The magnetic field outside a long straight current- 1/R

carrying wire depends on the distance R from the wire

axis according to:

A small 1-mm-diameter circular loop is at the center of 0.4 x 10¯¹¹ A

a large 20-cm-diameter loop. Both loops lie in the same
plane. The current in outer loop changes from 2 A to 10
A in 5 seconds. What is the induced current in the inner
loop if its resistance is 1 ohm?

The figure shows the motion of electrons in a wire that upwards

is near the N pole of a magnet. The wire will be pushed:

The current is from left to right in the conductor shown. positive

The magnetic field is into the page and point S is at a
higher potential than point T. The charge carriers are
_____.

For loop of a current-carrying wire in a uniform in the same direction as the field
magnetic field the potential energy is a minimum if the
magnetic dipole moment of the loop is:
A bar magnet is moved at a steady speed of 1.0 m/s opposite direction as previously, with the
towards a coil of wire which is connected to a center- magnitude of the deflection halved
zero galvanometer. The magnet is now withdrawn
along the same path of 0.5 m/s. The deflection of the
galvanometer is in the:

Choose the correct statement concerning electric field field lines are close together where the field is
lines: large

The direction of the magnetic field in a certain region one of the directions of the velocity when the
of space is determined by firing a test charge into the magnetic force is zero
region with its velocity in various directions in different
trials. The field direction is:

Two long straight wires carrying the same current 15 A 4.50 cm

exert a force of 0.001 N per unit length on each other.
What is the distance between the wires?

A constant current is sent through a helical coil. The tends to get shorter
coil:
An electron moves in the negative x direction, through negative z direction
a uniform magnetic field in the negative y direction.
The magnetic force on the electric is in the ______.

An electric field is most directly related to: the force acting on a test charge

A “coulomb” is: the amount of charge that flows past a point in

one second when the current is 1 A

With an electromagnet, Both more current and more coil turns mean a
stronger magnetic field and if there is no current
in the coil, there is no magnetic field.

The magnetic field B inside a long ideal solenoid is the cross-sectional area of the solenoid
independent of:
Two long straight wires carrying the same current I and 96Fo
separated by a distance r exert a force F on each other.
The current is increased to 4I and the separation is
reduced to r/6 . What will be the force between two
wires? Let Fo = F old.

An electron travels due north through a vacuum in a be unaffected by the field

region of uniform magnetic field that is also directed
due north. It will:

zero
An electron is moving north in a region where the
magnetic field is south. The magnetic force exerted on
the electron is _____.

When a small voltage is generated across the width of a Hall

conductor carrying current in an external magnetic
field, the effect is called the ____ effect.

Two long parallel straight wires carry equal currents in non-zero and perpendicular to the plane of the
opposite directions. At a point midway between the two wires
wires, the magnetic field they produce is:
Lines of the magnetic field produced by a long straight circles that are concentric with the wire
wire carrying a current are:

he figure below shows a rectangular coil of wire placed commence to rotate clockwise
in a magnetic field and free to rotate about axis AB. If
the current flows into the coil at C, the coil will:

If R is the distance from a magnetic dipole, then the 1/R³

magnetic field it produces is proportional to:

A closed magnetic circuit of cast steel contains a 6 cm 1.51 T

long path of cross-sectional area 1 cm² and a 2 cm path
of cross-sectional area 0.5 cm². A coil of 200 turns is
wound around the 6 cm length of the circuit and a
current of 0.4 A flows. Determine the flux density in
the 2 cm path, if the relative permeability of the cast
steel is 750.

The magnetic dipole moment of a current-carrying loop in the positive y direction

of wire is in the positive z direction. If a uniform
magnetic field is in the positive x direction the
magnetic torque on the loop is:
Suppose a 1-kΩ resistor will dissipate 1.05 W, and you Two 2.2 kΩ, 1-W resistors in parallel
have many 1-W resistors of all common values. If
there‟s room for 20-percent resistance error, the
cheapest solution is to use:

A 10-Ω resistor dissipates 1 W of power when 4W

connected to a dc voltage source. If the value of dc
voltage is doubles, the resistor will dissipate how much
power?

An inductor works by: Storing energy as a magnetic field

An advantage of a rheostat over a potentiometer is that: A rheostat can handle more current

Two inductors, having values of 44 mH and 88 mH, are 260 mH

connected in series with a coefficient of coupling equal
to 1.0 (maximum possible mutual inductance). If their
fields reinforce, the net inductance (to two significant
digits) is:
The diagram shows an inductor that is part of a circuit. The current is increasing and leftward
The direction of the emf induced in the inductor is
indicated. Which of the following is possible?

Calculate the cross-sectional area, in mm², of a piece of 3.2 mm²

copper wire, 40 m in length and having a resistance of
0.25 Ω. Take the resistivity of copper as 0.02 × 10¯⁶ Ω-
m.

A wire has a resistance of 5.7 Ω. What will be the 34.2 Ω

resistance of another wire of the same material three
times as long and one half the cross-sectional area?

A major feature of a pot-core winding is: large inductance in small volume

6 μF
A capacitor has capacitance C = 6 μF and a charge Q =
2 nC. If the charge is increased to 4 nC what will be the
new capacitance?
The mutual inductance between two coils, when a 0.5 mH
current changing at 20 A/s in one coil induces an e.m.f.
of 10 mV in the other, is:

What is the effective capacitance of the circuit shown 7.3 μF

below? C₁ = 10 μF, C₂ = 5 μF and C₃ = 4 μF

A parallel-plate capacitor has plates of area 0.1 m² and 10,000 V/m

carries a charge of 9 nC. What is the electric field
between the plates?

