dna and rna structure [156 marks]

1. The hydrolysis of a pure sample of an organic molecule produces a [1 mark]

pentose sugar, thymine, guanine and cytosine. What other substances
could be expected to be present in the hydrolysed sample?
A. RNA
B. Uracil
C. Phosphate
D. ATP

Markscheme
C

Examiners report
[N/A]
2a. Sketch the complementary strand to complete the section of a DNA [3 marks]
diagram.
 Markscheme
a. correct base sequence: T, G, A;
b. strand drawn anti-parallel;
c. correct shapes used;

Award [2 max] if bonds are not from the correct carbon or if the nucleotides
are not joined.

Examiners report
In part (a) most could gain marks for the correct shapes and sequence but did
not gain the third mark as it was not shown as antiparallel. Some lost marks as
a 2MAX was awarded if the bonds were not from the correct carbons. In part
(b) the definition of mutation was quite well known, and most gained some
marks in the explanation. Weaker students just wrote about evolution without
relating it to mutations as asked. They also tended to give unnecessary
examples, involving finches and moths etc.

2b. Define mutation. [1 mark]

Markscheme
change in genetic makeup/DNA/nucleotide/base sequence
 Examiners report
[N/A]

2c. Explain how evolution by natural selection depends on mutations. [4 marks]

Markscheme
a. mutations cause variation among organisms of same species/population;
b. some variations/mutations make individual more suited to its
environment/way of life;
c. individuals that are better adapted survive and produce offspring;
d. individuals pass on genetic characteristics/mutation/variation to offspring;
e. natural selection increases frequency of characteristics/alleles that make
individuals better adapted;

Examiners report
[N/A]
 Life is based on carbon compounds.

3a. Draw a molecular diagram of alpha-D-glucose. [3 marks]

Markscheme
a. hexagonal ring structure with O at one point (between C1 and C5);
b. correct orientation of OH groups (on carbons 1 to 4); Hydrogens not
required
c. CH2OH group shown on fifth carbon with correct orientation;
OR
d. 6 carbon chain with oxygen on first C;
e. H and OH groups correctly orientated;
Carbons do not need to be numbered.
Allow boat or chair diagrams.

Allow [2 max] if linear structure drawn.

Examiners report
This was the less favourite option question, generally attempted by the better
candidates. In part (a) the candidates tended to gain either 3 for a correct
structure or zero. A G2 comment asked whether the different forms of glucose
were needed; knowledge of the structure of alpha-glucose is stated in the
syllabus.
Most gained some marks for what was really a description of photosynthesis in
part (b), and the transformations of carbon compounds in the carbon cycle
was quite well known. Some students lost marks by continuing to use the term
‘carbon compounds’ instead of carbon dioxide and the specific compounds.
Many went off on a tangent to write about carbon dioxide and climate change
etc. Many drew some quite detailed flow charts of the carbon cycle from which
some marks could be gleaned or ambiguous statements clarified.
3b. Outline how carbon compounds are produced in cells using light energy. [5 marks]
Markscheme
a. occurs by the process of photosynthesis;
b. occurs in chloroplasts of plant cells/using chlorophyll;
c. chlorophyll absorbs red/blue light AND reflects green light; Both needed for
marking point.
d. raw materials/starting products are carbon dioxide and water/shown in an
equation;
e. water is split by photolysis;
f. oxygen is produced as waste/by-product/lost;
g. glucose formed/shown in an equation;
h. glucose molecules combine to form starch for storage;
i. light energy transformed to chemical;

Examiners report
[N/A]
3c. Explain the transformations of carbon compounds in the carbon cycle. [7 marks]
Markscheme
a. autotrophs/producers convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrates/carbon
compounds in photosynthesis;
b. carbon dioxide diffuses/moves from the atmosphere /water into
autotrophs/plants;
c. carbon compounds are transferred through food chains/OWTTE;
d. carbon dioxide produced by respiration diffuses out of organisms into
water/atmosphere;
e. decomposers release carbon dioxide during decay/putrefaction;
f. methane is produced from organic matter in anaerobic conditions (by
methanogens);
g. some methane diffuses into the atmosphere/accumulates in the ground;
h. methane is oxidized to carbon dioxide (and water) in the atmosphere;
i. peat forms when organic matter is not fully decomposed because of
acidic/anaerobic conditions in waterlogged soils;
j. partially decomposed organic matter from past geological eras/fossils was
converted into coal/oil/gas that accumulated in rocks;
k. carbon dioxide is produced by the combustion of biomass/fossilized organic
matter/fuels;
i. hard parts of some animals/corals/molluscs are composed of calcium
carbonate
m. can become fossilized in limestone;
As this is an “explain” question, simply drawing a labelled diagram is not
enough for [7]. Diagram would need sufficient annotations to meet the
command term.
If carbon compounds are referred to instead of carbon dioxide, penalise once
then ecf.

