Milesh Kothari’s Chemistry Tutorials

ELECTROLYSIS
1. The diagram shows an electrical cable.

plastic coating

metal core

Which statement about the substances used is correct?

A) The coating is plastic because it conducts electricity well.

B) The core is copper because it conducts electricity well.

C) The core is copper because it is cheap and strong.

D) The core is iron because it is cheap and strong.

2. When substance X is electrolysed, the amount of gases P and Q formed is shown.

What is substance X?

A) concentrated aqueous sodium chloride

B) concentrated hydrochloric acid

C) dilute sulphuric acid

D) molten lead (II) bromide

3. What are the products at the electrodes when dilute sulphuric acid is electrolysed using inert electrodes?

4. Electricity is passed separately through concentrated hydrochloric acid, concentrated aqueous

sodium chloride and dilute sulphuric acid.

In which rows are the electrolysis products correctly named?

cathode product anode product

1 concentrated hydrogen chlorine

hydrochloric acid

2 concentrated sodium chlorine

aqueous sodium chloride

3 dilute sulphuric acid hydrogen oxygen

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

5. Which row describes the electrolysis of molten potassium bromide?

6. The diagram shows a section of an overhead power cable.

steel
ceramic

aluminium

Which statement explains why a particular substance is used?

A) Aluminium has a low density and is a good conductor of electricity.

B) Ceramic is a good conductor of electricity.

C) Steel can rust in damp air.

D) Steel is more dense than aluminium.

7. The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated

aqueous sodium chloride using carbon electrodes.

At which electrode(s) is hydrogen produced?

A) electrode 1 only

B) electrodes 1 and 3

C) electrode 2 only

D) electrodes 2 and 4
8. What are the electrode products when molten silver iodide is electrolysed between inert
electrodes?

9. Copper and hydrogen can each be formed by electrolysis.

At which electrodes are these elements formed?

10. The diagram shows a failed attempt to copper-plate a pan.

Which action will plate the pan with copper?

A) cooling the copper sulphate solution in an ice bath

B) heating the copper sulphate solution to boiling point

C) increasing the voltage from 3 V to 6 V

D) making the pan the cathode and the copper the anode
11. The diagram shows the electroplating of a steel object.

A student made the following statements.

1] The object turns a reddish-brown colour.

2] The copper sulphate solution changes to a paler blue colour.

3] The copper electrode becomes smaller.

Which statements are correct?

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

12. An object is electroplated with silver using an aqueous silver salt as the electrolyte.

Which set of conditions is used?

13. The diagram shows an electrolysis experiment.

During the electrolysis, sodium was formed at electrode P and chlorine at electrode Q.

Which row correctly identifies P, Q and X?

P Q X

A) anode cathode concentrated solution of

sodium chloride in water

B) anode cathode molten sodium chloride

C) cathode anode concentrated solution of

sodium chloride in water

D) cathode anode molten sodium chloride

14. The diagram shows apparatus for plating a spoon with silver.

Which statement is not correct?

A) Silver would stick to the spoon because it is a very reactive metal.

B) The electrolyte would be a silver salt dissolved in water.

C) The metal electrode would be made from silver.

D) The spoon would be connected to the negative terminal of the power supply.
15. Which metal could not be used for electroplating by using an aqueous solution?

A) chromium

B) copper

C) silver

D) sodium

16. Which products are formed at the electrodes when a concentrated solution of sodium chloride

is electrolysed?

17. A student wishes to electroplate an object with copper.

Which row is correct?

18. In the electrolysis shown, chlorine is produced at W and sodium at X.

Which labels are correct?

19. Which substance will not conduct electricity?

A) aluminium

B) copper

C) plastic

D) steel

20. Which products are formed at the anode and cathode when electricity is passed through

molten lead (II) bromide?

anode (+) cathode (–)

A) bromide ions lead ions

B) bromine molecules lead atoms

C) lead atoms bromine molecules

D) lead ions bromide ions

21. Electrical cables are made from either ……1……, because it is a very good conductor of

electricity or from……2……, because it has a low density.

Overhead cables have a ……3…… core in order to give the cable strength.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

22. What will be produced at the anode and at the cathode, if molten potassium chloride is

electrolysed?
23. Which of these elements could be formed at the anode when a molten salt is electrolysed?

A) copper

B) iodine

C) lithium

D) strontium

24. The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.

What is the colour of the litmus at each electrode after five minutes?

25. Two electrolysis experiments were carried out as shown in the diagram below.

The graphite electrodes are labelled 1-4.

Which row describes the products at the electrodes in these experiments?

26. One molten compound and two aqueous solutions were electrolysed.

The table gives the compounds electrolysed and the electrodes used.

substance electrolysed electrodes

1] concentrated hydrochloric acid carbon

2] concentrated sodium chloride platinum

3] molten lead bromide platinum

In which experiments is a gas evolved at the cathode?

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 only

D) 3 only

27. Molten lead (II) bromide is electrolysed as shown.

Which ions are discharged at each electrode?

positive electrode negative electrode

A) Pb1+ Br2

B) Pb2+ Br

C) Br2 Pb1+

D) Br Pb2+
28. The diagram shows an electrical cable.

plastic coating

metal core

Which statement about the substances used is correct?

A) The coating is plastic because it conducts electricity well.

B) The core is copper because it conducts electricity well.

C) The core is copper because it is cheap and strong.

D) The core is iron because it is cheap and strong.

29. The diagram shows an electrolysis circuit.

At which electrode is hydrogen formed?

30. Some white anhydrous copper (II) sulphate powder is put into a beaker of water and stirred.

What would show that the process was exothermic?

A) A blue solution is formed.

B) The beaker feels cooler.

C) The beaker feels warmer.

D) The powder dissolves in the water

31. Aluminium is extracted from its oxide by electrolysis.

The oxide is dissolved in ……1…… cryolite and aluminium is deposited at the ……2……

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

32. The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.

What is produced at each of the electrodes?

33. The diagram shows an electrolysis experiment using metals X and Y as electrodes.

One of the metals becomes coated with copper.

Which metal becomes coated and which aqueous solution is used?

Metal aqueous solution

A) X Cu l 3

B) X Cr l 2

C) Y Cr l 3

D) Y Cu l 2

34. In separate experiments, electricity was passed through concentrated aqueous sodium

chloride and molten lead bromide.

What would happen in both experiments?

A) A halogen would be formed at the anode.

B) A metal would be formed at the cathode.

C) Hydrogen would be formed at the anode.

D) Hydrogen would be formed at the cathode.

35. Winston Churchill, a British Prime Minister, had his false teeth electroplated with gold.

The teeth were coated with a thin layer of carbon and were then placed in the apparatus shown.

Which row is correct?

36. The diagram shows that two gases are formed when concentrated hydrochloric acid is

electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Which row correctly describes the colours of the gases at the electrodes?
37. The diagram shows a section of an overhead power cable.

steel
ceramic

aluminium

Which statement explains why a particular substance is used?

A) Aluminium has a low density and is a good conductor of electricity.

B) Porcelain is a good conductor of electricity.

C) Steel can rust in damp air.

D) Steel is more dense than aluminium.

38. Metals could be extracted from their molten chlorides using electrolysis.

Which substances are formed at each electrode?

39. Concentrated aqueous potassium bromide solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

The ions present in the solution are K , Br , H and OH .

To which electrodes are the ions attracted during this electrolysis?

attracted to anode attracted to cathode

A) Br and K1+ H1+ and OH

B) Br and OH H1- and K1+

C) H1- and K1+ Br and OH

D) H1+ and OH Br and K1+

40. Electricity from a power station passes through overhead cables to a substation and then to a school where
it is used to electrolyse concentrated hydrochloric acid using inert electrodes.
Which substances are used for the overhead cables and for the electrodes?