Which of the following does not affect the inductance The diameter of the wire
of a coil?

If a short circuit is placed across the leads of a resistor, zero

the current in the resistor itself would be ____.
Bleeder resistors: Are connected across the capacitor in a power
supply

Reading from left to right, the colored bands on a out of tolerance.

resistor are yellow, violet, brown and gold. If the
resistor measures 513 Ω with an ohmmeter, it is:

A coil of copper wire has a resistance of 100 Ω when its 130.1 Ω

temperature is 0ᵒC. Determine its resistance at 70ᵒC if
the temperature coefficient of resistance of copper at
0ᵒC is 0.0043/ᵒC.

A meter-sensitivity control in a test equipment would A linear-taper potentiometer

probably be:

Inductive reactance results in a current that ______. lags the voltage by π/2 rad
Which has more resistance, a 100-ft length of No. 12 The 100-ft length of No. 12 gage aluminum wire.
gage copper wire or a 100-ft length of No. 12 gage
aluminum wire?

A flat coil of wire, having 5 turns, has an inductance L. 16 L

The inductance of a similar coil having 20 turns is:

Energy is stored and released quickly

In a small inductance:

Has less reactance than a wirewound type

A metal-film resistor:

Of the following, which is not a common use of a Increasing the charge in a capacitor
resistor?
A 220-Ω R₁, 2.2-kΩ R₂, and 200-Ω R₃ are connected R_EQ does not change.
across 15 V of applied voltage. What happens to R_EQ
if the applied voltage is doubled to 30 V?

In the circuit shown R₁ > R₂ > R₃. Rank the three All are the same
resistors according to the current in them, least to
greatest.

When solving for the Thevenin equivalent resistance, All voltage sources must be short-circuited.
RTH:

What is the equivalent resistance between points 1 and 5Ω

2 of the circuit shown below?

A Thevenin equivalent circuit consist of: A voltage source in series with a resistance.
Kirchhoff‟s voltage law states that: The algebraic sum of the voltage sources and IR
voltage drops in any closed path must total zero.

Resistor 1 has twice the resistance of resistor 2. The Half that in 2.

two are connected in parallel and a potential difference
is maintained across the combination. What is the rate
thermal energy generation in 1?

Kirchhoff‟s current law states that: The algebraic sum of the currents entering and
leaving any point in a circuit must equal zero.

In the dc circuit as shown, the high resistance voltmeter 3 ohms

gives a reading of +0.435 volt. What is the value of the
resistance R?

The resistance of resistor 1 is twice the resistance of the potential difference across 1 is twice that
resistor 2. The two are connected in series and a across 2
potential difference is maintained across the
combination. Then:
Two 110-V light bulbs, one “25 W” and the other None of the choices.
“100W”, are connected in series to a 110 V source.
Then:

In a series circuit, the largest resistance has: The largest voltage drop.

I₁ – I₂ – I₃ – I₄ + I₅ = 0
Which of the following statements is true for the
junction in the network shown below?

When an additional resistor is connected across existing decreases

parallel circuit, the total resistance _______.

A constant-voltage source: Has very low internal resistance.

If one of the resistors in a parallel circuit is removed, Increases.
the total resistance:

The output of a certain voltage divider is 9 V with no Decreases

load. When a load is connected, the output voltage:

The same as by R
A series circuit consists of a battery with internal
resistance r and an external resistor R. If these two
resistances are equal (r = R) Then the thermal energy
generated per unit time by the internal resistance r is:

Two wires made of the same material have the same The current.
lengths but different diameters. They are connected in
series to a battery. The quantity that is the same for the
wires is:

Two resistances of 10 and 15 ohms, each respectively 1.09 A, 13.08 W

are connected in parallel. The two are then connected in
series with a 5-ohm resistance. It is then connected
across a 12-V battery, what are the current and power?
Nine identical wires, each of diameter d and length L, d/3
are connected in series. The combination has the same
resistance as a single similar wire of length L but whose
diameter is:

A power station supplies 60 kW to a load over 2,500 ft, 108 A

100 mm², two-conductor copper feeder, the resistance
of which is 0.078 ohm per 1000 ft. The bus bar voltage
is maintained constant at 600 V. Determine the load
current.

A battery is connected across a series combination of The potential difference across each resistor is V/2
two identical resistors. If the potential difference across and the current in each resistor is i
the terminals is V and the current in the battery is i,
then:

A complete short develops across one of five parallel The fuse in the power supply will blow.
resistors on a PC board. The most likely result is:

In the context of the loop and junction rules for Where three or more wires are joined.
electrical circuits a junction is:
A 50-microfarad is connected in series with a coil 199 W
having 50 ohms resistance and 150 mH inductance. The
source voltage is 100 sin (ωt – 30°) V. What is the
maximum power?

