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1.

The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always:

a) Average value of the TDZ, mid-point and stop-end positions

b) Value representative of the Touchdown zone (TDZ)

c) Lowest value of the TDZ, mid-point and stop-end positions

d) Highest value of the TDZ, mid-point and stp-end positions

2. Given the following METAR:

GCXO 190850Z 33005KT 1400 R30/P1500N BR SCT002 OVC003 07/07 Q1025 NOSIG

a) Visibility is reduced by fog.

b) There is a mistake. It is no necessary to show RVR if it is 1.500 meter or


above.

c) RVR on runway 30 is increasing.

d) None of above.

3. The angle of attack of an aerofoil is:

a) The angle between the camber line and the relative air flow.

b) The angle between the chord line and the relative air flow.

c) The angle between the incidence line and the relative air flow.

d) The angle between the resultants of lift and aerodynamic forces.

4. You receive the following METAR, is always the:

GCXO 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R30/0700N FG VV01 M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG. What will be the RVR
at 0900 UTC?

a) 300 m

b) 700 m

c) The RVR is unknown, because the NOSIG does not refer to RVR

d) 900 m
5. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 2218/2221 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2221/2224 0500 FG

What does the BECMG data indicate for the 18 to 21 hour frime time?

a) Many long term changes in the original weather.

b) A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and 1900 UTC.

c) The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC.

d) Many short term changes in the original weather.

6. The Operating Mass equals:

a) The Take-Off Mass minus the Traffic Load.

b) The Landing Mass minus the Traffic Load.

c) The Maximun Zero Fuel Mass less the Traffic Load.

d) The Take-Off Mass minus the Basic Empty Mass and crew mass.

7. What is the minimum RVR approach (in a IFR flight)?

a) 800 m

b) 1000 m

c) 1200 m

d) There is no limit if we have the runway in sight

8. The pilot may commence an instrument approach regardless of the reported


RVR/VIS, if the reported RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minimum the approach
shall not be continuated:

a) Below 1000 ft above the aerodrome or into the final segment approach in the
case where the DA/H or MDA/H is more than 1000 ft above aerodrome

b) Beyond the outer marker, or when no outer marker exists, before descending the
planning minima for the destination aerodrome
c) Beyond the outer marker, or when no outer marker exists, before descending
below 1000 ft above the applicable landing minima

d) None of the above.

9. If reported, the midpoint and stop end RVR shall be controlled. The minimum
RVR value for the midpoint shall be … meters or the RVR required for the touchdown
zone if less, and … meters for the stop end

a) 1000 / 600

b) 600 / 400

c) 400 / 125

d) 125 / 75

10. In a METAR message, abbreviations “BR” and “HZ” mean respectively:

a) BR = mist, HZ = widespread dust.

b) BR = fog, HZ = haze.

c) BR = mist, HZ = smoke.

d) BR = mist, HZ = haze.

11. Refer to the following TAF extract:

BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001

What visibility is forecast for 24:00 UTC?:

a) 500 m.

b) 2000 m.

c) Between 500 m and 2000 m.

d) Between 0 m and 1000 m.

12. The purpose of pressurizing some hydraulic reservoirs is to:

a) Provide emergency pressure if the pump should fail.


b) Provide a positive pressure to the return line.

c) Provide a positive feed to the main pump.

d) Prevent cavitation at the pressure filter.

13. How is cabin temperature controlled in pressurized systems?:

a) By passengers individually.

b) Automatically or by the pilot.

c) Automatically.

d) By adding water to the processed air.

14. What is the purpose of the turbine in a turbine engine?:

a) Drive auxiliary devices.

b) Compress the air coming into the engine.

c) Exhaust burnt gases.

d) Drive the compressor using energy from exhaust gases.

15. In an altimeter, what pressure is fed to the capsule and the case?:

a) Static / dynamic.

b) Static / static.

c) Static / vacuum.

d) Vacuum / static.

16. The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure sensors. The pitot tube
directly supplies:

a) The total pressure.

b) The total pressure and the static pressure.

c) The static pressure.


d) The dynamic pressure.

17. Describe where the outbound timing begins in a holding pattern:

a) Over the fix only.

b) Abeam the fix only

c) Over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later

d) Always when the turn to outbound is completed

18. What does QDM mean?:

a) True bearing from the station,

b) Magnetic bearing from the station.

c) True heading to the station (no wind).

d) Magnetic heading to the station (no wind).

19. What does the word “ACKNOWLEDGE” mean?:

a) Let me know that you have received and understood this message.

b) Pass me the following information.

c) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received.

d) Repeat all of your last transmission.