41. Which statement about the electrolysis of molten lead (II) bromide is correct?

A) A colourless gas is seen at the cathode.

B) A grey metal is seen at the anode.

C) A red / brown gas is seen at the anode.

D) A red / brown metal is seen at the cathode.

42. Electricity is passed through concentrated aqueous sodium chloride, as shown.

What is the test for the gas formed at the positive electrode?

A) bleaches damp litmus paper

B) ‘pops’ with a lighted splint

C) relights a glowing splint

D) turns damp red litmus paper blue

43. The diagram shows the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous sodium chloride.

What is the colour of the Universal Indicator at each electrode after five minutes?

44. When concentrated sodium chloride solution is electrolysed, elements X and Y are formed.

What are X and Y?

45. Substance X was electrolysed in an electrolytic cell.

A coloured gas was formed at the anode and a metal was formed at the cathode.

What is substance X?

A) aqueous sodium chloride

B) molten lead bromide

C) molten zinc oxide

D) solid sodium chloride

46. The diagram shows apparatus for plating a spoon with silver.

Which statement is not correct?

A) Silver would stick to the spoon because it is a very reactive metal.

B) The electrolyte would be a silver salt dissolved in water.

C) The metal electrode would be made from silver.

D) The spoon would be connected to the negative of the power supply.

47. Aqueous copper (II) sulphate solution is electrolysed using inert electrodes.

Copper (II) ions (Cu2+), hydrogen ions (H+), hydroxide ions (OH ) and sulphate ions ( SO42) are present in the
solution.

To which electrodes are the ions attracted during this electrolysis?

attracted to anode attracted to cathode

A) Cu2+ and H1+ OH and SO42

B) Cu2+ and SO42 H1+ and OH

C) H1+ and OH Cu2+ and SO42

D) OH and SO42 Cu2+ and H1+

48. Three electrolysis cells are set up. Each cell has inert electrodes.

The electrolytes are listed below.

cell 1 aqueous sodium chloride cell

2 concentrated hydrochloric acid

cell 3 molten lead(II) bromide

In which cells is a gas formed at both electrodes?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 only

D) 3 only

49. The diagram shows how aluminium is manufactured by electrolysis.

What are the anode and cathode made of?

 ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
1. Which statements are properties of an acid?

1] reacts with ammonium sulphate to form ammonia

2] turns red litmus blue

1 2

A) ✓ ✓

B) ✓ ×

C) × ✓

D) × ×

2. Which property is not characteristic of a base?

A) It reacts with a carbonate to form carbon dioxide.

B) It reacts with an acid to form a salt.

C) It reacts with an ammonium salt to form ammonia.

D) It turns universal indicator paper blue.

3. A sting from insect X has a pH of 6 and a sting from insect Y has a pH of 8.

The table shows the pH of four substances.

Which substances are used to treat the two stings?

X Y

A) hydrochloric acid Sodium hydroxide

B) sodium hydrogen carbonate Vinegar

C) sodium hydroxide hydrochloric acid

D) vinegar sodium hydrogen carbonate

4. Three liquids, P, Q and R, are added to a mixture of hydrochloric acid and Universal Indicator solution.

The following observations are made.

P the colour of the indicator turns purple.

Q the colour of the indicator does not change.

R there is effervescence and the indicator turns blue.

What are P, Q and R?

5. Which property is not characteristic of a base?

A) It reacts with a carbonate to form carbon dioxide.

B) It reacts with an acid to form a salt.

C) It reacts with an ammonium salt to form ammonia.

D) It turns universal indicator paper blue.

6. The table shows the pH of four aqueous solutions, W, X, Y and Z.

Universal Indicator is added to each solution.

Which row shows the colour of each solution after the indicator is added?
7. Hydrochloric acid is used to clean metals.

The acid reacts with the oxide layer on the surface of the metal, forming a salt and water.

Which word describes the metal oxide?

A) alloy

B) base

C) element

D) indicator

8. Which statement is not correct?

A) When a base reacts with an ammonium salt, ammonia is given off.

B) When an acid reacts with a base, neutralisation takes place.

C) When an acid reacts with a carbonate, carbon dioxide is given off.

D) When the acidity of a solution increases, the pH increases.

9. Which reaction is not characteristic of an acid?

A) It dissolves magnesium oxide.

B) It produces ammonia from ammonium compounds.

C) It produces carbon dioxide from a carbonate.

D) It produces hydrogen from zinc metal.

10. Which equation for the reaction between sodium carbonate and dilute hydrochloric acid is
correct?

A) Na2CO3(s) + HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(I)

B) Na2CO3(s) + HCl (aq) → Na2Cl (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(I)

C) Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → NaCl (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(I)

D) Na2CO3(s) + 2HCl (aq) → 2NaCl (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(I)

11. Three chemicals, P, Q and R, were each dissolved in water. The table shows some of the
reactions of these solutions.

Solution reaction when solid sodium reaction when heated with solid

carbonate is added ammonium chloride

P gas evolved no reaction

Q no reaction gas evolved

R no reaction no reaction

The pH of the three solutions was also measured.

What are the correct pH values of these solutions?

12. Which substance is the most acidic?

Substance pH

A calcium hydroxide 12

B lemon juice 4

C milk 6

D washing up liquid 8

13. A colourless solution is tested by the following reactions.

Which reaction is not characteristic of an acid?

A) A piece of magnesium ribbon is added. Bubbles are seen and the magnesium disappears.

B) A pungent smelling gas is produced when ammonium carbonate is added.

C) Copper oxide powder is added and the mixed is warmed. The solution turns blue.

D) The solution turns blue litmus red.

14. Which statements about alkalis are correct?

1] When reacted with an acid, the pH of the alkali increases.

2] When tested with litmus, the litmus turns blue.

3] When warmed with an ammonium salt, ammonia gas is given off.

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

15. Different plants grow best under different pH conditions.

Which plant grows best in alkaline soil?

16. Which statements about alkalis are correct?

1] When reacted with an acid, the pH of the alkali increases.

2] When tested with litmus, the litmus turns blue.

3] When warmed with an ammonium salt, ammonia gas is given off.

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

17. Which are properties of an acid?

1] reacts with ammonium sulphate to form ammonia

2] turns red litmus blue

1 2

A) ✓ ✓

B) ✓ ×

C) × ✓

D) × ×
18. Substance K reacts with sodium carbonate to form a gas.

The gas turns limewater cloudy.

What is substance K and which process takes place in the reaction?

K process

A) ethanol combustion

B) ethanol neutralisation

C) hydrochloric acid combustion

D) hydrochloric acid neutralisation

19. Carbon dioxide is produced when X reacts with ethanol and Y reacts with sodium carbonate.

What are X and Y?

X Y

A) H2 HCl

B) H2 NaOH

C) O2 HCl

D) O2 NaOH

20. Ant stings hurt because of the methanoic acid produced by the ant.

Which substance could, most safely, be used to neutralise the acid?

substance pH

A) baking soda car 8

B) battery acid 1

C) lemon juice 3

D) oven cleaner 14

21. The diagram shows the pH values of four solutions.

Which of these solutions are alkaline?

A) P only

B) P and Q only

C) Q, R and S only

D) R and S only
22. Two indicators, bromophenol blue and Congo red, show the following colours in acidic solutions

and in alkaline solutions.

A few drops of each indicator are added to separate samples of a solution of pH 2.

What are the colours of the indicators in this solution?

23. Which statement about the reaction of acids is correct?

A) They react with ammonium salts to form a salt and ammonia only.

B) They react with metal carbonates to give a salt and carbon dioxide only.

C) They react with metal hydroxides to give a salt and water only.

D) They react with metals to give a salt, hydrogen and water only.