An inductor and a resistor are in series with a sinusoidal V_L > V_R
voltage source. The frequency is set so that the
inductive reactance is equal to the resistance. If the
frequency is increased, then:

Capacitive reactance, Xc: Applies only to sine waves.

leads the source emf by an tan¯¹ (1/ωCR)

A series RC circuits is connected to an emf source
having angular frequency ω. The current:

56.4°
Determine the power factor angle in the series circuit
which consists of R = 25 ohms, L = 0.2 H across a
power supply of 200 volts, 30 Hz?
In a sinusoidally driven series RLC circuit the current Decreasing the capacitance and making no other
lags the applied emf. The rate at which energy is changes
dissipated in the resistor can be increased by:

In a purely inductive circuit, the current lags the voltage One-fourth of a cycle.
by:

In a sinusoidally driven series RLC circuit, the The capacitance is halved, with no other changes.
inductive reactance is X_L = 200 Ω, the capacitive
reactance is Xc = 100 Ω, and the resistance is R = 50 Ω.
The current and applied emf would be in phase if:

A series circuit composed of 100-ohm resistor and a 20- The resulting current is 0.732 ampere.
microfarad capacitor connected across a 240 V, 60 Hz
line. Which of the following answers is WRONG?

A series circuit composed of a 0.2 H inductor and a 74- 48 Hz

μF capacitor is connected to a 60 V variable frequency
source. At what frequency will the current be 4 amperes
with a lagging power factor?
When the frequency is increased, the impedance of a increases
parallel RL circuit ______.

In a purely capacitive circuit, the current: Leads the voltage by one-fourth of a cycle.

In an RLC series circuit, which is connected to a source R = ωL – 1/ωC

of emf ε_m cos(ωt), the current lags the voltage by
45° if:

increases
When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series
RC circuit is decreased, the phase angle ______.

What is the unit of the power factor? None of the choices

For a sine wave, one-half cycle is often called a/an alternation
______.

A coil of 25.0 μH and capacitor of 100 pF are 0 + j467

connected in series. The frequency is 5.00 MHz. What
is the impedance vector, R + jX?

Determine the phase angle in the series circuit which 56.4°

consists of R = 25 ohms, L = 0.2 H across a power
supply of 200 volts, 30 Hz?

When the frequency of the voltage applied to a series decreases

RC is increased, the impedance ________.

R > Xc
To decrease the phase angle below 45°, the following
condition must exist:
A load of 20 + j35 ohms is connected across a 220 volts 49.6%, 1042 VARS
source. Determine the power factor and the VARS.

A capacitance is connected to a 115 V, 25 Hz mains 20 A

and takes 5 A. What current will it take when the
capacitance and the frequency are both doubled?

AC voltage may be conveniently transformed.

What is the main reason that alternating current
replaced direct current for general use?

In residential house wiring the hot wire is usually color- black or red
coded ______.

The rms value of an ac current is: That steady current that produces the same rate
of heating in a resistor as the actual current.
What is the relationship between current through a The voltage and current are in phase.
resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?

If the value of C in a series RLC circuit is increased, the decreases

resonant frequency _______.

In the circuit shown below, what is the current after a 2A

long time after closing of switch?

In the circuit shown below, what is the voltage across 7.5 V

capacitor when switch is closed at t = ∞?

In a series RLC circuit that is operating below the Leads the source voltage.
resonant frequency, the current:
What is the time constant of the circuit in figure RC/2
shown?

What is the term for the time required for the capacitor One time constant
in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the applied
voltage?

A two-branch parallel circuit has a 20 Ω resistance and 500 Ω

1 H inductance in one branch and a 100 μF capacitor in
the second branch. It is fed from 100 V ac supply, at
resonance, what is the input impedance of the circuit?

A coil of resistance 25 Ω and inductance 150 mH is (a) 127.2 Hz (b) 600 Ω (c) 0.10 A (d) 4.80
connected in parallel with a 10 μF capacitor across a 60
V, variable frequency supply. Calculate (a) the resonant
frequency, (b) the dynamic resistance, (c) the current at
resonance and (d) the Q-factor at resonance.

For the circuit shown below different time constants are 1, 3

given:
1. 0.5 x 10¯³ s
2. 2 x 10¯³ s
3. 0.25 x 10¯³ s
4. 10¯³ s
What are the charging and discharging time constants
respectively?
What can cause the voltage across reactances in series Resonance
to be larger than the voltage applied to them?

The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what 13.5%

percentage of the starting voltage after two time
constants?

A 0.5 μF capacitor is connected across a 10 V battery. 0 A and 10 V

After a long time, the circuit current and voltage across
capacitor will be:

The circuit in figure is switched on at t = 0. At any time 6 - 3e¯ᵗ

t, i(t) =

What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a Maximum

series RLC circuit as the frequency goes through
resonance?
An RLC series circuit is underdamped. To make it has to be increased
overdamped, the value of R

An uncharged capacitor of 0.2 μF is connected to a 100 39.35 V

V, d.c. supply through a resistor of 100 kΩ. Determine
the capacitor voltage 10 ms after the voltage has been
applied.

In figure shown below, what is the current supplied by 1A

battery immediately after switching on the circuit?

What is the resonant frequency in an electrical circuit? The frequency at which capacitive
reactance equals inductive reactance.

A parallel LC circuit has a resonant frequency of 3.75 30 kHz.

MHz and a Q of 125. What is the bandwidth?
n figure, the capacitor is charged to 1 V. At t = 0 the 0.37 V
switch is closed so that i = e¯ᵗ. When i = 0.37 A, what
is the voltage across capacitor?

What is the total reactance of a series RLC circuit at Zero

resonance?