Examiners report
[N/A]
4a. Draw the structure of a section of DNA showing all possible bases. [4 marks]

Markscheme
a. sugar, phosphate and base linked correctly to form at least one nucleotide
✔ For mpa, ignore labelling of the subunits of the nucleotide. Carbon atoms in
deoxyribose do not have to be numbered but the phosphate should be linked
to C5 and the base to C1. Shapes other than circles and rectangles could be
used for the phosphate and base.
b. deoxyribose, phosphate and base/named base labelled at least once ✔
c. adenine paired with thymine and cytosine paired with guanine ✔ For mpc,
full names of all four bases are required, but not relative sizes of the purine
and pyrimidine bases.
d. two antiparallel chains of nucleotides linked by hydrogen bonds with all
sugar-phosphate bonds in correct position ✔ For mpd, a bond should connect
the C3 of deoxyribose on one nucleotide to the phosphate on the adjacent
nucleotide. Two nucleotides in each strand is sufficient.

Examiners report
[N/A]
4b. Outline the structural and genetic characteristics of eukaryotic [4 marks]
chromosomes.
Markscheme
a. linear/not circular DNA molecule
OR
one chromosome is one molecule of DNA/one chromosome is two DNA
molecules «after replication» ✔
b. associated with histone proteins/nucleosomes ✔
c. centromere joins sister chromatids «after DNA replication» ✔
d. telomeres at the end «of the chromosome/chromatid» ✔
e. carries a sequence of genes / each gene occupies a specific locus ✔ Do not
accept ‘sequence of bases’ for mpe.
f. alternative alleles of genes / homologous chromosomes carry same
sequence of genes ✔
g. chromosomes in pairs / two «homologous chromosomes» of each type «in a
diploid cell» ✔
h. non-coding sequences/example of a non-coding sequence ✔ Do not allow
mph if the response states that chromosomes are always condensed.
i. supercoiled/condensed «during mitosis/meiosis» ✔

Examiners report
[N/A]
4c. Explain how a polypeptide chain is synthesized in a eukaryotic cell. [7 marks]
 Markscheme
a. translation occurs on ribosomes ✔
b. tRNA-activating enzymes attach amino acids to tRNAs ✔
c. small and large ribosome units assemble on mRNA
OR
translation/polypeptide synthesis starts at a start codon ✔
d. each tRNA arriving at the ribosome binds to the A site ✔
e. anticodon «on tRNA» binds to codon «on mRNA» ✔
f. according to complementary base pairing/A with U and G with C ✔
g. ribosome moves along the mRNA / mRNA moves over ribosome ✔
h. t-RNA shifts from the A site to P site/from the P to the E site ✔
i. peptide bond between amino acids «on tRNAs at A and P sites» ✔
j. tRNA released from ribosome at E site ✔
k. cycle repeats with other tRNAs / polypeptide grows as tRNAs bring more
amino acids ✔
l. until stop codon on mRNA is reached ✔
m. components are disassembled / polypeptide leaves the ribosome ✔
Accept these points in an annotated diagram.
Do not award any marks for events in transcription.

Examiners report
[N/A]

5. What is common to RNA and DNA? [1 mark]

A. Thymine
B. Nitrogenous bases
C. Histones
D. Deoxyribose
 Markscheme
B

Examiners report
Question 7 was the third easiest in the exam, and several teachers
commented that it was too easy, but on the other hand we can be pleased
that more than 80% of candidates knew that both RNA and DNA contain
nitrogenous bases.

6a. Distinguish between the structures of DNA and RNA. [3 marks]

Markscheme

A table format is not required but clear distinctions must be apparent.