24. Which of these pairs of aqueous ions both react with dilute sulphuric acid to give a visible
result?

A) Ba2+ and Cl1-

B) Ba2+ and CO32

C) NH4+ and Cl1-

D) NH4+ and CO32

25. Barium hydroxide is an alkali. It reacts with hydrochloric acid.

How does the pH of the hydrochloric acid change as an excess of aqueous barium hydroxide is

added?

A) The pH decreases from 14 and becomes constant at 7.

B) The pH decreases from 14 to about 1.

C) The pH increases from 1 and becomes constant at 7.

D) The pH increases from 1 to about 14.

26. An aqueous solution of the organic compound methylamine has a pH greater than 7.

Which statement about methylamine is correct?

A) It neutralises an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide.

B) It reacts with copper (II) carbonate to give carbon dioxide.

C) It reacts with hydrochloric acid to form a salt.

D) It turns blue litmus red.

27. A gas is escaping from a pipe in a chemical plant.

A chemist tests this gas and finds that it is alkaline.

What is this gas?

A) ammonia

B) chlorine

C) hydrogen

D) sulphur dioxide

28. Which reaction will result in a decrease in pH?

A) adding calcium hydroxide to acid soil

B) adding citric acid to sodium hydrogen carbonate solution

C) adding sodium chloride to silver nitrate solution

D) adding sodium hydroxide to hydrochloric acid

29. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a solid, S.

A flammable gas, G, is formed. Gas G is less dense than air. What are S and G?

solid S gas G

A) copper H2

B) copper carbonate CO2

C) zinc H2

D) zinc carbonate CO2

30. Which is not a typical property of an acid?

A) They react with alkalis producing water.

B) They react with all metals producing hydrogen.

C) They react with carbonates producing carbon dioxide.

D) They turn litmus paper red.

31. Which type of reaction always forms a salt and water?

A) exothermic

B) neutralisation

C) oxidation

D) polymerisation

32. An alloy contains copper and zinc.

Some of the zinc has become oxidised to zinc oxide.

What is the result of adding an excess of dilute sulphuric acid to the

alloy?

A) A blue solution and a white solid remains.

B) A colourless solution and a pink / brown solid remains.

C) The alloy dissolves completely to give a blue solution.

D) The alloy dissolves completely to give a colourless solution.

33. A method used to make copper (II) sulphate crystals is shown.

1] Place dilute sulphuric acid in a beaker.

2] Warm the acid.

3] Add copper (II) oxide until it is in excess.

4] Filter the mixture.

5] Evaporate the filtrate until crystals start to form.

6] Leave the filtrate to cool.

What are the purposes of step 3 and step 4?

step 3 step 4

A to ensure all of the acid has reacted to obtain solid copper (II) sulphate

B to ensure all of the acid has reacted to remove excess copper (II) oxide

C to speed up the reaction to obtain solid copper (II) sulphate

D to speed up the reaction to remove excess copper (II) oxide

34. What is the correct sequence of steps for the preparation of a pure sample of copper (II)

sulphate crystals from copper (II) oxide and sulphuric acid?

A) dissolving → crystallisation → evaporation → filtration

B) dissolving → evaporation → filtration → crystallisation

C) dissolving → filtration → crystallisation → evaporation

D) dissolving → filtration → evaporation → crystallisation

35. Salts can be made by adding different substances to dilute hydrochloric acid.

For which substance could any excess not be removed by filtration?

A) Copper (II) oxide

B) magnesium

C) sodium hydroxide

D) zinc hydroxide

36. Four stages in the preparation of a salt from an acid and a solid metal oxide are listed.

1] Add excess solid.

2] Evaporate half the solution and leave to cool.

3] Filter to remove unwanted solid.

4] Heat the acid.

In which order should the stages be carried out?

A) 1 → 3 → 4 → 2

B) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4

C) 4 → 1 → 3 → 2

D) 4 → 2 → 1 → 3
37. A salt is produced in each of the following reactions.

P magnesium + dilute hydrochloric acid

Q zinc oxide + dilute sulphuric acid

R sodium hydroxide + dilute hydrochloric acid

S copper carbonate + dilute sulphuric acid

Which statements about the products of the reactions are correct?

1] A flammable gas is produced in reaction P.

2] Water is formed in all reactions.

3] All the salts formed are soluble in water.

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

38. Zinc sulphate is a soluble salt and can be prepared by reacting excess zinc carbonate with

dilute sulphuric acid.

Which piece of equipment would not be required in the preparation of zinc sulphate crystals?

A) beaker

B) condenser

C) evaporating dish

D) filter funnel

39. Four steps to prepare a salt from an excess of a solid base and an acid are listed.

1] crystallisation

2] evaporation

3] filtration

4] neutralisation

In which order are the steps carried out?

A) 2 →

B) 3 →

C) 4 →

D) 4 →
40. Which method is used to make the salt copper sulphate?

A) dilute acid + alkali

B) dilute acid + carbonate

C) dilute acid + metal

D) dilute acid + non-metal oxide

41. Which of the following methods are suitable for preparing both zinc sulphate and copper
sulphate?

1] Reacting the metal oxide with warm dilute aqueous sulphuric acid.

2] Reacting the metal with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid.

3] Reacting the metal carbonate with dilute aqueous sulphuric acid.

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, 3

42. Which two processes are involved in the preparation of magnesium sulphate from dilute sulphuric

acid and an excess of magnesium oxide?

A) neutralisation and filtration

B) neutralisation and oxidation

C) thermal decomposition and filtration

D) thermal decomposition and oxidation

43. How many different salts could be made from a supply of dilute sulphuric acid, dilute

hydrochloric acid, copper, magnesium oxide and zinc carbonate?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 5

D) 6

44. Which salt preparation uses a burette and a pipette?

A) calcium nitrate from calcium carbonate and nitric acid

B) copper(II) sulphate from copper(II) hydroxide and sulphuric acid

C) potassium chloride from potassium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid

D) zinc chloride from zinc and hydrochloric acid

45. Which acid reacts with ammonia to produce the salt ammonium sulphate?

A) hydrochloric

B) nitric

C) phosphoric

D) sulphuric

46. Which acid reacts with ammonia to produce the salt ammonium sulphate?

A) hydrochloric

B) nitric

C) phosphoric

D) sulphuric

47. Anhydrous copper (II) sulphate can be made by heating hydrated copper(II) sulphate.

CuSO4.5H2O → CuSO4 + 5H2O

What can be added to anhydrous copper (II) sulphate to turn it into hydrated copper(II) sulphate?

A) concentrated sulphuric acid

B) sodium hydroxide powder

C) sulphur dioxide

D) water

48. A compound is a salt if it

A) can neutralise an acid.

B) contains more than one element.

C) dissolves in water.

D) is formed when an acid reacts with a base.

49. Salts X and Y are separately dissolved in water.

Samples of the solutions obtained are separately tested with dilute hydrochloric acid and with

aqueous sodium hydroxide.

In two of the tests, a gaseous product is formed. No precipitate is formed in any of the tests.

What are salts X and Y?

50. A liquid turns white anhydrous copper sulphate blue and has a boiling point of 103°C.

Which could be the identity of the liquid?

A) alcohol

B) petrol

C) salt solution

D) pure water

51. A salt is made by adding an excess of an insoluble metal oxide to an acid.

How can the excess metal oxide be removed?

A) chromatography

B) crystallisation

C) distillation

D) filtration

52. Salts can be prepared by reacting a dilute acid

1] with a metal;

2] with a base;

3] with a carbonate.

Which methods could be used to prepare copper(II) chloride?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 and 3 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 1, 2, 3

53. Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element forms an acidic oxide?

54. The oxide of element X forms a solution with pH 4.

The oxide of element Y forms a solution that turns Universal Indicator blue.