A two-branch tuned circuit has a coil of resistance R decreases

and inductance L in one branch and capacitance C in
the second branch. If R is increased, the dynamic
resistance

n given circuit below, the switch was closed for a long -50 V
time before opening at t = 0. What is the voltage Vx at t
= 0^+?

What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series Approximately equal to circuit

RLC circuit at resonance?
resistance
What is considered the maximum peak inverse voltage 1000 V
for silicon diode rectifier?

At absolute zero temperature a semi-conductor behaves An insulator

as:

An electron in the conduction band: has higher energy than the electron in
the valence band

What is the other name of negative electron? Negatron

A conductor material has a free-electron density of 10²⁴ 0.24 A

electrons per cubic meter. When a voltage is applied, a
constant drift velocity of 1.5 × 10¯² meter/second is
attained by the electrons. If the cross-sectional area of
the material is 1 cm², calculate the magnitude of the
current. Electron charge is 1.6 x 10¯¹⁹ C.
For a PN-junction we generally have I and II only
I. Width of depletion layer
II. Junction barrier voltage
III. Reverse leakage current
Which of the above parameters will decrease when the
temperature of the junction rises?

Before doping the semiconductor material is generally purified

___________.

At room temperature when a voltage is applied to an Electrons move towards positive

intrinsic semi-conductor:
terminal and holes towards negative
terminal.

The two types of current in a semiconductor are: electron current and hole current

Calculate the effective densities of states in the 1.02 x 10²⁵ m¯³

conduction band of germanium at 300 °K.
 Less number of electron hole pairs will
EG for silicon is 1.12 eV and for germanium is 0.72 eV
thus it can be concluded that:
be generated in silicon than in
germanium at room temperature.

The atomic mass unit in grams is the reciprocal of Avogadro`s number

______.

Determine the temperature coefficient of a 5-V Zener 0.053%/°C

diode (rated 25°C value) if the nominal voltage drops to
4.8 V at a temperature of 100°C.

n case a PN-junction is forward biased: Depletion region decreases.

In the reverse-bias region the saturation current of a 1.6 μA

silicon diode is about 0.1 μA (T = 20°C). Determine its
approximate value if the temperature is increased 40°C.
Given Pmax = 14 mW for each diode, determine the 20 mA
maximum current rating of each diode (using the
approximate equivalent model).

Determine the diode current at 20°C for a silicon diode 0.1 μA

with Is = 0.1 μA at a reverse-bias potential of -10 V.

Which of the following is the first postulate of Niels Electron orbits are discrete non-
Bohr to support his atomic structure theory?
radiating and the electron may not
remain between these orbits.

Majority carriers in an n-type semiconductor are electrons

______.

In a diode, the region near the junction consisting of depletion region

positive and negative ions is called the ________.
Which of following decays decreases the number of α decay
both protons and neutrons by two and may result in a
stable nucleus?

What crystalline structure has a coordination number of Face-centered cubic

12?

Calculate the maximum fraction of the volume in a 52 %

simple cubic crystal occupied by the atoms. Assume
that the atoms are closely packed and that they can be
treated as hard spheres. This fraction is also called the
packing density.

600 A
What is considered the maximum forward current for
silicon diode rectifier?

In a semiconductor avalanche breakdown takes place: reverse bias exceeds the limiting value
The current flow across the base-emitter junction of a Mainly holes.
PNP transistor:

A tuned amplifier uses __________load. LC tank

100
Using the given table of collector characteristics,
calculate beta ac at V_CE = 15 V and I_B = 30 μA.

A tuned amplifier is generally operated in Class C

________operation.

In a junction transistor, the collector cut-off current Emitter with high level of impurity.
I_CBO reduces considerably by doping the:
In the figure below, if R₂ open-circuited: The operating point would be affected
and the signal would distort.

A 35-mV signal is applied to the base of a properly 4.375 V

biased transistor with an r_e = 8 Ω and R_C = 1 kΩ.
Find the output signal voltage at the collector.

Transformer coupling introduces _______ distortion. frequency

For a properly biased pnp transistor, I_C = 10 mA and 200 μA

I_E = 10.2 mA. What is the level of I_B?

The output signal of a common-collector amplifier is In phase with the input signal.
always:
A common base configuration of a PNP transistor is common gate configuration
analogous to _________of a FET.

When the transistor (CE arrangement) is in the cut off I_CEO

region, the collector current is ____________.

In normal operation, the junctions of a p-n-p transistor Base-emitter forward biased and base
are:
collector reverse biased.

When a transistor is driven to cut off, ideally the output V_CC

is _______.

Which of the following statements is false when a Current flow is due to electrons in the
silicon p-n junction diode is reversed biased:
n-type material.
 frequency
If the gain versus frequency curve a transistor amplifier
is not flat, then there is _________ distortion.

When a transistor is driven to saturation, ideally the 0

output is ___________.

The current flow across the base-emitter junction of an Mainly electrons.

NPN transistor consists of:

The disadvantage of impedance matching is that it gives distorted output

________.

The output of a common-collector amplifier is always: In phase with the input signal.
The base region of a PNP transistor is: Very thin and lightly doped with
electrons.

From the figure shown below, if an emitter bypass 600

capacitor is installed, what would be the new Av?

For a PNP transistor: In common-emitter configuration, the

base current is less than the base
current in common-base configuration.

Which of the following statements is false about free Exist in the same numbers as the holes
electrons in an n-type material:
in the n-type material.

