an oleo oil leak is from the GLAND SEAL at the bottom of the upper leg. As
oil is lost, there is a loss in the oleo’s damping action.

An undercarriage unit has to withstand varying loads during its life. These loads are transmitted to
the mountings on the aircraft structure, so these too must be very strong. The loads sustained are:

a. Compressive (static and on touch down)

b. Rearward bending
c. Side (during cross wind landings, take offs, and taxying)
d. Forwards (during push back)
e. Torsional (ground manoeuvring)

NOSE UNDERCARRIAGE

A nose undercarriage unit, is usually a lighter structure than a main unit since it carries less weight
and is usually subject only to direct compression loads. Its design is complicated by several
requirements:

a. Castoring
 b. Self-centring
c. Steering
d. Anti-shimmy

Castoring is the ability of the nose wheel to turn to either side in response to the results of
differential braking of aerodynamic force on the rudder.

SELF CENTERING

Automatic self-centring of the nose wheel is essential prior to landing gear retraction. If the nose
gear is not in a central position prior to its retraction, the restricted space available for its
stowage will not be sufficient and severe damage may be caused.

Centring is achieved by either a spring-loaded cam or a hydraulic dash pot.

NOSE WHEEL STEERING

A method of steering is required to enable the pilot to manoeuvre the aircraft safety on the
ground. Early methods involved the use of
differential braking. Powered steering using
hydraulic systems are not common to most
large commercial aircraft.

To allow free castoring of the nose

undercarriage when required, i.e. towing, a
by-pass is provided in the steering system
hydraulics to allow fluid to transfer from one
side to the other.

When steering is selected this by –pass is

closed by hydraulic pressure.

Steering is controlled, depending on the type

of aircraft by:

a. A separate steering wheel (tiller)

b. Operation of rudder pedals

Incorporated in the steering system are:

a. Self-centring jack
b. Shimmy damper

Self-centring operation – an inner cylinder in each steering jack is connected to the landing gear ‘up’
line and is supplied with fluid under pressure when the landing gear is selected up. The steering jacks
extend equally to centralise the nose wheel before pressure is applied to the nose retraction jack,
and the by-pass valve allows fluid from the steering jacks to flow to the return line
 DOWN LINE FOR STEERING

AND

UPLINE FOR CENTERING

Normal nose wheel steering operating pressure is derived from the undercarriage ‘down’ line and a
limited emergency supply is provided by a hydraulic accumulator. Hydraulic pressure passes
through a CHANGE-OVER VALVE, which ensures that the steering system is only in operation when
the nose undercarriage is down.

NOSE WHEEL SHIMMY

Due to the flexibility of tyre side walls, an unstable rapid oscillation or vibration known as shimmy
induced into the nose undercarriage.

Excessive shimmy, especially at high speeds, can set up vibrations throughout the aircraft and can be
dangerous.

Shimmy can be reduced in several ways:

a. Provision of a hydraulic lock across the steering jack piston

b. Fitting a hydraulic damper
c. Fitting heavy self-centring springs
d. Double nose wheels
e. Twin contact wheels

OPERATIONS

FUNCTION OF SEQUENCE VALVE

When the Nose Undercarriage is fully retracted it is retained in position by the NLG Uplock
(Hydraulically released – Spring Applied) the one-Way Restrictor (Restricted flow) which restricts the
rate of fluid return acting as a door speed damper.
LIGHT INDICATIONS

The electrical undercarriage system operates in

such a manner that a green light is displayed
when the undercarriage is locked down a red
light is displayed when the undercarriage is in
transit and no lights are visible when the
undercarriage is locked up, bulbs are usually
duplicated to avoid the possibility of false
indications as a result of bulb failures.

Note: restrictor valve are normally fitted to limit

the speed of lowering of the main undercarriage
units, which are influenced in this direction by
gravity. The nose undercarriage often lowers
against the slipstream and does not need the
protection of a restrictor valve.

INADVERENT RETRACTION OF LANDING GEAR

1. GROUND LOCKING PINS- are placed in such a location in the aircraft where the crew can
physically see them
2. GEAR SELECTOR LOCK- To prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the
aircraft is resting on its wheels, a safety device is incorporated which prevents movement of
the selector lever. This safety device consists of a spring-loaded plunger which retains the
selector in down position and is released by the operation of a solenoid. Electrical power to
the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the shock absorber strut (part of the air
/ground logic circuits).
3. AIR/GROUND LOGIC SYSTEM- Micro switches are placed in the main landing gear oleo’s so
that their position will be changed when the weight of the aircraft compresses the oleo, or
alternatively, on take-off, when the weight of the wheel and bogie assembly extends the
oleo.

These circuit will prevent the running of the pump, and thus the pressure in the upline by not
completing the circuit of pumps causing the landing gear staying deployed on ground even if up
gear selector is selected.

A HYDRAULIC GEAR RETRACTION SYSTEM

A hydraulic system for retracting and extending a landing gear normally takes its power from
engine driven pumps, alternative system being available in case of pump failure. On some light
aircraft a self-contained ‘power pack’ is used.

EMERGENCY LOWERING SYSTEMS

A means of extending the landing gear and locking it in the down position to cater the the
eventuality of main system failure.
 a. Landing gear can be extended by compressed cylinder of nitrogen or
b. On some aircraft the up-locks are released mechanically or electrically by mannual selection.
The landing gear ‘free falls’ under its own weight and the down locks are engaged
mechanically.
c. Emergency hand pumps in some aircrafts

AQUAPLANING

The term given to a condition where the aircraft’s

tyres are riding on a liquid film and are not in direct
contact with the runway surface is aquaplaning. The
resulting effects are: wheel skids, which damage or
burst the affected tyre(s), due to the brakes locking
the wheel(s).

Increased landing roll, due to the loss of braking

efficiency, loss of directional control.

Aquaplaning a European term, can also be referred to as hydroplaning, the American term.

Dynamic aquaplaning occurs when standing water on a wet runway is greater than the tread
depth of the tyre.

AQUAPLANING SPEED formula

The possibility of aquaplaning increases as the depth of the tread is reduced. It is therefore
important that the tread remaining is accurately assessed. The coefficient of dynamic friction will
reduce to very low values, typically 0, when aquaplaning.

ACTIONS TO MINIMISE AQUALPANING ON LANDING

1. Avoid landing in heavy precipitation. Allow time for the runway to drain.
2. Know the aquaplaning speed of the main tyres and nose wheels.
3. Use flaps to land at the lowest practical speed
4. Do not perform a long flare or allow the aircraft to drift in the flare
5. Touch down firmly to punch the tyres through any moisture and do not allow the aircraft to
bounce, as the distance covered in the bounce and the bounce protection system reduces
the available braking distance.
6. Apply forward column pressure as soon as the nose wheel is on the runway to increase
weight on the nose wheel for improved steering effectiveness.

WHEELS FOR TUBELESS TYRES

Wheels for tubeless tyres are similar in construction to not-tubeless but are grounded to a finer
finish and impregnated with Bakelite to seal the material. ‘0’ ring seals are used between the parts
of the wheel to prevent leakage.
Unlike tubed wheels, the valve is built into the wheel itself and is thus not affected by creep.

TERMINOLOGIES

CROWN

This area has the tyre tread and is designed to withstand

the wear of normal operation.

SHOULDER

This is a change in profile thickness from the crown and is

not designed to flex when loads are applied.

SIDEWALL

This is the thinnest and therefore, weakest section of a

tyre and is designed to flex when loads are applied.

BEAD

This is designed to fit against the rim of the wheel, known as the bead seat

THE REGIONS OF THE TYRE

The most popular tread pattern is that termed Ribbed, it is formed from circumferential grooves
around the tyre.

Not seen so frequently now, but still termed the all-weather pattern, is the Diamond tread pattern.

The tube is inflated through an inflation valve, in which the stem is attached to the rubber base by
direct vulcanisation, and the rubber is vulcanised to the tube, renewal of the inflation valve is not
permitted.

TUBELESS TYRES

These tyres are similar in construction to that of a conventional cover for use with a tube, but an
extra rubber lining is vulcanised to the inner surface and the underside of tyre. This lining, which
retains the air pressure, forms are airtight seal on the wheel rim.

The inflation valve is of the usual type but is fitted with a rubber gasket and situated in the wheel
rim. The advantage of tubeless tyres over conventional tyre include the following –

a. The air pressure in the tyre is maintained over longer periods because the lining is
unstretched.
b. Penetration by a nail or similar sharp object will not cause rapid loss of pressure because the
unstretched lining clings to the objects and prevents loss of air.
c. The tyre is more resistant to impact blows and rough treatment because of the increased
thickness of the casing, and the lining distributes the stresses and prevents them from
causing local damage.
d. Lack of an inner tube means an overall saving of approximately 7.5% in weight.
 e. Inflation valve damage by creep is eliminated.

TYRE PRESSURE

The difference in landing speeds, loading surfaces and landing gear construction of aircraft make it
necessary to provide a wide range of tyre sizes, types of tyre construction and inflation pressures.

There are four main categories of tyre pressures, which are as follows:

a. Low pressure – designed to operate at a pressure of 25 lb. To 3.5 lb. per sq.in, used on grass
surfaces.
b. Medium pressure – operates at a pressure of 35 lb. to 70 lb. per sq. in, (2.42 – 4.83 bar) and
is used on grass surfaces or on medium firm surfaces without a consolidated base.
c. High pressure – operates at a pressure of 70 lb. to 90 lb. per sq. in, (4.83 – 6.21 bar) and is
suitable for concrete runways.
d. Extra High Pressure – operates at pressure of over 90 lb. per sq.in, (some tyres of this type
are inflated to 350 lb. per sq.in), the tyre is suitable for concrete runways.

TYRE MARKINGS

The letters ECTA are used to indicate a tyre that has extra carbon added to the rubber
compound to make it electrically conducting to provide earthing (grounding) between the
aircraft and ground.

WHAT ALL INFORMATION IS PRESENT ON THE SIDE OF THE TYRE –

The size of a tyre is marked on its sidewall and includes the following information: -

a. The outside diameter in inches

b. The inside diameter in inches
c. The width of the tyre in inches

TYPE OF TYRE

In this case, the tyre is tubeless type H.

PLY RATING

In this case, the tyre has the strength equal to 22 cotton plies
Note: the ply rating number does not indicate the physical number of piles.

Together with the load rating, it indicates the strength and corresponding inflation pressures.

See AEA No. below.

Load Rating

In this case, the tyre has maximum static load of 30 100 lb.

Part No.

In this number specific to the company who manufactured the tyre.

Speed rating

In this case, 245 mph is the maximum groundspeed for which the tyre is tested and approved.

Tyre Pressure

This indicates the tyre pressure at which the tyre is inflated to prior to fitment to the aircraft.

Green or grey dots painted on the sidewall of the tyre indicate the position of the “awl” vents. Awl
vents prevent pressure being trapped between the plies which would cause disruption of the tyre
carcase if it was exposed to the low pressures experienced during high altitude flight.

BALANCE MARKER

The lightest point of a tyre cover is indicated by a red spot or triangle painted on the sidewall of the
tyre.

EFFECTS OF AMBIENT TEMPERATURE

CHANGE OF TYRE PRESSURE

As an approximate guide, any increase in the ambient temperature by 30C (50 F) causes the tyre’s
inflation pressure to increase by 1% and vice versa. If an aircraft is flying to a destination where the
ambient temperature differs by 250C, adjusting the tyre pressure for the cooler climate is necessary.

CREEP (SLIPPAGE)

When tyres are first fitted to a wheel they tend to move slightly around the rim. This phenomenon
is called ‘creep’ and at this stage it is considered normal. After the tyres settled down this
movement should cease.

In service, the tyre may tend to continue to creep around the wheel. If this creep is excessive on a
tyre fitted with an inner tube, it will tear out the inflation valve and cause the tyre to burst.

Creep is less of a problem with tubeless tyres, as long as the tyre bead is undamaged and any
pressure drop is within limits.
Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is correctly maintained. To assist in this, tyre
manufacturers specify a RATED INFLATION PRESSURE for each tyre.

This figure applies to a cold tyre not under load, that is, a tyre not fitted to an aircraft. Distortion
of the tyre cover when the weight of the aircraft is on it will cause the tyre pressure to rise by 4%.
When checking the tyre pressure of a cold tyre fitted to an aircraft should mentally add 4% to the
rated tyre pressure.

During use, that is during taxying, take-off or landing, the tyre will become heated. This can cause
up to a further 10% rise in tyre pressure.

TYRE DAMAGE

Inspecting the aircraft on a pre-flight includes checking the tyres. Pilots qualified on type are able to
check the top tyre pressures if the operator and the authority agree. Some of the common causes of
tyre damage include:

DRY BRAKING FLAT SPOT

Locked or non-rotating wheels on dry runways, shown in diagram 8.39, cause flat spost. The skid can
wear through the tyre cover and has a distinctive onion ring pattern.

WET BRAKING FLAT SPOTS

These occur on wet/damp runway surfaces when the wheel aquaplanes dynamically or through a
reverted rubber skid. This shows the result of a wet skid. The affected area of the tyre has the
appearance of melted rubber.

FOD

Foreign object damage (FOD) describes items that should not have been there but were and have
subsequently damaged an aircraft or its equipment. FOD also describes items that can present a
hazard to an aircraft due to their location.

Do not attempt to remove any item stuck in a tyre. It could be lethal. The correct course of action is
to report it, so that the aircraft engineers can reduce the tyre pressure and replace the wheel. A
screw has greater grip and sealing properties than a nail due to its thread.

The tyre requires removal if:

1. Any cut penetrates the casing plies

2. Cuts extend for more than 35 mm or 50% of any tread rib with a depth of 50% or more of
the existing rib
3. Any cut exposes the casing cords
FUSIBLE PLUG (THERMAL PLUGS)

As a safety precaution, to prevent over-pressurisation

through overheating, fusible plugs are fitted in tubeless
tyre wheel hub assemblies.

These plugs have a threaded insert of low melting point

alloy. If the wheel temperature reaches a point where
the fusible insert melts, the tyre inflation medium
(nitrogen) is released at a controlled rate.

This prevents tyre covers from exploding at high

temperatures. The common value for an air transport
aircraft fusible plug is 177C.

To indicate that the plug is set at this temperature, it is coloured red. Prolonged braking leads to
slow tyre deflation.

This works on the principle that prolonged braking generates excessive heat and the fusible
plugs melt.

The friction pads are made of an inorganic friction material and the plates of ‘heavy’ steel with a
special case-hardened surface. It is this surface which causes the plates to explode if doused
with liquid fire extinguish and when they are red hot. In the unfortunate event of a wheel or
brake fire, the best extinguishant to use is dry powder.