The full names of the bases must be given.

Examiners report
This question was well answered by most. Students are cautioned against
representing bases with letter symbols such as A,C,T,G and U. The expectation
of the mark scheme is that students write out the full names.
6b. Mendel found the same pattern of inheritance in all the crosses that he [4 marks]
performed. Outline, with examples, different types of inheritance that
produce non-Mendelian ratios.
Markscheme
a. some traits may involve many genes/be polygenic eg: height, skin colour
«correct example required» ✔ Accept any verifiable examples of these types
of inheritance.
b. linked genes/alleles of different genes on same chromosome ✔
c. «small numbers of» recombinant phenotypes due to crossing over
«between linked genes» ✔
d. co-dominance of specific alleles/intermediate forms eg: pink flowers «from
red and white ones»/blood groups «correct example required» ✔
e. sex-linked effects eg: colour blindness «correct example required» ✔
f. environmental influence on inheritance/epigenetics/methylation ✔
g. any other example of non-Mendelien inheritance with a specific example ✔

Examiners report
This question was less well answered. Students commonly indicated linked
genes and sex-lined genes as examples of non-Mendelian inheritance.
Accurate discussion of co-dominance was less frequent.
6c. Explain the cause of sickle cell anemia and how this disease affects [8 marks]
humans.
Markscheme
a. caused by a single nucleotide/base substitution mutation/GAG to GTG ✔
b. «mutation of» a gene of β-globin/a subunit of hemoglobin ✔
c. mRNA copies the mutation of DNA and substitutes an amino acid in
hemoglobin «subunit» ✔
d. glutamic acid is substituted by valine ✔
e. sickle cell anemia involves distorted hemoglobin protein/HbS ✔
f. «distorted HbS causes» distortion/sickling/shape change of red blood cells ✔
g. «distorted/sickled red blood cells» block capillaries/blood flow ✔
h. HbS/sickled red blood cells cannot carry enough oxygen «for the
body»/leads to fatigue ✔
i. low oxygen concentration seriously affects structure of HbS ✔
j. homozygous «HbS/HbS» state causes severe anemia/death at low oxygen
concentrations ✔
k. heterozygous state has less anemia/minor effects/less effect of structure of
hemoglobin
OR
heterozygous state only affected at high altitude/extreme exercise/low levels
of oxygen ✔
l. «heterozygous state» provides protection against malaria parasite/selective
advantage in malaria areas ✔
OWTTE

Examiners report
This question was well answered. The mutation and its impact was well
understood by most. The genetic causes were less frequently discussed.
7. Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. What parts of nucleotides are [1 mark]
joined together in both DNA and RNA to make these polymers?
A. Large nitrogenous bases with small nitrogenous bases
B. Nitrogenous bases with hexose sugars
C. Nitrogenous bases with phosphates
D. Pentose sugars with phosphates

Markscheme
D

Examiners report
[N/A]

8a. Distinguish between the structure of amylose and the structure of [1 mark]
amylopectin.

Markscheme
amylose unbranched/helical while amylopectin branched / vice versa

Examiners report
[N/A]
8b. Suggest the reason for cellulose passing undigested through the human [1 mark]
gut.

Markscheme
enzymes required to digest cellulose not present in the human gut OWTTE
OR
undigested cellulose provides bulk/fibre

Examiners report
[N/A]

8c. Draw an annotated diagram to show how a peptide bond is formed. [3 marks]
 Markscheme
a. correct structure of two amino acids
b. H2O lost
c. C from COOH of one links to N of NH2/NH3+ from the other
d. correct labelling of the peptide bond
e.g.

Examiners report
[N/A]

8d. State two structural features that differ between RNA and DNA. [2 marks]
 Markscheme
a. number of strands
OR
(usually) only one strand in RNA/two strands in DNA
b. base composition
OR
uracil only in RNA / thymine only in DNA
c. type of pentose
OR
ribose only in RNA / deoxyribose only in DNA

Examiners report
[N/A]

9a. Label the parts of the DNA diagram indicated by I, II, III and IV. [2 marks]
 Markscheme
a. I. cytosine

b. II. sugar-phosphate/covalent/phosphodiester bond

c. III. phosphate
d. IV. deoxyribose
Award [1] for any two correct responses.