Which row correctly classifies elements X and Y?

55. Which statement about oxides is correct?

A) A solution of magnesium oxide will have a pH less than 7.

B) A solution of sulphur dioxide will have a pH greater than 7.

C) Magnesium oxide will react with nitric acid to make a salt.

D) Sulphur dioxide will react with hydrochloric acid to make a salt.

56. Only two elements are liquid at 20 °C. One of these elements is shiny and conducts electricity.

This suggests that this element is a ......1...... and therefore its oxide is ...... 2........

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

57. Which of the following are properties of the oxides of non-metals?

58. Two oxides, X and Y, are added separately to dilute sulphuric acid and dilute sodium
hydroxide.

X reacts with dilute sulphuric acid but Y does not react.

Y reacts with aqueous sodium hydroxide but X does not react.

Which type of oxide are X and Y?

59. The diagram shows one period of the Periodic Table.

Li Be B C N O F Ne
Which two elements form acidic oxides?

A) carbon and lithium

B) carbon and neon

C) carbon and nitrogen

D) nitrogen and neon

60. Five elements have proton numbers 10, 12, 14, 16 and 18.

What are the proton numbers of the three elements that form oxides?

A) 10, 12 and 14

B) 10, 14 and 18

C) 12, 14 and 16

D) 14, 16 and 18

61. Which property is not characteristic of a base?

A) It reacts with a carbonate to form carbon dioxide.

B) It reacts with an acid to form a salt.

C) It reacts with an ammonium salt to form ammonia.

D) It turns universal indicator paper blue.

62. Carbon dioxide is an acidic oxide that reacts with aqueous calcium hydroxide.

Which type of reaction takes place?

A) decomposition

B) fermentation

C) neutralisation

D) oxidation

63. The positions in the Periodic Table of four elements are shown.

Which element is most likely to form an acidic oxide?

64. The diagram shows the position of an element X in the Periodic Table.

What is the correct classification of element X and its oxide?

65. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solution of a salt. A blue precipitate is formed which

does not dissolve in excess.

Aluminium foil is added to the mixture and the mixture is warmed. A gas is produced that turns

damp red litmus paper blue.

What is the name of the salt?

A) ammonium nitrate

B) ammonium sulphate

C) copper (II) nitrate

D) copper (II) sulphate

66. An element E is burned in air. A white solid oxide is formed.

The oxide is tested with damp red litmus paper. The paper turns blue.

What is element E?

A) calcium

B) carbon

C) iodine

D) sulphur

67. Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added to a solid, X, and the mixture is heated.

A green precipitate is formed and an alkaline gas is given off.

Which ions are present in X?

A) NH41+ and Fe2+

B) NH41+ Fe3+

C) OH1- and Fe2+

D) OH1- and Fe3+

68. A solution contains barium ions and silver ions.

What could the anion be?

A) chloride only

B) nitrate only

C) sulphate only

D) chloride or nitrate or sulphate

69. Barium hydroxide is an alkali. It reacts with hydrochloric acid. How does the pH of the
hydrochloric acid change as an excess of aqueous barium hydroxide is added?

A) The pH decreases from 14 and becomes constant at 7.

B) The pH decreases from 14 to about 1.

C) The pH increases from 1 and becomes constant at 7.

D) The pH increases from 1 to about 14

70. Which statement about aqueous sodium hydroxide is correct?

A) When it is added to a solution containing sulphate ions, a white precipitate is formed.

B) When it is added to a solution of copper (II) ions, a blue precipitate is formed which dissolves in

excess to give deep blue solution.

C) When it is added to a solution of iron (II) ions, a green precipitate is formed which does not

dissolve in excess.

D) When it is added to ammonium chloride, a gas is produced which turns blue litmus red.

71. The results of two tests on solid X are shown.

test observation

aqueous sodium hydroxide added green precipitate formed

acidified silver nitrate added yellow precipitate formed

What is X?

A) copper(II) chloride

B) copper (II) iodide

C) iron (II) chloride

D) iron (II) iodide

72. A solution containing substance X was tested. The table shows the results.

test Result

flame test lilac colour

acidified silver nitrate solution yellow precipitate

added
What is X?

A) lithium bromide

B) lithium iodide

C) potassium bromide

D) potassium iodide
73. A white solid is insoluble in water.

When it is added to hydrochloric acid, bubbles of gas are formed.

Adding aqueous ammonia to the solution formed gives a white precipitate. Adding excess aqueous

ammonia causes the precipitate to re-dissolve.

What is the white solid?

A) aluminium nitrate

B) ammonium nitrate

C) calcium carbonate

D) zinc carbonate

74. Two tests are carried out to identify an aqueous solution of X.

test 1- Aqueous sodium hydroxide is added and a blue precipitate is produced.

test 2- Dilute nitric acid is added followed by aqueous silver nitrate and a white precipitate is

produced.

What is X?

A) copper carbonate

B) copper chloride

C) iron (III) carbonate

D) iron (III) chloride

75. Which gas relights a glowing splint?

A) ammonia

B) carbon dioxide

C) hydrogen

D) oxygen

76. Which of these pairs of aqueous ions both react with dilute sulphuric acid to give a visible
result?

A) Ba2+ and Cl1-

B) Ba2+ and CO32

C) NH41+ and Cl1-

D) NH41+ and CO32

77. Element X forms an acidic, covalent oxide.

Which row shows how many electrons there could be in the outer shell of an atom of X?

78. Compound X is tested and the results are shown in the table.
Test Result
Aqueous sodium Gas given off which turns
hydroxide is damp
added, then heated
red litmus paper blue
gently

Dilute hydrochloric acid

Effervescence, gas given
is added
off which turns
limewater milky
Which ions are present in compound X?

A) ammonium ions and carbonate ions

B) ammonium ions and chloride ions

C) calcium ions and carbonate ions

D) calcium ions and chloride ions

79. Some barium iodide is dissolved in water.

Aqueous lead (II) nitrate is added to the solution until no more precipitate forms.

This precipitate, X, is filtered off.

Dilute sulphuric acid is added to the filtrate and another precipitate, Y, forms.

What are the colours of precipitates X and Y?

80. Some reactions involving sodium are shown.

Which reaction does not involve the formation of a base?

sodium oxide

A D

sodium B sodium hydroxide

sodium chloride
 PERIODIC TABLE
1. Some properties of four elements, P, Q, R and S, are shown in the table.

Two of these elements are in Group I of the Periodic Table and two are in Group VII.

Element reaction with water physical state at

room temperature

P reacts vigorously solid

Q does not react with water solid

R reacts explosively solid

S dissolves- a coloured solution liquid

Which statement is correct?

A) P is below R in Group I.

B) Q is above R in Group I.

C) Q is below S in Group VII.

D) R is below S in Group VII.

2. Rubidium is a Group I metal.

Which statement about rubidium is not correct?

A) It has a higher melting point than lithium.

B) It has one electron in its outer shell.

C) It reacts vigorously with water.

D) It reacts with chlorine to form rubidium chloride, RbCl .

3. Which statement about the elements in Group I is correct?

A) Hydrogen is evolved when they react with water.

B) Ions of Group I elements have a –1 charge.

C) Sodium is more reactive than potassium.

D) Solid sodium is a poor electrical conductor.

4. The diagram shows a simplified form of the Periodic Table:

Which elements will form an acidic oxide?

A) W and Y

B) W only

C) X and Y only

D) Y only

5. Which statements about Group I and Group VII elements are correct?

1] In Group I, lithium is more reactive than potassium.

2] In Group VII, chlorine is more reactive than fluorine.

6. Which element forms an acidic oxide?

7. The table shows the symbols of three metals with names that begin with the letter C.

Which row correctly shows the melting point of the metals?