If the brakes become too hot, they will not be able to absorb any further energy and their
ability to retard the aircraft diminishes. This phenomenon is termed BRAKE FADE.

If the return spring inside the adjuster assembly ceases to

function or if the unit is wrongly adjusted then they could be
the cause of a brake not releasing correctly. This is termed
BRAKE DRAG.

It is important that the thickness of the brake lining material

is carefully monitored.

On multiple disc brake systems, the most popular method of

gauging the depth of brake lining material remaining is by
checking the amount that the retraction pin (or the indicator
pin, as it is sometimes called) extends from (or intrudes
within) the spring housing with the brakes.

ANTI SKID SYSTEM

As the pilot’s foot pressure is the controller of the brake pressure, it is possible to apply a
pressure great enough to lock the brakes and prevent the wheel from turning, causing the wheel
to skid. This damages the tyre to the point where it can burst (see tyres), reduce the braking
 efficiency, and lose directional stability. To overcome this anti-skid braking systems are used on
modern aircraft.

The basic principle of these systems is the use of the inertia of a flywheel as a sensor of wheel
deceleration.

A wheel directly driven by the aircraft wheel is coupled to the flywheel by a spring. Any changes
in aircraft wheel velocity cause a relative displacement between the flywheel and the driven
wheel. This relative displacement is used as a control signal to operate a valve in the hydraulic
braking system to release the brake pressure.

There are three broad categories of anti-skid:

1- On/off - These are mechanical systems.

2- Semi Modulating- These are first generation electronic systems.
3- Fully Modulating- These are the modern electronic systems fitted to air transport aircraft.

Aircraft fitted with an anti-skid system cannot take off unless it is serviceable.

In the event of a power supply failure to an electronic anti-skid system.

In the event of a loss of normal pressure supply to the brakes when an anti-skid device would be
operating, provisions must occur for sufficient operation of the brakes to bring the aeroplane to rest
when landing under runway surface conditions for which the aeroplane is certificated.

If anti-skid devices are installed, the devices and associated systems must be designed so that no
single probable malfunction, or failure, results in a hazardous loss of braking ability or directional
control of the aeroplane.

ELECTRONIC ANTI-SKID SYSTEMS

The electronic system comprises three main elements:

a. A sensor system comprises three main elements

b. A control box to compute wheel speed information
c. A servo valve to modulate brake pressure

To enable to pilot to have full control of the brakes for taxying and manoeuvring, the anti-skid
system is deactivated, either manually or automatically when the aircraft has slowed down to below
approximately 20 m.p.h. it is assumed then that there is no further danger of skidding. The anti skid
valves receive hydraulic pressure from the normal brake metering valves.

Auto brake selections, deceleration rates and wheel brake pressure selection rate of deceleration
Hydraulic pressure applied.

Max, 12 ft/sec 2100 psi

Max, 14.7 ft/sec 2100 psi

RTO Uncontrolled rate of deceleration 3000 psi

 ANTI ICING AND DE ICING

Types of ice:

a. Hoar frost
b. Rime ice
c. Clear or glaze ice

Formation of ice leads to: -

Large changes in the local pressure gradients.

The extreme surface roughness common to some forms of ice will cause high surface
friction and a considerable reduction of boundary layer energy.
A considerable increase in drag and a large reduction in maximum lift coefficient
Higher take-off run and landing run

Icing on aircraft in flight is caused primarily by the presence of super-cooled water droplets in the
atmosphere. Their existence is most known in temperature ranges from 0 C to -7 Deg. C

Two different approaches are generally used:

a. “De-icing” where ice is allowed to accumulate prior to being removed.

b. “Anti-icing” where the object is to prevent any ice accumulation.

There are a number of avenues which need exploring and these include detection and warning
systems and the methods used to protect the aircraft, which can be any or all of the following:

Pneumatic – i) expanding rubber boots – mechanical

Thermal - i) electrically heated, ii) oil heated, iii) air heated
Liquid - i) freezing point depressant fluids (FPD)
Anti – icing is the application of continuous heat or fluid
De-icing is the intermittent application of fluid, heat or mechanical effort.

MECHANICAL ‘DE-ICING’

Pneumatic de-icing systems are employed in certain types of piston engined aircraft and twin turbo-
propeller aircraft.

De-icer Boots – the de-icer boots or overshoes, consists of

layers of natural rubber and rubberised fabric between
which are disposed flat inflatable tubes closed at the
ends.

The tubes are made of rubberised fabric and are

vulcanised inside the rubber layers. In some boots the
tubes are so arranged that when the boots are in position
in a wind or tail plane leading edge the tubes run parallel
to the span; in others they run parallel to the chord.
Air supplies and distribution – the tubes in the boost sections are inflated by air from the pressure
side on an engine- driven vacuum pump, from a high-pressure reservoir or in the case of some
types of turbo-propeller aircraft, from a tapping at an engine compressor stage.

THERMAL “ANTI-ICING” AND DE-ICING

Hot air systems on modern aircraft are generally engine bleed air and are said to be ‘anti-icing’.
Other methods of obtaining the hot air will be described and depending on the duration of
application and the temperature applied, they may be either de-icing or anti-icing systems.

In this system, the leading-edge sections of wings

including leading edge slats but not leading-edge flaps,
and tail units are usually provided with a second, inner
skin positioned to form a small gap between it and the
inside of the leading-edge section. Heated air is ducted
to the wings and tail units and passes in to the gap,
providing sufficient heat in the outer skin of the leading
edge to melt ice already formed and prevent further ice
formation.

There are two thermal systems in use for air intake

de/anti-icing, a hot air bleed system and on electrical
resistance heating system and although the latter is
usually chosen for turbo-propeller engines to provide
protection for the propeller, there are some examples
where both systems are used in combinations.

Air supplies – there are several methods by which the heated air can be supplied and these include
bleeding of air from a turbine engine compressor, heating of ram air by passing it through a heat
exchanger located in an engine exhaust gas system and combustion heating of ram air.

The heat exchanger method of supplying warm air is employed generally in aircraft powered by
turbo-propeller engines.

ELECTRICAL HEATING SYSTEM

In an electrical heating system, heating elements either of resistance wire or sprayed metal, are
bonded to the air intake structure of the engine cowl and at the leading edges.

The power supply required for heating is normally three-phase alternating current. The arrangement
adopted in a widely used turbo-propeller engine.

Both anti-icing and de-icing techniques are employed by using continuously heated and
intermittently heated elements respectively.

The elements are sandwiched between layers of glass cloth.

The power supply is fed directly to the continuously heated elements and via a cyclic time switch
unit to the intermittently heated elements and to the propeller blade elements.
The cyclic time switch units control the applications of current in selected time sequences
compatible with prevailing outside air temperature conditions and severity of icing.

FLUID SYSTEMS

This system prevents the formation of ice on surface by pumping de-icing fluid to panels in the
leading edge of the aerofoil and allowing the fluid to be carried over the surface by air movement.

The fluid is supplied from the storage tank to the

pump through an integral filter. The pump has a
single inlet and a number of delivery outlets to
feed the distributors on the area foil leading
edges.

To protect the pump and the system from

damage due to pipe blockage etc., the pump
incorporates a safety device which relieves
abnormal pressure by reducing the flow. There
are two types of distributors for use with the
system, i.e. strip and panel.

WINDSCREEN PROTECTION

Windscreen protection is provided by fluid sprays, electrical heating.

Fluid de-icing system: the method employed in this system is to spray the windscreen panel with a
methyl-alcohol based fluid.

The principle components of the system are a

fluid storage tank, a pump which may be hand-
operated or electrically operated type, supply
pipe lines and spray tube unit.

Electrical Anti-icing System: this system

employs a windscreen of special laminated
construction heated electrically to prevent, not
only the formation of ice and mist, but also to
improve the impact resistance of the windscreen at low temperatures.

REMEMBER - AC current is supplied

to windshield units.

PROPELLER PROTECTION SYSTEMS

Ice formation on a propeller blade

produces distortion to the aerofoil
section, causing a loss in efficiency,
possible unbalance and destructive
vibration. The build-up of ice must be
prevented and there are two systems in use.

Protection is provided either by an Anti-icing fluid system or by an electrically powered thermal De-
icing system.

1. PROP DE-ICING IS DONE BY ELECTRICAL HEATING EQUIPMENT’S VIA CYCLIC TIME SWITCH
(DE-ICING)
2. TO PREVENT PROP HEATING, HEATING ELEMENTS ONLY TO BE USED WHILE PROP ARE
ROTATING
3. FLUID IS DELIVEREDTO A PROP BY SLINGER RING AND PIPES

Anti-ice should be turned off when visible moisture is present and TAT in flight or OAT on
ground is below 10 deg C
 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENTS

SMOKE DETECTION

Smoke detection systems are employed where it is not possible to keep a bay or compartment
e.g. cargo or electrical equipment, under constant physical surveillance system of detectors are
employed in each compartment bay which can give remote warning of smoke, can be tested
from the flight deck, and can be re-set when a warning is received in order to verify it.

Smoke and flame detectors operate according to several different principles, for example:-

a. Light detection
b. Light refraction
c. Ionisation
d. Change in resistance of semiconductor

a. Light detection system – designed to respond to a change in visible light or a change in

infrared radiation. As light travels in a straight line through clear air, a photoelectric light
sensor is placed out of line form a light source in these detectors. Under normal conditions,
the sensor is hidden from the light source. When smoke enters the chamber, the light is
scattered through refraction and reflection, allowing some of the light to fall on the sensor.

PHOTOELECTRIC LIGHT ATTENUATION DETECTORS

In these smoke detectors, a light source is in direct line with a sensor.

Under normal conditions, a beam of light, a known value from the light
source, shines on the sensor cell. As the sensor cell is photoelectric, the
light creates an electrical voltage that in measured and compared
against a set value.

When smoke enters the detector chamber, it starts to obscure the light
(attenuation). The subsequent reduction in light falling on the sensor
drops the voltage output of the photoelectric cell. The measuring
circuit senses the drop in voltage and triggers the flight deck warning.
This type of detector requires a greater volume of smoke than either of
the previous designs.

IONISATION SMOKE DETECTOR

Electrons have a negative charge while the remaining atoms have a

positive charge. Two separate plates are across the chamber, one has
a negative voltage, while the other a positive voltage supplied from
the aircraft’s electrical system.

When power is applied to these plates, they act as electro-magnets,

which attract the ionised particles of the opposite charge.
The electronics within the detection circuit sense the small amount of electrical current that is
created by the electrons and ions moving toward the plates. When smoke particles enter the
ionisation chamber, they disrupt the current being created by attaching themselves to the ions,
which neutralises their potential. In this situation, the detection circuit senses the drop in current
between the plates. This triggers the warning.

SMOKE DETECTORS ARE PLACED IN

1. Cargo compartments
2. Toilets or lavatories
3. Avionics bay

FIRE DETECTION SYSTEMS

Detection methods can vary according to the position of the equipment. Four methods of detection
can be described as follows:-

1. Melting Link Detectors – these are found in older aircraft and consist of a pair of contacts
held apart by a fusible plug. At a pre-determined temperature, the fusible plug melts
allowing the contacts to close and a fire warning circuit is made. A major drawback with this
detector is that the contacts will not open after the fire has been extinguished thus giving a
permanent fire warning.
2. FIRE WIRE SYSTEM – this could be of two types -

Resistive fire wire system has a negative coefficient of resistance. This means that a temperature
increases, it causes the resistance to decrease. This gradually increases the current flow until it is
large enough to activate the warning system.

Some system also employ material with a positive coefficient of resistance, in which increasing
temperature would increase resistance and decrease current. These systems also have negative or
positive coefficient of capacitance.

These firewire is mounted as a continuous loop in areas where the outbreak of fire is possible.

3. DIFFERENTIAL EXPANSION DETECTERS

When heat is applied the tube expands at a greater rate, drawing the contacts together, so providing
power to the Fire Warning Circuit. A subsequent drop in temperature will cause the tube to shorten,
the contact will open and the warning cancel. This type of unit is often used as a monitor on Engine
Cooling Air Outlets to provide Internal Engine Overheat (I.E.O.H.) warning.

Any fault within a fire detection system which may give rise to a false fire warning must be treated
as a real fire.

BUILT-IN TEST – BIT

Modern fire detection systems have built –in test circuits, when electrical power is applied to the
systems, they constantly monitor the loops for integrity of the whole system. If the test circuit
detects a fault an amber “fault” light illuminates on the appropriate fire- warning panel. This alerts
the pilot to select the serviceable loop.

FIRE WARNINGS FOR LAVATORY COMPARTMENTS

For aircraft with 20 passenger seats or more, each lavatory must be equipped with a smoke detector
system or equivalent that provides:

A warning light in the cockpit or

A warning light or audible warning in the passenger cabin that would be readily detected by
a cabin crewmember.

FIRE EXTINGUISHING AGENTS

Agents that can be used for aircraft fixed fire extinguisher systems are:

Agent Known as Chemical Formula Usage

Carbon dioxide CO2 CO2 Cargo compartments

Engine bays

Bromochlorodifluoromethane BCF CBrCIF3 Flight deck

Halon Passenger compartments

1211 Cargo compartments

Engine bays

Bromotrifluoromethane Halon CF3Br Cargo compartments

Engine bay

Water H2O Passenger compartments

Methyl Bromide MB CH3Br Engine bays

CARBON DIOXIDE – CO2

CO2 is a gas that extinguishes fire by dispelling the oxygen from the immediate area. It has a toxic
effect and therefore, is not normally used in passenger cabins. While CO2 is effective at smothering
a fire, the cooling effect of CO2 is very strong. This can lead to freeze burns to flesh and cuase
thermal shock to hot metals.

BROMOCHLORODIFLUOROMETHANE – CBRCIF3

BCF-Halon 1211 is a halogenated hydrocarbon. Chemicals of this group are also referred to as freons.

BCF is a non-corrosive chemical that forms a blanketing mist when released, which deprives the fire
of oxygen and interferes with the combustion process, preventing re-ignition.
It si stored as a liquefied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen, which also starts the expulsion of the
liquid from the container when the fire extinguisher is operated.

BCF does not cause cold burns or thermally shock heated metals and has a lesser toxicity than CO

It also has the advantage of being directed as a stream from a hand-held fire extinguisher, allowing
the user to fight fires from a safe distance.

BROMOTRIFLUOROMETHANE – CF3BR

BTM – Halon 1301 has the same fire knock down properties as Halon 1211 but is less toxic than BCF.
It is stored as a liquefied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen, which also starts the expulsion of the
liquid Halon 1301 from the container when the fire extinguisher is operated.

However, Halon 1301 readily converts to a gas as per CO and is less directable than BCF.

It is not suitable as the agent in a hand-held fire extinguisher.