Examiners report
[N/A]

9b. Explain how model making helped Watson and Crick to establish the [2 marks]
structure of DNA.

Markscheme
a. decided to combine what was known about chemical content of DNA with
information from X-ray diffraction studies OWTTE.
b. built scale models of components of DNA
c. then attempted to fit them together in a way that agreed with the data
«from separate sources»
d. made several arrangements of scale model until found best one that fitted
all the data
 Examiners report
[N/A]

9c. Distinguish between the chromosomes of eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic [1 mark]
cells.

Markscheme
a. associated with «histone» proteins in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes
b. is linear in eukaryotes but circular in prokaryotes
c. in cytoplasm in prokaryotes, but within nucleus in eukaryotes.

Examiners report
[N/A]

9d. Outline the role of the enzyme helicase in replication. [1 mark]

Markscheme
unwinds/separates strands/double helix (by breaking hydrogen bonds)
 Examiners report
[N/A]

9e. Outline the role of the enzyme DNA polymerase in replication. [2 marks]

Markscheme
a. links nucleotides together to form a new strand of DNA

b. uses pre-existing strand of DNA as template

c. makes covalent bonds between nucleotides

Examiners report
[N/A]

10a. Draw a labelled diagram to show the fluid mosaic model of the plasma [4 marks]
membrane.
Markscheme
a. two correctly orientated layers of phospholipids/phospholipid bilayer shown
withheads facing in opposite directions
b. phospholipids shown with two parts labelled hydrophilic/phosphate head
AND hydrophobic/hydrocarbon tail
c. protein (any) shown as a globular structure embedded in one/both layers of
phospholipid
d. peripheral protein shown as globular structures at the surface of the
membrane AND integral protein shown as embedded globular structures
e. glycoprotein shown as embedded globular structure with antenna-like
carbohydrateprotruding
OR
carbohydrate shown as branched/antenna-like structure attached either to a
protein or to a phospholipid
OR
channel protein(s) shown with a pore passing through it
OR
pump protein shown as a transmembrane globular structure
f. cholesterol shown in between adjacent phospholipids
Do not award the mark unless the structure is labelled with the underlined
name.

Examiners report
[N/A]
10b. Outline how neurons generate a resting potential. [4 marks]

Markscheme
a. sodium-potassium pump
b. sodium /Na+ out and potassium /K+ in
OR
sodium/Na + concentration higher outside and potassium/K+ higher inside
c. three Na + pumped for every two K+ (hence negative inside)
OR
inside of axon holds negative ions/Cl- ions/negatively charged proteins/organic
anions (hence negative inside)
d. by active transport / using ATP
e. inside (of axon/neuron) is negative in comparison to outside
OR
electrochemical concentration/charge difference (across the membrane) is the
resting potential
f. resting potential is –70 mV

Examiners report
[N/A]
10c. Hydrogen bonds can exist both within and between molecules in living [7 marks]
organisms and have an impact on their structure and function. Explain
the importance of hydrogen bonding for living organisms.
 Markscheme
a. cohesion in water/water molecules stick together (due to hydrogen bonds)
b. cohesion helps transport under tension of water/sap in xylem / transpiration
stream
c. adhesion between water and cell walls/cellulose/polar molecules
d. adhesion/capillary action helps water to rise in plants/stems/xylem / helps
keep leaf walls moist
e. solvent properties (due to hydrogen bonds) with polar/hydrophilic
molecules
f. solvent properties exemplified by glucose/other example of a polar solute
g. high latent heat of evaporation / (much) energy required for evaporation so
water useful as coolant/for sweating
h. high (specific) heat capacity so water temperature changes less
i. base pairing between bases/nucleotides/strands in DNA by hydrogen
bonding
j. base pairing between bases in RNA and DNA for transcription/between
codon and anticodon for translation
k. proteins have hydrogen bonding in secondary structure/α helix/β pleated
sheet
l. proteins have hydrogen bonding between R groups/in tertiary structure/to
maintain conformation
m. habitats because water is liquid due to high boiling point/due to water
freezing on the surface
n. habitats on water surface due to surface tension

Examiners report
[N/A]

11. For which discovery about DNA do Watson and Crick receive credit? [1 mark]
A. DNA is the molecule that genes are made of.
B. The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine in an organism.
C. Phosphate–pentose bonding along the nucleotide backbone is covalent.
D. The shape of DNA is a double helix.
 Markscheme
D

Examiners report
[N/A]

12. Cladograms can be created by comparing DNA or protein sequences. The [1 mark]
cladogram on the left is based on DNA sequences and the cladogram on
the right is based on comparing protein sequences.