8. The diagram shows elements W, X, Y and Z in a section of the Periodic Table. Name each.

9. Element X is in Group I of the Periodic Table.

Which row shows the type of oxide and whether element X is metallic or non-metallic?

10. Which element is in the same group of the Periodic Table as lithium?
11. The positions of four elements in the Periodic Table are shown.

Which element does not form a compound with chlorine?

12. The table shows some properties of the Group I metals.

What are the properties of rubidium?

A) melts below 63 °C, very soft, reacts explosively with water

B) melts below 63 °C, very soft, reacts slowly with water

C) melts above 181 °C, very soft, reacts explosively with water

D) melts above 181 °C, very soft, reacts slowly with water

13. X is a Group I metal.

Y and Z are Group VII elements.

When X reacts with Y a salt is formed. A solution of this salt reacts with Z to form a different salt.

What are X, Y and Z?

14. Which pair of elements will react together most violently?

A) chlorine and lithium

B) chlorine and potassium

C) iodine and lithium

D) iodine and potassium

15. The table shows some information about elements in Group VII of the Periodic Table.

Which information about iodine completes the table?

16. The positions of elements W, X, Y and Z in the Periodic Table are shown

Which elements form basic oxides?

A) W, X and Y

B) W and X only

C) Y only

D) Z only

17. Elements in Group I of the Periodic Table react with water.

Which row describes the products made in the reaction and the trend in reactivity of the
elements?

Products trend in reactivity

A) metal hydroxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group

B) metal hydroxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

C) metal oxide and hydrogen less reactive down the group

D) metal oxide and hydrogen more reactive down the group

18. Which statement about the elements of Group I is correct?

A) Lithium is more dense than sodium.

B) Potassium has a higher density than lithium.

C) Potassium is less reactive than sodium.

D) Sodium has a higher melting point than lithium

19. Which is not a property of Group I metals?

A) They are soft and can be cut with a knife.

B) They corrode rapidly when exposed to oxygen in the air.

C) They produce an acidic solution when they react with water.

D) They react rapidly with water producing hydrogen gas.

20. Solutions of a halogen and a sodium halide are mixed.

Which mixture darkens in colour because a reaction occurs?

A) bromine and sodium chloride

B) bromine and sodium fluoride

C) chlorine and sodium fluoride

D) chlorine and sodium iodide

21. Astatine is an element in Group VII of the Periodic Table. It has only ever been

produced in very small amounts.

What is the best description of its likely properties?

22. Which statement describes the trends going down group VII of the Periodic Table?

A) The boiling point and melting point both decrease.

B) The boiling point and melting point both increase.

C) The boiling point decreases but the melting point increases.

D) The boiling point increases but the melting point decreases.

23. Two statements about argon are given.

1] Argon has a full outer shell of electrons.

2] Argon is very reactive and is used in lamps.

Which is correct?

A) Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.

B) Both statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.

C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

D) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.

24. Part of the Periodic Table is shown.

Which element is a gas that does not form a compound with potassium?

25. Two statements about noble gases are given.

1] Noble gases are reactive, monatomic gases.

2] Noble gases all have full outer shells of electrons.

Which is correct?

A) Both statements are correct and statement 2 explains statement 1.

B) Both statements are correct but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.

C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.

D) Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.

26. The Group 0 elements are unreactive.

The gas used to fill balloons is ....... X....... .

This gas is unreactive because it has ....... Y........electrons in its outermost shell.

Which words correctly complete gaps X and Y?

27. Hydrogen and helium have both been used to fill balloons.

Which property of helium makes it the preferred choice to hydrogen?

A) easily compressed into a gas cylinder

B) forms monatomic molecules

C) lower density

D) unreactive

28. The following statements are about elements in the Periodic Table.

1] Their atoms have a full outer shell of electrons.

2] They form basic oxides.

3] They are found in Group 0.

4] They are present in small quantities in the air.

Which statements are correct for the noble gases?

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1, 2 and 4

C) 1, 3 and 4

D) 2, 3 and 4

29. The noble gases, which are in Group 0 of the Periodic Table, are all very ....... 1....... .

....... 2. ..... , one of these gases, is used to provide an inert atmosphere in lamps.

Another, ....... 3. ..... , is used for filling balloons because it is less dense than air.

Which words complete the sentences about noble gases?

30. The diagram shows a section of the Periodic Table.

Which element is described below?

‘A colourless, unreactive gas that is denser than air.’

31. Why is argon gas used to fill electric lamps?

A) It conducts electricity.

B) It glows when heated.

C) It is less dense than air.

D) It is not reactive.

32. The diagram shows a light bulb.

Why is argon used instead of air in the light bulb?

A) Argon is a good conductor of electricity.

B) Argon is more reactive than air.

C) The filament glows more brightly.

D) The filament does not react with the argon.

33. Why are weather balloons filled with helium rather than

hydrogen?

A) Helium is found in air.

B) Helium is less dense than hydrogen.

C) Helium is more dense than hydrogen.

D) Helium is unreactive.
34. The Periodic Table lists all the known elements.

Elements are arranged in order of ....... 1 ....... number.

The melting points of Group I elements ....... 2 ....... down the group.

The melting points of Group VII elements ....... 3 ........ down the group.

Which words correctly complete the gaps 1, 2 and 3?

35. Which information about an element can be used to predict its chemical properties?

A) boiling point

B) density

C) melting point

D) position in the Periodic Table

36. Where in the Periodic Table is the metallic character of the elements greatest?
37. Argon, Ar, has a higher relative atomic mass than potassium, K, but appears before it in the Periodic Table.

Why is argon listed before potassium in the Periodic

Table?

A) Argon has fewer neutrons than potassium.

B) Argon has fewer protons than potassium.

C) Argon has more neutrons than potassium.

D) Argon has more protons than potassium.

38. J and K are two elements from the same period in the Periodic Table.

The table gives some properties of J and K.

Which statement about J and K is correct?

A) J forms an acidic oxide.

B) J is found to the left of K in the Periodic Table.

C) K forms positive ions when it reacts.

D) K is more metallic than J.

39. In the outline of the Periodic Table below, some elements are shown as numbers.

Which two numbers are metals in the same period?

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 7

C) 3 and 5

D) 5 and 6
40. Calcium, on the left of Period 4 of the Periodic Table, is more metallic than bromine on the

right of this period.

Why is this?

Calcium has

A) fewer electron

B) fewer protons.

C) fewer full shells of electrons.

D) fewer outer shell electrons.

41. The diagram shows one period of the Periodic Table.

Li Be B C N O F Ne
Which two elements form acidic oxides?

A) carbon and lithium

B) carbon and neon

C) carbon and nitrogen

D) nitrogen and neon

42. Which property of elements increases across a period of the

Periodic Table?

A) metallic character

B) number of electron shells

C) number of outer shell electrons

D) tendency to form positive ions

43. W, X, Y and Z are elements in the same period in the Periodic

Table.

W and Y are metals. X and Z are non-metals.

Which shows the correct order of these elements across the period?

A)
W X Y Z
B)

X Z W Y
C)

Y W X Z
D)

W Y X Z
44. An element melts at 1455 °C, has a density of 8.90 g / cm3 and forms a green chloride.

Where in the Periodic Table is this element found?

45. The table gives information about four elements.

Which element is a transition metal?

46. The sulphate of element F is green.

Which other properties is element F likely to have?

47. An element has the following properties.

● It forms coloured compounds.

● It acts as a catalyst.

● It melts at 1539 °C.

In which part of the Periodic Table is the element found?

A) Group I

B) Group IV

C) Group VII

D) transition elements
48. Which compound is likely to be coloured?