The beta cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor is the Emitter current gain has decreased to
frequency at which:
0.707 of maximum.
In class A operation, the input circuit of a FET is reverse
_________biased.

Which symbol in the circuit shown represents a field Symbol 1

effect transistor?

Measurements taken with an E MOSFET indicate that 0.002

when V_GS = + 4V, I_D = 8 mA and when V_GS = +6
V, I_D = 32 mA. Determine the value of k.

In a FET, when drain voltage is equal to pinch-off almost touch each other
voltage, the depletion layers ___________.

Measurements on a DE MOSFET indicate that V_GS = -11.7 V

+2V, I_D = 16 mA and when V_GS = -2V, I_D = 8
mA. Calculate the value of V_GS(off)?
The input control parameter of a FET is _________. gate voltage

A MOSFET is sometime called _______FET. insulated gate

In a FET, there are _______ PN junctions. two

In a FET, I_DSS is known as ___________. drain to source current with gate

shorted

A MOSFET uses the electric field of a ________ to capacitor

control the channel current.
When the bias in an FET stops the flow of current, the Pinchoff
condition is called:

In an enhancement-mode MOSFET: The channel does not conduct with zero

gate bias.

_______has the highest input impedance. MOSFET

The source terminal of a FET corresponds to the cathode

__________ of a vacuum tube.

A FET has high input impedance because _______. input is reverse biased
What is the value of V_P of a P channel JFET having 3.69 V
I_DSS = 12 mA and g_mo = 6500 μS?

The gate voltage in a FET at which the drain current pinch-off

becomes zero is called _______voltage.

In a FET, I_DSS is known as ___________. drain to source current with gate

shorted

If the source-gate junction in an FET conducts: It is a sign of improper bias.

The two important advantages of a FET are ________. high input impedance and square-law
property
The input impedance of a MOSFET is of the order of several MΩ
_________.

Which type of amplifier circuit has the transistor or Class-B

FET biased exactly at cutoff or pinch-off when there is
no signal input?

The majority carriers are holes.

In a P-channel JFET:

One of the main shortcomings of MOSFETs is that Are easily damaged by static electricity.
they:

For an E MOSFET, k = 0.001 and V_GS(th) = +2.5 V. 9 mA

What is the value of the drain current at the point on the
transconductance curve for which V_GS = +5.5 V?

The FET circuit given below in the figure, has R₁ = 3.5 333.33 Ω
MΩ, R₂ = 1.5 MΩ, R_S = 2kΩ, R_L = 20 kΩ and g_m
= 2.5 mS. Find its output impedance.
A full-wave rectifier uses two diodes, the internal 45 mA
resistance of each diode may be assumed constant at 20
Ω. The transformer RMS secondary voltage from center
tap to each end of secondary is 50 V and load resistance
is 980 Ω. Find the mean load current.

A half-wave rectifier is used to supply 50 V DC to a 162 V

resistive load of 800 Ω. The diode has a resistance of 25
Ω. Calculate the maximum AC voltage required.

The applied input AC power to a half-wave rectifier is 40%

100 watts. The DC output power obtained is 40 watts.
What is the rectification efficiency?

The two types of full-wave rectifier are: Center-tapped and bridge

10.36 V
An AC supply of 230 V is applied to a half-wave
rectifier circuit through a transformer of turn ratio 10:1.
Find the output DC voltage.
 more than
The DC output of a bridge type circuit is ________that
of equivalent center-tap circuit.

A full-wave rectifier is _____as effective as a half- twice

wave rectifier.

In a center-tap circuit _________transformer secondary one-half

voltage is utilized.

Transformer is essential in a ________ rectifier. center-tap

For the same DC output, the center-tap circuit should higher

have ____ PIV as compared to bridge type circuit.
 cause the diodes conduct alternately
The primary function of a center-tapped transformer in
a power supply is to ___________.

The values of L and C in filter circuits for a half-wave more

rectifier are ________ as compared to that of full-wave
rectifier.

The DC output of a bridge type rectifier is nearly twice

_______ than that of center tap circuit for a given
transformer.

In the center-tap circuit shown in the figure below, the 0.207 A

diodes are assumed to be ideal i.e. having zero internal
resistance. Find the average current, I_dc.

For the same secondary voltage, the output voltage one-half

from a center-tap circuit is _____________than that of
bridge circuit.
A crystal diode having internal resistance rf = 20 Ω is 61 mA, 19.4 mA and 30.5 mA
used for half-wave rectification. If the applied voltage v
= 50 sin ω t and load resistance R_L= 800 Ω, find the
I_m, I_dc and I_rms.

What is the maximum rectifier efficiency of a full-wave 81.2 %

rectifier?

In a full-wave rectifier, the DC load current equals 1 A. 1/2 A.

How much dc current is carried by each diode?

For high voltage applications, _________ rectifier is bridge type

used.

A 1000 V power supply would use ________ as a filter paper capacitor

capacitor.
A 1000 V power supply would use ________ as a filter paper capacitor
capacitor.

The volt-ampere rating of a transformer in bridge 1/sqrt 2 times

circuit is reduced by ______ as compared to that of a
center-tap circuit.

The output of a half-wave rectifier has AC component more than

________the DC component.

The power supply in a radio receiver generally employs capacitor input

______ filter.

In filter circuit, ______ capacitor is generally used. electrolytic

Gate characteristics of a thyristor: Has a spread between two curves of V_g
= I_g

The effect of the source inductance on the performance Reduce the output voltage.
of the single-phase and three-phase full converters:

A resistive load is to be supplied at 3 kV and 1100 A. 5

The thyristors available are rated at 800 V, 200 A.
Calculate the number of series connected thyristors
required.