What is the reason that cladograms based on DNA sequences are more reliable
predictors of the phylogenetic relationship of species than cladograms based on
protein sequences?
A. Amino acids are not as chemically stable as DNA nucleotides.
B. DNA mutates but amino acids do not.
C. Several different triplets of bases can code for the same amino acid.
D. There are 20 different amino acids but only 4 nucleotides.
 Markscheme
C

Examiners report
[N/A]

13. The bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes infections related to the [1 mark]
human reproductive system. The graph shows the percentage of samples
in which this bacterium showed resistance to six antibiotics over a period of ten
years.

What is a possible explanation for the total percentage resistance being larger
than 100% in 2010?
A. People do not take the antibiotics as prescribed.
B. More people have been sampled in that year.
C. There was an epidemic of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in that year.
D. Some bacteria are resistant to more than one antibiotic.

Markscheme
D
 Examiners report
[N/A]

Native oyster populations are decreasing where rivers meet the ocean along the
northwest coast of North America. These oyster populations are being attacked by
a gastropod.

It is known that oysters and gastropods have hard parts composed of calcium
carbonate and that ocean acidification is increasing. Studies were carried out
using juvenile oysters and gastropods to investigate the effects of acidification on
the decrease in the population of oysters.
The first step was to raise oysters in two different mesocosms. One had seawater
at a normal concentration of CO 2 and the other had sea water with a high
concentration of CO2. Gastropods were raised in two further mesocosms with
normal and high CO2 concentrations respectively.

14a. Outline how acidified sea water could affect the shells of the oyster. [1 mark]

Markscheme
Shells might dissolve/deteriorate / become smaller/thinner/weaker / OWTTE
OR
shell formation reduced / more difficult
 Examiners report
[N/A]

A juvenile gastropod will attack a juvenile oyster by using its tongue-like structure
(radula) to drill a hole through the oyster shell. Once the hole has been drilled, the
gastropod sucks out the soft flesh. Researchers investigated the shell thickness at
the site of the drill hole in relation to the size of the oyster. The results are seen in
this graph.

14b. Outline the trends shown in the data in the graph. [2 marks]
 Markscheme
a. positive correlation between shell thickness and shell size
OR
as shell thickness increases, shell size «also» increases
b. (positive correlation) occurs at two different CO2 concentrations / both high
and normal concentrations
c. trend for thickness is «slightly» lower with high CO 2

Examiners report
[N/A]

Equal numbers of oysters raised in seawater with a normal CO 2 concentration and

in seawater with a high CO2 concentration were then presented together to the
gastropod predators in seawater with a normal CO2 concentration. The same
numbers of oysters from the two groups were also presented together to the
gastropods in seawater with a high CO2 concentration. The bar charts show how
many of the oysters were drilled by the gastropods and the mean size of drilled
oysters.
14c. Estimate how much smaller drilled oysters raised in seawater at a high [1 mark]
CO2 concentration were than drilled oysters raised in seawater at a
normal CO2 concentration.

Markscheme
«approximately» 0.2 mm2
OR
«approximately» 40 % «smaller»
unit required

Examiners report
[N/A]
14d. Deduce from the data in the bar charts which factors were and were not[2 marks]
correlated significantly with the number of oysters drilled by the
gastropods.

Markscheme
a. significant factor: concentration of CO2 in which oysters were raised
b. insignificant factor: concentration of CO2 at which oysters were presented to
gastropods

Examiners report
[N/A]

14e. Suggest reasons for the differences in the numbers of oysters drilled, as [2 marks]
shown in the bar charts.
 Markscheme
a. (because) shells are thinner/smaller when the oyster is raised in high
CO2/lower pH
OR
«because» lower pH/higher acidity prevents/reduces deposition of calcium
carbonate
b. gastropods target smaller/thinner-shelled oysters more
c. gastropods can eat/drill thin-shelled/smaller oysters at a faster rate (and
move onto another)
d. eating smaller oysters «from high CO2 environments» means given
population of gastropods require more oysters for same food intake

Examiners report
[N/A]

14f. The radula in a gastropod is hard but not made of calcium carbonate. [2 marks]
Outline how this statement is supported by the drilling success of the
gastropods in seawater with normal or high CO2 concentrations.