A) KMnO4

B) KNO3

C) K2CO3

D) K2SO4

49. Which is not a characteristic property of transition metals?

A) act as catalysts

B) form coloured compounds

C) high melting point

D) low density

50. Platinum is a transition metal.

Which statement about platinum is correct?

A) It does not catalyse reactions.

B) It forms coloured compounds.

C) It has a low density.

D) It has a low melting point.

51. Atoms contain electrons, neutrons and protons.

What is the definition of nucleon number?

A) the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom

B) the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom

C) the total number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus of an atom

D) the total number of particles in an atom

52. The relative atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5.

When calculating relative atomic mass, which particle is the mass of a chlorine atom compared to?

A) a neutron

B) a proton

C) an atom of carbon-12

D) an atom of hydrogen-1
53. The atomic structures of four particles are shown.

Which two particles are isotopes?

A) W and X

B) W and Y

C) X and Z

D) Y and Z

54. Two atoms, X and Y, can be represented as shown.

41 45
20 X 20Y

Which statement is not correct?

A) X and Y are atoms of different elements.

B) X and Y are isotopes.

C) X and Y have different mass numbers.

D) X and Y have the same number of electrons.

55. Element X has 7 protons. Element Y

has 8 more protons than X. Which

statement about element Y is correct?

A) Y has more electron shells than X.

B) Y has more electrons in its outer shell than X.

C) Y is in a different group of the Periodic Table from X.

D) Y is in the same period of the Periodic Table as X.

56. The atomic structures of four atoms are shown.

Which pair of atoms are isotopes?

A) W and X

B) W and Y

C) X and Y

D) Y and Z
 CHEMICAL BONDING
1. Lithium is in Group I of the Periodic Table. Nitrogen is in Group V of the Periodic Table.

Lithium reacts with nitrogen to form the ionic compound lithium nitride.

What happens to the electrons when lithium atoms and nitrogen atoms form ions?

lithium atoms nitrogen atoms

A each lithium atom loses one each nitrogen atom gains

three electron to form a Li+ ion electrons to form an N3- ion

B each lithium atom loses one each nitrogen atom gains five

electron to form a Li+ ion electrons to form an N5- ion

C each lithium atom gains one each nitrogen atom loses three

electron to form a Li- ion electrons to form an N3+ ion

D each lithium atom gains one each nitrogen atom loses five

electron to form a Li- ion electrons to form an N5+ ion

2. Potassium, K, forms a compound with fluorine, F.

Which statements about this compound are correct?

1] The compound is ionic.

2] The formula of the compound is KF.

3] The compound is soluble in water.

A) 1, 2 and 3

B) 1 and 2 only

C) 1 and 3 only

D) 2 and 3 only

3. Compound X melts at 801 °C and is a good electrical conductor when dissolved in water.

Compound Y boils at 77 °C, is insoluble in water and is a non-conductor of electricity. Which

type of bonding is present in X and in Y?

4. Q+ is an ion of element Q.

What has the highest value in the ion?

A) the nucleon number

B) the number of electrons

C) the number of neutrons

D) the proton number

5. Which substance is an ionic compound?

6. Sodium chloride is an ionic solid.

Which statement is not correct?

A) Ions are formed when atoms lose or gain electrons.

B) Ions in sodium chloride are strongly held together.

C) Ions with the same charge attract each other.

D) Sodium chloride solution can conduct electricity.

7. Caesium chloride and rubidium bromide are halide compounds of Group I elements.

Caesium chloride has the formula ……1……, a relative formula mass ……2…… that of rubidium

bromide and bonds that are ……3…… .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

8. The electronic structures of two atoms, X and Y, are shown.

X and Y combine together to form a compound.

What is the type of bonding in the compound and what is the formula of the compound?

9. Element X is in Group I of the Periodic Table. X reacts with element Y to form an ionic
compound.

Which equation shows the process that takes place when X forms ions?

A) X + e → X+

B) X – e → X

C) X + e → X

D) X – e → X+

10. Rubidium is in Group I of the Periodic Table and bromine is in Group VII.

Rubidium reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound.

Which row shows the electron change taking place for rubidium and the correct formula of the

rubidium ion?

electron change formula of ion formed

A) electron gained Rb+

B) electron gained Rb

C) electron lost Rb+

D) electron lost Rb
11. The electronic structures of atoms P and Q are shown.

P and Q react to form an ionic compound

What is the formula of the compound?

A) Q7P

B) QP

C) QP3

D) QP7

12. For which substance is the type of bonding not correct?

13. The table shows the electronic structures of four atoms.

Which two atoms combine to form an ionic compound?

A) W and X

B) W and Y

C) X and Y

D) X and Z
14. The element rubidium, Rb, is immediately below potassium in the Periodic Table.

It reacts with bromine to form the compound rubidium bromide.

Which descriptions of this compound are correct?

15. The electronic structures of atoms P and Q are shown.

P and Q react to form an ionic compound.

What is the formula of this compound?

A) PQ2

B) P2Q

C) P2Q6

D) P6Q2

16. The table contains information about four substances.

Which substance is potassium chloride?

17. Which two elements react together to form an ionic compound?

A) W and X

B) X and Y

C) Y and Z

D) Z and W

18. Which change to an atom occurs when it forms a positive ion?

A) It gains electrons.

B) It gains protons.

C) It loses electrons.

D) It loses protons.

19. When sodium chloride is formed from its elements, each chlorine atom ……1…… one ……2…….

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

20. The table shows the electronic structure of four atoms.

Which two atoms combine to form a

covalent compound?

A) W and X

B) W and Y

C) X and Y

D) X and Z
21. The electronic structures of atoms X and Y are shown.

X and Y form a covalent compound.

What is its formula?

A) XY5

B) XY3

C) XY

D) X3Y

22. In the following diagrams, X and Y are atoms of different elements.

Which diagram correctly shows the arrangement of outer electrons in a molecule of methane?

23. In which compounds are pairs of electrons shared between atoms?

1] methane

2] lead bromide

3] sodium chloride

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3
24. Which statement about bonding is not correct?

A) Carbon can form four single covalent bonds.

B) Chlorine atoms react to gain a noble gas electronic structure.

C) Covalent bonding involves losing and gaining electrons.

D) Hydrogen molecules have the formula H2.

25. Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are ……1…… .

Most covalent compounds have ……2…… electrical conductivity.

Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?

26. Sodium chloride is an ionic solid.

Which statement is not correct?

A) Ions are formed when atoms lose or gain electrons.

B) Ions in sodium chloride are strongly held together.

C) Ions with the same charge attract each other.

D) Sodium chloride solution can conduct electricity.

27. Caesium chloride and rubidium bromide are halide compounds of Group I elements.

Caesium chloride has the formula ……1……, a relative formula mass ……2…… that of rubidium bromide and

bonds that are ……3…… .

Which words correctly complete gaps 1, 2 and 3?

28. Element X is in Group I of the Periodic Table. X reacts with element Y to form an ionic
compound.

Which equation shows the process that takes place when X forms ions?

A) X + e → X+

B) X – e → X

C) X + e → X

D) X – e → X+

29. The diagrams show the electron arrangements in the atoms of four elements.

Which element does not form a covalent bond?

30. Which statement about the bonding in a molecule of water is not correct?
A) Both hydrogen and oxygen have a noble gas configuration of electrons.
B) Each hydrogen shares its one electron with oxygen.

C) Oxygen shares one of its own electrons with each hydrogen.

D) Oxygen shares two of its own electrons with each hydrogen.

31. Element X has six electrons in its outer shell.

How could the element react?

A) by gaining two electrons to form a positive ion

B) by losing six electrons to form a negative ion

C) by sharing two electrons with two electrons from another element to form two covalent bonds

D) by sharing two electrons with two electrons from another element to form four covalent bonds
32. Electrons from each element are shared by both of the elements in a compound.