At a room temperature of 30°C, what is the minimum 3 V, 40 mA

voltage and current required to fire a SCR?

A converter which can operate in both 3-phase and 6- 3-phase semiconverter

phase modes is a:
A thyristor half wave-controlled converter has a supply 1.008 A
voltage of 240 V at 50 Hz and a load resistance of 100
Ω. When the firing delay angle is 30°, what is the
average value of load current?

The distinguishing feature and principal advantage of Only a quick, momentary pulse of gate
thyristors is that:
current is required to turn them on all
the way (so that less power is wasted on
the control circuit than with a
transistor).

In a 3-phase semiconverter, for firing angle less than or 0°

equal to 60°, free-wheeling diode conducts for:

A GTO like all the other power semiconductor deiced rated of change of forward current
requires protection against
voltage and overvoltage’s and currents

When the SCR conducts, the forward voltage drop: increases slightly with load current
UJT oscillators are used for gate-triggering of thyristors Better phase control
for

Which of the following methods will turn SCS off? All of the choices

As compared to UJT, SUS: Triggers only at one particular voltage.

What is the main difference between the function of the The SCR can be triggered into
SCR and that of the triac?
conduction in only one direction, while
the triac can be switched on for current
in either direction.

The date-sheet specifications of SCRs and those for Contain versions of the five universal
triacs:
semiconductor specifications plus others
– notably, specifications on the gate
current and voltage required to trigger
the devices.
Thyristors are used extensively in ______. high-power switching applications.

A triac is effectively: Antiparallel connection of two

thyristors.

In an SCR: As gate-current is raised, forward

breakover voltage reduces.

What device does not exhibit negative resistance FET

characteristic?

Turn-on time of an SCR in series with RL circuit can be Decreasing L

reduced by:
 R, C is called a snubber circuit.
In series connected thyristors:

The frequency of ripple in the output of a 3-phase I and III

semiconverter depends upon:
I. firing angle
II. load-resistance
III. supply frequency
IV. load inductance

The frequency of ripple in the output of a 3-phase I and III

semiconverter depends upon:
I. firing angle
II. load-resistance
III. supply frequency
IV. load inductance

Turn – off time of a thysistor affects its: Operating frequency

A SCR is rated at 75 A peak, 20 A average. What is the 47.5°

greatest possible delay in the trigger angle if the dc is at
rated value?
Which of the following is not a requirement for The feedback network must contain an
oscillator operation?
RC circuit.

Voltage-series feedback ___________the output decreases

impedance of an op-amp.

The _______margin is defined as the angle of 180° phase

minus the magnitude of the angle at which the value
½βA½is unity (0 dB).

If the emitter resistance is not bypassed (i.e CE is not current feedback

connected across it), it results in __________.

Current-series feedback ________the bandwidth of an increases

op-amp.
The input impedance of a voltage-shunt feedback decreased when compared to
amplifier is _________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The input impedance of a voltage-shunt feedback decreased when compared to

amplifier is _________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The circuit recognition feature of the Colpitts oscillator a pair of tapped capacitors in parallel
is:
with an inductor and a third small-
value capacitor

The negative feedback circuit in an op-amp Wien- control the gain of the circuit
bridge oscillator is used to:

In an amplifier with negative feedback, the gain of the 33.33

basic amplifier is 100 and it employs a feedback factor
of 0.02. If the input signal is 40 mV, determine voltage
gain with feedback.
The total phase shift around a negative feedback loop of 360 degrees or 0 degrees
a common-emitter circuit is:

To sustain oscillations, the power gain of the amplifier equal to or greater than 1
may be _____________.

For oscillations to exist and the voltage to sustain the unity (1)
loop operations, the Barkhausen criterion tells us that
the loop gain βA must be exactly equal to _________.

The biggest advantage that LC oscillators have over RC can be operated at a much higher
oscillators is the fact that LC oscillators generally:
frequency

A CE amplifier can be converted into oscillator by: Phase shifting the output by 180 degrees
and feeding this phase-shifted output to
the input
In RC phase-shift oscillator circuits: pure sine wave output is possible

Voltage-series feedback _________the input increases

impedance of an op-amp.

If the crystal frequency increases with temperature, we positive

say that the crystal has _________temperature
coefficient.

The input impedance of current-shunt feedback decreased when compared to

amplifier is __________the input impedance of its op-
amp.

The transistor in the feedback circuit shown below has 0.0476

β = 200. Determine feedback ratio. In the transistor,
under the conditions of operation, V_BE may be
assumed to be negligible.
In a practical phase-shift oscillator, each RC circuit 60 degree phase shift
section produces a:

Wien bridge oscillator is most often used whenever: wide range of high purity sine waves is
to be generated

The circuit recognition feature of the Hartley oscillator a pair of tapped inductors in parallel
is:
with an capacitor

In a feedback series regulator circuit, the output voltage voltage drop across the series pass
is regulated by controlling the:
transistor

Adding a negative voltage-feedback network to an None of the choices

amplifier will have no effect on the value of
_________for the circuit.
The trip point of a comparator is the input voltage that the output to switch states
causes:

The tail current in a differential amplifier equals sum of two emitter currents
______.

