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CCNP ENARSI v8 Final Exam Answers

Full – Advanced Routing CCNP ENARSI v8 Exam
! April 15, 2021 | " Last Updated: June 21, 2021 |
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ENARSI v8 Exam Answers
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Chapters 1 - 5: Routing
and EIGRP Exam
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Chapters 11 - 14: BGP

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value your contribution to the website. and Route Redistribution

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Chapters 18 - 20: VPNs

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Chapters 21 - 23:
Infrastructure Security
CCNP Enterprise: Advanced Routing ( Version and Management Exam
8.0) – CCNP ENARSI 8 Final Exam (Answers)

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has CCNP ENARSI v8

performed a partial configuration to prevent routes Hands On Skills Exam
from being reinjected. What is the next configuration Answers
that should be issued?
% ENARSI Skills
Assessment -
Configuration Exam

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Certification Practice
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▪ An access list with a deny statement must be created
and used with redistribution.
▪ A distribute list with a deny statement must be
created and used with redistribution. Recent Comments
▪ A route map with a deny statement must be created JANNY on CCIE/CCNP 350-401
and used with redistribution. ENCOR Dumps Full Questions
▪ A prefix list with a deny statement must be created and with VCE & PDF
used with redistribution.
$
rdrive on CCIE/CCNP 350-401

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2. In which two situations is a metric not required for ENCOR Dumps Full Questions
performing redistribution into the EIGRP routing with VCE & PDF
process? (Choose two.) Toby on CCIE/CCNP 350-401
ENCOR Dumps Full Questions
▪ when redistributing routes from OSPF with VCE & PDF
▪ when redistributing routes from RIP Rockleetaijutsu on CCNA
▪ when redistributing static routes 200-301 Dumps Full Questions
▪ when redistributing routes from BGP – Exam Study Guide & Free
▪ when redistributing routes from another EIGRP Rockleetaijutsu on CCNA
autonomous system 200-301 Dumps Full Questions
– Exam Study Guide & Free
3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has issued
the commands shown on a boundary router. What are
two results of the network engineer issuing this
command? (Choose two.)

▪ The internal administrative distance for EIGRP AS 66

has been changed to 66.
▪ The internal administrative distance has changed to 66
and the external administrative distance has changed to
90 for routes sourced from the router with IP 172.16.55.1.
▪ The router has created the EIGRP autonomous
system of 66.
▪ The network 172.16.55.0 has a modified internal metric
of 66.
▪ The internal administrative distance has been
changed to 66 for routes sourced from the router with
IP 172.16.55.1 and matching ACL 90.

Explanation: The EIGRP command distance 66

172.16.55.1 0.0.0.0 90 changes the AD to 66 for all
EIGRP routes learned from neighbor 172.16.55.1 that
match the specific network prefix of ACL 90.

4. What type of BGP message precedes the successful

formation of a BGP peering session?
$
▪ keepalive

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▪ established
▪ withdraw
▪ open
▪ update

Explanation: A BGP open message is used to

establish a BGP adjacency. Both peer sides negotiate
session capabilities before BGP peering is established.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring BGP on a router. Which configuration step
is needed in order to establish the BGP session with
the neighbor router?

▪ Configure the keepalive timer.

▪ Initialize and activate the address family.
▪ Advertise the networks attached to the router.
▪ Restart the BGP process.

Explanation: For a BGP session to initiate, one

address family for a neighbor must be activated. On
Cisco routers the IPv4 address family is activated by
default; however, it may cause confusion when working
with other address families. The BGP router
configuration command no bgp default ip4-unicast
disables the automatic activation of the IPv4 AFI.

6. Which two statements describe the BGP weight

attribute? (Choose two.)

▪ It is advertised to neighbor routers. $

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▪ It correlates to the AS hop count.

▪ It is an 8-bit value.
▪ It is the first step in selecting the BGP best path.
▪ It is a Cisco-defined attribute.

Explanation: BGP weight is a Cisco-defined attribute

and the first step in selecting the BGP best path.
Weight is a 16-bit value (0 through 65,535) assigned
locally on the router; it is not advertised to other routers

7. Match the preference, that is used by the BGP origin

attribute in best path calculation, to the order.

8. A network administrator is configuring BGP

multipathing for paths learned from iBGP
advertisement. What is a condition for additional paths
to be considered equal to the best path?

