57-4-2 Biology
57-4-2 Biology
57-4-2 Biology
.
Code No. 57/4/2
.
- -
Roll No.
Candidates must write the Code on
the title page of the answer-book.
NOTE
(I) - (I) Please check that this question
11 paper contains 11 printed pages.
(II) - (II) Code number given on the right
- - hand side of the question paper
should be written on the title page of
the answer-book by the candidate.
(III) - 27 (III) Please check that this question
paper contains 27 questions.
(IV) (IV) Please write down the Serial
, Number of the question in the
answer-book before attempting
it.
(V) - 15 (V) 15 minute time has been allotted
- to read this question paper. The
question paper will be distributed
10.15 10.15
at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to
10.30 - 10.30 a.m., the students will read
- the question paper only and will
not write any answer on the
answer-book during this period.
:
3 : 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70
(i) - – , , ,
(ii) - 27
(iii) - 1 5 , 1
(iv) - 6 12 -I , 2
(v) - 13 21 -II 3
(vi) - 22 24 -III 3
(vii) - 25 27 5
(viii)
(ix) - , - , -
, - -
(x) -,
(xi) , ,
–
1. () ,
(a) (b)
(c) (d) 1
,
(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)
(a) (i) (ii) (b) (i) (iii) (c) (ii) (iii) (d) (iii) (iv) 1
.57/4/2. 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) Question paper comprises five sections – A, B, C, D and E.
(ii) There are 27 questions in the question paper. All questions are
compulsory.
(iii) Section A question number 1 to 5 are multiple choice questions,
carrying one mark each.
(iv) Section B question number 6 to 12 are short answer questions type-I,
carrying two marks each.
(v) Section C question number 13 to 21 are short answer questions type-II,
carrying three marks each.
(vi) Section D question number 22 to 24 are short answer questions type-III,
carrying three marks each.
(vii) Section E question number 25 to 27 are long answer questions, carrying
five marks each.
(viii) Answer should be brief and to the point also the above word limit be
adhered to as far as possible.
(ix) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal
choice has been provided in two questions of 1 mark, one question of 2
marks, two questions of 3 marks and three questions of 5 marks
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be
attempted.
(x) The diagram drawn should be neat proportionate and properly
labelled, wherever necessary.
(xi) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section
and question, wherever necessary.
SECTION – A
1. It is observed that, the species diversity decreases as we
(a) move away from equator to poles
(b) move towards equator from poles
(c) move along the equator
(d) move from deserts to rain-forests. 1
OR
CNG is preferred as a fuel over diesel for public transport because
(i) it is cost effective. (ii) it burns almost completely.
(iii) it can be recycled. (iv) it burns only partially.
Choose the correct combination.
(a) (i) + (ii) (b) (i) + (iii)
(c) (ii) + (iii) (d) (iii) + (iv) 1
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2. ()
(a) 21 (b) - (c) X- (d) Y- 1
3. 4-6
, ()
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
( )
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1
5. –
(a) (b)
(c) (d) 1
–
6. (a)
?
(b) 2
8.
2
10. ( ) ‘AB’
‘O’ ‘A’ ‘B’
2
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2. Choose the chromosome, in a human, that possesses least number of
genes.
(a) 21st Chromosome (b) Autosome
(c) X-Chromosome (d) Y-Chromosome 1
3. The practice of mating unrelated animals within the same breed, but with
no common ancestor on either side of the pedigree for 4-6 generation is
known as
(a) out-breeding (b) out-crossing (c) cross-breeding (d) in-breeding 1
OR
Bacteria present in rumen of a cattle digest cellulose to produce
(a) Polysaccharides (b) Sucrose (c) Ethanol (d) Methane 1
5. Marchantia is a
(a) Monoecious plant (b) Homothallic plant
(c) Dioecious plant (d) Bisexual plant 1
SECTION – B
8. Name any two most common bio-reactors and mention their importance in
biotechnology. 2
10. Two children one with blood group ‘AB’ and other with blood group ‘O’ are
born to parents, where the father has blood group ‘A’ and the mother has
blood group ‘B’. Work out a cross to show how is it possible ? 2
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11.