If the input voltage for the op amp shown in the figure -1.60 V
below, is -0.5 V, determine the output voltage.

A low pass active filter connection using an operational from dc to f_oh

amplifier will provide a constant output:

A second order high-pass filter has a low-end roll-off 40 dB/decade

of:
The roll-off rate of a second order filter is: 40 dB/decade or 12 dB/octave

The operational amplifier will only slightly amplify that are common on both the inputs
signals:

Calculate the output voltage „V₀‟ for the following non- -2 V

inverting op-amp summer, with V₁ = 2 V and V₂ = -1
V.

All of the choices

Which of the following statements are true about an
operational amplifier?

In the circuit shown below, determine the value of the 5V

output voltage, V₀, when V₁ = + 1 V and V₂ = +3 V.
In the inverting amplifier of the figure shown below, -1.0 V
R_i = 1.5 kΩ and R_f = 2.5 kΩ. Determine the output
voltage when the input voltage is + 0.6 V.

A band pass active filter connection using an from f_oh

operational amplifier will provide a constant output:

Most linear ICs are: Essentially amplifiers of various kinds.

Why is the CMRR of an inverting amplifier always Because the value of differential gain
lower than that of its op-amp?
for an inverting amplifier is lower than
that of its op-amp.

What portion of a microprocessor circuit is the pulse Clock

generator?
In plasma deposition method of producing thin film, N2O
what gas is used for silicon dioxide (SiO₂) film?

A P-Channel enhancement type MOSFET (the sort It is controlled by voltage rather than
used in MOS ICs) performs much the same function as
a PNP transistor, except that:
by current, so that it requires very little
current at the control terminal (gate).

Calculate the output voltage of a noninverting amplifier 12 V

for values of V1 = 2 V, Rf =500 kΩ, and R1 = 100 kΩ.

For the summing op amp shown in the figure below, -6.5 V

determine the output voltage (V₀).

Why are virtually all switching-type integrated circuits They process digital information.
called “digital”?
Which of the following is the preferred method of Use a vacuum device
cleaning solder from plated through circuit board holes?

Which of the following is NOT a production process Die casting

employed in monolithic IC fabrication?

By carefully configuring the op-amp external circuit All of the choices

components the op-amp can be made to function as:

What is the purpose of the group of ICs called “systems They are input and output units for
interface circuits”?
digital information in digital systems.

A single op-amp circuit has a non-inverting input subtractor

through a voltage divider or R₁ = R₂ = 27 kΩ and on the
inverting input side. R_i = R_f 120 kΩ. The resulting
total output voltage characterizes this circuit as a/an:
Which of the following instruments is not a current Electrostatic type
operated instrument?

A CRO can be built so that it will display signals from dc to a few hundred megahertz
________.

The voltage V and current i of a device are V = 100 sin 433 W

377t, i = 10 sin (377 t + 30°). The power P indicated by
wattmeter will be:

Which of the following instruments has the poorest Hot wire instrument
overload capacity?

Permalloy core is used in moving iron instruments to: Increase its sensitivity
A DC meter has resistance of 0.1 Ω and current range is 0.025 Ω
0 – 100 A. If the range is to be extended to 0 – 500 A,
then meter requires how much shunt resistance?

A DC meter has resistance of 0.1 Ω and current range is 0.025 Ω

0 – 100 A. If the range is to be extended to 0 – 500 A,
then meter requires how much shunt resistance?

Which of the following instruments consumes the Electrostatic instrument

lowest power in measurement?

The principle of operation of watthour meter depends electromagnetic

upon ________ effect.

For capacitance measurement, a ballistic galvanometer A high critical resistance and a high
should have:
period oscillation.
Which of the following is an advantage of an Complex waveforms can be measured
oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

To make a galvanometer into an ammeter, connect: a low resistance in parallel

Which of the following contains a multirange AF SINAD meter

voltmeter calibrated in dB and a sharp, internal 1000
Hz bandstop filter, both used in conjunction with each
other to perform quieting tests?

Which of the following method is used for Loss of charge method

measurement of high resistances?

Wien bridge is used for measurement of _______. frequency

An ammeter whose resistance is 4 Ω, gives full scale 19,996 ohms
deflection for a current of 10 mA. Calculate the
resistance which must be connected in series with it in
order that it may be used as a voltmeter for voltages up
to 200 volts.

Power of a 100 kW transmitter can be measured by: Calorimetric method

The fixed coil in an electrodynamometer is normally Current coi

used as a:

How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a The oscilloscope is used to display
conventional oscilloscope?
electrical signals in the time domain
while the spectrum analyzer is used to
display electrical signals in the
frequency domain.

Clamp-on ammeter is used for _____ current. high AC

The deflecting torque for deflection of 45° in an 66 mm
indicating instrument is 100 x 10¯⁶ N-m. The control is
exerted by a phosphor-bronze spring. Allowing a
maximum stress of 70 MPa, calculate the suitable
length of strip for control spring. Given that Young‟s
modulus is 112.8 GPa and the width of the strip of the
spring is 0.8 mm.

To view a signal on the CRT face it is necessary to saw tooth

deflect the beam across the CRT with a horizontal seep
signal so that any variation of the vertical signal can be
observed. This horizontal sweep signal has a
______waveform.

What is the purpose of a series multiplier resistor used It is used to increase the voltage-
with a voltmeter?
indicating range of the voltmeter.