▪ The AIGP attribute must match.

▪ The neighbor IP address must match.
▪ The originated attribute must match.
▪ The IGP cost must match for IBGP and EBGP.

Explanation: When you configure BGP multipathing,

the additional paths need to match the following best-
path BGP path attributes:
– Weight
– Local preference
– AS_Path length
– AS_Path content (although confederations can $

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contain a different AS_CONFED_SEQ path)

– Origin
– MED
– Advertisement method (iBGP or eBGP) (If the prefix
is learned from an iBGP advertisement, the IGP cost
must match for iBGP and eBGP to be considered
equal.)

9. A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue

with a DMVPN tunnel. From the output of the show
dmvpn command, the administrator notes that the
tunnel is in the IPsec state. What problem does this
state indicate?

▪ The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is down.

▪ The DMVPN spoke router has not registered.
▪ IPsec tunnels have not established IKE sessions.
▪ IPsec security associations are not established.

Explanation: The command show dmvpn [detail]

provides the tunnel interface, tunnel role, tunnel state,
and tunnel peers with uptime. When the DMVPN tunnel
interfaceis administratively shut down, there are no
entries associated to that tunnel interface. The tunnel
states are, in order of establishment:
– INTF: The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is
down.
– IKE: DMVPN tunnels configured with IPsec have not
yet successfully established an Internet key exchange
(IKE) session.
– IPsec: An IKE session is established but an IPsec
security association (SA) has not yet been established.
– NHRP: The DMVPN spoke router has not yet
successfully registered.
– Up: The DMVPN spoke router has registered with the
DMVPN hub and received an ACK (positive registration
reply) from the hub.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring Phase 1 DMVPN. The hub router RH1 and
$

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the spoke router RS2 are already configured and the

administrator is finalizing configurations on spoke
router RS3 by mapping the NHRP and NHS addresses
for the DMVPN hub. Which configuration should the
administrator use for the ip nhrp map command?

▪ ip nhrp map 192.168.100.1 172.16.1.1

▪ ip nhrp map 192.168.100.1 172.16.3.1
▪ ip nhrp map 192.168.100.3 172.16.3.1
▪ ip nhrp map 192.168.100.3 172.16.1.1
11. Which NHRP message type notifies routers of
routes used by NHRP that are no longer available?

▪ purge
▪ registration
▪ redirect
▪ resolution

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Explanation: Purge messages are sent to remove a

cached NHRP entry. Purge messages notify routers of
the loss of a route used by NHRP. Purges are typically
sent by an NHS to NHCs (which it answered) to
indicate that the mapping for an address/network that it
answered is not valid anymore (for example, if the
network is unreachable from the original station or has
moved). Purge messages take the most direct path
(spoke-to-spoke tunnel) if feasible. If a spoke-to-spoke
tunnel is not established, purge messages are
forwarded via the hub.

12. What information is maintained in the CEF

adjacency table?

▪ MAC address to IPv4 address mappings

▪ the IP addresses of all neighboring routers
▪ IP address to interface mappings
▪ Layer 2 next hops
13. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the
same EIGRP routing domain. When the auto-summary
command is issued on R3, which two summary
networks will be calculated on R3? (Choose two.)

▪ 172.16.0.0/16
▪ 172.16.3.0/24
▪ 192.168.1.0/30
▪ 192.168.10.0/30 $

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▪ 192.168.10.0/24

Explanation: As a result of implementing EIGRP

automatic summarization, router R3 uses a classful
network addressing scheme to group networks
together based on their classful network mask.
192.168.10.4/30 and 192.168.10.8/30 are shortened to
192.168.10.0/24 and 172.16.3.0/24 is summarized to
172.16.0.0/16. 192.168.1.0/24 is already using its
classful mask and is not summarized.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be

advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is
disabled? (Choose two.)

▪ 10.1.0.0/1
▪ 10.1.2.0/24
▪ 10.1.4.0/24
▪ 10.1.4.0/28
▪ 10.1.4.0/30

Explanation: If the no auto-summary command was

issued disabling the autosummarization, all
subnetworks will be advertised, without summarization.

15. Which is a characteristic of policy based routing $

(PBR)?