Which compound matches this description?

A) lead bromide

B) sodium chloride

C) water

D) zinc oxide

33. In the molecules CH4, HCl and H2O, which atoms use all of their outer shell electrons in
bonding?

A) C and Cl

B) C and H

C) Cl and H

D) H and O

34. Element X forms an acidic, covalent oxide.

Which row shows how many electrons there could be in the outer shell of an atom of X?

35. The diagram shows the electronic structures of atoms P and Q.

P and Q combine to form a molecule.

What is the formula of this molecule?

A) PQ4

B) PQ

C) P2Q

D) P4Q
36. In the diagrams, circles of different sizes represent atoms of different elements.

Which diagram represents hydrogen chloride gas?

37. The electronic structures of atoms X and Y are shown.

X and Y form a covalent compound.

What is its formula?

A) XY5

B) XY3

C) XY

D) X3Y

38. Which diagram does not show the outer shell electrons in the molecule correctly?
39. Element X has six electrons in its outer shell.

How could the element react?

A) by gaining two electrons to form a positive ion

B) by losing six electrons to form a negative ion

C) by sharing two electrons with two electrons from another element to form two covalent bonds

D) by sharing two electrons with two electrons from another element to form four covalent bonds

40. In which compounds are pairs of electrons shared between atoms?

1] sodium chloride

2] methane

3] lead bromide

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) 1 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

41. Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are ……1…… . Covalent compounds have ……2…… electrical
conductivity.
Which words correctly complete gaps 1 and 2?
 MOLE CONCEPT
1. The equation shows the reaction between magnesium and sulphuric acid.

[Ar: H, 1; O, 16; Mg, 24; S, 32]

Mg + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + H2

In this reaction, which mass of magnesium sulphate is formed when 6 g of magnesium react with excess
sulphuric acid?

A) 8

B) 24

C) 30

D) 60

2. Two atoms of magnesium, Mg, react with one molecule of oxygen, O2.

What is the formula of the product?

A) MgO

B) MgO2

C) Mg2O

D) Mg2O2

3. Copper II) oxide reacts with ammonia.

The left hand side of the balanced equation for this reaction is:

3CuO + 2NH3 →

What completes the equation?

A) 3Cu + 2HNO3

B) 3Cu + 2N + 3H2O

C) 3Cu + N2 + 3H2O

D) 3Cu + 2NO + 3H2O

4. What is the relative formula mass, Mr, of CaCO3?

A) 50

B) 68

C) 100

D) 204
5. A molecule, Z, contains two atoms of oxygen, six atoms of hydrogen and three atoms of carbon.

What is the formula of Z?

A) CH3CH2CHO

B) CH3COCH3

C) C2H5CO2H

D) C3H6CO2H

6. What are the electrode products when molten silver iodide is electrolysed between inert
electrodes?

7. Iron forms an oxide with the formula Fe2O3.

What is the relative formula mass of this compound?

A) 76

B) 100

C) 136

D) 160

8. In athletics, banned drugs such as nandrolone have been taken illegally to improve
performance.

Nandrolone has the molecular formula C18H26O2.

What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of nandrolone?

(Relative atomic mass: H = 1; C = 12; O = 16)

A) 46

B) 150

C) 274

D) 306
9. The structure of an organic compound, X, is shown.

What is the molecular formula of X?

A) C6H9

B) C6H12

C) C7H12

D) C7H14

10. What is the relative molecular mass, Mr, of nitrogen dioxide?

A) 15

B) 23

C) 30

D) 46

11. A compound contains one atom of calcium, two atoms of hydrogen and two atoms of oxygen.

What is the correct chemical formula of the compound?

A) CaO2H2

B) HOCaOH

C) H2CaO2

D) Ca(OH)2

12. The formulae of compounds W, X and Y are shown.

W- CuSO4.5H2O X- MgSO4.7H2O Y- Cu(NO3)2.6H2O

Which statement is correct?

A) W contains twice as many hydrogen atoms as oxygen atoms.

B) X contains the most oxygen atoms.

C) Y contains the most hydrogen atoms.

D) Y contains the same number of hydrogen and oxygen atoms.

13. Which relative molecular mass, Mr, is not correct for the molecule given?

molecule Mr

A) ammonia, NH3 17

B) carbon dioxide, CO2 44

C) methane, CH4 16

D) oxygen, O2 16

14. A compound with the formula XF2 has a relative formula mass of 78.

What is element X?

A) argon

B) calcium

C) neon

D) zirconium

15. What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between calcium and water?

A) Ca + H2O → CaOH + H2

B) Ca + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2

C) Ca + 2H2O→ CaOH + H2

D) Ca + 2H2O→ Ca(OH)2 + H2

16. The equation shows the reaction between magnesium and sulphuric acid.

Mg + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + H2 (Mg = 24, H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)

What mass of magnesium sulphate will be formed when 6 g of magnesium reacts with excess sulphuric acid?

A) 8

B) 24

C) 30

D) 60

17. A compound has the formula CH3CO2H.

How should the relative molecular mass, Mr, of this compound be calculated?

A) 12 + 1 + 16

B) 3(12 + 1) + 2(12 + 16) + 1

C) (4 × 12) + (2 × 1) + 16

D) (2 × 12) + (4 × 1) + (2 × 16)
18. The equation for the reaction between magnesium and dilute sulphuric acid is shown.

Mg + H2SO4 → MgSO4 + H2

Mr of MgSO4 is 120

Which mass of magnesium sulphate will be formed if 12 g of magnesium are reacted with sulphuric acid?

A) 5 g

B) 10 g

C) 60 g

D) 120 g

19. Methane, CH4, burns in the air to form carbon dioxide and water.

What is the balanced equation for this reaction?

A) CH4(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

B) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

C) CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)

D) CH4 (g) + 3O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

20. The relative formula mass, Mr, of copper (II) sulphate, CuSO4, is 160.

Which mass of sulphur is present in 160 g of copper(II) sulphate?

A) 16 g

B) 32 g

C) 64 g

D) 128 g

21. What is the relative molecular mass (Mr) of HNO3?

A) 5

B) 31

C) 32

D) 63
22. The chemical compositions of two substances, W and X, are given.

W Na( AlSi3)O8

X Ca(Al 2Si2)O8

Which statements are correct?

1] W and X contain the same amount of oxygen.

2] W contains three times as much silicon as X.

3] X contains twice as much aluminium as W.

A) 1 and 2

B) 1 and 3

C) 2 and 3

D) 1, 2 and 3

23. Hydrogen and chlorine react as shown.

1 molecule of hydrogen + 1 molecule of chlorine → 2 molecules of hydrogen chloride

What is the equation for this reaction?

A) 2H + 2Cl → 2HCl

B) 2H + 2Cl → H2Cl2

C) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

D) H2 + Cl2 → H2Cl2

24. For each atom of carbon present in a molecule, there is an equal number of atoms of oxygen but twice as
many atoms of hydrogen.

What is the formula of the molecule?

A) C2H2O2

B) C2H2O4

C) C2H4O2

D) C2H6O

25. Water is formed when 48 g of oxygen combine with 6 g of hydrogen.

What mass of oxygen combines with 2 g of hydrogen?