Which of the following AC bridges is preferred for the Hays bridge

measurement of inductance having high Q-factor?

In a ballistic galvanometer, damping follows: Logarithmic decay

The dc motor terminal voltage supplied by a solid-state linearly
chopper for speed control purposes varies ____ with the
duty ratio of the chopper.

The phase-control rectifiers used for speed of dc motors variable dc supply voltage
convert fixed ac supply voltage into:

A 474 V, DC shunt motor draws 12 A while supplying 31.1 Ω

the rated load at a speed of 80 rad/s. The armature
resistance is 0.5 Ω and the field winding resistance is
80 Ω. What external resistance to be added in the
armature circuit to limit the armature current to 125%
of its rated value?

If a self-excited dc generator after being installed, fails Reverse field connections.

to build up on its first trial run, what is the first thing to
do?

The magnetizing current drawn by transformers and lagging

induction motors is the cause of their ______ power
factor.
A 220 V, d.c. generator supplies a load of 37.5 A and 65.2 N.m
runs at 1550 rev/min. Determine the shaft torque of the
diesel motor driving the generator, if the generator
efficiency is 78%.

The commutation process in a dc generator basically Reversal of current in an armature coil

involves:
as it crosses MNA

degree of compounding can be adjusted

Most commercial compound dc generator are normally
supplied by the manufacturers as over compound
by using a divertor across series field
machines because:

Retardation test on a dc shunt motor is used for finding stray

______ losses.

20 A
A 150 V DC motor of armature resistance 0.4 Ω has
back emf of 142 V. What is the armature current?
The voltage build-up process of a dc generator is cumulative
_____.

In practice, regenerative braking is used when: load has overhauling characteristics

Unlike a shunt motor, it is difficult for a series motor to it develops high overload torque
stall under heavy loading because:

A dc shunt motor is found suitable to drive fans Both small torque at start up and large
because they require:
torque at high speeds

A series motor is best suited for driving ______. cranes and hoists
Which of the following load would be best driven by a Reciprocating pump
dc compound motor?

A shunt generator running at 1000 rpm has generated 120 V

an emf of 100 V. If the speed increases to 1200 rpm,
the generated emf will be nearly:

A 3-phase 4 pole induction motor works on 3-phase 50 1440 rpm

Hz supply. If the slip of the motor is 4%. What will be
the actual speed?

The series-parallel system of speed control of series 1:4

motors widely used in traction work gives a speed
range of about _____.

A series motor is best suited for driving ______. cranes and hoists
A 4-pole, 1200 rpm DC lap wound generator has 1520 304 volts
conductors. If the flux per pole is 0.01 weber, the emf
of generator is

Which of the following dc generator cannot build up on Series

an open circuit?

The usual test for determining the efficiency of a field`s

traction motor is the ______ test.

The e.m.f. equation of a transformer of secondary turns E₂ = 4.44 N₂Bmaf volts

N₂, magnetic flux density Bm, magnetic area of core a,
and operating at frequency f is given by:

Which one of the following types of generators does Under-compound

not need equalizers for satisfactory parallel operation?
What is the difference between binary coding and Binary coding is pure binary.
binary-coded decimal?

In the given figure, A = B = 1 and C = D = 0. Then Y = 0

____.

A 7-bit Hamming code is received as 1111101. What is 1111111

the corrected code? Assume even parity.

Internally, a computer's binary data are almost always data bus

transmitted on parallel channels, commonly referred to
as the:

The binary-coded decimal (BCD) system can be used to 4-bit binary code
represent each of the 10 decimal digits as a(n):
The Ex-NOR is sometimes called the _____. equality gate

As applied to a flip flop the word edge triggered means: flip flop can change state when clock
transition occurs

What is the circuit in the given figure? Negative logic OR gate

What is a disadvantage of CMOS in place of TTL? It switches slower.

When reading a Boolean expression, what does the Inversion

word "NOT" indicate?
A necessary condition for a weighted code to be self- 9
complementing is that the sum of its weights must be
equal to _____.

The circuit of the given figure realizes the function: Y = (A + B) C + DE

Each programmable array logic (PAL) gate product is sent to an inverter for output
applied to an OR gate and, if combinational logic is
desired, the product is ORed and then:

At least one input must be LOW.

If the output of a three-input AND gate must be a logic
LOW, what must the condition of the inputs be?

Which of the following is not a jump instruction? JB (jump back

Select the statement that best describes the parity Parity checking is best suited for
method of error detection:
detecting single-bit errors in
transmitted codes.

By adding an OR gate to a simple programmable logic PAL

device (SPLD) the foundation for a(n) _____ is made
possible.

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the relative ease of converting to and
using binary-coded decimal (BCD) instead of straight
binary coding?
from decimal

What is the circuit of the given figure? Full subtractor

Logically, the output of a NOR gate would have the OR gate immediately followed by an
same Boolean expression as a(n):
inverter.
Assertion (A): The access time of memory is lowest in A is false, R is true
the case of DRAM.
Reason (R): DRAM uses refreshing cycle.

Which statement below best describes a Karnaugh Karnaugh maps provide a cookbook
map?
approach to simplifying Boolean
expressions.

What counter is given in the figure? Mod 6

The content of a simple programmable logic device thousands of basic logic gates and
(PLD) consists of:
advanced sequential logic functions

Why does the TTL family use a totem-pole circuit on It provides active pull-up and active
the output?
pull-down.