2
- -
? 2
–
13.
()
3
14.
? 3
(a) ()
(b) - 3
15. (), () ()
3
18. - 3
19. 3
20. A, B, C, D, E F :
/
‘A’ ‘B’
‘C’ ‘D’
‘E’ F 3
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11. Name the types of acquired immune responses, and the special types of
lymphocytes involved in providing them. 2
OR
Name two organisms belonging to two different kingdoms, that are
commonly used as biofertilizers, and how ? 2
12. Write the basis of naming the restriction endonuclease EcoR-I. 2
SECTION – C
13. Write two major causes of deforestation. Explain the role of re-forestation
in maintaining ecological balance. 3
14. How would you differentiate between gross primary productivity from net
primary productivity, and secondary productivity of an ecosystem. 3
OR
(a) Explain the concept of endemism.
(b) Name four regions in and around our country that are considered
hot-spots. 3
15. Compare the symptoms of ascariasis, amoebiasis and elephantitis. 3
16. (a) Write the difference between the pro insulin and mature insulin.
(b) How did American company Eli Lilly produce human insulin using
rDNA technique ? 3
17. Explain the discovery made by Hershey and Chase using radioactive
sulphur and phosphorus in their experiment. 3
OR
Describe the experiment where Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl
used heavy isotope of Nitrogen. 3
18. Explain convergent evolution with the help of two examples, one from
plants and the other from the animals. 3
19. Explain the role of pituitary and ovarian hormones in the menstrual cycle
of humans females. 3
20. Study the table given below. Identify A, B, C, D, E and F in the table.
Name of the Scientific name of Effect on human
Drug source plant organ/system
Opioids ‘A’ ‘B’
‘C’ Cannabis sativa ‘D’
Cocaine ‘E’ F 3
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21. (a)
(b) ()
3
–
22. :
23. pBR 322
SECTION – D
22. Study the picture of biogas plant given below and answer the questions
that follow :
(a) Name the components gaining entry from A into the chamber.
(b) Mention the group of bacteria and the condition in which they act on
the component that entered from A in the digester.
(c) Name the components that get collected in gas holder. 3
23. Observe the diagram shown below of pBR 322. Answer the questions that
follow :
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24. - :
P2 + 2Pq + q2 = 1
(a) ‘P’ ‘q’ () ?
(b) -
(c) ‘1’ ? 3
–
25. F1
, ()
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ,
–
(a) F2 ,
(b)
5
(a) ‘ ’
(b) ‘ ’
5
26. (a) ?
(b) ()
() ?
(i) ()
(ii) ()
(iii) ()
(c) () 5
(a) ‘ ’ ?
(b) ‘ ’
(c) ()
5
27. 2-
5
?
5
_______________
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24. Hardy-Weinberg Principle is stated in the following algebraic equation :
P2 + 2Pq + q2 = 1.
(a) State what do ‘P’ and ‘q’ denote in the equation.
(b) State Hardy-Weinberg principle as indicated in the equation.
(c) What would you interpret if the value of ‘1’ in the equation gets
deviated ? 3
SECTION – E
25. A group of F1 pea plants produce round and yellow seeds. However, when
selfed their offsprings provided a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio for seed
shape and colour, with some seeds being wrinkled and green and others
wrinkled and yellow.
(a) Explain with the help of a Punnett square their phenotypes,
genotypes and respective given phenotypic ratios of F 2-population.
(b) State Mendel’s law that can be deduced only from such a cross. 5
OR
(a) Describe the structure of a ‘transcription Unit’.
(b) Explain the basis of defining the two DNA strands of a structural
gene in a transcription unit. 5
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