WATER – H2O

Water filled hand-held fire extinguisher are carried in the passenger cabins to fight Class A fires. The
water is expelled from the extinguisher by nitrogen gas pressure.

METHYL BROMIDE – MB

Methyl Bromide is stored as a liquefied gas kept under pressure by nitrogen, which also starts the
expulsion of the liquid from the container when the fire extinguisher is operated.

It is an older agent that is highly toxic and corrosive to aluminium alloys, magnesium alloys and
zinc alloys.

Methyl Bromide is the most harmful of the agents available and is being phased out of service as
many manufacturers do not supply or service these units. However, be aware that some aircraft
might still have this agent on board.

SAND

Useful for containing metal fires such as magnesium or titanium where liquids will make matters
worse.

CLASSIFICATIONS OF FIRES

Class A: fires that involve solid materials, predominantly of an organic kind such as paper, cotton,
and wood also form glowing embers

The means of extinguishing these fires is to cool them. The use of water also prevents re-ignition by
soaking the fuel.

Class B: fires that involve liquids or liquefiable solids.

The means of extinguishing this fire is foam, dry powder, carbon dioxide and Halon.
Class C: fires that involve gases or liquefied gases such as butane, propane, and methane etc.
Resulting from spillage or leakage.

The means of extinguishing these fires is to smother them with foam or dry powder and use water to
cool any leaking container.

Class D: fires that involve metals such as aluminium.

The means of extinguishing these fires is to smother them with a special dry powder.

Passenger Number of

Capacity extinguishers

7 to 30 1

31 to 60 2

61 to 200 3

201 to 300 4

301 to 400 5

401 to 500 6

501 to 600 7

601 to 700 8

LAVATORY FIRE PROTECTION

There is a requirement for aircraft with 20 passenger

seats or more to have a built-in fire extinguisher that
discharges automatically into the waste bin if a fire
occurs. This is because some passengers on long-
haul, non-smoking flights try to use the aircraft’s
lavatories as smoking booths.

Small capacity Halon fire extinguisher, often termed

a potty bottle, is fitted behind the waste bin unit in
each lavatory. The bottle has a small diameter pipe,
which is sealed with a low melting point alloy after it
has been charged with the BCF.
ELECTRICAL FIRE – CO2 AND BCF (WATER GLYCOL SHOULD NEVER BE USED)

ENGINE FIRE – HALON, BCF, METHYL BROMIDE

CABIN FIRE – WATER GLYCOL, BCF
BRAKE FIRE – DRY POWDER, FOAM, SAND

CO2 IS NEVER USED ON BRAKE FIRE SINCE IT CAUSES EXPLOSION (THERMAL SHOCK)

WATER HAS NO EFFECT ON CLASS D FIRE EXPLOSION (THERMAL SHOCK) ENGINE FIRE WARNING
STEADY RED LIGHT AND COMMON WARNING BELL

1. SMOKE DETECTORS ARE FITTED IN CARGO BAYS, TOILETS, AVIONICS BAY (ELECTRICAL
EQUIPMENT BAYS) WHERE IT IS NOT POSSIBLE TO KEEP PHYSICAL SURVEILLANCE.
2. ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER DISCHARGED DUE TO OVERHEAT OR OVER
PRESSURISATION WILL BE INDICATED TO CREW BY EXTERNALLY MOUNTED
DISCHARGE INDICATOR SHOWING RED.
3. ENGINE FIRE EXTINGUISHER DISCHARGED DUE TO USE BY CREW WILL BE INDICATED
BY THE RED PIN PROTRUDING AT THE HEAD OF THE BOTTLE.
4. CUT-IN AREA IS DELINEATED BY EXTERNAL MARKING HAVING RIGHT ANGLED
CORNERS.
5. EMERGENCY EXITS ARE OUTLINED EXTERNALLY BY A 2 INCH BAND OF CONTRASTING
COLOUR.
6. TOILET FIRE EXTINGUISHER IS THE ONLY AUTOMATIC FIRE EXTINGUISHER FIRES
WHEN TEMP IS HIGH IN THE VICINITY.
7. FIRE DETECTION SYSTEM CAN BE TESTED FROM THE FLIGHT DECK TO VERIFY THE
WARNING
8. EMERGENCY LIGHTING HAS A MIN PERIOD OF 10 MIN VIA VITAL DC BUS BAR AND
POWER FLIGHT DECK LIGHTING, CABIN INTERNAL AND EXTERNAL LIGHTING.
9. EMERGENCY TORCH IS FLASHING AT 4 SEC INTERVAL (SERVICEABLE)
 FUEL SYSTEM (JET)

LOW PRESSURE PUMP (LP PUMP)

The fuel then enters the ‘engine fuel system’ and is delivered to the low-pressure pump (LP pump)
or backing pump. The LP pump is driven by the engine gearbox and supplies fuel to the HP pump. In
the event of total failure of the fuel tank booster pumps the LP pump will ‘suck’ fuel from the fuel
tank to allow the engine to remain running. In this event the aircraft MEL may require a reduction of
altitude to prevent LP pump cavitation.
COOLER

A fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC) is fitted in the majority of gas turbine installations. The oil cooler
serves the double purpose of cooling the oil and also heating the fuel to eliminate the formation of
ice crystals which may block the components further downstream the system.

HEATER

The next component the fuel heater completes the warming of the fuel and the elimination of ice
crystals that may occur. It uses compressor delivery air to warm the fuel and may be automatic,
working in conjunction with the FCOC to maintain a predetermined fuel temperature or manual
selected by the flight engineer.

FILTER

The fuel filter is in the low-pressure side of the system and protects the delicate control components
within the H.P. fuel pump and the fuel control unit (F.C.U.) from any dirt or contamination.

FLOWMETER

The flowmeter measures the instantaneous fuel flow in Gallons/hour or Kilograms/hour and may
also include an integrator to sum the total amount of fuel used since the engine was started
(Totalizer)

FUEL PRESSURE AND TEMPERATURE

May be sensed at this point in the system and indicated to the pilot to allow the system to be
monitored.

THE HIGH PRESSURE (H.P.) FUEL PUMP

The High-Pressure Pump (HP pump) is driven by the engine high pressure shaft through the HP
gearbox and raises the pressure and flow required for the demanded engine thrust setting. The high-
pressure fuel pump could be an axial piston type pump.

Some engines may use a spur gear type HP pump which is simpler but will still supply the pressure
and flow required any excess is recycled back to the inlet side of the pump.

GAS TURBINE FUELS

Gas turbine engine aircraft use kerosene fuels. The two main types of gas turbine fuel in common
use in civilian aircraft are shown below, together with their characteristic properties.

a. JET A1 (AVTUR) (AVIATION TURBINE FUEL) – this is a kerosene type fuel with a nominal SG of
0.8 at 15 deg. C. it has a medium flash point 38.7% C and waxing point -50deg.C
b. JET A is similar type of fuel, but it has a waxing point of -40deg.C. this fuel is normally only
available in the U.S.A.
c. JET B (A VTAG) (AVIATION TURBINE GASOLINE) – this is a wide-cut gasoline kerosene mix
type fuel with a nominal S.G. of 0.77 at 15deg.C. it has a low flash point – 20deg.C, a wider
boiling range than Jet AI, and a waxing point of -60 deg.C.
This fuel can be used as an alternative to JET AI but as can be seen, with its low flash point is a
very flammable fuel and for reasons of safety is not generally used in civilian aircraft.

BAFFLES IN THE TANK PREVENT SURGING OF FUEL IN TANKS

FUEL BOOSTER PUMP IS USED FOR JETTISON AND FUEL TRANSFER

FUEL COOLED OIL COOLER IS USE TO HEAT THE FUEL AND COOL THE OIL

FUEL BOOSTER PUMPS ARE LOW PRESSURE – CENTRIFUGAL PUMPS IN THE FUEL TANKS

LP AND HP PUMPS ARE ENGINE DRIVEN PUMPS ONLY BOOSTER PUMP IS ELECTRICAL PUMP

CROSS FEED VALVE IS USED TO SELECT FUEL FROM ANY TANK TO ANY ENGINE

WIDE CUT FUEL IS MORE FLAMMABLE THAN A KEROSENE TYPE FUEL

FUEL IS HEATED TO PREVENT WAXING

COMBUSTION CHAMBER DRAIN VALVE IS CLOSED BY COMBUSTION PRESSURE BY PRESSURE

OPERATED NRV

GTE ARE NORMALLY STOPPED BY HIGH PRESSURE FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE

AVGAS 100 AND AVGAS 100LL ARE SAME OCTANCE RATING FUEL BUT ARE GIVEN DIFFERENT
COLOURS.

CAPACITIVE FUEL GAUGING SYSTEM ARE INSTALLED IN MODERN AIRCRAFTS THEY MEASURE
FUEL QUANTITY IN MASS (LBS). THEY REQUIRE AC POWER.

IT COMPRENSATES FOR AC FLIGHT ATTITUDE AND THERMAL EXPANSIONS

IF A/C IS FILLED WITH WATER INSTEAD OF FUEL IT WILL SHOW FULL DIFLECTION HIGH
BECAUSE S.G. OF WATER IS MORE THAN FUEL

THE FUEL FLOW METER IS SITUATED BETWEEN HP SHUT OFF VALVE AND FUEL SPRAY NOZZLES.
 HYDRAULIC SYSTEM

1.A shuttle valve is used to?

a. Switch from one supply to another

b. Switch from one service to another
c. Operate components in sequence
d. Move components backward and forward

2.Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised?

a. By ground crew before flight

b. Using air from the air conditioning packs
c. Using engine bleed air from GTE
d. Uses a dedicated air compressor unit

3.A hydraulic fuse?

a. Minimises loss of fluid in the event of a hose failure

b. Prevents excessive fluid flow rates when jacks become unloaded
c. Limits the rate at which services operate
d. Permits gravity lowering of landing gear

4.What services can be operated by the RAT?

1. Landing gear
2. Flaps
3. Flying controls
4. Spoilers
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4,
c. 1,2,4
d. All of the above

5.The RAT supplies?

a. Nosewheel steering
b. Flaps
c. Landing gear
d. Primary flight controls

6.Modern transport a/c hydraulic system typically use?

a. 1000 to 2000 psi

b. 2000 to 3000 psi
c. 3000 to 4000 psi
d. 4000 to 5000 psi
7.Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised in order to?

a. Prevent pump captivation

b. Prevent freezing of fluid
c. Keep fluid cool
d. Prevent ingress of moisture

8.In addition to storing energy, hydraulic accumulators also?

a. Minimise fluid leaks

b. Minimise leak required
c. Reduce pressure fluctuations
d. Reduce the size of reservoir required

9.The stack pipe in a hydraulic reservoir?

a. Feeds the emergency services

b. Feeds all the systems
c. Feeds the normal systems but reserves fluid for the emergency systems
d. Prevents debris from circulating in the system

10.Hydraulic fluid with a milky appearance?

a. Is normal after flight

b. Indicate aeration of the system and should be investigated
c. Indicates aeration but is quite normal
d. Indicates water in the system, the fluid must be changed

11.The vent in a non-pressurised hydraulic reservoir?

a. Prevents pump captivation

b. Prevents the ingress of water vapour
c. Prevents the creation of partial vacuums and over-pressures in the reservoir
d. Prevents the fluid from boiling

12.A hydraulic fuse?

a. Prevents reverse fluid flows

b. Controls fluid flow rates
c. Minimises fluid leakage
d. Raptures if fluid flow becomes excessive

13.A hydraulic fuse is fitted?

a. Downstream of non-essential services

b. Downstream of essential services
c. Upstream of essential services
d. Upstream of non-essential services
14.An ACOV?

a. Provides an idle circuit for a constant delivery pump

b. Provides an idle circuit for a variable delivery pump
c. Controls pump output pressure
d. Controls pump output flow

15.The output of a constant delivery pump is?

a. Constant
b. Determined by swash plate angle
c. Controlled by a servo piston
d. Proportional to RPM

16.Modern a/c hydraulic system operate on the principle of?

a. High pressure large displacement

b. High pressure small displacement
c. High pressure large actuators
d. Low pressure small actuators

17.Thermal expansion, jack ram displacement and small leaks are allowed for by the?

a. Reservoir
b. Accumulator
c. Check valves
d. Pressure relief valves

18.Hydraulic pressure pulsations and fluctuations when systems are selected are smoothed out by?

a. Accumulator
b. Swash plate pumps
c. ACOV
d. Pressure relief valves

19.If a shuttle valve sticks in the normal position?

a. Normal system actuation will be impossible

b. Emergency system actuation will be impossible
c. System operation will be impossible
d. The system will operate sluggishly

20.A shuttle valve?

a. Controls the direction of motion of hydraulic actuators

b. Controls the pressure source of hydraulic systems
c. Shuts off the normal supply and connects the emergency supply when emergency operation
is selected by the pilot
d. Automatically selects the emergency supply whenever the main supply fails
21.A high pressure hydraulic pump?

a. Sucks in fluid from the reservoir

b. Must be provided with a positive feed of fluid
c. Requires no cooling flow
d. Requires an ACOV

22.A pressure maintaining valve?

a. Maintains pressure for essential services following fluid loss

b. Controls maximum system pressure
c. Maintains system pressure after shut down
d. Provides positive supply of fluid to the pump

23.Low hydraulic accumulator charge pressure is likely to cause?

a. Chattering and pressure fluctuation

b. Slow operations of services
c. Unusually fast operation of services
d. Inability to operate services in flight

24.Thermal relief valves?

a. Allow for thermal expansion of fluid

b. Allow for thermal contraction of fluid
c. Allow for thermal expansion and contraction of fluid
d. Release over heated fluid from the system

25.A full flow relief valve is commonly located?

a. Upstream of the pump

b. Between the pump and filter
c. Between the pump and reservoir
d. In the return lines

26.Hydraulic systems back pressure is?

a. Pressure of the gas in the accumulator

b. Pressure exerted by the loads resisting the motion of the jacks
c. Pressure generated by the rate of motion of the system
d. Pressure employed to resist excessive rates of motion in the system

27.Hydraulic system hammering?

a. Is caused by sticking jacks in is quite normal

b. Is caused by the ACOV and is quite normal
c. Is caused by entrapped air and can cause pipe fracture is left uncorrected
d. Is caused be defective swash plate pump servo pistons.
28.Fluid available to the engine driven pump is normally?

a. Unfiltered
b. That between the fluid level and the bottom of the stack pipe
c. That between the fluid level and the bottom of the reservoir
d. That above the top of the stack pipe

29.The variable delivery constant pressure pump is?

a. Set to minimum output prior to start up

b. Set to maximum stroke prior to start up
c. Goes to maximum stroke during shut down
d. A constant stroke device

30.If the ACOV in a constant delivery hydraulic system fails in the closed position?