20. On the readability scale what does “READABILITY 1” mean?:

a) Readable but with difficulty.

b) Readable.

c) Perfectly readable.

d) Unreadable.

21. For Category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than:
a) 150 ft.

b) 250 ft.

c) 200 ft.

d) 100 ft.

22. What is the normal minimum missed approach gradient?:

a) 2,5 %.

b) 0,9 %.

c) 3,3 %.

d) 4,2 %.

23. In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern
shall be according to:

a) Bearing.

b) Course.

c) Heading.

d) Track.

24. The result of a higher flap setting (up to the optimum) for take-off is:

a) A longer take-off run.

b) An increased acceleration.

c) A higher V1.

d) A shorter ground roll.

25. The frequency range of a VOR receiver is?:


a) 108 – 117,95 Mhz.

b) 108 – 111.95 Mhz.

c) 118 – 135,95 Mhz.

d) 108 – 135,95 Mhz.

26. The selection of the code 7600 on an aircraft SSR transponder indicates:

a) An emergency.

b) Unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight.

c) Transponder malfunction.

d) Radio communication failure.

27. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:

a) UHF band and is a primary radar system.

b) VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison.

c) UHF band and is a secondary radar system.

d) SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques.

28. When completing an ATS flight plan for a commencing under IFR but possibly
changing to VFR, the letters entered in item 8 (flight rules) would be:

a) Z.

b) N/S.

c) G.

d) Y.

29. Repetitive flight plans may be used for ______ flights with a high degree of
stability over the same days of consecutive weeks on at least ______ occasions.
a) IFR; 7.

b) VFR; 10.

c) IFR; 10.

d) VFR; 7.

30. If your speed, in flight, changes from that given in the flight plan, you
should notify ATC for changes of more than:

a) 5% TAS / ETA 5min.

b) 3% TAS / ETA 3min.

c) 5% TAS / ETA 3min.

d) 3% TAS / ETA 5min.

31. The TODA is:

a) Declared runway length plus clearway and stopway.

b) Declared runway length plus stopway.

c) Declared runway length plus clearway.

d) Declared runway length only.

32. A reduction in air density causes:

a) An increase in CL.

b) An increase in take-off distance.

c) A decrease in take-off distance.

d) A decrease in CL.

33. Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be:

a) Same as that for clean configuration.


b) Higher than that for clean configuration.

c) Lower than that for clean configuration.

d) Changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared to clean configuration.

34. MDA is:

a) A specified height in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below


which the descent must not be made without the required visual reference.

b) A specified altitude in a Non-precision Approach or Circling Approach below


which the descent must not be made without the required visual reference.

c) Referenced to Runway Threshold (THR) elevation.

d) Both B and C are correct.

35. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on
an opposite parallel track. What NAV light will be observed?:

a) Green.

b) Red.

c) White.

d) All of the above.

36. VMCL definition:

a) Minimun control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be controlled with
5⁰ bank, in case of failure of the critical engine with the other engine at RTO
power (take off flaps setting and gear retracted).

b) Minimun flight speed at which aircraft can be controlled with 5⁰ bank in case
of failure of the critical engine, the other being set a GA power (landing flaps
setting, gear extended) and which provides rolling capability specified by
regulations.

c) Minimun control speed from which a sudden failure of the critical engine can
be controlled by use of primary flight controls only, with the other engine at RTO
power.

d) Minimun control speed in flight at which the aircraft can be controlled with
5⁰ bank, in case of failure of the critical engine with the other engine at TO
power (take off flaps setting and gear retracted).
37. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?:

a) 30%.

b) 10%.

c) 20%.

d) 15%.

38. From which direction do the trade winds (Alisios) blow, in the Northern
Hemisphere?:

a) N.

b) NE.

c) SW.

d) SE.

39. What is the VMC criteria to proceed to La Gomera airport (Class G)?:

a) Flight visibility of 5 km, clear of cloud and in sight of the ground.

b) Flight visibility of 8 km, clear of cloud and in sight of the ground.

c) Flight visibility of 5 km, 1.500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud.

d) Flight visibility of 8 km, 1.500m horizontally and 300m vertically from cloud.

40. Communication Failure.

After experiencing a communication failure on controlled flight accordance with


IFR, the aircraft shall comply with the communication failure procedures. When
flying in Canarias FIR/UIR, the aircraft shall:

a) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 20 min, and
then return to the FPL.

b) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report its
arrival by most expeditious means to the appropriate ATS unit.
c) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 7 min, and
then return to the FPL.

d) Continue with the last level and speed received and confirmed by the current
clearance, or the last minimum flight altitude (if it is higher) during 5 min, and
then return to FPL.

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