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▪ Packets originating from a router can be identified

through local PBR policies.
▪ PBR examines packets as they exit a router interface.
▪ PBR policies are universal for all packets and modify
the RIB.
▪ Next-hop addresses defined in set statements are
automatically placed in the routing table.
16. Which two statements are true of policy-based
routing (PBR) as a path control tool? (Choose two.)

▪ It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.

▪ It is applied only in the inbound direction.
▪ Configured route map entries will have default
sequence number increments of 5.
▪ Packets that do not match any match statements will be
dropped.
▪ It provides a mechanism to specify one or more
next hops for packets that match criteria.
17. A network administrator is writing a standard ACL
that will deny any traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network,
but permit all other traffic. Which two commands
should be used? (Choose two.)

▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0

255.255.0.0
▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 permit any
▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 host 172.16.0.0
▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0
0.0.255.255
▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 172.16.0.0
255.255.255.255
▪ Router(config)# access-list 95 deny any

Explanation: To deny traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16

network, the access-list 95 deny 172.16.0.0
0.0.255.255 command is used. To permit all other
traffic, the access-list 95 permit any statement is
added.
$
18. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4

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are correctly configured, why did R1 not establish an

adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?

▪ because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1

▪ because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is
incorrect
▪ because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as
passive for EIGRP
▪ because there is no network command for the network
192.168.1.0/24 on R1

Explanation: The missing routes are the result of there

not being an EIGRP adjacency between R1 and R2,
R3, and R4.To establish adjacency, a router must send
and receive hello packets over an interface to and from
its neighbors. The interface Fa0/ of the router R1 is
declared as passive, so R1 will not send hello packets
over its interface Fa0/0.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 were

configured with EIGRP message authentication, but the
routers cannot exchange EIGRP messages. Which two
problems are causing the EIGRP authentication failure
between R1 and R2 in this configuration? (Choose two.)

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▪ The key ID is invalid, because its value has to be in the

range from 1 to 2147483647.
▪ The EIGRP message authentication is being
configured on the wrong interface on R2.
▪ The key chain name must be in upper case.
▪ The routers have a different value for the key-
string.
▪ At least two keys had to be created for each key
chain.
20. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not
establish an adjacency?

▪ The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong

IP address.
▪ The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.
▪ The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.
▪ There is no network command for the network
192.168.1.0/24 on R1.

Explanation: To establish adjacency, both routers

$

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must be configured with the same AS number. The

network 192.168.0.0 .0.0.255.255 command issued on
R1 includes all networks from 192.168.0.0 to
192.168.255.255. Therefore, the network
192.168.1.0/24 is also included.

21. Match the IPsec function with its description. (Not

all options are used.)

Explanation: – Data integrity: Hashing algorithms

ensure that packets are not modified in transit.
– Replay detection: This provides protection against
hackers trying to capture and insert network traffic.
– Perfect forward secrecy: Each session key isderived
independently of the previous key. A compromise of
one key does not compromise future keys.

22. Match the IPsec function with the description.

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23. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol

framework? (Choose three.)

▪ AH provides integrity and authentication.

▪ ESP provides encryption, authentication, and
integrity.
▪ AH uses IP protocol 51.
▪ AH provides encryption and integrity.
▪ ESP uses UDP protocol 50.
▪ ESP requires both authentication and encryption.

Explanation: The two primary protocols used with

IPsec are AH and ESP. AH is protocol number 51 and
provides data authentication and integrity for IP
packets that are exchanged between the peers. ESP,
which is protocol number 50, performs packet
encryption.

24. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to

match networks for BGP route filtering. The
administrator creates an ACE permit ip 10.0.32.0
0.0.31.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.192 . Which network
matches the ACE?

▪ 10.0.32.0/27 $
▪ 10.0.66.0/24

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▪ 10.0.62.0/25
▪ 10.0.31.0/26
25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
troubleshooting BGP configuration and wants to
display only routes that originated in AS 40. Which
regular expression should the administrator use in the
command show bgp ipv4 unicast regex regex-pattern ?

▪ show bgp ipv4 unicast regex ^40_

▪ show bgp ipv4 unicast regex *40_
▪ show bgp ipv4 unicast regex _40$ ????
▪ show bgp ipv4 unicast regex .40.