a. Pressure will fall to 0

b. Pressure will remain constant
c. Pressure will increase until the relief valve opens
d. Pressure will increase until the pipes burst or the system is shut down

31.Shuttle Valves?

a. Permit 2 separate power sources to operate one service

b. Permit one power source to operate a number of services
c. Prevent reverse flow of fluid
d. Carry used fluid back to the reservoir

32.A hydraulic system pressure gauge indicates?

a. Fluid pressure
b. Accumulator gas pressure
c. Fluid pressure plus accumulator gas pressure
d. Pump output pressure

33.A double acting hand pump?

a. Are two pumps in series

b. Are two pumps in parallel
c. Provides pressure on both the in and out strokes
d. Provides pressure only on the in stroke

HYDRAULICS

1.A force of 100N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02m2 and the other is 0.04m2:

a. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2000Pa and the larger 4000 Pa
b. The smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5000 Pa and the larger 2500 Pa
 c. Both jacks will move at the same speed
d. Both have the same load

2.A pre-charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator gauge. The system is then
pressurised to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will read:

a. 500 bar
b. 1000 bar
c. 1500 bar
d. 2500 bar

3.The pressure gauge of an hydraulic system provides information on regarding the pressure of:

a. The air in the accumulator

b. The air and hydraulic fluid in the system
c. The proportion pressure in the system
d. The hydraulic fluid in the system

4.A shuttle valve?

a. Is used to replace NRVs

b. Allows two supply sources to operate one unit
c. Allows one source to operate two units
d. Acts as a non-return valve

5.Def. Stan 91/48 is ........ and is ...........based:

1. Red, mineral
2. Red, synthetic
3. Green, mineral
4. Purple, synthetic

6.A restrictor valve:

a. Is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system pressure
b. Controls the rate of movement of a service
c. Controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system
d. Controls the distance a jack moves

7.With a hyd lock there is:

a. Flow, but no jack movement

b. No flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects.
c. No flow, jack is stationary
d. Constant flow

8.The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:

a. High operating fluid temperature

b. System failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion
 c. Seal damage and jack corrosion
d. Normal operation

9.Accumulator floating piston:

a. Pushes the fluid up when being charged

b. Pushes the fluid down when being charged
c. Provides a seal between the gas and fluid
d. Prevents a hydraulic lock

10.A relief valve:

a. Relieves below system pressure

b. Maintains pressure to a priority circuit
c. Relieves at its designed pressure
d. Prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature

11.The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:

a. To compensate for leaks and expansion

b. To allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored
c. To indicate system contents
d. To maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator

12.With air in the hydraulic system you would:

a. Ignore it because normal operation would remove it

b. Bleed the air out of the system
c. Allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. Expect it to operate faster

13.The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

a. Filters the fluid returning to the tank

b. Is fitted downstream of the pump
c. Can be by passed when maximum flow is required
d. Clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir

14.Pascal’s law states that

a. Pressure is inversely proportional to load

b. Liquid is compressible
c. Oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
d. Applied force acts equally in all directions

15.A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

a. An automatic cut out

b. Engine RPM
c. Control piston
 d. Swash plate that senses the fluid temperature

16.A high pressure hydraulic pump:

a. Needs a positive fluid supply

b. Does not need a positive fluid supply
c. Outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force
d. Does not need a cooling fluid flow

17.Case drain filters are:

a. Fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system

b. Designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere
c. To enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition
d. Fitted in the reservoir outlet

18.The purpose of an accumulator is to:

a. Relieve excess pressure

b. Store fluid under pressure
c. Store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. Remove air from the system

19.With a one-way check valve (NRV):

a. Flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure

b. Flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump
c. Flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure
d. Flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure

20.A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:

a. U/C up line and flap up line

b. U/C down line and flap up line
c. U/C down line and flap down line
d. Supply line to the U/C restriction actuator

21.In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

a. A full flow relief valve is fitted downstream of it

b. A full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it
c. A full flow relief valve is not required
d. The terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM

22.Hydraulic pressure of 3000 Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and
the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m?

a. Both have the same force

b. Both jacks will move at the same speed
c. The smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N
 d. The smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N

23.A separator in an accumulator:

a. Isolates the gas from the fluid

b. Reduces the size of the accumulator required
c. Removes the dissolved gases from the fluid
d. Maintains the fluid level in the reservoir

24.In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:

a. Greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack
b. Greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed on the actuator
c. High initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel
d. The same at all points

25.The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the
full level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:

a. Fall below the “full” mark

b. Fall to a position marked “full aces charged”
c. Remain at the same level
d. Rise above the “full” mark

26.A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

a. Enables ground operation of services when the engines are off

b. Is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services
c. Is used to control pressure to services requiring less then system pressure
d. Is used to increase pressure in the sys

27.A hydraulic lock occurs:

a. When the thermal RV operates

b. When fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank
c. When flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move
d. When fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to bypass to the reservoir

28.In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

a. More at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder

b. More at the cylinder end than the piston head
c. More when the piston is moving than when it is stationary
d. The same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head

29.A non-return valve:

a. Can only be fitted if provided with a bypass selector

b. Closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure
c. Opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure
 d. Closes if inlet pressure ceases

30.Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:

a. Rapid jack movement

b. No effect on system
c. Rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating
d. Rapid and smooth operation of systems

31.Hammering in system:

a. Is normal and does not affect the system efficiency

b. Is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations
c. Is an indication that a further selection is necessary
d. Is detrimental to the system

32.The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:

a. Always distinguishable by taste and smell

b. Generally distinguishable by colour
c. Generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer
d. Not generally distinguishable by colour

33.An ACOV will:

a. Provide and idling circuit when a selection is made

b. Extend the life of the accumulator
c. Provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged
d. Ensure the pump is always on load

34.Emergency air bottle may be used:

a. To compensate for a low fluid level in reservoir

b. To charge the accumulators in an emergency
c. An emergency power supply in the event of main system fluid pressure loss
d. An emergency power supply to raise the undercarriage

35.Fluid level in a reservoir will, when pressurised:

a. Fall
b. Rise
c. Only change when the system is operated
d. Remain the same

36.The purpose of a reservoir is to:

a. Compensate for temperature changes

b. Compensate for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement
 c. Compensate for fluid loss
d. To minimise pump cavitation

37.When the hydraulic system pressure is released

a. Reservoir air pressure will increase

b. Reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other components in the system
c. Reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the system
d. Reservoir contents are dumped overboard

38.Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:

a. Is greater in pipes of large diameters

b. Is greater in pipes of smaller diameter
c. Does not vary with pipe diameter
d. Varies in direct proportion to the system demands

39.The materials used for moving or sliding seals in hydraulic systems are:

a. Synthetic rubber with vegetable oils

b. Natural rubber with man made oils
c. Natural rubber with mineral oils
d. Butyl rubber with chemically made oils

40.The seal material and fluid source:

a. Will be the same always

b. Are not the same – mixed freely
c. Are sometimes variable
d. Are simply chosen according to the supplies available

41.A variable displacement pump on system start-up will be at:

a. Minimum stroke
b. An optimised position depending on fluid viscosity
c. Maximum stroke
d. Mid stroke

42.The purpose of a reservoir is:

a. To provide a housing for the instrument transmitters

b. To enable the contents to be checked
c. To allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring
d. To provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps

43.A hand pump will draw its supply from:

a. The stack pipe

b. Above the normal level
c. Through the U tube to prevent syphoning
 d. The bottom of the reservoir

44.A main system hydraulic pump:

a. Does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before start-up

b. Always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation
c. Does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation
d. Can be run dry without causing any damage

45.Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:

a. Exert the same force

b. Will move at different speeds
c. Will move at the same speed
d. Exert different forces

46.A force of 1500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002m2 and generates a force of .....(1) .....N on a
piston of area 0.003m2. The pressure generated is .... (2)...... and, if the smaller piston moves
0.025m, the work done is ........(3).....

a. (1) 56.25J (2) 750000Pa (3) 750000N

b. (1) 750000N (2) 2250 P (3) 56.25 J
c. (1) 225N (2) 75000Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (1) 1250N (2) 750000 Pa (3) 37.51 J

47.The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function of a accumulator is to:

1. Store fluid under pressure

2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut out
9. Provide the emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure

Which of the following applies?

a. All of the statements are correct

b. None of the statements are correct
c. Statements 1,2,3,4,5,8,9 are correct
d. Statements 1,2,3,6,7,9 are correct

48.The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and SKYDROL 700 specification
are respectively
 a. Natural rubber and neoprene
b. Neoprene and natural rubber
c. Butyl and neoprene
d. Neoprene and butyl

49.To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:

a. Pressurised
b. Bootstrapped
c. Above the pump
d. All of the above

50.A hand pump is usually fitted:

a. For ground servicing purposes

b. Lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. Pressurising the oleo struts in the air
d. Retracting the gear after take-off

AIR CONDITIONING AND PRESSURISATION

1.Main and nose wheel bays are:

a. Pressurised
b. Unpressurised
c. Conditioned
d. Different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised

2.Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:

a. When atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount permitted by the system
controls
b. Where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at which time the inward
relief valve opens
c. When the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 PSI
d. The pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate

3.When would the negative differential limit be reached/exceeded:

a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude

b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation

4.A/C in level flight if cabin altitude increases does pressure diff:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain the same
 d. Nil

5.In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:

a. Close
b. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open
c. Open to increase air conditioning
d. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed

6.In a turbo cooler system is the cooling are:

a. Ram air
b. Engine by pass air
c. Cabin air
d. Compressor air

7.The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:

a. In descent
b. In climb
c. In periods when the dehumidifier is in use
d. In cruise

8.Is a cabin humidifier:

a. On the ground in conditions of low relative humidity

b. At high altitude
c. At Low altitude
d. On the ground in high ambient temperatures

9.Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

a. Number of pressurisation cycles

b. Number of explosive decompressions
c. Number of landings only
d. Number of cycles at maximum differential

10.If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, will air be:

a. Contaminated
b. Unaffected
c. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used
d. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted

11.Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

a. Special gauge
b. Aircrafts VSI
c. Cabin pressure controller
d. Gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure
12.Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:

a. Air data computer output information

b. Cabin and static pressure
c. Cabin pressure, static and air speed information
d. Cabin pressure only

13.On what principle does the vapour cycle cooling system work on:

a. Liquid into vapour

b. Vapour into liquid
c. Vapour into gas
d. Cold gas into hot gas

14.What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:

a. To protect the undercarriage bay

b. To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated
c. To prevent damage to the duct
d. To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line

15.What system is installed to control the air conditioning:

a. Emulsifier and water extractor

b. Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier
c. Dehydrator only
d. Humidifier only

16.How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

a. By expanding over turbine

b. By expanding over turbine driving compressor
c. Via an air cooled radiator
d. By passing it through the fuel heater

17.At the max differential phase, is the discharge valve:

a. Open
b. Closed
c. Under the control of the rate capsule
d. Partly open

18.What is the purpose of inward relief valves:

a. To prevent negative differential

b. To back up the duct relief valve
c. To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency
d. To back up the outflow valve

19.On a ground pressurisation test, if the cabin suffers a rapid de-pressurisation:

 a. The temperature will rise suddenly
b. Water precipitation will occur
c. Damage to hull may occur
d. Duct relief valve may jam open

20.A heat exchanger functions by:

a. Combining ram and charge air

b. Mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger
c. Passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts
d. Removing the static charge

21.Maximum differential pressure:

a. Is the maximum authorised pressure difference between the inside of the fuselage and the
atmospheric ambient pressure
b. Is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. Is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. Si the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to carry

22.A humidifier is fitted to:

a. Extract the moisture content in the air

b. Filter the air
c. Increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude
d. To ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude

23.If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

a. The duct relief valve will take control

b. The inward relief valve would assume control
c. The safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference
d. The safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference

24.Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:

a. The engine compressor or cabin compressor

b. The engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct
c. The engine compressor or ram turbine
d. The engine turbine or cabin compressor

25.Safety valve are biased:

a. Inwards
b. Outwards
c. In the direction sensed by the SVC
d. Neither a nor b

26.Cabin compressors:
 a. Increase their flow in cruise conditions
b. Decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c. Increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential pressure and reduction
in engine RPM in order to maintain the mass flow
d. Deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit.

27.In a pressurisation circuit the sequence of operation is for the:

a. Inward relief valve to open before the safety valve

b. Outflow valve to operate before the safety valve
c. Outflow valve to operate after the safety valve
d. Outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve

28.With the QFE set on the cabin controller, against an altitude of zero:

a. The fuselage will be pressurised on landing

b. A ground pressurisation will automatically take place
c. The cabin will be unpressurised on landing
d. The flight deck will be depressurised

29.In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to 6,000ft:

a. Cabin differential will increase

b. Cabin differential will not be affected
c. Cabin differential will decrease
d. Nil

30.An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000ft at 1,000ft per min., the cabin pressurisation is set to
climb at 500ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft is:

a. The same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft

b. Half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
c. Twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft
d. Three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft

31.The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:

a. Allows the aircraft to be pressurised on the ground

b. Stops pressurising on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure differential
c. Ensures that the discharge valve is closed
d. Cancels out the safety valve on the ground

32.Negative differential is limited by:

a. Dump valve
b. Inward relief valve
c. Outflow valve
d. Safety valve
33.Sequence of air through a vapour cooling system is:

a. Turbine then expansion valve

b. Tank then evaporation
c. Turbine then evaporator
d. Compressor then turbine

34.To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:

a. A duct relief valve is fitted

b. A venturi device is fitted
c. A mass flow controller is fitted
d. A thermostatic relief valve is fitted

35.The term “pressurisation cycle” means:

a. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only

b. Air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released
c. Air discharged from the fuselage above 15 psi
d. The frequency in Hzs the pressure cycles from the roof blowers enter the fuselage

36.Inward Relief Valves operate:

a. In conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a negative diff.
b. In conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative diff
c. When manually selected during the emergency descent procedure
d. Automatically when there is a negative diff.