Markscheme
a. data shows that similar numbers are drilled regardless of conditions

b. since radulas are not affected by acidification

OR
radulas not made of calcium carbonate so (remain) strong/successful at drilling
 Examiners report
[N/A]

14g. Using all the data, evaluate how CO 2 concentrations affect the [2 marks]
development of oysters and their predation by gastropods.

Markscheme
a. the data/trend lines indicate that a higher CO2 concentration diminishes the
shell thickness, making gastropod predation more successful
OR
the bar graphs suggest that oysters raised in a higher CO2 concentration are
smaller, making gastropod predation more successful
b. CO2 concentrations «during feeding» do not change the occurrence of
drilling/predation «by gastropods»
c. «limitation» no information about how exaggerated the CO2 concentrations
were
OR
«limitation» no information about numbers of gastropods used «in each
setting»

Examiners report
[N/A]
 DNA research, involving biotechnology, has led to benefits for society but has
given rise to some controversy.

15a. Outline how translation depends on complementary base pairing. [3 marks]

Markscheme
a. translation converts a sequence of mRNA nucleotides/codons to a sequence
of amino acids/polypeptide/protein
b. «triplets of» nucleotides/bases on «activated» tRNAs pair with
complementary «triplets of» nucleotides/bases on mRNA / vice versa
c. base pairing occurs when adenine/A pairs with uracil/U and guanine/G pairs
with cytosine/C
d. specific amino acids are attached to specific of tRNA
e. mRNA has codons AND tRNA has anticodons
 Examiners report
[N/A]

15b. Describe the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), including the role of Taq [4 marks]
DNA polymerase.
Markscheme
a. PCR is process by which a small sample of DNA can be amplified/copied
many times
b. PCR involves repeated cycling through high and lower temperatures «to
promote melting and annealing of DNA strands»
c. «mixture» is heated to high temperatures to break «hydrogen» bonds
between strands of DNA/to separate the double-stranded DNA
d. Taq DNA polymerase can withstand high temperatures without denaturing
e. primers bind to «targeted» DNA sequences at lower temp
f. Taq DNA polymerase forms new «double-stranded» DNA by adding
«complementary» bases/nucleotides

Examiners report
[N/A]
15c. Explain benefits and risks of using genetically modified crops for the [8 marks]
environment and also for human health.
Markscheme
Environment benefits:
a. pest-resistant crops can be made
b. so less spraying of insecticides/pesticides
c. less fuel burned in management of crops
d. longer shelf-life for fruits and vegetables so less spoilage
e. greater quantity/shorter growing time/less land needed
f. increase variety of growing locations / can grow in threatened conditions
Environment risks:
g. non-target organisms can be affected
h. genes transferred to crop plants to make them herbicide resistant could
spread to wild plants making super-weeds
i. GMOs (encourage monoculture which) reduces biodiversity
j. GM crops encourage overuse of herbicides
Health benefits:
k. nutritional value of food improved by increasing nutrient content
l. crops could be produced that lack toxins or allergens
m. crops could be produced to contain edible vaccines to provide natural
disease resistance
Health risks:
n. proteins from transferred genes could be toxic or cause allergic reactions
o. antibiotic resistance genes used as markers during gene transfer could
spread to «pathogenic» bacteria
p. transferred genes could cause unexpected/not anticipated problems
OR
health effects of exposure to GMO unclear

Examiners report
[N/A]
 The Chinese soft-shelled turtle, Pelodiscus sinensis, lives in salt water marshes.
The turtle can live under water and out of water.
These turtles have fully developed lungs and kidneys, however, many microvilli
have been discovered in the mouth of P. sinensis. A study was undertaken to test
the hypothesis that oxygen uptake and urea excretion can simultaneously occur
in the mouth.
Initial experiments involved collecting nitrogen excretion data from P. sinensis.
The turtle urinates both in water and out of water. When in water it allows waste
products to be washed out of its mouth. When out of water it regularly dips its
head into shallow water to wash its mouth. The table shows the mean rates of
ammonia and urea excretion from the mouth and kidney over six days.