A) 12 g

B) 16 g

C) 96 g

D) 144 g
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The oxide and hydroxide of which metal is amphoteric :
A) Zinc
B) Copper
C) Iron
D) Manganese
2. A metal which produces hydrogen on reacting with alkali as well as with
acid.
A) Iron
B) Magnesium
C) Zinc
D) Copper
3. Which one of the following salt solutions on reaction with excess of ammonium hydroxide solution results
finally in dissolution of the precipitate first formed ?
A) AlCl₃(aq.)
B) FeSO₄(aq.)
C) Fe(SO₄)₃(aq.)
D) ZnSO₄(aq.)
4. Which one of the following salt solutions on reaction with excess of ammonium hydroxide solution gives a
deep blue solution.
A) FeCl₃(aq.)
B) CuSO₄ (aq.)
C) Al₂(SO₄)₃ (aq.)
D) ZnSO₄(aq.)
5. Salts of which elements are geneally coloured :
A) Transition
B) Normal
C) Lanthanides
D) Inner-transition
6. Which one of the following salt solutions on reaction with excess sodium hydroxide solution gives a clear
solution finally.
A) (PbNO₃)₂(aq.)
B) CuSO₄(aq.)
C) FeCl₃(aq.)
D) ZnSO₄(aq.)
7. Colour of the precipitate formed on adding NaOH solution to iron (II) sulphate solution is
A) Chalky White
B) Reddish Brown
C) Dirty Green
D) Pale blue
8. Carbon dioxide and sulphur dioxide gas can be distinguished by using
A) Moist blue litmus paper
B) Lime water
C) Acidified potassium dichromate paper
D) None of these.
9. Name the reagent from the following which can be used to distinguish zinc nitrate solution from magnesium
nitrate.
A) NH₄OH(aq.)
B) NaOH (aq.)
C) BaCl₂
D) H₂SO₄
10. The hydroxide which is soluble in excess of NaOH is :
A) Zn(OH)₂
B) Fe(OH)₂
C) Fe(OH)₃
D) Al(OH)₃
11. Hydroxide of this metal is soluble in sodium hydroxide solution,
A) Magnesium
B) Lead
C) Silver
D) Copper
12. The precipitate of which of the following compounds is soluble in excess of ammonia
solution.
A) Iron (II) chloride
B) Magnesium chloride
C) Copper (II) sulphate
D) Lead nitrate
13. The compound which is responsible for the green colour formed when SO₂ is bubbled through
acidified potassium dichromate solution.
A) Nitroso iron (II) sulphate
B) Iron (III) chloride
C) Chromium sulphate
D) Lead (II) chloride
14. The salt which in solution gives a pale green precipitate with NaOH solution and a white precipitate with
barium chloride solution is:
A) Iron (III) sulphate
B) Iron (II) sulphate
C) Iron (II) chloride
D) Iron (III) chloride
15. Colour of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate is:
A) Green
B) Brown
C) Blue
D) Yellow
16. Ammonium hydroxide is a weak alkali which dissociates partially to furnish _________ OH- ions which
precipitate ___________ metal hydroxides.
A) sufficient, soluble
B) insufficient, soluble
C) insufficient, insoluble
D) sufficient, insoluble
18. Salts of normal elements [1[IA] to 17 (VIIA)] are generally ____________.
A) Colourless
B) Red
C) Green
D) Black
19. An aqueous salt solution used for testing sulphate radical is:
A) Barium chloride
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Sulphuric acid
D) Calcium Sulphate
20. An example of weak alkali solution
A) Ammonium hydroxide
B) Sodium hydroxide
C) Hydrochloric acid D) Acetic acid
21. Amphoteric oxides and hydroxides react with an ___________ to give salt and water only.
A) Acid
B) Alkali
C) Acid as well an alkali
D) Salt
22. Zn(OH)₂, Pb(OH)₂ and Al(OH)₃ are __________ hydroxides.
A) Amphoteric
B) Acidic
C) Alkaline
D) Neutral
23. ___________ and ___________ salt dissolve in sodium hydroxide.
A) copper, magnesium
B) zinc, lead
C) copper, lead
D) zinc, magnesium
24. Both ammonium and sodium hydroxide are used in analytical chemistry for identifying __________ of salts.
A) Anions
B) Cations
C) Both
D) None
25. A substance that turns moist starch iodide paper blue is
A) Oxygen
B) Hydrogen
C) Chlorine
D) Neon
26. Ferrous salts are _________ in color.
A) Brown
B) Red
C) Yellow
D) Light green
27. Sodium zincate and water is obtained on reaction of __________ with not concentrated caustic soda.
A) Sodium hydroxide
B) Zinc oxide
C) Magnesium chloride
D) Zinc chloride
28. Oxides and hydroxides of certain metals such as ___________ are amphoteric in nature.
A) Zinc
B) Lead
C) Aluminium
D) All of the above
29. An oxide of a metal which is amphoteric in nature is _________
A) Lead
B) Magnesium
C) Sodium
D) Iron
30. Calcium salts with sodium hydroxide give __________ precipitates.
A) Blue
B) White
C) Pink
D) Black
31. Zinc chloride solution reacts with ammonium hydroxide solution to give a _________ coloured precipitate.
A) Silver
B) Black
C) Blue
D) White
32. A white insoluble oxide that dissolves when fused with caustic soda or caustic potash.
A) Na2O
B) Al₂O₃
C) CaO
D) MgO
33. A coloured metallic oxide which dissolves in alkalies to yield colourless solutions.
A) Pb3O4
B) PbO2
C) Pb2O3
D) PbO
34. A metal that evolves a gas which burns with a pop sound when boiled with alkali solutions.
A) Zinc
B) Copper
C) Iron
D) Magnesium
35. A weak alkali.
A) Ammonium hydroxide
B) Sodium hydroxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Acetic acid
36. A compound containing zinc in the anion.
A) ZnO
B) K2ZnO4
C) Zn(NO3)2
D) [Zn(NH3)4]SO4
37. Two coloured metal ions.
A) K+, Cu+2

B) Fe+3, Na+

C) Fe+3, Cu+2

D) K+, Na+

38. When a solution of compound Y is treated with silver nitrate solution a white precipitate is obtained which is
soluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide solution.
A) SO4-2

B) Cl-

C) CO3-2

D) PbO2-2

39. Compound L on reacting with barium chloride solution gives a white precipitate insoluble in dilute
hydrochloric acid or dilute nitric acid.
A) SO4-2

B) Cl-

C) CO3-2

D) PbO2-2

40. A metallic oxide soluble in excess of caustic soda solution.

A) Copper oxide
B) Iron oxide
C) Zinc oxide
D) Magnesium oxide
41. A yellow monoxide that dissolves in hot and concentrated caustic alkali.
A) ZnO
B) PbO
C) CaO
D) MgO
42. The gas which turns acidified potassium dichromate clear green.
A) Carbon dioxide
B) Sulphur dioxide
C) Nitrogen dioxide
D) All of the above
43. A colourless cation that is not a representative element.
A) K+

B) Ca+2

C) Al+3

D) None of the above

44. Compound Z which on reacting with dilute sulphuric acid liberates a gas which turns lime water milky, but
the gas has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate solution.
A) Carbonate ion
B) Sulphate ion
C) Sulphite ion
D) Nitrate ion
45. Two bases which are not alkalies but dissolve in strong alkalies.
A) Zinc hydroxide, Magnesium hydroxide
B) Copper hydroxide, Magnesium hydroxide
C) Zinc hydroxide, Lead hydroxide
D) Copper hydroxide, Lead hydroxide
46. A metallic hydroxide soluble in excess of NH₄OH.
A) Fe(OH)2
B) Pb(OH)2
C) MgO
D) Fe(OH)3
47. Two colourless metal ions.
A) K+, Cu+2

B) Fe+3, Na+

C) Fe+3, Cu+2

D) K+, Na+

48. Name a solution of the compound which gives a dirty green precipitate with sodium
hydroxide.
A) Ammonium sulphate
B) Lead carbonate
C) Copper nitrate
D) Ferrous sulphate
49. A strong alkali.
A) Ammonium hydroxide
B) Sodium hydroxide
C) Hydrochloric acid
D) Acetic acid