37.Safety valves operate:

a. At higher diff than discharge valve

b. As soon as initiation takes place
c. At a lower diff than a discharge valve
d. At a set value, which is selected

38.Ditching Cocks are operated:

a. Automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve

b. To shut all outflow valves
c. To direct pressure into flotation bags
d. To rapid depressurisation

39.Duct Relief Valve operate when:

a. Excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply ducts

b. To keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure
c. To prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open
d. To cooling modulator shutters reach the optimised position

40.During a normal pressurised cruise, the discharge valve position is:

 a. At a position pre-set before take off
b. Partially open
c. Open until selected altitude is reached
d. Closed until selected altitude is reached

41.A dump valve:

a. Automatically opens when fuel is dumped

b. Is controlled manually
c. Is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
d. Is controlled by the safety valve integrating line

42.When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. Nil

43.If pressure is manually controlled:

a. An extra member is required to monitor system operation

b. The climb rate would be maintained automatically
c. Climb rate could not be maintained
d. Care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rate are safe

44.An aircraft is prevented from pressurising on the ground by:

a. The auto deflating valve on the main oleos

b. Inhibiting micro switches on the landing gear
c. Inhibiting micro switches on the throttles
d. The pressure control master switch

45.If the pressurisation air is passed over the cold air unit compressor does it:

a. Increase the charge air temperature

b. Decrease the charge air temperature
c. Decrease the charge air pressure
d. Make no change to the charge air condition

46.If the cabin pressure increases in the level flight does the cabin VSI show:

a. Rate of climb
b. No change unless the aircraft climbs
c. Rate of descent
d. Nil

47.Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

a. The altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height

 b. Is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter
c. Altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure
d. Altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions

48.The term pressure cabin is used to describe:

a. Pressurisation of the flight deck only

b. The ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure
c. The passenger cabin on an airliner
d. The ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes

49.A pressurisation system works by:

a. Essentially constant input mass flow and variable output

b. Essentially constant output mass flow and variable input
c. Does not start until an altitude of 8,000ft has been reached
d. Supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system

50.Which air is pressurised by an engine driven compressor, it is also:

a. Moisturised
b. Heated
c. Cooled
d. The temperature is not affected

PRESSURISATION AND CONDITIONING

1.Why are some aircraft pressurisation systems to referred to as bootstrap systems?

a. Because they are air cycle machines

b. Because they are vapour cycle machines
c. They are activated by pull cords
d. They employ refrigerants

2.The ditching control valve?

a. Opens the outflow and inward relief valves

b. Closes the outflow valves
c. Closes the mass flow controller
d. Opens the outflow valves

3.The heat exchanger in a bootstrap system?

a. Cools both the bled air and the compressor outlet air
b. Heat the incoming air
c. Cools the incoming air
d. Extracts heat from the exhaust air before it is discharged overboard
4.An air cycle machine?

a. Uses a turbine to reduce air temperature

b. Uses freon the reduce air temperature
c. Uses freon to increase air temperature
d. Uses a compressor to reduce air temperature

5.Cabin air pressure?

a. Is controlled only when maximum pressure differential is reached

b. Con no longer be controlled when maximum pressure differential is reached
c. Can be controlled either manually or automatically
d. Can only be controlled manually

6.A pressure cabin is one in which?

a. Cabin pressure is maintained at sea level pressure

b. Pressurisation occurs above 8000 ft only
c. A constant differential pressure is maintained at all altitudes
d. Cabin pressure is always greater than ambient

7.In straight and level cruise flight?

a. The inward relief valve is open

b. The outflow valves are open
c. The outflow valves are closed
d. The outflow valves are partly open

8.Cabin altitude?

a. Is actual altitude corrected for sea level pressure

b. The pressure altitude at which the pressure in the cabin would occur in the ISA
c. The altitude at which pressure inside and outside of the cabin are same
d. The pressure altitude equating to that in the cabin when at cruising altitude

9.Conditioned air?

a. Is bled from the engines

b. Is air that has had it pressure and temperature adjusted to make it suitable for use in the
cabin
c. Is air that has had its humidity, temperature and pressure adjusted to make it suitable for
use in the cabin
d. Is unsuitable for use in the cabin

10.In a bootstrap system the air first?

a. Passes through the turbine

b. Passes through a compressor
c. Passes through a dehumidifier
 d. Passes through a heat exchanger

11.If the maximum operating altitude is limited by the cabin pressure, the limiting factor will be?

a. Maximum pressure differential that the system can achieve

b. Maximum pressure differential that the cabin structure can sustain
c. Maximum pressure differential that the passengers can tolerate
d. Power available from the engines

12.The dump valve?

a. Opens the outflow valves

b. Opens the inflow valves
c. Rapidly depressurises the cabin
d. Rapidly pressurises the cabin

13.Where in a cabin conditioning system is the vapour separator?

a. After the cold air unit

b. After the heat exchanger
c. Before the heat exchanger
d. Before the turbine

14.If cabin pressure becomes lower than ambient?

a. Outward relief valve closes

b. Inward relief valve opens
c. Dump valve opens
d. The compressor goes into high gear

15.If the outflow valve becomes fully closed?

a. The inward relief valve will open

b. The outward relief valve will open
c. The cabin skin will rupture
d. The safety valve opens when the structural limit is reached

16.If QFE is set on the cabin altimeter will read?

a. Zero on the ground

b. Zero at sea level
c. The airfield elevation when on the runway
d. The same as the height above sea level when QNH is set

17.During a descent the cabin pressure in a pressurised aircraft usually?

a. Climbs at the same rate as the ambient pressure

b. Climbs a lesser rate than the ambient pressure
c. Climbs at a greater rate than the ambient pressure
d. Remains constant
18.The working cycle of an air cycle machine is?

a. Induction, compression, power exhaust

b. Induction, cooling compression, cooling, expansion, exhaust
c. Compression, expansion, exhaust
d. Induction, compression, cooling, exhaust

19.If the outflow valve of a pressurised aircraft malfunctions and opens, when it is cruising at 30000
ft, the cabin pressure will .....the differential pressure will....., the cabin ROC will ...... and the cabin
pressure altitude will.......?

a. Increase, increase, decrease, decrease

b. Increase, increase, increase, increase
c. Decrease, increase, increase, decrease
d. Decrease, decrease, increase, increase

20.Cabin altitude is?

a. The height of the cabin above the ground

b. The height of the cabin in the ISA
c. The altitude at which the cabin pressure would occur in the ISA
d. The altitude of the cabin above ISA msl

21.Pack valves?

a. Control airflow from the packs

b. Control airflow to the packs
c. Control bleed air to the packs
d. Control bleed air temperature

22.If in steady flight the cabin VSI reads 300 fpm?

a. The pressure will fall to ambient

b. The automatic cut-in will operate
c. The passengers will suffocate
d. The automatic oxygen masks will drop down

23.What would the cabin VSI indicate if the cabin pressure suddenly began to decrease in cruise
flight?

a. Positive ROC
b. Negative ROC
c. Sudden increasing in positive ROC
d. Sudden decrease in negative ROC

24.The sequence of processes in an air cycle machine is?

a. Turbine, primary heat exchanger, compressor

b. Compressor, turbine, primary heat exchanger
 c. Compressor, secondary heat exchanger, turbine
d. Secondary heat exchanger, compressor, turbine

25.The sudden appearance of mist in the cabin indicates?

a. Slow decompression
b. Excessive pressurisation
c. Inward relief valve stuck open
d. Rapid decompression

26.Cabin temperature is controlled?

a. Manually by the cabin crew

b. Manually by the pilot or automatically
c. Automatically according to pre-set profiles
d. Automatically according to selectable profiles

27.The range of differential pressures employed in commercial aircraft is?

a. 3 to 6 psi
b. 7 to 9 psi
c. 8 to 15 psi
d. 7 to 11 psi

28.In a manually controlled pressurisation system the rate of change of cabin altitude is controlled
by?

a. The maximum ROC limiter

b. The maximum ROD limiter
c. The outward vent valve
d. The range change selector

29.If an aircraft climbs to 30000 ft at 1500 fpm, while its cabin altitude climbs to 8000 ft at 500 fpm,
the cabin pressure will?

a. Increase
b. Decrease gradually over a period of 16 minutes
c. Decrease gradually over a period of 20 minutes
d. Decrease gradually over a period of 5.33 minutes

30.Maximum cabin rate of descent is limited by?

a. Structural considerations
b. Passenger comfort considerations
c. Flight crew efficiency considerations
d. The physical limitations of the pressurisation system.
OXYGEN

1.Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 25 000 ft is approximately:

a. 20 seconds
b. 80 seconds
c. 3 minutes
d. 6 minutes

2.Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness of 40,000 ft is approximately:

a. 20 seconds
b. 3 minutes
c. 80 seconds
d. 6 minutes

3.The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not seriously impaired is:

a. 10000 ft
b. 17500 ft
c. 25000 ft
d. 30000 ft

4.In a pressure demand oxygen system:

a. Each member of the crew has a regulator

b. Each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
c. Oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
d. Oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise

5.In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:

a. Only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection

b. Only on passenger inhalation through the mask
c. Only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft
d. Only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot

6.In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will result in:

a. Air mix supplies at emergency pressure

b. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user
c. 100% oxygen at positive pressure
d. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure

7.If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:

a. Are released by the passengers

b. Automatically drop to a half hung (ready position)
c. Are handed out by the cabin staff
d. Must be removed from the life jacket storage
8.Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:

a. 1000 Psi
b. 1200 Psi
c. 1800 Psi
d. 2000 Psi

9.Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:

a. Litres/minute
b. Pounds/minute
c. Litres/second
d. Kilos/hour

10.The colour of American oxygen cylinder is:

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Brown

11.The colour of British oxygen cylinders is:

a. White with black lettering

b. Grey with silver lettering
c. Black with white neck
d. Blue with white lettering

12.Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:

a. Is relieved by a thermostat
b. Is relieved by under pressurising the bottle
c. Is relieved by a bursting disc
d. Is controlled by a thermal relief valve

13.To leak test an oxygen system use:

a. Fairy liquid and de-ionised water

b. Thin oil
c. Acid free soap and distilled water
d. Acid free soap and water

14.Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:

a. Soap water
b. Grease
c. Oil
d. Graphite

15.Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:

 a. Flow indicators
b. Lack of anoxia
c. Aural reassurance
d. Pressure indicators

16.If the pressurisation system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14000 ft oxygen will be
available to the passengers by:

a. The stewardess who will and out masks

b. The passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers
c. Portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs
d. Masks automatically ejected to a ½ hung position

17.When air is pressurised the % of oxygen:

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same
d. Nil

18.In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given period by:

a. Sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter

b. Potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a filter
c. Sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and then filtered
d. Sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system

19.Passenger oxygen masks will present

a. Only when the cabin altitude reaches 14000

b. Only if selected by the crew
c. Only if selected by the cabin staff
d. If selected manually = electrically = barometrically

20.The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:

a. 500 psi
b. 1200 psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 3000 psi

21.With the control knob set to high a 120-litre portable bottle will provide oxygen for a period of:

a. 60 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 3 mins

22.At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100% pure oxygen.
 a. 10,000 ft
b. 14,000 ft
c. 24,000 ft
d. 34,000 ft

23.A flow indicator fitted to an Oxygen regulator indicates:

a. That exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew member
b. That oxygen is flowing through the regulator
c. That the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator
d. That the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct pressure to the regulator

24.What is the approximate time of useful consciousness when hypoxia develops at the specified
altitudes.

18,000 ft 30,000 ft

a. 2-3 min 10-15 sec

b. 10 min 2 min
c. 30 min 90-45 secs
d. 40 min 5 min

25.What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30,000 ft.

a. Sudden and extreme drop

b. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes
c. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if the cabin heating
ceases
d. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30 minutes if cabin
heating continues.

26.Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:

a. Heat
b. Noise
c. Smoking
d. Under-breathing

27.What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath 100% oxygen if you are to
maintain an alveolar partial pressure equal to that at sea level:

a. 26,000 ft
 b. 30,000 ft
c. 34,000 ft
d. 38,000 ft

ELECTRICITY

1.DC is converted to AC by ...........and AC is converted to DC by .......?

a. Rectifiers inverters
b. Inverters rectifiers
c. Diodes transistors
d. Transistors diodes

2.fuses are rated in terms of?

a. The amount of power they can carry

b. The amount of voltage they can carry
c. The amount of current they can carry
d. Their rupture time

3.In a three-phase star connected AC electrical system, the line current is?

a. The same as the phase current

b. Larger than the phase current
c. Phase current
d. Phase current

4.How is the voltage regulator in a DC generator connected?

a. In series with field windings

b. In series with the armature
c. In parallel with the field windings
d. In parallel with the armature

5.EMF is measured in?

a. Amps
b. Farads
c. Coulombs
d. Volts

6.Loads driven by a battery must be?

a. In series so that all share the same voltage

b. In series so that all carry the same current
c. In parallel so that all carry the same current
d. In parallel so that all carry the same voltage

7.In a three-phase start connected AC electrical system, the phase voltage is?
 a. The vector sum of all three phase voltages
b. Equal to the line voltage
c. Less than the line voltage
d. Greater than the line voltage

8.A centre zero ammeter is normally fitted .......in order to measure. ......?

a. Downstream of the battery bus bar measure discharge rate

b. Upstream of the generator bus bar measure discharge rate
c. Downstream of the generator measure charge rate
d. Between the battery and its bus bar measure charge/discharge rate

9.What kinds of meters are used in AC circuit?

a. Volts and amps

b. Watts and amps
c. KVA and amps
d. KVA and Hz

10.Ohm’s law states that current is?

a. Inversely proportional to voltage

b. Inversely proportional to resistance
c. Directly proportional to the square of the resistance
d. Directly proportional to the square of voltage

11.In a star wound generator?

1. Line frequency is greater than phase frequency

2. Line voltage is greater than phase voltage
3. Line current is greater than the phase current
4. Phase frequency is greater than the line frequency
5. Phase voltage is greater than the line voltage
6. Phase current is greater than the line current

a. Only 2 is true
b. Only 1 is true
c. Only 1 and 3 are true
d. All are true

12.A capacitor in series will?

a. Make current lag voltage in a DC circuit

b. Pass only DC current
c. Block DC current
d. Reduce impedance in a DC circuit
13.The most commonly used AC frequency in a/c is?

a. 25 hz
b. 100 hz
c. 115 hz
d. 400 hz

14.If a CSDU over speeds?

a. Shut down the engine

b. Disconnected the CDSU and leave it connected
c. Throttle back the engine until the CDSU disconnects automatically
d. Accelerate the engine until the CDSU trip

15.If 10 fully charged lead acid cells are connected in parallel the open circuit voltage will be
approximately:

a. 2.2 Volts
b. 2.4 volts
c. 22 volts
d. 24 volts

16.If DC is the primary source of electrcial power in a a/c, the AC instruments may be fed from?

a. A TRU
b. An inverter
c. A rectifier
d. A transducer

17.A bus bar is?

a. A common connection to a number of loads

b. A common connection for a number of power supplies
c. A integral part of a generator
d. Fed by a circuit breaker

18.Electrical power in a DC circuit is?

a. I/E
b. V/R
c. R/I
d. VxR

19.The advantages of AC generators over DC generators include?