16a. Deduce whether the excretion of ammonia or urea changes more when [2 marks]
a turtle emerges from water.

Markscheme
a. urea
b. for both mouth and kidney
c. percentage change/change in μmol day−1 g−1 greater with urea/other
acceptable numerical comparison

Examiners report
[N/A]
16b. Compare and contrast the changes in urea excretion in the mouth with [3 marks]
the changes in urea excretion in the kidney when a turtle emerges from
the water.

Markscheme
a. both higher/increased on emergence from/with turtle out of water
b. both increased by 0.66 «μmol−1 g−1 when turtle emerges from water»
c. % increase is higher in kidney / kidney 940% versus mouth 73/75% /
increase is higher proportionately higher in kidney / kidney x10 versus mouth
nearly double/x1.73
d. urea excretion by mouth greater than kidney out of water «despite larger %
increase in kidney excretion»

Examiners report
[N/A]
 It was noted that during long periods out of water, turtles rhythmically moved
their mouths to take in water from a shallow source and then discharge it.
Changes in the dissolved oxygen and the quantity of accumulated urea in the
rinse water discharged by the turtles were monitored over time as shown in this
graph.

16c. Describe the trends shown by the graph for dissolved oxygen in water [1 mark]
discharged from the mouth.

Markscheme
decrease «when head is submerged» and increase when head is out of water

Examiners report
[N/A]
16d. Suggest reasons for these trends in dissolved oxygen. [2 marks]

Markscheme
a. oxygen absorbed from water/exchanged for urea when head dipped in
water«so oxygen concentration decreases»
b. lungs cannot be used with head in water / can «only» be used with head out
of water
c. oxygen from water «in mouth» used in «aerobic cell» respiration
d. oxygen from air dissolves in water when head out of water «so oxygen
concentration increases»

Examiners report
[N/A]
 In order to test whether a urea transporter was present in the mouth tissues of the
turtles, phloretin (a known inhibitor of membrane proteins that transport urea)
was added to the water in which a further set of turtles submerged their heads.
The results of that treatment are shown.

16e. Deduce with a reason whether a urea transporter is present in the [2 marks]
mouth of P. sinensis.

Markscheme
a. urea transporter is present
b. less urea «excreted»/ lower rate «of urea excretion» / excretion almost zero
when phloretin/inhibitor was present
 Examiners report
[N/A]

Further research was conducted to determine where mRNA expression of a urea

transporter gene might be occurring in P. sinensis. Gel electrophoresis was used
to analyse different tissue samples for mRNA activity.

16f. Outline the additional evidence provided by the gel electrophoresis [2 marks]
results shown above.

Markscheme
a. mRNA only in mouth and tongue/in mouth and tongue but not esophagus
intestine kidney or bladder
b. bands / lines indicate mRNA for/expression of urea transporter gene
c. urea transporter gene expressed / urea transporters in mouth/tongue / not
expressed/made in esophagus/intestine/kidneys/bladder
d. mRNA/transcription/gene expression/urea transporters higher in
tongue/more in tongue «than mouth»
 Examiners report
[N/A]

Expression of the urea transporter gene by cells in the turtle’s mouth was
assessed by measuring mRNA activity. Turtles were kept out of water for 24 hours
and then injected with either a salt solution that matched the salt concentration of
the turtle, dissolved ammonia or urea, followed by another 24 hours out of water.

16g. Identify which of these turtle groups represent the control, giving a [1 mark]
reason for your answer.
 Markscheme
salt solution is control because it does not contain a nitrogenous/excretory
waste product / it matches the salt concentration of the turtle / the turtle’s
body already contains salt / because the turtle lives in salt water/salt marshes
/ because nothing has been altered

Examiners report
[N/A]

16h. Suggest a reason for the greater expression of the gene for the urea [2 marks]
transporter after an injection with dissolved ammonia than an injection
of urea.

