Intro To Mathematical Finance Part I: Lecture 1: 1.1: The One-Period Binomial Model
Intro To Mathematical Finance Part I: Lecture 1: 1.1: The One-Period Binomial Model
Part I: Lecture 1
1.1: The one-period binomial model
07.09.2021
Organization of this course
Do it yourself: read the book and solve the exercises. No extra credits - no mandatory
https://www.quantsummaries.com/shreve_stochcal4fin_2.pdf
And I am sure that you can find many more. As always with the internet: read carefully
and beware of errors!
If you understand this picture fully, then you understand the course
Terminology and Parameters
If we look deeper into the future, we will see S2 , S3 , S4 , .... Each time step
corresponds to a toss of the coin. For S5 there are 5 tosses, such as HHTHT
or HTTTH etc. All in all there are 32 different possible coin tosses.
Question: How many of these 32 tosses have 3 heads?
Binomial
If we look deeper into the future, we will see S2 , S3 , S4 , .... Each time step
corresponds to a toss of the coin. For S5 there are 5 tosses, such as HHTHT
or HTTTH etc. All in all there are 32 different possible coin tosses.
Question: How many of these 32 tosses have 3 heads?
5
The answer involves a binomial coefficient – namely 3
– and that is why
this model is called the binomial asset price model.
Binomial is derived from Latin and means: contains two names. There are no names,
there are only numbers. It would have been more accurate to say: binumeral.
Multiplication
In our model:
0 < d < 1 + r < u.
.
The interest rates for borrowing and lending are the same.
There is no difference between the ask price and the bid price of assets.
You will learn all about the real world in your course on principles of asset trading
European Call Options
Compute the price of a European Call Option, which expires at time 1 and
has a strike of 5. Interest rate is r = 0.25. Please show me the way to the bank with this interest rate.
Oh don’t ask why.
At time 1 we have
1
V1 = S1 − 1
2
That is why at time 0 we have
1 1
V0 = S0 −
2 1+r
Our interest rate is 0.25 and S0 = 4, which is why
4
V0 = 2 − = 1.20
5
If you go up and down in time for random numbers, change the index. If you go up and
down in time for ordinary numbers, discount the interest rate. I could stop right now. If
you understand this fully, you have mastered financial calculus.
Replicating Portfolio
Now we know that V0 = 1.20 how do we operate if we sell the option for that
price?
We buy half an asset for 2 euros. This means that we have to borrow 80
cents from the bank. So we hold half an asset minus eighty cents:
0.5S0 − 0.8
0.5S1 − 1
Example 1.1 can be generalized for any V1 . For instance, if V1 (H) = 0 and
V1 (T ) = 3 then we have
1
V1 = − S1 + 4
2
and that is why at time 0 we have
V0 = −2 + 16/5 = 1.20
In general we have
V1 = −∆0 S1 + B0
for two constants ∆0 and B0 . We can solve that, build the portfolio, compute
its value at time zero.
Wealth
In this example you sell V0 without owning it: you short it. That is OK, because at
time one you buy it back for V1 .
Two equations two unknowns
∆0 S1 (T ) + (1 + r )B0 = V1 (T )
Subtract the equations so B0 drops out and ∆0 remains. That is how we get
Equation 1.9:
If you know ∆0 then you know B0 , and then you know the wealth X0 , which is
equal to the option price V0 .
Risk neutral valuation
S1 depends on the toss of a coin. But what kind of coin? Is it a fair coin, is it
biased? We have not used probabilities at all.
There is a neat formula for V0 :
where
1+r −d u−1−r
p̃ = , q̃ =
u−d u−d
Observe that p̃ + q̃ = 1. We can think of these numbers as probabilities! We
say that they are risk-neutral probabilities. Equation 1.10 is called the
risk-neutral pricing formula of the option.
What do you learn in 1.1?