1. Less complex
2. Better power to weight ratio
3. Higher starting torque
4. Longer service lives
 5. Less RF interference

a. 1,2,4,5
b. 1,3,5
c. 2,4,6
d. All of the above

20.If 10 fully charged lead acid cells are connected in series the open circuit voltage will be
approximately?

a. 2.2 volts
b. 2.4 volts
c. 22 volts
d. 24 volts

21.AC bus bar loads are connected?

a. In series so that the current is proportional to load

b. In parallel so that the current is proportional to load
c. In series so that the voltage is proportional to load
d. In parallel so that voltage is proportional to load

22.Eledctrical fuses are connected in?

a. Parallel reduce resistance

b. Parallel increase resistance
c. Series sense total voltage
d Series sense total current

23.The phase in a three phase AC generator are?

a. 45 degrees apart
b. 60 degrees apart
c. 90 degrees apart
d. 120 degrees apart

24.If a generator ammeter is indicating 14 amps?

a. The battery is dead

b. The battery is charging
c. The generator is off line
d. The generator is on line

25.What is the difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:

a. 1 Operates on current while2 operate on power

b. 1 can be reset while 2 cannot
c. 1 operates on power while 2 operates on current
 d. 1 cannot be reset but 2 can be

26.Poor bonding will be indicated by?

a. Repeated tripping of circuit breakers

b. Corrosion of skin joints
c. Fuses blowing
d. Static interference on radios

27.What must be the RPM of a four pole AC generator to produce a 400 hz output?

a. 4000 RPM
b. 6000 RPM
c. 8000 RPM
d. 12000 RPM

28.Fuses will blow when?

a. The circuit has become open circuit

b. Too many loads have been switched off, so excessive current flows in the remaining loads
c. The loads have become connected in series
d. The circuit has become short circuited

29.As load increases, the regulator of a constant speed AC generator?

a. Remains constant
b. Increases field excitation
c. Decreases field excitation
d. Stops field excitation

30.The output of an AC generator is rated in?

a. KW and Volts
b. KVA or KW
c. Volts and amperes
d. KVA and amps

31.A relay is?

a. An electromagnetic switch in which the core moves

b. An electromagnetic switch in which the care does not move
c. A rotary indicator employing electromagnetic field and return springs
d. A remote amplification device

32.The frequency of the output of an AC generator is determined by?

a. RPM
b. Number of poles
c. Fields excitation amplitude
 d. Number of poles and RPM

33.If a centre zero ammeter is indicating minus 12 amps?

a. The battery is charging

b. The battery is discharging
c. The generator is online
d. The voltage regulator is defective

SELF ASSESSMENT QUESTION – STRUCTURES

1.What is the purpose of the wing main spar

a. To withstand bending and torsional loads

b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads
d. To withstand bending and shear loads

2.What is the purpose of wing ribs

a. To withstand the fatigue stresses

b. To shape the wing and support the skin
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear
d. To provide local support for the skin

3.What is the purpose of stringers

a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses

b. To produce stress and support the fatigue meters
c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin
d. To support the primary control surfaces

4.The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

a. The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor

b. The design limit load plus the design ultimate load
c. Three times the safety factor
d. The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety

5.In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

a. Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels

b. Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage
c. Form the entrance door posts
d. Support the wings

6.How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?

 a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks full for as long as
possible
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron down-float
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first

7.Regarding a safe life structure

1. Will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use

2. Should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been achieved
3. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults
4. Is changed before its predicted life is reached
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. All of the above apply

8.A fail safe structure

1. Has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults

2. Is changed before its predicted life is reached
3. Has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural damage
4. Is secondary structure of no structural significance
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. All of the above apply

9.The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft

a. Is made up of lightly alloy steel sheets on the monocoque principle

b. Houses the crew and the payload
c. Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather
d. Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads

10.The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

a. Support the wings

b. House the crew and payload
c. Keep out adverse weather
d. Provide access to the cockpit

11.Station numbers (Stn.) and water line (WL) are:

a. A means of locating airframe structure and components

b. Passenger seat location
c. Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
d. Compass alignment markings
12.Flight deck windows are constructed from:

a. An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals

b. Strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and rubber pressure seals
c. Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure
seals
d. Strengthened glass with rubber seals

13.A cantilever wing:

a. Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires

b. Is supported at one and only with no external bracing
c. Has both an upper an lower aerofoil section
d. Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

14.A torsion box:

a. Is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads
b. Is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting
loads.
c. Is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear
d. Is a structure designed to reduce the weight

15.A lightening hole in a rib:

a. Prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage

b. Provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead
c. Collects and disposes of electrical changes
d. Lightens and stiffens the structure

16.Control surface flutter

a. Provides additional lift for take off and landing in the event of engine failure
b. Occurs at high angle of attack
c. Is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope
d. Is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing

17.Control surface flutter is minimised by

a. Reducing the moment of the critical engine

b. Aerodynamic balance of the control cables
c. Changing the wings before they reach their critical life
d. Mass balance of the control surface

18.A damage tolerant structure

a. Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area

b. Is light, non-load bearing structure, damage to which will not adversely affect the aircraft
c. Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
 d. Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance

19.Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

a. Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring
high strength
b. Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high
strength
c. Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high
strength
d. Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high
strength.

20.The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:

a. The maximum permissible take off mass of the aircraft

b. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no useable fuel
c. The maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload
d. The maximum permissible landing mass

STRUCTURES

1.Fail safe structures?

a. Are designed to remain safe for a specified number of hours or flight cycles
b. Aer designed such that if any element of structure fails, the loads will be carried by the
adjacent elements of structure
c. Are designed that all parts are likely to fail are inspected regularly
d. Do not require regular inspections

2.Trim tabs?

a. Reduce manoeuvring forces

b. Trim the aircraft in normal flight
c. Trim the aircraft in low speed flight
d. Reduce or cancel out control hinge moments

3.Duralumin is made of?

1. Aluminium
2. Copper
3. Aluminium copper alloy
4. Is easy to weld
5. Is difficult to weld
6. Is susceptible to corrosion
7. Is highly resistant to corrosion
8. Has good thermal conductivity
 9. Has poor thermal conductivity
a. 3,5,6,8
b. 1,2,5,9
c. 3,4,5,7
d. 1,5,7,9

4.Krueger flaps are used?

a. Outboard only
b. Inboard only
c. Usually inboard with slats outboard
d. Along the inboard trailing edge only

5.Trim tabs are fitted in order to?

a. Reduce control effectiveness at high speed

b. Increase control effectiveness at low speed
c. Reduce stick holding forces to zero
d. Reduce stick forces when manoeuvring

6.Flaperons are?

a. Combined rudder and flaps

b. Combined slots and flaps
c. Combined ailerons and flaps
d. Combined elevators and flaps

7.Fail safe construction?

a. Is used in all modern aircraft

b. Is used only in highly stressed military aerobatic aircraft
c. Is no longer used in commercial passenger aircraft
d. None of the above

8.Torsional aileron flutter involves?

a. C of G aft of hinge line and cyclic twisting of wings

b. C of G aft C or P and cyclic twisting of wings
c. C of P fwd. of torsional axis and cyclic twisting of wings
d. None of the above

9.Swept back wings are......to divergence?

a. More prone
b. Less prone
c. Never prone
d. None of the above
10.How is control mass balance achieved?

a. By fitting weight aft of the hinge

b. By fitting weight onto the leading edge
c. By fitting weights into the tip cap
d. By fitting a horn balance

11.Which of the following minimise adverse yaw?

a. Yaw damper
b. Duralumin
c. Roll spoilers
d. Trim damper

12.Aerodynamic balance methods include?

a. Split flaps and split rudder

b. Weights added to the leading edge of the control surfaces
c. Horn balance
d. Rudders and coupling

13.Adverse yaw in a turn may be corrected by?

a. Balance tabs
b. Anti-balance tabs
c. Differential ailerons
d. Mass balance

14.Which of the following is true of power assisted flying controls?

a. None of the aerodynamic loads are felt by the pilot

b. Same proportion of the aerodynamic load are felt by the pilot
c. The full aerodynamic load are felt by the pilot
d. Control is lost in the event of a total hydraulic failure

15.What is the purpose of the Mach trim system in a high speed aircraft?

a. To damp out phugoid motion in yaw

b. To prevent pitch up in shock stall
c. To prevent pitch down in shock stall
d. To prevent dutch roll

16.How do ailerons and roll spoilers respond if the control wheel is moved to the left?

a. Left aileron down, left spoiler does not move, right aileron and spoiler up
b. Right aileron and spoiler down, left aileron and spoiler up
c. Left aileron and spoiler down, right aileron and spoiler up
d. Left aileron and spoiler up, right aileron down, right remains retracted

17.A Yaw damper?

 a. Improves lateral stability
b. Prevents spiral instability
c. Is useful at low speeds only
d. Is not necessary in swept wing aircraft

18.Servo tabs?

a. Can sometimes be used following hydraulic power failure

b. Can never provide control following hydraulic power failure
c. Can always provide control following hydraulic power failure
d. Can never be used in power-assisted control system

19.Fully powered flying controls?

a. Are not required in large aircraft

b. Generate high stick forces at high speeds
c. Generates high stick forces at low speeds
d. Generate low stick forces

20. control reversal?

a. Occurs only in the transonic speed range

b. Cannot occur in the transonic speed range
c. Is most likely at high speeds
d. Is most likely at low speeds

21.The three of motion?

a. Cross
b. Corss at C of P
c. Cross at C of G
d. Cross at the neutral points

22.Primary flying controls include?

a. Ailerons, elevons and roll spoilers

b. Ailerons, air brakes and lift spoilers
c. Elevons, rudder and stabilisers
d. Rudder, roll spoilers and nose wheel steering

23.The Main stresses on the upper and lower skins of a wing in flight are?

a. Compression tension
b. Compression compression
c. Tension tension
d. Tension compression

FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEMS

1.The purpose of pully wheel in cable control system is:

a. To ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system

b. To change the direction of the control cable
c. To ensure smooth operation of the system
d. To prevent the cable from slackening

2.The purpose of the primary stops in a control system is:

a. To set the range of movement of the control surface

b. To enable the secondary stops to be correctly spaced
c. To limit control movement to one direction only
d. To set the control surface neutral position

3.The purpose of the secondary stops in a control system is:

a. To reduce the control loads on the primary stops

b. To limit control surface range in the event of primary stop failure
c. To limit the secondary control system from excessive movement
d. To remove the excess backlash in the controls

4.The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

a. Alter the angle of deflection of the cables

b. To guide the cables on to the pully wheels
c. To attack the cable to chain drives
d. To keep the cable straight and clear of structure

5.In a cable control system cables are tensioned to:

1. Remove backlash from the control linkage

2. Provide tension on the turnbuckles
3. Provide positive action in both directions
4. Ensure the full range is achieved
5. Compensate for temperature variations
a. 1, 3 and 5 only
b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. All the above

6.In a cable control system the cables are mounted in pairs to:

1. Remove backlash from the control linkage

2. Provide tension on the turnbuckles
3. Provide positive action in both directions
4. Ensure the full range is achieved
5. Compensate for temperature variations
a. 1, 3 and 5 only
 b. 3 only
c. 4 only
d. All the above

7.In a manual flying control system the control inputs to the primary control surfaces:

1. Are reversible
2. Are irreversible
3. Are instinctive for the movement required
4. Are opposite for the movement required
5. Are limited in range by flight deck obstructions
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 3 and 5 only

8.To yaw the aircraft to the right:

a. The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left
b. The right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right
c. The left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left
d. The left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves the left

9.To roll the aircraft to the right:

a. The rudder control is moved to the right, the right aileron moves up and the left down
b. The aileron control is moved to the left and the right aileron moves up and the left down
c. The aileron control is moved to the right and the right elevator goes up and the left one
down.
d. The aileron control is moved to the right and the right aileron goes up and the left one
down.

10.The advantages of a cable control are:

1. Light, very good strength to weight ratio

2. Easy to route through the aircraft
3. Less prone to impact damage
4. Takes up less volume
5. Less bolted joints
a. 1,2 and 4 only
b. 3 and 5 only
c. 1,2 and 5 only
d. All the above

LANDING GEAR

1.The advantage of tubeless tyres include?

1. The tube cannot rotate within the tyre

 2. The tyre cannot rotate relative to the wheel
3. The tyre will deflate if there is excessive creep
4. They are more easily fitted to wheels
5. The valves cannot be sheared off by excessive braking
a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 1,2,4,5
c. 1,3,4,5
d. 1,5

2.How is gear retraction prevented on the ground?

a. A warning sign on the lever

b. An aural warning system
c. Isolation of the hydraulic power when on the ground
d. Microswitches

3.A brake accumulator?

a. Permits use of brakes when engines are stopped

b. Allows for thermal contraction of fluid after shutdown
c. Maintain braking effect in the event of small leaks when parked

4.Thermal plug?

a. Release brake pressure to prevent overheating of brakes

b. Release excessive tyre pressure to prevent wheel/tyre explosions
c. Heat up the hydraulic fluid to working temperature
d. Active brake cooling fans at some pre-determined temperature

5.Landing gear legs are locked down by?

a. An amber warning light

b. The cylinder reaching the end of its range
c. Above centre geometric locking mechanism
d. Putting in the ground locks

6.Commercial passenger aircraft oleo struts employ?

a. Air
b. Nitrogen
c. Helium
d. Halon

7.An under inflated tyre operating on a dry runway will?

a. Improve braking efficiency

b. Increase wear at the shoulders
c. Increase wear at the centre
d. Decrease viscous aquaplaning speed
8.Anti-skid systems?

a. Increase fluid pressure to the slower level

b. Increase fluid pressure to the faster level
c. Decrease fluid pressure to the slower level
d. Decrease fluid pressure to the faster level

9.How is anti-skid system disconnected?

a. Automatically when spoilers are deployed

b. Automatically upon touch down
c. Automatically when a specified speed is reached after touch-down
d. Manually after the end of the landing run

10.Tubeless tyres?

a. Can be deflated by creep

b. Explode if punctured
c. Can be deflated due to the valve being torn out by excessive braking
d. Are lighter than tubed ones

11.Shimmy is potentially damaging oscillation occurs when?

a. Landing gear is retracted

b. Landing gear is extended
c. Moving at low speeds on the ground
d. Moving at high speeds on the ground

12.Fusible plug react to?

a. High pressures
b. High temperatures
c. Low pressures
d. Low temperatures

13.The indication of gear down and locked is?

a. All lights out

b. Three reds
c. Three greens
d. Gear down caption illuminated

14.Emergency landing gear extension in modern passenger aircraft is usually powered by?

a. Essential services AC busbar

b. Essential service DC busbar
c. Stored HP air
d. Gravity

15.Power for the landing gear is usually provided by means of?

 a. HP pneumatic systems
b. DC electrics
c. AC electrics
d. HP hydraulics

16.The majority of modern transport aircraft use.......brake units?