Markscheme
a. ammonia is «highly» toxic/harmful
b. ammonia is more toxic than urea/converse
c. ammonia converted to urea
d. urea concentration raised «by injecting ammonia»
e. difference between ammonia and urea «possibly» not «statistically»
significant

Examiners report
[N/A]
16i. The salt marshes where these turtles live periodically dry up to small [3 marks]
pools. Discuss the problems that this will cause for nitrogen excretion in
the turtles and how their behaviour might overcome the problems.

Markscheme
Problems:
a. urea becomes more concentrated «in small pools» / lower concentration
gradient «between tongue/mouth and water»
b. less water available for urine production/excretion by kidney
OR
less water in ponds for mouth rinsing/more competition for pools (to use for
mouth rinsing)
Behaviour to overcome problems:
c. «still able to» dip mouth into/mouth rinse in water/pools
d. «still able to» excrete urea «though the mouth» in the small pools
e. more conversion of ammonia to urea/urea excretion rather than ammonia
f. more urea transporters/expression of urea transporter gene
g. urea excreted «in mouth/via microvilli» by active transport/using ATP
h. excretion with little/no loss of water

Examiners report
[N/A]

17. What is a similarity between DNA and RNA? [1 mark]

A. Both are polymers of nucleotides.
B. Both are composed of antiparallel strands.
C. Both contain adenine, cytosine and thymine.
D. Both contain ribose sugar.
 Markscheme
A

Examiners report
[N/A]

18. The diagram shows a molecular structure. [1 mark]

Which type of molecule is shown?

A. Amino acid
B. Lipid
C. Carbohydrate
D. Nucleotide

Markscheme
B

Examiners report
[N/A]
19. What usually distinguishes DNA from RNA? [1 mark]

Markscheme
D

Examiners report
These questions proved to be too easy.

The diagram shows a dinucleotide.

20. Which type of bond is identified by the arrow? [1 mark]

A. Phosphate
B. Hydrogen
C. Covalent
D. Peptide
 Markscheme
C

Examiners report
There was a mistake in the diagram that will be corrected for publication but
did not affect the answer. The 3’ end should not have a phosphate group.

21a. Draw a labelled diagram of a section of DNA showing four nucleotides. [5 marks]
 Markscheme
Award [1] for each labelled item shown correctly connected.

Examiners report
Most gained some marks for the diagram. As it was DNA the nucleotides
should be in two strands joined by H bonds. Many drew only one strand.

21b. Outline a technique used for gene transfer. [5 marks]

Markscheme
a. plasmid used for gene transfer/removed from bacteria;
b. plasmid is a small/extra circle of DNA;
c. restriction enzymes/endonucleases cut/cleave DNA (of plasmid);
d. each restriction enzyme cuts at specific base sequence/creates sticky ends;
e. same (restriction) enzyme used to cut DNA with (desired) gene;
f. DNA/gene can be added to the open plasmid/sticky ends join gene and
plasmid;
g. (DNA) ligase used to splice/join together/seal nicks;
h. recombinant DNA/plasmids inserted into host cell/bacterium/yeast;
Examiners report
Marks were lost through lack of precision. The names of the enzymes were
expected. Few stated that the same restriction enzyme was required for the
plasmid and gene.
21c. Explain how evolution may happen in response to an environmental [8 marks]
change.
 Markscheme
a. (genetic) variation in population;
b. (variation is) due to mutation / sexual reproduction;
c. valid example of variation in a specific population;
d. more offspring are produced than can survive / populations over-populate;
e. competition / struggle for resources/survival;
f. example of competition/struggle for resources;
g. survival of fittest/best adapted (to the changed environment)/those with
beneficial adaptations / converse;
h. example of changed environment and adaptation to it;
i. favourable genes/alleles passed on / best adapted reproduce (more) /
converse;
j. example of reproduction of individuals better adapted to changed
environment;
k. alleles for adaptations to the changed environment increase in the
population;
l. example of genes/alleles for adaptations increasing in a population;
m. evolution by natural selection;
n. evolution is (cumulative) change in population/species over time / change in
allele frequency;
Suitable examples are antibiotic resistance and the peppered moth but any
genuine evidence-based example of adaptation to environmental change can
be credited.

Examiners report
This was answered well by the better candidates. There were also
disappointing numbers of Lamarkian answers from weaker candidates trying
to explain the adaptation of individuals. Many answers were very general and
would have benefitted from concrete examples.

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