Examen
Examen
Examen
GCXO 190850Z 33005KT 1400 R30/P1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 07/07 Q1025 NOSIG
d) None of above.
a) The angle between the camber line and the relative air flow.
b) The angle between the chord line and the relative air flow.
c) The angle between the incidence line and the relative air flow.
GCXO 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R30/0700N FG VV01 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG. What will be the RVR
at 0900 UTC?
a) 300 m
b) 700 m
c) The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR
d) 900 m
5. Refer to the following TAF extract:
What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour frime time?
b) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.
c) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC.
d) The Take-Off Mass minus the Basic Empty Mass and crew mass.
a) 800 m
b) 1000 m
c) 1200 m
a) Below 1000 ft above the aerodrome or into the final segment approach in the
case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above aerodrome
b) Beyond the outer marker, or when no outer marker exists, before descending the
planning minima for the destination aerodrome
c) Beyond the outer marker, or when no outer marker exists, before descending
below 1000 ft above the applicable landing minima
9. If reported, the midpoint and stop end RVR shall be controlled. The minimum
RVR value for the midpoint shall be … meters or the RVR required for the touchdown
zone if less, and … meters for the stop end
a) 1000 / 600
b) 600 / 400
c) 400 / 125
d) 125 / 75
b) BR = fog, HZ = haze.
c) BR = mist, HZ = smoke.
d) BR = mist, HZ = haze.
a) 500 m.
b) 2000 m.
a) By passengers individually.
c) Automatically.
15. In an altimeter, what pressure is fed to the capsule and the case?:
a) Static / dynamic.
b) Static / static.
c) Static / vacuum.
d) Vacuum / static.
16. The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube
directly supplies:
a) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
b) Readable.
c) Perfectly readable.
d) Unreadable.
21. For Category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
a) 150 ft.
b) 250 ft.
c) 200 ft.
d) 100 ft.
a) 2,5 %.
b) 0,9 %.
c) 3,3 %.
d) 4,2 %.
23. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern
shall be according to:
a) Bearing.
b) Course.
c) Heading.
d) Track.
24. The result of a higher flap setting (up to the optimum) for take-off is:
b) An increased acceleration.
c) A higher V1.
26. The selection of the code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:
a) An emergency.
c) Transponder malfunction.
28. When completing an ATS flight plan for a commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in item 8 (flight rules) would be:
a) Z.
b) N/S.
c) G.
d) Y.
29. Repetitive flight plans may be used for ______ flights with a high degree of
stability over the same days of consecutive weeks on at least ______ occasions.
a) IFR; 7.
b) VFR; 10.
c) IFR; 10.
d) VFR; 7.
30. If your speed, in flight, changes from that given in the flight plan, you
should notify ATC for changes of more than:
a) An increase in CL.
d) A decrease in CL.
35. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on
an opposite parallel track. What NAV light will be observed?:
a) Green.
b) Red.
c) White.
a) Minimun control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be controlled with
5⁰ bank, in case of failure of the critical engine with the other engine at RTO
power (take off flaps setting and gear retracted).
b) Minimun flight speed at which aircraft can be controlled with 5⁰ bank in case
of failure of the critical engine, the other being set a GA power (landing flaps
setting, gear extended) and which provides rolling capability specified by
regulations.
c) Minimun control speed from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can
be controlled by use of primary flight controls only, with the other engine at RTO
power.
d) Minimun control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be controlled with
5⁰ bank, in case of failure of the critical engine with the other engine at TO
power (take off flaps setting and gear retracted).
37. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?:
a) 30%.
b) 10%.
c) 20%.
d) 15%.
38. From which direction do the trade winds (Alisios) blow, in the Northern
Hemisphere?:
a) N.
b) NE.
c) SW.
d) SE.
39. What is the VMC criteria to proceed to La Gomera airport (Class G)?:
c) Flight visibility of 5 km, 1.500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud.
d) Flight visibility of 8 km, 1.500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud.
a) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 20 min, and
then return to the FPL.
b) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its
arrival by most expeditious means to the appropriate ATS unit.
c) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 7 min, and
then return to the FPL.
d) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 5 min, and
then return to FPL.