a. Drum
b. Multi drum
c. Disc
d. Multi disc

17.The recommended maximum taxying speed to reduce tyre wear is?

a. 20 kts
b. 22 kts
c. 30 kts
d. 45 kts

18.Shimmy is often prevented in light aircraft with single nose wheel by?

a. A morstrand tyre
b. Shimmy dampers
c. Power steering
d. Non-castoring nose-wheel

19.Inadvertent gear selection in flight is prevented in light aircraft by?

a. Squat switches
b. Ground locks
c. Micro-switches
d. Detented selector levers

20.Emergency gear extension in larger aircraft is typically by means of?

a. High pressure oxygen

b. High pressure nitrogen or gravity
c. Hand pump
d. RAT

21.The device which ensures that gear doors are open before the gear is raised to?

a. Micro-switch
b. Squat-switch
c. Sequence value
d. One way restrictor valve

22.Unlocked gear is indicated by?

 a. Audible warnings
b. Red lights
c. Green lights
d. Flashing red lights

23.Anti-skid is operational when?

a. The wheels are on the ground

b. The wheels are on the ground and ground speed is greater than 20 mph
c. Landing gear is dawn and locked
d. All the times when selected on

24.A differential braking system?

a. Applies different forces to the nose and when brakes to keep the aircraft track straight
b. Applies different forces to the wheel brakes depending on the forces applied by the to the
foot pedals
c. Has a parking brake lever for each main wheel
d. Is used only in light aircraft

25.Brake indications in light aircraft typically include?

a. Temperature, system pressure, wear and anti-skid conditions

b. Temperature and anti-skid conditions
c. Wear and anti-skid condition
d. Temperature, system pressure and anti-skid condition

26.Braking is most effective when the wheels are?

a. Stopped
b. Spinning at high speed
c. Just about to skid
d. Skidding hut still spinning slowly

27.Brake fade is caused by?

a. Ingress of water between pads and discs

b. Over heating of pads
c. Melting of discs
d. Boiling of hydraulic fluid

28.Why must CO2 not be used to extinguish when brake fires?

a. It will corrode the brake disc

b. It will crack the brake disc
c. It will cause the wheels to explode
d. It will not extinguish burning rubber

29.Excessive use of brake is likely to cause?

 a. Rapid tyre deflation
b. Boiling of brake fluid
c. Slow tyre deflation
d. Tyre bursting

30.Creep?

a. Is rotational movement of the brake discs when pressure is low

b. Is rotational movement of the tyre around the wheel rim
c. Is caused by excessive tyre pressures
d. Does not happen with tubed tyres

31.Shimmy is?

a. Rapid oscillations of the main wheels about their axles

b. Rapid oscillation movement of the tyre around the wheel rim
c. Slow oscillation of the main wheels about their bogies
d. Slow vertical oscillation of the nose wheels

32.One way restrictors in gear operating systems?

a. Restrict retraction rate to prevent impact damage with the fuselage

b. Restrict extension rate to prevent damage to gear stops and attachments
c. Restrict both extension and retraction rates to prevent damage
d. Restrict retraction rate in the event of a burst hydraulic pipe

33.Creep is indicated by?

a. Green spots on the tyre walls

b. White lines on the tyre walls and wheel rims
c. Red dots on wheels and tyre walls
d. Tearing of the tyre sidewall rubber

34.Brake dragging is caused by?

a. The pilot keeping his toes on the pedals in the flight

b. Air trapping in the brake hydraulic system
c. Excessive main hydraulic system pressure
d. Worn brake pads or shoes

35.Creep is most likely to occur with?

a. Worn tyres
b. Over inflated tyres
c. Newly fitted tyres
d. Marstrand tyres

36.Light aircraft nose wheel steering is usually by?

a. Pneumatic power
 b. Hydraulic power
c. Electrical power
d. Push-pull rods

37.Anti-skid?

a. Prevents wheel locking when taking off

b. Prevents wheel locking when landing
c. Prevents wheel locking when landing and brake application during the approach to land
d. Operates only in contaminated or wet runway conditions

38.The auto-brake system is disengaged?

a. Manually
b. Automatically when aircraft stops
c. Automatically at 75 kts
d. Automatically at taxi speeds (22 kts)

39.Anti-skid systems?

a. Prevent skidding or slush, snow and ice

b. Prevent wheels from locking when carrying out an RTO
c. Improves both take off and landing performance
d. All of the above

40.Grey or green dots on tyre sidewalls indicate?

a. The heaviest part of the tyre

b. The lightest part of the tyre
c. Small holes to dissipate trapped air
d. Small holes caused by trapped air

41.Shimmy dampers are fitted to?

a. Main gear only

b. Main and nose gear
c. Nose gear only
d. Non nose gears only

42.Creep is?

a. Affects only tubeless tyres

b. Affects only tubed tyres
c. Can tear out the valves of tubeless tyres
d. Can tear out the valves of tubed tyres

43.Brake dragging is most likely to occur when?

 a. Pads are worn out and brakes are cold
b. Discs are worn out and brakes are hot
c. Discs are wrapped and brakes are cold
d. Air is trapped in the system and brakes are hot

44.If tyre pressure is 225 psi, its aquaplaning speed will be?

a. 105 kts
b. 115 kts
c. 125 kts
d. 135 kts

45.Inadvertent gear retraction on the ground is prevented by?

a. Gravity
b. Safety pins
c. Ground/air logic system
d. A gated or guarded gear lever

46.How is the main undercarriage normally locked in the down position?

a. Hydraulic pressure and mechanical lock

b. Hydraulic pressure
c. Hydraulic pressure and geometric lock
d. A geometric lock and a mechanical lock

47.The most probable cause of nose wheel shimmy is?

a. Shock absorber extension low

b. Worn torques links and toggles
c. Low tyre inflation pressure
d. Excessive shock absorber extension

48.When the main undercarriage is selected DOWN in flight, IT IS LOCKED DOWN by?

a. Hydraulic down locks

b. Locking pins and warning flags
c. Sequence valves
d. Spring loaded lock jacks imposing a geometric lock in the side stays or drag struts

49.A red hand painted on the wall of a tyre is?

a. Light spot
b. Balance mark
c. Heavy spot
d. Creep mark

50.The aerated pressure of an aircraft tyre is?

a. Loaded pressure when the aircraft is cold

 b. Unloaded pressure when the tyre is hot
c. Loaded pressure when the tyre is not
d. Unloaded pressure when the tyre is cold

51.A rated pressure in an aircraft tyre is recommended by?

a. The aircraft operator

b. The aviation authority of the country from which the aircraft operates
c. The european aviation authority
d. The tyre manufactures

52.A ribbed tyre is worn to its limits when it is worn to?

a. 4 nm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves

b. 2 nm from the bottom of any grooves
c. 4 nm from the bottom of any groove
d. 2 nm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves

53.An advantage of a nose wheel undercarriage configuration over a tail wheel configuration is?

a. A reduced landing speed

b. Reduce possibility of a nose-over in a crosswind
c. Reduced aircraft weight
d. Less complex construction of the undercarriage

54.Aircraft nose wheel shimmy is?

a. Rapid oscillation of the wheel about the wheel axis

b. Commonly caused low shock absorber gas pressure
c. Oscillation of wheel about its track
d. Rapid vertical displacement of the wheel due to uneven ground

55.A fire of aircraft’s wheel or wheel brake will require which of the following types of portable hand
held fire extinguishers to be used?

a. CO2 or BCF
b. CO2
c. Foam
d. Dry powder

56.A main undercarriage unit is locked by?

a. Hydraulic pressure
b. Torque links
c. A mechanical lock and a spring loaded centre lock
d. A hydraulic lock and mechanical lock

57.The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber (shock strut) employs:

a. Oil and spring

 b. Oil and air (or nitrogen)
c. Oil only
d. Air and coil spring

58.A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to?

a. Aircraft speed
b. Hydraulic system fluid pressure
c. Hydraulic system fluid pressure and temperature
d. Angular deceleration

LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES (DGCA)

1.Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

a. Support the weight of the aircraft

b. Limit the speed of compression of the strut
c. Lubricate the piston within the cylinder
d. Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut

2.The nose wheel assembly must be cantered before retraction because:

a. There is limited space in the nose wheel bay

b. The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight
c. The gyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight
d. It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off

3.The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

a. Prevent the fluid becoming aerated

b. Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast
c. Make the lowering time greater than the rising time
d. Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated

4.Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

a. Not possible because the system is not powerful enough

b. Prevented by the ground/air logic system
c. Always a danger after the ground locks have been removed
d. The responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft

5.Creep (Slippage):

a. Is not a problem with tubeless tyres

b. Refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes
c. Can rip out the inflation valve and deflate the tyre
d. Can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre

6.Tyre wear when taxying can be reduced:

 a. Restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers
b. Taxying at less than 40 kph
c. Staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway
d. Taxying at less than 25 knots

7.To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxying you should:

a. Use tyres with fusible plugs

b. Make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted
c. Turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius
d. Deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure

8.The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

a. CO2
b. Dry Powder
c. Freon
d. Water

9.When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the gauge should be
modified by:

a. 10 psi
b. 100/0
c. 4 psi
d. 4%

10.The most likely cause of brake fade is:

a. Oil or grease on the brake drums

b. Worn stators
c. The pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. Overheating

11.The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:

a. The aircraft main hydraulic system

b. The pilots brake pedals
c. A self-contained power pack
d. The hydraulic reservoir

12.Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run:

I. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed

II. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
III. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels start to skid
 IV. The use of cadence braking
V. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum pressure towards
the end.
VI. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
VII. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the landing run.
a. i, ii, vi, vii
b. i, iii, vi, vii
c. i, iv, vi, vii
d. i, v, vi, vii

13.The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:

a. Vp= 9x P where is kglcm2 and Vp is in knots

b. Vp= 9x P where P is psi and Vp is in mph
c. Vp=9x P where P is psi and Vp is in knots
d. Vp=34x P where P is kgl cm2 and Vp is in mph

14.An aircraft has a type pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:

a. 135 mph
b. 135 knots
c. 145 knots
d. 145 mph

15.Landing gear ground locking pins are:

a. Fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked
b. Removed prior to flight and returned to stores
c. Fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the down lock jack
d. Removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are visible to the crew

16.The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:

a. Dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies

b. Grease on the rotor assembly
c. The brake pressure being too high
d. A torque link is worn or damaged

17.A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

a. Aircraft is overweight
b. The tyre pressures are too high
c. The aircraft is incorrectly loaded
d. A torque link is worn or damaged

18.Creep (Slippage):

a. Can damage the braking system

b. Can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim
 c. May cause excess wear
d. Never occur on new tyres

19.The anti-skid system would be used:

a. On landing runs only

b. On take off runs only
c. For take off on icy runways
d. For both take off and landing runs

20.A hydraulic gear retraction mechanism consists of sequence valves, uplocks and:

a. An anti-skid braking system

b. Downlocks
c. Torque links
d. A shock absorber

21.A nose wheel steering control system:

a. Prevents the nosewheel from castering at all times

b. Allows the nosewheel to caster within preset limits when in the neutral position
c. Allows the nosewheel to caster freely at all times
d. Prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nosewheels are not centralised

22.At an aircraft taxying speed of 10 mph the antiskid braking system is:

a. Inoperative
b. Operative
c. Operative only on the nosewheel brakes
d. Operative only on the main wheel brakes

23.The tyre pressure are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will
have:

a. Fallen by 15% from their rated value

b. Reisen by 15% from their rated value
c. Remained constant
d. Reisen by 10% of their original value

24.The ply rating of a tyre:

a. Always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase

b. Never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcase
c. Indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted
d. Is the index of the tyre strength

25.When the landing gear is selected UP the sequence of lights is:

a. Red, green, out

b. Red, out, green
 c. Green, red, out
d. Out, red, green

26.The amount of wear on a reinforced, ribbed tread tyre is indicated by:

a. The offset wear groove

b. Marker tie bars
c. Concentric wear rings
d. Grey cushion rubber

27.In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and
the flaps down and the gear up, the warning given to the pilot will be a:

a. Continuous bell
b. Horn
c. Buzzer
d. Stick shaker

28.Loweringt the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors:

a. Closing hydraulically
b. Closing mechanically
c. Remaining open
d. Being jettisoned

29.With RTO (rejected take –off) selected and armed the brakes will be automatically applied if:

a. V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance

b. Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance
c. Reverse thrust is selected at any time
d. One of the thrust levers is returned to idle

30.A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ......... is reached.

a. 1770 C
b. 2770 C
c. 1550 C
d. 1990 C

ANTI-ICING

1.The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:

a. Is controlled to give an intermittent supply

b. Must be taken directly from the APU generator
c. Must only be selected on for short periods
d. Is continuous to all blades
2.Propeller blade heating elements are:

a. Fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs
b. Fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs
c. Usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is fitted to a mid section
d. Fitted to the complete leading edge

3.When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 deg.C in precipitation which
type fo fluid and application method will provide the longest holdover period:

a. Type I fluid @ 100% cold spray application

b. Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application
c. Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application
d. Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray application

4.The effect of frost on an aircraft:

a. Is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset of the stall
b. Can be generally ignored
c. Has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or CL max
d. Is to cause an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin friction and
reduces the kinetic energy of the boundary layer.