Explanation: In troubleshooting BGP, regular

expressions (regex) can be used to parse through the
large number of available ASNs. Regular expressions
are based on query modifiers used to select the
appropriate content. The regex pattern 100_ indicates
to only include the lines that contain the exact phrase
of 100. Some regex query modifiers are as follows:
(underscore) – Matches a space
^ (caret) – Indicates the start of a string
$ (dollar sign) – Indicates the end of a string
. (period) – Matches a single character, including a
space

26. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues

the  show bgp ipv4 unicast
172.16.0.0  command to check the route information
in the BGP table. Which statement describes the
characteristic of the advertisement of this route?  $

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▪ The route is advertised for networks directly connected

to the BGP router 192.168.2.2.
▪ The route is advertised with the aggregate-address
172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 summary-only command.
▪ The route is advertised through an IGP.
▪ The route is advertised through a static route.
27. What OSPF LSA type is used to advertise routes
redistributed into an OSPF domain?

▪ type 3
▪ type 4
▪ type 5
▪ type 7

Explanation: OSPF uses six LSA types for IPv4

routing:
– Type 1, router: LSAs that advertise network prefixes
within an area
– Type 2, network: LSAs that indicate the routers
attached to broadcast segment within an area
– Type 3, summary: LSAs that advertises network
prefixes that originate from a different area
– Type 4, ASBR summary: LSA used to locate the
ASBR from a different area
– Type 5, AS external: LSA that advertises network
prefixes that were redistributed in to OSPF
– Type 7, NSSA external: LSA for external network
prefixes that were redistributed in a local NSSA area

28. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has

configured two-way redistribution on router R1. What
metrics will be used for redistributed routes?

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▪ EIGRP routes will have a metric of 1 and OSPF routes

will have a metric of infinity.
▪ EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF
routes will have a metric of 20.
▪ EIGRP routes will have a metric of 170 and OSPF
routes will have a metric of 20.
▪ EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF
routes will have a metric of 1.
29. Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the
routing table of R3 as a result of the redistribution
configuration issued on R2?

▪ O E2 192.168.1.0/24 [110/20] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42,

Serial0/0/1
▪ O IA 10.23.1.0/30 [110/20] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42,
Serial0/0/1
▪ O E1 192.168.1.0/24 [110/86] via 10.23.1.1, 00:04:42,
Serial0/0/1
▪ D EX 10.23.1.0/30 [170/3072] via 10.12.1.2, 00:09:07,
Serial0/0/1
30. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has
configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers. The
routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What
should be done to fix the problem on router R2? $

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▪ Implement the command no passive-interface

Serial0/1.
▪ Implement the command network 192.168.2.6 0.0.0.0
area 0 on router R2.
▪ Change the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
▪ Implement the command network 192.168.3.1 0.0.0.0
area 0 on router R2.
31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is
troubleshooting a recent OSPF stub configuration
between R3 and R4. The only routes that should appear
on the routing table for R4 are intra-area routes and the
default route. However, interarea routes are also
appearing. What must the administrator do to fix this
problem?

▪ Issue the keyword nssa on R3.

▪ Issue the keyword nssa on R4. $

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▪ Issue the keyword stub on R4.

▪ Issue the keyword no-summary on R4.
▪ Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.
▪ Issue the keyword stub on R3.
32. Refer to the exhibit. Router R0-A is not learning all
of the OSPF routes from the remote sites that connect
to router R0-B and R0-C. What are two issues the
network engineer should consider? (Choose two.)

▪ routes not going from the LSDB to the routing table

because of ACL
▪ DR selection
▪ missing default route(s)
▪ neighbor adjacency
▪ SSH misconfiguration
33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are
configured as shown. However, the  show ipv6 ospf
neighbor  command reveals that there are no OSPFv3
neighbors established. What error in the configuration
is preventing neighbor relationship from forming
between the two routers? 

▪ OSPFv3 is not enabled on the interfaces.

$

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▪ The IPv6 routing process is not enabled.

▪ There is a link-local address conflict between the serial
and gigabit interfaces on R1.
▪ The IPv6 address family is not initialized on either
router.

Explanation: The routers are unable to form an

OSPFv3 adjacency because OSPFv3 has not been
enabled on the interfaces with the  ospfv3 1 ipv6
area 0  command.

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered

the command default-information originate in OSPFv3
global configuration mode on R1, but R2 is not
receiving a default route. What is the problem?

▪ The default-information originate command is only used

for OSPFv2.
▪ R1 and R2 are on different subnets.
▪ OSPFv3 is not running on R2.
▪ R1 does not have a default route configured.
35. An administrator is troubleshooting an OSPFv3
network. Router A and router B are configured with
IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using
OSPFv3. While debugging the routing process, the
administrator discovers that the networks that are
advertised from router A do not show in the routing
table of router B. Why is the routing information not
being learned by router B?
$
▪ Router A has a stub interface.

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▪ IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router B.

▪ The OSPFv3 timers on both routers were adjusted for
fast convergence.
▪ An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from
entering the interface on router B that is connected.
36. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 enable
EIGRP on all of their interfaces. Which two conclusions
can the field engineer draw from the outputs of the
show ip route eigrp command on each router? (Choose
two.)

▪ Both routers are using the same path metric calculation

method.
▪ The path metric calculation used in R2 addresses
the scalability with higher-capacity interfaces.
▪ R1 and R2 are using the same K factors to calculate
the path metric.
▪ An adjacency will be allowed between the routers,
as long as all the K factors in both routers are set to
default values.
▪ The EIGRP configuration mode of R1 uses wide
metrics calculation.
▪ R2 is using EIGRP classic configuration mode.

Explanation: The metrics for R2 routes are different

from the metrics from R1 routes. This is because R1 is
using EIGRP classic configuration mode that uses
$
classic metrics, and R2 is using EIGRP named mode

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configuration that uses wide metrics by default. The

EIGRP classic metric calculation uses 5 K values (K1
to K5) to calculate the metric, whereas the EIGRP wide
metric calculation uses 6 K values (K1 to K6). The two
metric styles will allow adjacency between the two
routers, as long as K1 through K5 are the same, and
K6 is not set. The wide metrics calculation addresses
the issues of scalability with higher-capacity interfaces.

37. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants EIGRP

on Router1 to load balance traffic to network
2001:db8:11:10::/64 across two interfaces. Currently
traffic is using only interface GigabitEthernet0/1. A
second route, not in the routing table, is available with
a metric of 264000. What value is needed in the
variance command to make EIGRP put the second
route into the routing table?

▪ 4
▪ 10
▪ 1
▪ 11

Explanation: A variance of 11 is needed to load

balance across the second route. The metric of the
existing successor route is 25000. The metric of the
second route is 264000. The first metric needs to be $
multiplied by 11, which is 275000, in order for the route

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to be put into the routing table.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 has recently been

configured and connected via interface Gigabit
Ethernet 0/0 to router R1. R1 is configured correctly, but
fails to establish a neighbor relationship with R2. What
is the problem?

▪ The EIGRPv6 process has not been activated on

interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0.
▪ The passive-interface command is preventing hello
packets from being sent.
▪ The command ipv6 unicast-routing should be
implemented in the router configuration mode.
▪ The command ipv6 unicast-routing has not been
implemented.
39. An administrator wants to configure EIGRPv6 in an
IPv6 network. Which three statements are valid for the
configuration of EIGRPv6? (Choose three.)

▪ Split horizon needs to be enabled on all EIGRPv6 hub

routers.
▪ The network statement must be configured for the
$

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EIGRPv6 process.
▪ EIGRPv6 has to be directly configured on the
interfaces over which it runs.
▪ There is no network statement configuration for
EIGRPv6.
▪ When using a passive-interface configuration,
EIGRPv6 does not have to be configured for that
interface.
▪ EIGRPv6 needs to be directly configured on an
interface that has been made passive.
40. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator
configured a class map as shown, but the traffic is not
being classified as desired. Which conclusion can be
drawn from this configuration?

▪ The traffic would be subject to the implicit default class.

▪ The ACL-EIGRP is permitting the wrong IP multicast
address.
▪ The traffic would never match the CoPP-CLASS
class map.
▪ The ACL-ICMP access-list should be in a separate
class map because it is not a routing protocol.

Explanation: A class map may contain one of two

instructions: match-any or match-all . If you have
multiple match commands in a single class map and
match-any is used, it means the traffic must match one
of the match commands to be classified as part of the $
traffic class. If you use match-all , the traffic must

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match all the match commands to be part of the traffic

class. Considering the exhibit, it is not possible for a
packet to be ICMP, BGP, and EIGRP at the same time.
Therefore, the traffic would never match the CoPP-
CLASS class map and would never be subject to the
implicit default class.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator

configures AAA authentication on router R1. The ACS
servers are configured and running. The administrator
tests the configuration by telneting to R1. What will
happen if the administrator attempts to authenticate
through the RADIUS server using incorrect credentials?

▪ The enable secret password and a random username

could be used in the next login attempt.
▪ The authentication process stops.
▪ The enable secret password could be used in the next
login attempt.
▪ The username and password of the local user database
could be used in the next login attempt.

Explanation: The authentication for Telnet connections

is defined by AAA method list AUTHEN. The AUTHEN
list defines that the first authentication method is
through an ACS server using the RADIUS protocol (or
RADIUS server), the second authentication method is
to use the local user database, and the third method is
to use the enable password. In this scenario, however,
because the administrator fails to pass the $

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authentication by the first method, the authentication

process stops and no other authentication methods are
allowed.

42. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues

the show run | section username|aaa|line|radius
command to verify an AAA configuration on a Cisco
router. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the
command output? (Choose two.)

▪ The router must use Cisco default ports for

authentication and accounting to connect to a RADIUS
server.
▪ Authentication for the vty lines is using the default
authentication method.
▪ Authentication for the console line will use local
authentication as a fallback method if the RADIUS
server is not available.
▪ A missing ip radius source-interface command on
RADIUS server settings may prevent the router from
using the services of the server.
▪ The Cisco router can use the radiuspassword pre-
shared key to connect to a RADIUS server.

Explanation: The conclusions that can be drawn from

the command output are:
According to the aaa authentication login
VTY_ACCESS group RADIUSMETHOD local
command the first method to be used is the group of
$
servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group.

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According to the aaa authentication login

CONSOLE_ACCESS group RADIUSMETHOD local
command, the first method to be used is the group of
servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group, and the
second method to be used if the servers are not
available is the local username and password
database.
RADIUS server is using ports 1812 and 1813 for
authentication and accounting, so the port numbers on
the Cisco router should be the same, not the Cisco
default ports (1645 and 1646).
The router needs to be configured with the same pre-
shared key for the RADIUS server,
RADIUSPASSWORD .
When a router sources packets, it uses the exit
interface as the source of the packet. If the exit
interface is not configured with the IP address that the
AAA server is expecting, the client cannot use the AAA
server and the services it provides. It is recommended
that the IP address of a loopback interface be used for
the source of packets and as the client IP address that
is configured on the AAA server. Therefore, the router
should be configured with the ip radius source-interface
[ loopback ] [ number ].

43. From the routing tables shown from routers within a

multiarea OSPF network, which routing table would be
from an internal router that is within a totally stub area?

A.

Gateway of last resort is 10.1.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks

O IA 10.0.0.0/30 [110/4] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEthe
O IA 10.0.0.4/30 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEthe
O IA 10.0.0.8/30 [110/66] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEth
O 10.1.0.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.1.1, 01:18:00, GigabitEtherne
C 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.1.1.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA 10.2.0.0/25 [110/5] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEthe $

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O IA 10.2.0.128/25 [110/6] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:40, GigabitEt

O*IA 0.0.0.0/0 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:17:50, GigabitEthern

B. 

Gateway of last resort is 10.1.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks

O 10.1.0.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.1.1, 01:26:37, GigabitEtherne
C 10.1.1.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.1.1.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O*IA 0.0.0.0/0 [110/3] via 10.1.1.1, 01:26:27, GigabitEthern

C.

Gateway of last resort is 10.0.0.5 to network 0.0.0.0

10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 10 subnets, 4 masks

O 10.0.0.0/30 [110/2] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEtherne
C 10.0.0.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L 10.0.0.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
C 10.0.0.8/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L 10.0.0.9/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C 10.1.0.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
L 10.1.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
O 10.1.1.0/24 [110/2] via 10.1.0.2, 01:42:38, GigabitEtherne
O IA 10.2.0.0/25 [110/3] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthe
O IA 10.2.0.128/25 [110/4] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEt
192.168.0.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
O E2 192.168.0.0/30 [110/20] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, Gigabit
O E2 192.168.0.64/26 [110/20] via 10.0.0.5, 00:47:20, Gigabi
O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 10.0.0.5, 01:42:33, GigabitEthern

D. 

Gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

C 1.1.1.1/32 is directly connected, Loopback0
S 10.0.0.0/8 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0 $
203.0.113.0/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks

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C 203.0.113.0/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

L 203.0.113.1/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

44. How does Cisco implement interarea OSPF

summarization?

▪ It must be configured manually on ASBRs.

▪ The summarized route metric is equal to the lowest
cost of all subnets within the summary address range.
▪ Multiple routes inside the area are summarized by more
than one LSA.
▪ It is performed automatically by OSPF.
45. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID?
(Choose two.)

▪ to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain

▪ to facilitate router participation in the election of the
designated router
▪ to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest
cost path to remote networks
▪ to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
▪ to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to
Full

Explanation: OSPF router ID does not contribute to

SPF algorithm calculations, nor does it facilitate the
transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full. Although
the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when
router adjacencies are being established, it has no
bearing on the actual convergence process.

46. How is the flooding scope of link state

advertisements denoted within OSPFv3 LSAs?

▪ The outer IPv6 OSPFv3 header uses three bits to

determine LSA scope.
▪ Three bits of the 16-bit LS type field of OSPFv3 LSAs
set the scope.
▪ ABR LSAs include scope information as part of the
routing information payload. $

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▪ LSA scope is specified by the area area-ID range

prefix-length command.
47. A network technician is verifying the OPSFv3
address families configuration on a Cisco router. What
would the technician expect to see displayed when the
show ospfv3 database router adv-router 4.4.4.4
command is issued?

▪ the LSAs created by the router on which the command

is executed and sent to the router with RID 4.4.4.4
▪ all area LSAs in the LSDB of the DR router on which
the command is executed with RID 4.4.4.4
▪ all LSAs in the LSDB of the router with RID 4.4.4.4
▪ the LSAs received from the router with RID 4.4.4.4 that
exist in the LSDB of the local router
48. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers R1 and R2 are
configured for OSPFv3 and are routing for both IPv4
and IPv6 address families. Which two destination
addresses will R1 use to establish a full adjacency with
R2? (Choose two.)

▪ ff02::5
▪ fe80::2
▪ 2001:db8:22::100
▪ 172.17.66.1
▪ 2001:db8:21:20::2
49. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a
network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The
following commands were issued:

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R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro

SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c
batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information

from R1?

▪ The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

▪ There is a problem with the ACL configuration.
▪ The snmp-server community command needs to
include the rw keyword.
▪ The snmp-server location command is missing.

Explanation: The permit statement with the incorrect

IP address is the reason why the administrator is not
able to access router R1. The correct statement should
be permit 192.168.1.3. The snmp-server location and
snmp-server enable traps commands are optional
commands and have no relation to the access
restriction to router R1. The rw keyword does not need
to be included in this case because the administrator
just wants to obtain information, not change any
configuration.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The total number of packet

flows is not consistent with what is expected by the $
network administrator. The results show only half of the

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flows that are typically captured for the interface. Pings

between the router and the collector are successful.
What is the reason for the unexpected results?

▪ Interface Fa0/0 is not configured as the source of the

packets sent to the collector.
▪ The interface is shutdown.
▪ The Netflow collector IP address and UDP port number
are not configured on the router.
▪ The router is not configured to monitor outgoing
packets on the interface.

Explanation: NetFlow flows are unidirectional. One

user connection exists as two flows. The flow in each
direction must be captured. This is done by using both
the ip flow ingress and ip flow egress command on the
interface.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring the syslog service on a Cisco router. Which
command should be used to configure an IPv4 address
of 192.168.10.254 as the source address on the syslog
packets as they exit the router R1?

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▪ R1(config)#logging host 192.168.10.254

▪ R1(config)#logging origin-id ip
▪ R1(config)#logging source-interface fa0/0
▪ R1(config)# logging 192.168.10.254
52. Which three implicit access control entries are
automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL?
(Choose three.)

▪ deny ip any any

▪ deny ipv6 any any
▪ permit ipv6 any any
▪ deny icmp any any
▪ permit icmp any any nd-ns
▪ permit icmp any any nd-na
53. Which two networks would match the following
prefix list? (Choose two.)

ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 deny 10.1.0.0/16 ge 24 le 30

▪ 10.0.0.0/16
▪ 10.1.1.0/30
▪ 10.1.0.0/24
▪ 10.1.0.0/16
▪ 10.0.0.0/24
54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has
configured the IPv6 ACL that is in the exhibit to permit
outbound Telnet traffic to any destination, and block
TCP connections from 2001:db8:1::1 to any destination.
All other packets should be denied and logged. After
implementing the ACL, all IPv6 traffic, including Telnet
from the 2001:db8::/32 subnet is denied. What is the
problem?

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▪ The deny ipv6 any any log ACE is preventing NDP

from functioning.
▪ The eq telnet parameter should appear immediately
after the IPv6 address in the first ACE.
▪ The ACEs are in the wrong order.
▪ The wildcard mask is missing from the first ACE.
55. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues
the command  show bgp ipv6 unicast | begin
Network  to check the BGP table. Which statement
describes the routes with an unspecified address (::) in
the Next Hop column? 

▪ They are learned through an IGP.

▪ They are locally generated network prefixes.
▪ They indicate routes created by static route
configuration.
▪ They are learned through BGP advertisements from the
next neighbor.

Explanation: An unspecified address in the BGP table

indicates that the local router is generating the prefix
for the BGP table. The weight value 32,768 also
indicates that the prefix is locally originated by the
router.

56. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues

the show bgp ipv4 unicast 10.1.1.128 command on
router R2 to verify the network 10.1.1.128 in the BGP
table. The administrator notices that there are two
paths to reach the network. Which BGP factor is used
to determine the best-path?
$

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▪ the value of the BGP RID

▪ the value of the lowest multi-exit discriminator attribute
▪ whether the path is being learned via IBGP or EBGP
▪ the value of the weight attribute

Explanation: Cisco routers review BGP attributes in

the following ranked order when deciding which path is
the best-path:
– Prefer the highest weight .
– Prefer the highest local preference .
– Prefer the route originated by the local router.
– Prefer the path with the shorter Accumulated Interior
Gateway Protocol (AIGP) metric attribute.
– Prefer the shortest AS_Path .
– Prefer the lowest origin code.
– Prefer the lowest multi-exit discriminator (MED).
– Prefer an external path over an internal path.
– Prefer the path through the closest IGP neighbor .
– Prefer the oldest route for EBGP paths.
– Prefer the path with the lowest neighbor BGP RID .
– Prefer the path with the lowest neighbor IP address .
The first path attribute to be checked is the weight. In
this case, no weight is listed because both routes are
using the default value 0. The next path attribute to be
checked is the local preference. A higher value is
better. Therefore, setting the local preference to 200
will make the path through 3.3.3.3 the best-path.

57. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is

configuring BGP route advertisement on router R1. The $
network 10.1.0.0/24 is subnetted into four 10.1.0.0/26

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subnets that are attached to the 4 interfaces of R1

respectively. The administrator issues the show ip
route command and notices that the network 10.1.0.0/24
is not advertised by BGP. What is a possible cause for
this issue?

▪ Not all four interfaces are up/up.

▪ The network mask command does not match the
network/prefix in the routing table.
▪ The BGP slit-horizon rule prevents the network from
being advertised.
▪ The network command is missing the summary-only
keyword.
58. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol is used by R2
and R5 to exchange Layer 3 routes?

▪ EIGRP
▪ MP-BGP $

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▪ LDP
▪ OSPF
59. When an unlabeled packet arrives at an MPLS-
enabled router interface, which database is used to
make a forwarding decision on the packet?

▪ IP routing table (RIB)

▪ IP forwarding table (FIB)
▪ label information base (LIB)
▪ label forwarding table (LFIB)
60. Match the MPLS router type to its characteristic.

Join the discussion

&

9 COMMENTS

( Comment search...
$

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kenya ' 2 months ago

24

10.0.32.0-10.0.63.0
/24-/26

10.0.62.0/25

0 0 Reply View Replies (1) )

Phibs ' 5 months ago

Is there a valid dump for the ENARSI exam?

2 0 Reply

Fran Gómez Fernández ' 6 months ago

can’t wait! :-)

0 0 Reply View Replies (5) )

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