GATE 2022 (ME Set-2) Mechanical Engineering

GATE 2022 General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.1 Writing too many things on the ________ while teaching could make the
students get _________.

(A) bored / board

(B) board / bored

(C) board / board

(D) bored / bored

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Q.2 Which one of the following is a representation (not to scale and in bold) of all

values of 𝑥 satisfying the inequality 2 − 5𝑥 ≤ − on the real number

line?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q.3 If 𝑓(𝑥) = 2 ln √𝑒 , what is the area bounded by 𝑓(𝑥) for the interval [0, 2]
on the 𝑥-axis?

(A) 1
2

(B) 1

(C) 2

(D) 4

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Q.4 A person was born on the fifth Monday of February in a particular year.

Which one of the following statements is correct based on the above

information?

(A) The 2nd February of that year is a Tuesday

(B) There will be five Sundays in the month of February in that year

(C) The 1st February of that year is a Sunday

(D) All Mondays of February in that year have even dates

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Q.5

Which one of the groups given below can be assembled to get the shape that is
shown above using each piece only once without overlapping with each other?
(rotation and translation operations may be used).

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.6 Fish belonging to species S in the deep sea have skins that are extremely black
(ultra-black skin). This helps them not only to avoid predators but also sneakily
attack their prey. However, having this extra layer of black pigment results in
lower collagen on their skin, making their skin more fragile.

Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?

(A) Having ultra-black skin is only advantageous to species S

(B) Species S with lower collagen in their skin are at an advantage because it helps
them avoid predators

(C) Having ultra-black skin has both advantages and disadvantages to species S

(D) Having ultra-black skin is only disadvantageous to species S but advantageous

only to their predators

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Q.7 For the past 𝑚 days, the average daily production at a company was 100 units
per day.

If today’s production of 180 units changes the average to 110 units per day,
what is the value of 𝑚?

(A) 18

(B) 10

(C) 7

(D) 5

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Q.8 Consider the following functions for non-zero positive integers, 𝑝 and 𝑞.

𝑓(𝑝, 𝑞) = 𝑝 × 𝑝 × 𝑝 × … … … × 𝑝 = 𝑝 ; 𝑓(𝑝, 1) = 𝑝
terms

⫶( )
⫶⫶
𝑔(𝑝, 𝑞 ) = 𝑝 ; 𝑔(𝑝, 1) = 𝑝

Which one of the following options is correct based on the above?

(A) 𝑓(2,2) = 𝑔(2,2)

(B) 𝑓(𝑔(2,2), 2) < 𝑓 2, 𝑔(2,2)

(C) 𝑔(2,1) ≠ 𝑓(2,1)

(D) 𝑓(3,2) > 𝑔(3,2)

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Q.9 Four cities P, Q, R and S are connected through one-way routes as shown in the
figure. The travel time between any two connected cities is one hour. The boxes
beside each city name describe the starting time of first train of the day and their
frequency of operation. For example, from city P, the first trains of the day start
at 8 AM with a frequency of 90 minutes to each of R and S. A person does not
spend additional time at any city other than the waiting time for the next
connecting train.

If the person starts from R at 7 AM and is required to visit S and return to R,

what is the minimum time required?

(A) 6 hours 30 minutes

(B) 3 hours 45 minutes

(C) 4 hours 30 minutes

(D) 5 hours 15 minutes

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Q.10 Equal sized circular regions are shaded in a square sheet of paper of 1 cm side
length. Two cases, case M and case N, are considered as shown in the figures
below. In the case M, four circles are shaded in the square sheet and in the case
N, nine circles are shaded in the square sheet as shown.

What is the ratio of the areas of unshaded regions of case M to that of case N?

case M case N

(A) 2 : 3

(B) 1 : 1

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 2 : 1

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Q.11 - 35 Carry ONE mark each.

Q.11 F(t) is a periodic square wave function as shown. It takes only two values, 4 and 0,
and stays at each of these values for 1 second before changing. What is the constant
term in the Fourier series expansion of F(t)?

𝐹(𝑡)

−3 −2 −1 0 1 2 3 4
𝑡 (seconds)

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

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Q.12 Consider a cube of unit edge length and sides parallel to co-ordinate axes, with its
centroid at the point (1, 2, 3). The surface integral ∫ 𝑭⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑨⃗ of a vector field
𝑭⃗ = 3𝑥 ̂ + 5𝑦 ̂ + 6𝑧𝒌 over the entire surface A of the cube is ______.

(A) 14

(B) 27

(C) 28

(D) 31

Q.13 Consider the definite integral

(4𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 6)𝑑𝑥.

Let 𝐼 be the exact value of the integral. If the same integral is estimated using
Simpson’s rule with 10 equal subintervals, the value is 𝐼 . The percentage error is
defined as 𝑒 = 100 × (𝐼 − 𝐼 )/𝐼 . The value of 𝑒 is

(A) 2.5

(B) 3.5

(C) 1.2

(D) 0

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Q.14 Given ∫ 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 = √𝜋 .
( )
If a and b are positive integers, the value of ∫ 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 is ________.

(A) √𝜋𝑎

(B) 𝜋
𝑎

(C) 𝑏√𝜋𝑎

(D) 𝜋
𝑏
𝑎

Q.15 A polynomial 𝜑(𝑠) = 𝑎 𝑠 + 𝑎 𝑠 + ⋯ + 𝑎 𝑠 + 𝑎 of degree 𝑛 > 3 with

constant real coefficients 𝑎 , 𝑎 , …𝑎 has triple roots at 𝑠 = −𝜎. Which one of
the following conditions must be satisfied?

(A) 𝜑(𝑠) = 0 at all the three values of 𝑠 satisfying 𝑠 + 𝜎 = 0

(B) 𝜑(𝑠) = 0,
( )
= 0, and
( )
= 0 at 𝑠 = −𝜎

(C) 𝜑(𝑠) = 0,
( )
= 0, and
( )
= 0 at 𝑠 = −𝜎

(D) 𝜑(𝑠) = 0, and

( )
= 0 at 𝑠 = −𝜎

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Q.16 Which one of the following is the definition of ultimate tensile strength (UTS)
obtained from a stress-strain test on a metal specimen?

(A) Stress value where the stress-strain curve transitions from elastic to plastic behavior

(B) The maximum load attained divided by the original cross-sectional area

(C) The maximum load attained divided by the corresponding instantaneous cross-
sectional area

(D) Stress where the specimen fractures

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Q.17 A massive uniform rigid circular disc is mounted on a frictionless bearing at the end
E of a massive uniform rigid shaft AE which is suspended horizontally in a uniform
gravitational field by two identical light inextensible strings AB and CD as shown,
where G is the center of mass of the shaft-disc assembly and 𝑔 is the acceleration
due to gravity. The disc is then given a rapid spin 𝜔 about its axis in the positive x-
axis direction as shown, while the shaft remains at rest. The direction of rotation is
defined by using the right-hand thumb rule. If the string AB is suddenly cut,
assuming negligible energy dissipation, the shaft AE will

B D

𝑔
𝐿 𝐿

𝑧
𝑦 A G C
𝑥 E
𝜔

(A) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the negative z-axis direction

(B) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the positive z-axis direction

(C) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the positive y-axis direction

(D) rotate slowly (compared to 𝜔) about the negative y-axis direction

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Q.18 A structural member under loading has a uniform state of plane stress which in usual
notations is given by 𝜎 = 3𝑃, 𝜎 = −2𝑃 and 𝜏 = √2 𝑃, where 𝑃 > 0. The yield
strength of the material is 350 MPa. If the member is designed using the maximum
distortion energy theory, then the value of 𝑃 at which yielding starts (according to
the maximum distortion energy theory) is

(A) 70 MPa

(B) 90 MPa

(C) 120 MPa

(D) 75 MPa

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Q.19 Fluidity of a molten alloy during sand casting depends on its solidification range.
The phase diagram of a hypothetical binary alloy of components A and B is shown
in the figure with its eutectic composition and temperature. All the lines in this phase
diagram, including the solidus and liquidus lines, are straight lines. If this binary
alloy with 15 weight % of B is poured into a mould at a pouring temperature of
800 ºC, then the solidification range is

(A) 400 ºC

(B) 250 ºC

(C) 800 ºC

(D) 150 ºC

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Q.20 A shaft of diameter 25 .. mm is assembled in a hole of diameter 25 .. mm.

Match the allowance and limit parameter in Column I with its corresponding
quantitative value in Column II for this shaft-hole assembly.

Allowance and limit parameter (Column I) Quantitative value (Column II)

P Allowance 1 0.09 mm

Q Maximum clearance 2 24.96 mm

R Maximum material limit for hole 3 0.04 mm

4 25.0 mm

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-2

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-4

(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2

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Q.21 Match the additive manufacturing technique in Column I with its corresponding
input material in Column II.

Additive manufacturing technique Input material (Column II)

(Column I)

P Fused deposition modelling 1 Photo sensitive liquid resin

Q Laminated object manufacturing 2 Heat fusible powder

R Selective laser sintering 3 Filament of polymer

4 Sheet of thermoplastic or
green compacted metal sheet

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2

(B) P-1, Q-2, R-4

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1

(D) P-4, Q-1, R-4

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Q.22 Which one of the following CANNOT impart linear motion in a CNC machine?

(A) Linear motor

(B) Ball screw

(C) Lead screw

(D) Chain and sprocket

Q.23 Which one of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?

(A) Mass

(B) Density

(C) Energy

(D) Volume

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Q.24 Consider a steady flow through a horizontal divergent channel, as shown in the
figure, with supersonic flow at the inlet. The direction of flow is from left to right.

Pressure at location B is observed to be higher than that at an upstream location A.

Which among the following options can be the reason?

(A) Since volume flow rate is constant, velocity at B is lower than velocity at A

(B) Normal shock

(C) Viscous effect

(D) Boundary layer separation

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Q.25 Which of the following non-dimensional terms is an estimate of Nusselt number?

(A) Ratio of internal thermal resistance of a solid to the boundary layer thermal
resistance

(B) Ratio of the rate at which internal energy is advected to the rate of conduction
heat transfer

(C) Non-dimensional temperature gradient

(D) Non-dimensional velocity gradient multiplied by Prandtl number

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Q.26 A square plate is supported in four different ways (configurations (P) to (S) as shown
in the figure). A couple moment 𝐶 is applied on the plate. Assume all the members
to be rigid and mass-less, and all joints to be frictionless. All support links of the plate
are identical.

𝐶 𝐶 𝐶 𝐶

(P) (Q) (R) (S)

The square plate can remain in equilibrium in its initial state for which one or more
of the following support configurations?

(A) Configuration (P)

(B) Configuration (Q)

(C) Configuration (R)

(D) Configuration (S)

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Q.27 Consider sand casting of a cube of edge length a. A cylindrical riser is placed at the
top of the casting. Assume solidification time, 𝑡 ∝ 𝑉 ⁄𝐴 , where V is the volume
and A is the total surface area dissipating heat. If the top of the riser is insulated,
which of the following radius/radii of riser is/are acceptable?

(A) 𝑎
3

(B) 𝑎
2

(C) 𝑎
4

(D) 𝑎
6

Q.28 Which of these processes involve(s) melting in metallic workpieces?

(A) Electrochemical machining

(B) Electric discharge machining

(C) Laser beam machining

(D) Electron beam machining

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Q.29 The velocity field in a fluid is given to be 𝑽⃗ = (4𝑥𝑦) ̂ + 2(𝑥 − 𝑦 ) ̂.

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) The velocity field is one-dimensional.

(B) The flow is incompressible.

(C) The flow is irrotational.

(D) The acceleration experienced by a fluid particle is zero at (𝑥 = 0, 𝑦 = 0).

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Q.30 A rope with two mass-less platforms at its two ends passes over a fixed pulley as
shown in the figure. Discs with narrow slots and having equal weight of 20 N each
can be placed on the platforms. The number of discs placed on the left side platform
is 𝑛 and that on the right side platform is 𝑚.

It is found that for 𝑛 = 5 and 𝑚 = 0, a force 𝐹= 200 N (refer to part (i) of the figure)
is just sufficient to initiate upward motion of the left side platform. If the force 𝐹 is
removed then the minimum value of 𝑚 (refer to part (ii) of the figure) required to
prevent downward motion of the left side platform is______ (in integer).

Fixed pulley Fixed pulley

(i) (ii)

m discs
n discs n discs

𝐹
Mass-less platforms Mass-less platforms

Q.31 For a dynamical system governed by the equation,

𝑥̈ (𝑡) + 2ζ𝜔 𝑥̇ (𝑡) + 𝜔 𝑥(𝑡) = 0,

the damping ratio ζ is equal to log 2. The displacement x of this system is

measured during a hammer test. A displacement peak in the positive displacement
direction is measured to be 4 mm. Neglecting higher powers (>1) of the damping
ratio, the displacement at the next peak in the positive direction will be
___________ mm (in integer).

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Q.32 An electric car manufacturer underestimated the January sales of car by 20 units,
while the actual sales was 120 units. If the manufacturer uses exponential smoothing
method with a smoothing constant of α = 0.2, then the sales forecast for the month
of February of the same year is ___________units (in integer).

Q.33 The demand of a certain part is 1000 parts/year and its cost is ₹1000/part. The orders
are placed based on the economic order quantity (EOQ). The cost of ordering is
₹100/order and the lead time for receiving the orders is 5 days. If the holding cost
is ₹20/part/year, the inventory level for placing the orders is _________ parts
(round off to the nearest integer).

Q.34 Consider 1 kg of an ideal gas at 1 bar and 300 K contained in a rigid and perfectly
insulated container. The specific heat of the gas at constant volume cv is equal to
750 J∙kg∙K. A stirrer performs 225 kJ of work on the gas. Assume that the
container does not participate in the thermodynamic interaction. The final pressure
of the gas will be ___________ bar (in integer).

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Q.35 Wien’s law is stated as follows: 𝜆 𝑇 = 𝐶, where C is 2898 µm∙K and 𝜆 is the
wavelength at which the emissive power of a black body is maximum for a given
temperature T. The spectral hemispherical emissivity (𝜀 ) of a surface is shown in
the figure below (1Å = 10–10m). The temperature at which the total hemispherical
emissivity will be highest is __________ K (round off to the nearest integer).

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Q. 36 - 65 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.36 For the exact differential equation,

,
which one of the following is the solution?

(A) 𝑢 + 2𝑥 = constant

(B) 𝑥𝑢 + 𝑢 = constant

(C) 1
𝑥 𝑢 + 2𝑢 = constant
2

(D) 1
𝑢𝑥 + 2𝑥 = constant
2

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Q.37 A rigid homogeneous uniform block of mass 1 kg, height ℎ = 0.4 m and width
𝑏 = 0.3 m is pinned at one corner and placed upright in a uniform gravitational field
(𝑔 = 9.81 m/s2), supported by a roller in the configuration shown in the figure. A
short duration (impulsive) force 𝐹, producing an impulse 𝐼 , is applied at a height
of 𝑑 = 0.3 m from the bottom as shown. Assume all joints to be frictionless. The
minimum value of 𝐼 required to topple the block is

b 𝑔

F
h
d

(A) 0.953 Ns

(B) 1.403 Ns

(C) 0.814 Ns

(D) 1.172 Ns

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Q.38 A linear elastic structure under plane stress condition is subjected to two sets of
loading, I and II. The resulting states of stress at a point corresponding to these two
loadings are as shown in the figure below. If these two sets of loading are applied
simultaneously, then the net normal component of stress 𝜎 is ________.

(A) 3𝜎/2

(B) 𝜎 1 + 1⁄√2

(C) 𝜎/2

(D) 𝜎 1 − 1⁄√2

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Q.39 A rigid body in the X-Y plane consists of two point masses (1 kg each) attached to
the ends of two massless rods, each of 1 cm length, as shown in the figure. It rotates
at 30 RPM counter-clockwise about the Z-axis passing through point O. A point
mass of √2 kg, attached to one end of a third massless rod, is used for balancing the
body by attaching the free end of the rod to point O. The length of the third rod
is ________ cm.

(A) 1

(B) √2

(C) 1/√2

(D) 1/2√2

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Q.40 A spring mass damper system (mass m, stiffness k, and damping coefficient c)
excited by a force 𝐹(𝑡) = 𝐵 sin 𝜔𝑡, where 𝐵, 𝜔 and 𝑡 are the amplitude, frequency
and time, respectively, is shown in the figure. Four different responses of the system
(marked as (i) to (iv)) are shown just to the right of the system figure. In the figures
of the responses, 𝐴 is the amplitude of response shown in red color and the dashed
lines indicate its envelope. The responses represent only the qualitative trend and
those are not drawn to any specific scale.

𝐹(𝑡)
(i) (ii)
𝐴 𝐴

𝑚 𝑡 𝑡

(iii) (iv)
𝐴 𝐴
𝑐
𝑡 𝑡

Four different parameter and forcing conditions are mentioned below.

(P) 𝑐 > 0 and 𝜔 = 𝑘/𝑚 (Q) 𝑐 < 0 and 𝜔 ≠ 0
(R) 𝑐 = 0 and 𝜔 = 𝑘/𝑚 (S) 𝑐 = 0 and 𝜔 ≅ 𝑘/𝑚

Which one of the following options gives correct match (indicated by arrow →) of
the parameter and forcing conditions to the responses?

(A) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (iv), (S) → (ii)

(B) (P) → (ii), (Q) → (iii), (R) → (iv), (S) → (i)

(C) (P) → (i), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (ii), (S) → (iii)

(D) (P) → (iii), (Q) → (iv), (R) → (ii), (S) → (i)

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Q.41 Parts P1-P7 are machined first on a milling machine and then polished at a separate
machine. Using the information in the following table, the minimum total
completion time required for carrying out both the operations for all 7 parts
is __________ hours.

Part Milling (hours) Polishing (hours)

No.
P1 8 6

P2 3 2

P3 3 4

P4 4 6

P5 5 7

P6 6 4

P7 2 1

(A) 31

(B) 33

(C) 30

(D) 32

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Q.42 A manufacturing unit produces two products P1 and P2. For each piece of P1 and
P2, the table below provides quantities of materials M1, M2, and M3 required, and
also the profit earned. The maximum quantity available per day for M1, M2 and M3
is also provided. The maximum possible profit per day is ₹__________.

M1 M2 M3 Profit per piece

(₹)

P1 2 2 0 150

P2 3 1 2 100

Maximum quantity 70 50 40
available per day

(A) 5000

(B) 4000

(C) 3000

(D) 6000

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Q.43 A tube of uniform diameter D is immersed in a steady flowing inviscid liquid stream
of velocity V, as shown in the figure. Gravitational acceleration is represented by 𝑔.
The volume flow rate through the tube is ______.

(A) 𝜋
𝐷 𝑉
4

(B) 𝜋
𝐷 2𝑔ℎ
4

(C) 𝜋
𝐷 2𝑔(ℎ + ℎ )
4

(D) 𝜋
𝐷 𝑉 − 2𝑔ℎ
4

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Q.44 The steady velocity field in an inviscid fluid of density 1.5 is given to be
𝑽⃗ = (𝑦 − 𝑥 ) ̂ + (2𝑥𝑦) ̂. Neglecting body forces, the pressure gradient at
(𝑥 = 1, 𝑦 = 1) is __________ .

(A) 10 ̂

(B) 20 ̂

(C) −6 ̂ − 6 ̂

(D) −4 ̂ − 4 ̂

Q.45 In a vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the refrigerant enters the compressor
in saturated vapour state at evaporator pressure, with specific enthalpy equal to
250 kJ/kg. The exit of the compressor is superheated at condenser pressure with
specific enthalpy equal to 300 kJ/kg. At the condenser exit, the refrigerant is
throttled to the evaporator pressure. The coefficient of performance (COP) of the
cycle is 3. If the specific enthalpy of the saturated liquid at evaporator pressure is
50 kJ/kg, then the dryness fraction of the refrigerant at entry to evaporator
is _________.

(A) 0.2

(B) 0.25

(C) 0.3

(D) 0.35

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Q.46 A is a 3×5 real matrix of rank 2. For the set of homogeneous equations Ax = 0,
where 0 is a zero vector and x is a vector of unknown variables, which of the
following is/are true?

(A) The given set of equations will have a unique solution.

(B) The given set of equations will be satisfied by a zero vector of appropriate size.

(C) The given set of equations will have infinitely many solutions.

(D) The given set of equations will have many but a finite number of solutions.

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Q.47 The lengths of members BC and CE in the frame shown in the figure are equal. All
the members are rigid and lightweight, and the friction at the joints is negligible.
Two forces of magnitude 𝑄 > 0 are applied as shown, each at the mid-length of the
respective member on which it acts.

𝑄
D F
C E

𝑄
G H

A B

Which one or more of the following members do not carry any load (force)?

(A) AB

(B) CD

(C) EF

(D) GH

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3 𝑝
Q.48 If the sum and product of eigenvalues of a 2 × 2 real matrix are 4 and −1
𝑝 𝑞
respectively, then |𝑝| is ______ (in integer).

Q.49 Given 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖𝑦, 𝑖 = √−1. C is a circle of radius 2 with the centre at the origin.
If the contour C is traversed anticlockwise, then the value of the integral
∫ ( )( )
𝑑𝑧 is _______ (round off to one decimal place).

Q.50 A shaft of length 𝐿 is made of two materials, one in the inner core and the other in
the outer rim, and the two are perfectly joined together (no slip at the interface) along
the entire length of the shaft. The diameter of the inner core is 𝑑 and the external
diameter of the rim is 𝑑 , as shown in the figure. The modulus of rigidity of the core
and rim materials are 𝐺 and 𝐺 , respectively. It is given that 𝑑 = 2𝑑 and
𝐺 = 3𝐺 . When the shaft is twisted by application of a torque along the shaft axis,
the maximum shear stress developed in the outer rim and the inner core turn out to
be 𝜏 and 𝜏 , respectively. All the deformations are in the elastic range and stress-
strain relations are linear. Then the ratio 𝜏 /𝜏 is ______ (round off to 2 decimal
places).

𝑑
Shaft cross-section

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Q.51 A rigid beam AD of length 3𝑎 = 6 m is hinged at frictionless pin joint A and

supported by two strings as shown in the figure. String BC passes over two small
frictionless pulleys of negligible radius. All the strings are made of the same material
and have equal cross-sectional area. A force 𝐹 = 9 kN is applied at C and the
resulting stresses in the strings are within linear elastic limit. The self-weight of the
beam is negligible with respect to the applied load. Assuming small deflections, the
tension developed in the string at C is _________ kN (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.52 In the configuration of the planar four-bar mechanism at a certain instant as shown
in the figure, the angular velocity of the 2 cm long link is 𝜔 = 5 rad/s. Given the
dimensions as shown, the magnitude of the angular velocity 𝜔 of the 4 cm long
link is given by _____ rad/s (round off to 2 decimal places).

5 cm 4 cm
ω
2 cm ω

10 cm

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Q.53 A shaft AC rotating at a constant speed carries a thin pulley of radius 𝑟 = 0.4 m at
the end C which drives a belt. A motor is coupled at the end A of the shaft such that
it applies a torque 𝑀 about the shaft axis without causing any bending moment.
The shaft is mounted on narrow frictionless bearings at A and B where
AB = BC = 𝐿 = 0.5 m. The taut and slack side tensions of the belt are 𝑇 = 300 N
and 𝑇 = 100 N, respectively. The allowable shear stress for the shaft material is
80 MPa. The self-weights of the pulley and the shaft are negligible. Use the value
of 𝜋 available in the on-screen virtual calculator. Neglecting shock and fatigue
loading and assuming maximum shear stress theory, the minimum required shaft
diameter is _______ mm (round off to 2 decimal places).

A B 𝑟
𝑀 C

𝑥 𝐿 𝐿
𝑦 𝑧 𝑇 𝑇

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Q.54 A straight-teeth horizontal slab milling cutter is shown in the figure. It has 4 teeth
and diameter (D) of 200 mm. The rotational speed of the cutter is 100 rpm and the
linear feed given to the workpiece is 1000 mm/minute. The width of the workpiece
(w) is 100 mm, and the entire width is milled in a single pass of the cutter. The
cutting force/tooth is given by 𝐹 = 𝐾𝑡 𝑤, where specific cutting force
𝐾 = 10 N/mm , w is the width of cut, and 𝑡 is the uncut chip thickness.

The depth of cut (d) is 𝐷/2, and hence the assumption of ≪ 1 is invalid. The
maximum cutting force required is ________ kN (round off to one decimal place).

Q.55 In an orthogonal machining operation, the cutting and thrust forces are equal in
magnitude. The uncut chip thickness is 0.5 mm and the shear angle is 15°. The
orthogonal rake angle of the tool is 0° and the width of cut is 2 mm. The workpiece
material is perfectly plastic and its yield shear strength is 500 MPa. The cutting
force is _________ N (round off to the nearest integer).

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Q.56 The best size wire is fitted in a groove of a metric screw such that the wire touches
the flanks of the thread on the pitch line as shown in the figure. The pitch (𝑝) and
included angle of the thread are 4 mm and 60º, respectively. The diameter of the
best size wire is ___________ mm (round off to 2 decimal places).

Q.57 In a direct current arc welding process, the power source has an open circuit voltage
of 100 V and short circuit current of 1000 A. Assume a linear relationship between
voltage and current. The arc voltage (V) varies with the arc length (l) as
V = 10 + 5l, where V is in volts and l is in mm. The maximum available arc power
during the process is _________ kVA (in integer).

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Q.58 A cylindrical billet of 100 mm diameter and 100 mm length is extruded by a direct
extrusion process to produce a bar of L-section. The cross sectional dimensions of
this L-section bar are shown in the figure. The total extrusion pressure (𝑝) in MPa
for the above process is related to extrusion ratio (𝑟) as

2𝑙
𝑝=𝐾 𝜎 0.8 + 1.5 ln (𝑟) + ,
𝑑

where 𝜎 is the mean flow strength of the billet material in MPa, 𝑙 is the portion of
the billet length remaining to be extruded in mm, 𝑑 is the initial diameter of the
billet in mm, and 𝐾 is the die shape factor.

If the mean flow strength of the billet material is 50 MPa and the die shape factor
is 1.05, then the maximum force required at the start of extrusion is ________ kN
(round off to one decimal place).

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Q.59 A project consists of five activities (A, B, C, D and E). The duration of each activity
follows beta distribution. The three time estimates (in weeks) of each activity and
immediate predecessor(s) are listed in the table. The expected time of the project
completion is __________ weeks (in integer).

Time estimates (in weeks)

Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic Immediate

Activity time time time predecessor(s)

A 4 5 6 None

B 1 3 5 A

C 1 2 3 A

D 2 4 6 C

E 3 4 5 B, D

Q.60 A rigid tank of volume of 8 m3 is being filled up with air from a pipeline connected
through a valve. Initially the valve is closed and the tank is assumed to be
completely evacuated. The air pressure and temperature inside the pipeline are
maintained at 600 kPa and 306 K, respectively. The filling of the tank begins by
opening the valve and the process ends when the tank pressure is equal to the
pipeline pressure. During the filling process, heat loss to the surrounding
is 1000 kJ. The specific heats of air at constant pressure and at constant volume
are 1.005 kJ/kg.K and 0.718 kJ/kg.K, respectively. Neglect changes in kinetic
energy and potential energy.

The final temperature of the tank after the completion of the filling process
is _________ K (round off to the nearest integer).

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Q.61 At steady state, 500 kg/s of steam enters a turbine with specific enthalpy equal
to 3500 kJ/kg and specific entropy equal to 6.5 kJ∙kg∙K. It expands reversibly in
the turbine to the condenser pressure. Heat loss occurs reversibly in the turbine at a
temperature of 500 K. If the exit specific enthalpy and specific entropy
are 2500 kJ/kg and 6.3 kJ∙kg∙K, respectively, the work output from the turbine
is ________ MW (in integer).

Q.62 A uniform wooden rod (specific gravity = 0.6, diameter = 4 cm and

length = 8 m) is immersed in the water and is hinged without friction at point A on
the waterline as shown in the figure. A solid spherical ball made of lead (specific
gravity = 11.4) is attached to the free end of the rod to keep the assembly in static
equilibrium inside the water. For simplicity, assume that the radius of the ball is
much smaller than the length of the rod.

Assume density of water = 103 kg/m3 and π = 3.14.

Radius of the ball is _______ cm (round off to 2 decimal places).

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Q.63 Consider steady state, one-dimensional heat conduction in an infinite slab of

thickness 2𝐿 (𝐿 = 1 m) as shown in the figure. The conductivity (𝑘) of the material
varies with temperature as 𝑘 = 𝐶𝑇, where 𝑇 is the temperature in K, and 𝐶 is a
constant equal to 2 W∙m∙K. There is a uniform heat generation of 1280 kW/m3
in the slab. If both faces of the slab are maintained at 600 K, then the temperature
at 𝑥 = 0 is ________ K (in integer).

600 K 600 K

𝑥 = −𝐿 𝑥=𝐿
𝑥=0

Q.64 Saturated vapor at 200 oC condenses to saturated liquid at the rate of 150 kg/s on
the shell side of a heat exchanger (enthalpy of condensation ℎ = 2400 kJ/kg). A
fluid with 𝑐 = 4 kJ∙kg∙K enters at 100 oC on the tube side. If the effectiveness
of the heat exchanger is 0.9, then the mass flow rate of the fluid in the tube side
is ________ kg/s (in integer).

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Q.65 Consider a hydrodynamically and thermally fully-developed, steady fluid flow

of 1 kg/s in a uniformly heated pipe with diameter of 0.1 m and length of 40 m. A
constant heat flux of magnitude 15000 W/m2 is imposed on the outer surface of the
pipe. The bulk-mean temperature of the fluid at the entrance to the pipe is 200 oC.
The Reynolds number (Re) of the flow is 85000, and the Prandtl number (Pr) of the
fluid is 5. The thermal conductivity and the specific heat of the fluid
are 0.08 W∙m∙Kand 2600 J∙kg∙K, respectively. The correlation
Nu = 0.023 Re . Pr . is applicable, where the Nusselt Number (Nu) is defined on
the basis of the pipe diameter. The pipe surface temperature at the exit
is ________ oC (round off to the nearest integer).

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