5.In flight airframe icing does not occur:

a. Above 25,000 ft
b. Above 40,000 ft
c. Above 35,000 ft
d. Above 30,000 ft

6.The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:

a. Mechanical or pneumatic or fluid

b. Pneumatic or thermal or fluid
c. Electrically heated or air heated or oil heated
d. Centrifugally forced or ram air heated

7.Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:

a. That they are approaching airframe icing conditions

b. That they are approaching engine icing conditions
c. That engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine system
d. That airframe icing conditions exist

8.Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:

a. A centrifugal slipper ring and pipes

b. Integral passage within the propeller dome
c. A small reservoir contained within the spinner
 d. Slinger ring and pipes

9.If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure

a. The aircraft can be de-iced with the engine running

b. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running
c. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running and the bleed air off
d. Neither the APU or main engines can be running during the procedure

10.With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected “ON”

a. Whenever the igniters are on

b. Whenever the IOAT is + 10 deg.C or below and the air contains
c. Whenever the IOAT is + 10 deg.C or below and it is raining
d. Whenever the ice detector system warning flight comes on

1.In a pneumatic de-icing system:

a. The boots remain inflated while the system operates

b. The boots are inflated and deflated repeatedly
c. Vacuum inflates the boot and pressure deflates them repeatedly
d. When the boots are fully inflated the pressure is released and they collapse due to their
elasticity

2.When the pneumatic de-icer system is switched off?

a. The relief valves admit ram air to the boots

b. A small flow of hot air continuously flows through the boots
c. The dynamic pressure on the leading edge ensures that the boots lie flat
d. Vacuum deflates the boots to minimise drag

3.Propeller electrical de-icing systems:

a. Use only continuous loads to the elements

b. Use a cyclic timer
c. Convert electrical energy to mechanical energy
d. Transfer power to the elements via a commutator in DC systems

4.To prevent propeller elements overheating:

a. Use only when all other services are switched off

b. Carry out a load check before starting engines
c. Use only when the propellers are rotating
d. Use only when in flight

5.A thermal wing de-icing system:

a. Feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface

b. Feeds the engine exhaust through the lending edge ducts only
 c. Can use air taken from the engine compressor
d. Relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow

6.Pilot cockpit windows are heated:

a. Only to prevent condensation occurring

b. By agitating the window molecules with an AC current
c. With a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging
d. By passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating

7.For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:

a. Normally kept to a minimum size

b. Specially treated during construction
c. Heated internally to increase their elasticity
d. Only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 deg.C in precipitation

8.Pilot cockpit windows are:

a. Only heated by air from the de-misting fan

b. Constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare
c. Made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating
d. Made of polarised glass

9.If an aircraft is to be de-iced prior to departure

a. The aircraft can be de-iced with engines running

b. The aircraft can be de-iced with the APU running
c. The aircraft can be de-iced with APU running and bleed air selected off
d. Neither APU or engines can be running

10.An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure which de-ice fluid will have
the best holdover time at 0 deg.C with precipitation:

a. Type I fluid at 100% cold spray

b. A 50% / 50% solution of type II fluid hot spray
c. A 50% / 50% solution of type I fluid hot spray
d. Type II fluid at 100% cold spray

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT DGCA QUESTIONS

1.A flight deck indication that a fixed fire extinguisher has been fired is:

a. A green coloured bursting disc

b. A protruding indicate pin at the discharge head
c. Low pressure warning lamp
d. Thermal discharge indicator
2.One type of extinguishing agent you would expect to find in an aircraft installed engine fire
protection system is:

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Argon
c. Helium
d. Freon

3.A-wheel brake fire should be fought with a:

a. Water/gas fire extinguisher

b. Dry powder extinguisher
c. Carbon dioxide extinguisher
d. Foam fire extinguisher

4.An engine fire extinguisher has discharged due to an over temperature conditions occuring in its
vicinity. This will be indicated by:

a. A bursting disc in the discharge nozzle

b. An externally mounted warning lamp
c. An externally mounted discharge indicator showing red
d. An audible warning

5.On a multi engine aircraft, an engine fire warning system consists of:

a. Flashing red lights for each engine and a warning horn

b. Steady red light for each engine and a common warning bell
c. Flashing red light for each engine and a common warning bell
d. Steady red light and bell for each engine

6.Smoke detectors are fitted in:

a. Passenger cabins cargo bays, electrical equipment bays

b. Cargo bays, APU compartment, toilets
c. Toilets, electrical equipment bays, APU compartments
d. Cargo bays, electrical equipment bays, toilets

7.A short circuit in a resistive “fire wire” detector will:

a. Fire the squib in the fire bottle discharge head

b. Cause a spurious fire warning to be received
c. Cause the blowout disc to be ruptured
d. Disable the test circuit

8.On receipt of an engine fire warning on the flight deck the correct procedure should be:

a. Fight the fire with the flight deck BCF fire extinguisher
b. Pull the fire handle, fire the fire extinguisher, shut down the engine
c. Shut down the affected engine, pull the fire handle, fire the first extinguisher
 d. Fire the first extinguisher, pull the fire handle, shut down the engine

9.Fire detection systems:

a. Automatically fire the engine extinguishers

b. Can only use AC electricity
c. Are connected to the Vital bus bar
d. Can be tested from the flight deck

10.A toilet fire extinguisher is activated:

a. By high temperature in its vicinity

b. By remote control from the flight deck
c. By a switch at the nearest flight attendant station
d. By a smoke detector

11.Emergency exits:

a. Can only be opened from the inside

b. Must have an escape slide fitted to them
c. Are painted yellow
d. Must be outlined externally by a 2 inch band of contrasting colour

12.Regulations governing the fitting, marking and use of safety equipment is contained in

a. British Civil Airworthiness Requirements

b. Navigation Regulations
c. Joint Airworthiness Requirements
d. Operations manual

13.An automatic escape slide:

a. Can be armed from the inside of the aircraft only

b. Can only be activated from the flight deck
c. Automatically inflates when the crash switches are activated
d. Inflates when the recovery team open the door from the outside of the aircarft

14.Emergency lighting must be capable of remaining illuminated for a minimum of :

a. 5 mins
b. 7 mins
c. 10 mins
d. 15 mins

15.The LED indicator light on the emergency torch is flashing at 4 second intervals. This indicates:

a. The battery is charging

b. The torch is serviceable
c. The battery needs replacing
d. The filament is broken
16.Nomex gloves are provided on the flight deck to:

a. Protect hands during cold weather refuelling operations

b. Remove hot meal containers from the oven
c. Protect hands from hot materials during firefighting
d. To allow turn around checks to be carried out on a hot gas turbine engine

17.If the emergency lighting system is powered from the aircraft electrical system, it takes is power
supply from:

a. AC essential bus-bar
b. DC essential bus-bar
c. Vital DC bus-bar
d. The inverter

18.Life jackets are inflated with compressed:

a. Helium
b. Nitrogen
c. Freon
d. Carbon Dioxide

19.Emergency lighting:

a. Can be switched on from the flight deck only

b. Must illuminate the inside of the passenger cabin only
c. Comprises flight deck lighting, cabin internal and external lighting
d. Once activated cannot be switched off

20.A Cut –in area:

a. Always has a crash axe located next to it

b. Is designated as a weaker fuselage area
c. Is lit internally by the emergency lighting system
d. Is delineated by external markings having right angled corners

FUEL SYSTEMS

1.With an increase in altitude the boiling point of fuel will:

a. Stay the same

b. Increases
c. Decreases
d. Increase up to FL80 then remain the same

2.Modern jet aircraft fuel tanks are pressurised:

a. By air from the engine compressor to prevent cavitation

 b. By air from the air conditioning system to prevent cavitation
c. By ram air to prevent cavitation
d. By ram air to stabilise the boiling point

3.Fuel is heated from which of the following:

a. Air conditioning air

b. Air from the compressor
c. Air from the Bootstrap
d. Air from the turbine

4.Fuel is heated to:

a. Prevent waxing
b. Ensure vapour losses are minimised
c. Make ti more viscous
d. Make it easier to flow under all conditions

5.Fuel booster pumps are situated in:

a. The fuel tanks

b. In the line between the main fuel tanks and the engine
c. Low pressure side of the engine
d. High pressure side of the engine

6.In a high by pass engine fuel pumps are driven by:

a. High pressure turbine

b. High pressure compressor
c. Low pressure compressor
d. Intermediate compressor

7.The effect of the high pressure compressor outlet pressure exceeding its maximum value would
be:

a. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU reduce fuel, reduce RPM
b. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU) FCU increase fuel, increase RPM
c. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), bleed valve open, bleed off excess volume
of air
d. Pressure sensor input to fuel control unit (FCU), bleed valve open, bleed off excess pressure

8.Which of the following is a normal stopping device for a gas turbine:

a. LP shut off valve close

b. Fuel tank booster pumps select off
c. HP shut off valve close
d. Isolate electrics from engine
9.Which of the following is a correct statement?

a. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drain is closed by a pressure operated
NRV
b. When an engine is running, the combustion chamber drains tank is opened by a pressure
operated NRV
c. When the engine is shut down the drains tank closes to minimise fuel losses
d. When the engine is shut down, residual fuel is syphoned directly back to the fuel tanks to
minimise fuel losses

10.The fuel flow-meter is situated:

a. Between LP pump and the FCOC

b. Between LP pump and HP pump
c. Just before FCU
d. Between HP shut off valve and fuel nozzles

11.An overheat in the turbine will result in:

a. An electrical signal from the thermocouple sent directly to the FCU and fuel being reduced
b. An electrical signal from the thermocouple amplified then sent directly to the FCU and fuel
being reduced
c. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently throttling back the
engine, therefore reducing fuel
d. Pilot observing overheat on temperature gauge then subsequently increasing RPM to
increase airflow, to increase cooling air, to decrease turbine temperature

12.Aircraft flying at FL 420, if the booster pumps feeding the engine cease to work

a. The engine would close down immediately

b. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to
the low pressure and low boiling point of the fuel
c. The LP pump will draw fuel from the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to
the low pressure and higher boiling point of the fuel
d. The LP pump will draw fuel form the tank, but there may be a possibility of cavitation due to
the higher pressure and higher boiling point of the fuel

13.The fuel cooled oil cooler:

a. Heats the oil and cools the fuel

b. Heats the fuel only
c. Cools the oil only
d. Heats the fuel and cools the oil

FUEL SYSTEM

1.Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

a. To assist in correct fuel distribution

 b. To prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres
c. To prevent the static build up in the tank during refuelling
d. To channel fuel to the vent valve

2.A power failure to a capacitive fuel contents system would cause the gauge to:

a. Show full scale deflection high

b. Fluctuate between high and low readings
c. Remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure
d. Show full scale deflection low

3.A fuel booster pump, besides pumping fuel to the engine, can also be utilised to:

a. Jettison and transfer fuel

b. Jettison and heat the fuel
c. Transfer and heat the fuel
d. Transfer and recycle the fuel

4.During fuel jettison the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:

a. High level float switches

b. Preset jettison quantity switches
c. The crew remaining alert
d. Low level float switches

5.To indicate that a refuelling bowser carries JET AI aviation kerosene:

a. Yellow and black stripes are marked on the refuelling hose

b. JET AI would be painted in 30 cm high symbols on the side of the container
c. JET AI is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on the vehicle
d. The driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket

6.Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft’s engine fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET
E instead of its normal JET AI fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:

a. The change in the specific gravity of the fuel

b. The change in the calorific value of the fuel
c. The change in the viscosity of the fuel
d. The lack of HITECK lubricant in the fuel

7.The difference between AVGAS 100 and AVGAS 100 LL are:

Colour Anti-knock value:

a. Same Same
b. Same Different
c. Different Same
d. Different Different

8.The aircraft cannot be refuelled while:

 a. A ground power unit is operating on the ramp
b. Passengers are walking through the refuelling zones
c. Passengers are boarding
d. The APU is running

9.The disadvantage of refuelling the aircraft to “tank full” the night before a departure in the heat of
the day is that:

a. The change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight
b. The change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system
c. The change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient
d. The RPM governor will be rendered inoperative

10.An aircraft using MOGAS

a. Is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power

b. Must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks
c. Is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburettor icing
d. Will suffer from a loss of power during take off

FUEL SYSTEM

1.If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:

a. Water contamination
b. Anti-microbiological additives
c. Mixing different fuel grades
d. Oil in the fuel

2.On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system
graduated to read in kg. The temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the
fuel expands by 10% the gauges will show:

a. An increase of 10%
b. A decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity
c. A decrease
d. The same amount

3.The exhaust gases from the A.P.U. go into the refuelling zone. The A.P.U.:

a. Must be switched OFF throughout the refuelling operation

b. Can be started while refuelling is carried out
c. Must be started before fuelling is carried out, and can be run throughout the refuelling
operation
d. Can be started only after the refuelling operation has been terminated

4.De-fuelled fuel:
 a. Can only be used in domestic heating systems
b. Can only be used by aircraft from the same operators fleet
c. Must be put back into storage
d. Cannot be re-used until its quality has been verified

5.The background colour scheme for fuelling system pipelines carrying the following fuels is:

JET AI AVGAS

a. Red Black
b. Black Red
c. Red Yellow
d. Yellow Red

6.AVGAS

a. Is coloured red for identification purpose

b. Is coloured green if it is a leaded fuel and blue if it is a low lead fuel
c. Has no artificial colouring and appear either clear or a straw yellow colour
d. Can only be used in piston engines if oil is added to improve its anti-knock properties

7.Information relating to the use of MOGAS can be found in:

a. C.A.A. General Aviation Safety Sense Leaflets

b. Advisory Information Circulars
c. Notams
d. C.A.A. Airworthiness Publications

8.The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:

a. The use of fuel from any tank to any engine

b. Refuelling when only one bowser is in use
c. Isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire
d. Transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks

9.Refuelling with passengers on board is not permissible:

a. On a fixed wing aircraft

b. If AVGAS is being used
c. If the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to passengers is
greater than 1:50 and it is a wide bodied jet.
d. In any of the above cases

10.While refuelling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:

a. Two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of the aircraft
b. The rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant ready for use as
an emergency exit using the inflatable escape slide
c. Ground servicing must not be carried out
 d. Catering and cleaning must not be carried out

FUEL SYSTEMS

1.A “wide-cut” fuel is:

a. More flammable than a kerosene type fuel

b. Less volatile than a kerosene type fuel
c. Coloured red for identification purposes
d. Commonly used in civilian transport aircraft

2.The purpose of fitting baffles in fuel tanks is to:

a. Prevent longitudinal movement of the fuel during acceleration

b. Allow the booster pump to remain covered by fuel irrespective of the aircraft attitude
c. Dampen lateral movement of the fuel in the wing tanks during a sideslip
d. Maintain a pre-determined quantity of fuel in the outboard section of the wing tanks

3.Fuel is heated:

a. To stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump

b. To maintain a constant viscosity
c. To prevent water contamination
d. To stop ice blocking the Low Pressure Fuel Filter

4.What is the function of a collector tank (feeder box)

a. Prevent detonation during take off

b. Prevent cavitation of the booster pumps
c. Prevent fuel surge due to extreme aircraft altitude
d. Allow suction feeding of the engine pump

5.Fuel tank booster pumps are:

a. Centrifugal, low pressure

b. Centrifugal, high pressure
c. Gear type, low pressure
d. Gear type , high pressure

6.The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:

a. Responds to changes in specific gravity

b. Compensate for high altitude flight
c. Responds automatically to extremely low temperatures
d. Compensates for aircraft altitude changes

7.The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

a. Backs up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails

b. Backs up in case of a double booster pump failure
 c. Assists in the refuelling operation if only low pressure refuelling systems are available
d. Pressurises the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pump

8.The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:

a. Heat the oil and cool the fuel

b. Heat the fuel and cool the oil
c. Cool the oil
d. Heat the fuel

9.If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge
would indicate:

a. Full scale low (zero)

b. It would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel
c. Full scale high (max)
d. It would freeze at the last known indication

10.AVTUR or JET AI:

a. Varies in colour between clear and straw yellow

b. Is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft
c. Is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point
d. Is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines