SAS 1 c.

Implementation
1. Which of the following facets of health is d. Evaluation
demonstrated if the patient feels very much optimistic
about the results of her pregnancy? 7. The phase of the nursing process where the nurse
establishes both the short-term and the long-term goals
a. Spiritual influences
for the
b. Physical health
patient
c. Cultural influences
a. Assessment
d. Emotional health
b. Diagnosis
c. Planning
2. When the patient is communicative with her friends
d. Diagnosis
with regard to his marital problems which facet of
health is
8. Which of the following is NOT true about the nursing
being applied here?
diagnosis?
a. Spiritual influences
a. It has a nursing focus
b. Environmental influences
b. It is based on real or potential health problems
c. Cultural influences
c. It determines the medical diagnosis of the patient
d. Social well-being
d. It sets the stage for the remainder of the care plan

3. When the patient is identifying a solution to financial

9. Which of the following best describes problem-
problems in order to be rid of her financial stresses the
oriented assessment?
patient is demonstrating which of the following facets
a. The nurse focuses on gathering information about the
of health?
patient’s problem.
a. Emotional health
b. This allows the nurse to obtain a full picture of the
b. Developmental level
patient’s health status and current problems.
c. Physical health
c. The nurse here gathers data to evaluate the
d. Social well-being
outcomes of the plan of care
d. The data collection is focused on the patient’s
4. This is the ability of the nurse to extrapolate the
emergent problem
findings, prioritize them, and finally formulate and
implement the
10. Which of the following best describes follow-up
plan of care is the overall goal
history?
a. Health history
a. The nurse focuses on gathering information about the
b. Health assessment
patient’s problem.
c. Physical examination
b. This allows the nurse to obtain a full picture of the
d. Nursing process
patient’s health status and current problems.
c. The nurse here gathers data to evaluate the
5. Which of the following is NOT true about the
outcomes of the plan of care
assessment phase of the nursing process?
d. The data collection is focused on the patient’s
a. Subjective and objective data are gathered
emergent problem
b. It ends when doing the nursing diagnosis
c. It is the first step of the nursing process
SAS 2
d. It continues throughout the entire patient encounter
1. Which of the following is an example of a subjective
data?
6. This is the phase of the nursing process where the
a. Cyanosis
nurse determines whether the goals made for the
b. A blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
patient have
c. Blurred vision
been attained
d. Heart rate of 89 beats per minute
a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Planning
2. This phase of the interview is where the nurse invites d. Immunization status
the patient’s story, identify and respond to emotional
cues, 9. This helps amplify the patient’s chief complaint and
and expand and clarify the patient’s story describes how each symptom developed
a. Pre-interview a. Identifying data
b. Introduction b. History of present illness
c. Working c. Health patterns
d. Termination d. Past history

3. The primary goal in the introduction phase of the 10. This outlines or diagrams age and health, or age and
interview is for the nurse to cause of death, of siblings, parents, grandparents
a. Obtain subjective data a. History of present illness
b. Make the patient comfortable b. Past history
c. Greet the patient c. Family history
d. Establish rapport d. Health patterns

4. The primary source of health history would be from SAS 3

which of the following? 1. The patient information in the health history format
a. Parents should have which of the following EXCEPT
b. Patient a. Written form
c. Spouse b. Electronic form
d. Siblings c. Interview form
d. Verbal form
5. Which of the following is an example of an objective
information? 2. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the
a. Dizziness working phase of interview?
b. Headache a. Identify and respond to emotional cues
c. Skin warm to touch b. Review patient record
d. Itchiness c. Expand and clarify the patient’s story
d. Generate and test diagnostic hypotheses
6. Which of the following component of the adult health
history lists childhood illnesses? 3. The nurse tells the patient, “So you will take the
a. Family history drugs according to the schedule that we have discussed,
b. Past history monitor
c. History of present illness your blood pressure daily and you will have a follow-up
d. Review of systems appointment with your doctor after a week.” This is
done
7. This is a component of the adult health history that during which phase of the interview
documents personal/social history a. Pre-interview phase
a. Health patterns b. Working phase
b. Chief complaint(s) c. Orientation phase
c. Identifying data d. Termination phase
d. History of present illness
4. When providing guided questioning the nurse must
8. Which of the following is NOT an identifying data in a. Move from open-ended to focused questions
the adult health history? b. Use questioning that elicits a graded response
a. Age c. Ask a series of questions, one at a time
b. Date of birth d. All of the above
c. Gender
5. Which of the following is NOT providing an empathic SAS 4
response from the nurse to the patient? 1. Snellen chart – used to measure visual acuity by
a. “That must really be upsetting.” determining the level of visual detail that
b. Offering a tissue to a crying patient a person can discriminate.
c. “That happened to me to when I was younger.”
d. Gently placing your hand on the patient’s arm. 2. Stadiometer – a measuring tool for the height of the
human body, this tool is generally
6. When dealing with silent patients the nurse must ask used for adults and children.
questions such as
a. “Do you want me to stay with you for a while?” 3. Otoscope – allows the physician to view the ear canal
b. “Is something troubling you?” and tympanic membrane. The
c. “You seem very quiet. Have I done something to otoscope has a magnifying lens, light and cone-shaped
upset you?” insert to examine the inner ear.
d. “Do you feel sad?”
4. Ophthalmoscope – tool used to examine the interior
7. This tool would be very helpful in dealing with a structures of the eye. The
confused patient ophthalmoscope has a light, magnifying lens and
a. Mental status examination opening for the physician to view the
b. PQRST eye.
c. Interview form
d. Glasgow-Coma Scale 5. Sphygmomanometer – physical examination tool
used to measure a patient’s blood
8. When the nurse is dealing with a talkative patient the pressure. The sphygmomanometer is composed of an
nurse must employ which of the following therapeutic inflatable rubber cuff, a bulb that
communication techniques? inflates and releases pressure from the cuff, and use of
a. Focusing a stethoscope to listen to arterial
b. Listening blood flow in the patient.
c. Providing general leads
d. Clarifying 6. Stethoscope – tool used for listening to body sounds
including the sounds of the heart,
9. Which of the following therapeutic communication lungs and intestines. It is also used while taking blood
techniques is most appropriate for a patient who is pressure.
crying?
a. “Please stop crying, it will only further upset you.” 7. Reflex Hammer – tool used to test neurologic
b. “I have suffered the same thing you have experienced reflexes. The head of the instrument is used
and it is traumatizing.” to test reflexes by striking the tendons of the ankle,
c. “I am glad you were able to express your feelings.” knee, wrist and elbow.
d. “Don’t cry, all of these things that has happened to
you is part of life.” 8. Pulse Oximeter – a noninvasive and painless test that
measures your oxygen saturation
10. When dealing with an angry or disruptive patient in level, or the oxygen levels in your blood. It can rapidly
the ward the nurse must do the following EXCEPT detect even small changes in how
a. Allow them to express their angry without getting efficiently oxygen is being carried to the extremities
angry in return furthest from the heart, including the
b. Alert the security staff legs and the arms.
c. Stay calm, appear accepting, and avoid being
confrontational in return. 9. Scale – to check the body weight.
d. Try to pat the patient’s back
10. Tuning Forks – tool used to test a patient’s hearing. nurse must do which of the following?
The physician strikes the prongs a. Explain the procedure to the client
causing them to vibrate and produce a humming sound. b. Tell the mother to hold the child while BP
Then the prongs are placed next measurement will be done
to the patient’s skull, near the ear, with the patient c. Taking the blood pressure on a stuffed animal or doll
describing what they heard. The will show the child that the procedure is not
physician may order additional tests depending on the to be feared.
results of this hearing test. d. Inform the child that blood pressure measurement is
not painful.
SAS 5
1. Obtaining information about the child’s illness is 7. When measuring the pediatric client’s chest
necessary for physical examination. The parent or a circumference with a tape measure, the nurse must do
guardian will be a great source of information for which which
of the following pediatric clients? of the following?
a. Adolescent a. Measure at the nipple line
b. Infant b. Measure below the nipple line
c. School-age child c. Measure above the nipple line
d. None of the above d. Any of the above

2. Which of the following is important for the nurse to 8. Which of the following is true with regard to the
do when interviewing the preschool and the older infant or younger children’s abdomen?
children EXCEPT? a. The abdomen is flat
a. Be age appropriate b. The abdomen may protrude slightly
b. Establish rapport c. The abdomen appears globular
c. Interview the parent instead d. The abdomen is retracted
d. Listen to the child’s comments
9. Which of the following is assessed on the infant’s
3. The best way to measure the height of an infant head in order to assess for further dehydration?
patient is by a. Scalp
a. Letting the infant sit b. Cheeks
b. Place the infant flat on an examination table c. Fontanels
c. Allow the infant to stand and be held by the guardian d. Temples
d. Any of the above
10. Which of the following is the characteristic of the
4. The head circumference is measured routinely infant’s spine?
especially for children aged a. Rounded and flexible
a. 2 to 3 years old b. Straight and rigid
b. 9 to 12 years old c. Rounded and rigid
c. 4 to 8 years old d. Straight and flexible
d. 13 to 18 years old
SAS 1-5
5. The normal pulse rate for a neonate is at A client comes into the clinic with the
a. 50-60 beats per minute
complaint of swollen ankles. The nurse will
b. 60-80 beats per minute
c. 80-100 beats per minute utilize which assessment technique to find out
d. 100 to 180 beats per minute more information about this complaint? *
1/1
6. In order to allay the fears of a younger pediatric
patient in the measurement of their blood pressure the a. Percussion
b. Auscultation
c. Inspection a. Focusing
d. Palpation b. Listening
c. Providing general leads
Which of the following therapeutic d. Clarifying
communication techniques is most appropriate Which of the following best describes
for a patient who is crying? * problem-oriented assessment? *
1/1
1/1
a. “Please stop crying, it will only further upset you.”
a. The nurse focuses on gathering information about
b. “I have suffered the same thing you have
the patient’s problem.
experienced and it is traumatizing.”
b. This allows the nurse to obtain a full picture of the
c. “I am glad you were able to express your
patient’s health status and current problems.
feelings.”
c. The nurse here gathers data to evaluate the
d. “Don’t cry, all of these things that has happened
outcomes of the plan of care
to you is part of life.”
d. The data collection is focused on the patient’s
emergent problem
A client complaining of a sore elbow is being
assessed by the nurse. Which of the following Which of the following component of the adult
would help the nurse assess this client? * health history lists childhood illnesses? *
1/1 1/1
a. Penlight a. Family history
b. Skin-fold calipers b. Past history
c. Reflex hammer c. History of present illness
d. Goniometer d. Review of systems

Which of the following is assessed on the When dealing with silent patients the nurse
infant’s head in order to assess for further must ask questions such as *
dehydration? * 1/1
1/1 a. “Do you want me to stay with you for a while?”
b. “Is something troubling you?”
a. Scalp
c. “You seem very quiet. Have I done something to
b. Cheeks
upset you?”
c. Fontanels
d. “Do you feel sad?”
d. Temples

When Mr. Espero is performing the eye This is a component of the adult health history
examinations, which piece of equipment does that documents personal/social history *
he use to inspect the eye structures? * 1/1

1/1 a. Health patterns

b. Chief complaint(s)
a. Ultrasonic stethoscope c. Identifying data
b. Otoscope d. History of present illness
c. Sphygmomanometer
d. Ophthalmoscope Which of the following is NOT an identifying
When the nurse is dealing with a talkative data in the adult health history? *
patient the nurse must employ which of the 1/1

following therapeutic communication a. Age

b. Date of birth
techniques? * c. Gender
1/1 d. Immunization status
When measuring the pediatric client’s chest This is the phase of the nursing process
circumference with a tape measure, the nurse where the nurse determines whether the goals
must do which of the following? * made for the patient have been attained *
1/1 1/1
a. Measure at the nipple line a. Nursing diagnosis
b. Measure below the nipple line b. Planning
c. Measure above the nipple line c. Implementation
d. Any of the above d. Evaluation

The phase of the nursing process where the In order to allay the fears of a younger
nurse establishes both the short-term and the pediatric patient in the measurement of their
long-term goals for the patient * blood pressure the nurse must do which of the
1/1 following? *
a. Assessment 1/1
b. Diagnosis
a. Explain the procedure to the client
c. Planning
b. Tell the mother to hold the child while BP
d. Diagnosis
measurement will be done
c. Taking the blood pressure on a stuffed animal or
This tool would be very helpful in dealing with doll will show the child that the procedure is not to
a confused patient * be feared.
d. Inform the child that blood pressure measurement
1/1 is not painful.
a. Mental status examination
b. PQRST When dealing with silent patients the nurse
c. Interview form must ask questions such as *
d. Glasgow-Coma Scale
1/1
Which of the following is assessed on the a. “Do you want me to stay with you for a while?”
infant’s head in order to assess for further b. “Is something troubling you?”
c. “You seem very quiet. Have I done something to
dehydration? * upset you?”
1/1 d. “Do you feel sad?”

a. Scalp When dealing with an angry or disruptive

b. Cheeks
c. Fontanels patient in the ward the nurse must do the
d. Temples following EXCEPT *
Which of the following therapeutic 1/1

communication techniques is most appropriate a. Allow them to express their angry without getting
angry in return
for a patient who is crying? * b. Alert the security staff
1/1 c. Stay calm, appear accepting, and avoid being
confrontational in return.
a. “Please stop crying, it will only further upset you.” d. Try to pat the patient’s back
b. “I have suffered the same thing you have
experienced and it is traumatizing.” When the nurse is dealing with a talkative
c. “I am glad you were able to express your
feelings.” patient the nurse must employ which of the
d. “Don’t cry, all of these things that has happened following therapeutic communication
to you is part of life.”
techniques? *
 d. It sets the stage for the remainder of the care plan
1/1
a. Focusing The nurse is preparing to use a stethoscope
b. Listening while assessing a client. The bell is going to
c. Providing general leads
d. Clarifying be placed on the client. Which of the following
would the nurse assess with the bell of the
Which of the following is the characteristic of
stethoscope? *
the infant’s spine? *
1/1
1/1
a. Heart murmur
a. Rounded and flexible b. Normal heart sounds
b. Straight and rigid c. Lung sounds
c. Rounded and rigid d. Abdominal sounds
d. Straight and flexible
When dealing with an angry or disruptive
The nurse is going to assess a client's blood
patient in the ward the nurse must do the
pressure. To do this, the nurse will need to
following EXCEPT *
have *
1/1
1/1
a. Allow them to express their angry without getting
a. A tongue blade and a tuning fork angry in return
b. A flashlight and gloves b. Alert the security staff
c. A stethoscope and a sphygmomanometer c. Stay calm, appear accepting, and avoid being
d. A stethoscope and a thermometer confrontational in return.
d. Try to pat the patient’s back
This helps amplify the patient’s chief complaint
and describes how each symptom This tool would be very helpful in dealing with
developed * a confused patient. *
1/1 1/1

a. Identifying data a. Mental status examination

b. History of present illness b. PQRST
c. Health patterns c. Interview form
d. Past history d. Glasgow-Coma Scale

Which of the following is NOT true about the This outlines or diagrams age and health, or
assessment phase of the nursing process? * age and cause of death, of siblings, parents,
1/1
grandparents *
1/1
a. Subjective and objective data are gathered
b. It ends when doing the nursing diagnosis a. History of present illness
c. It is the first step of the nursing process b. Past history
d. It continues throughout the entire patient c. Family history
encounter d. Health patterns

Which of the following is NOT true about the SAS 6

nursing diagnosis? * 1. This device is used to measure the patient’s blood
1/1 pressure
a. Goniometer
a. It has a nursing focus b. Stadiometer
b. It is based on real or potential health problems
c. It determines the medical diagnosis of the patient c. Pulse oximeter
d. Sphygmomanometer d. Axillary temperatures are lower than oral
temperatures
2. When the patient has a blood pressure of more than
160/110, the patient is categorized as having 9. If a nurse has detected a fruity odor in the breath of
a. Prehypertension the patient, the nurse must suspect for
b. Stage 1 hypertension a. Stroke
c. Stage 2 hypertension b. Hypertension
d. Stage 3 hypertension c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Pneumonia
3. This type of breathing which has gradual increases
and decreases of breathing with periods of apnea 10. When the nurse observes for pallor and cyanosis on
a. Ataxic breathing the patient’s appearance, she should note this under
b. Obstructive breathing a. Facial expression
c. Hypopnea b. Skin color and obvious lesions
d. Cheyne-Stokes breathing c. Dress, grooming, and personal hygiene
d. Level of consciousness
4. Deep breathing due to metabolic acidosis is known as
a. Ataxic breathing SAS 7
b. Cheyne-stokes breathing 1. Which of the following statements is true about
c. Kussmaul breathing global migration in relation to health care?
d. Tachypnea a. Patient care has been easier since most nurses can
adapt to the different needs of patients.
5. Pain resulting to direct injury to the peripheral or b. There is globalization of health care therefore
central nervous system is known as creating more ease of work for health care workers.
a. nociceptive pain c. There is an increased challenge of providing health
b. neuropathic pain care to patients with health care beliefs, practices and
c. psychogenic pain needs different from the health care provider.
d. idiopathic pain d. Health care workers nowadays are comfortable with
the different cultures around the world.
6. The apex of the heart is found at the
a. 2nd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line 2. A patient is taking about the shared values that they
b. 3rd intercostal space, mid-clavicular line have in the Middle East such as strictly conforming to
c. 5th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line their
d. 7th intercostal space, mid-clavicular line religious practices. The patient here is exhibiting which
of the following?
7. Which of the following is observed when detecting a. Culture
the respirations of the patient EXCEPT? b. Ethnicity
a. Rate c. Race
b. Rhythm d. Beliefs
c. Sigh
d. Depth 3. The nurse has noted the skin color of the patient on
the patient’s chart as part of the assessment. The nurse
8. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the here
measurement of the body temperature? is documenting the patient’s
a. Oral temperature is usually quoted at 37oC a. Culture
b. Temperature may rise in the late afternoon or b. Ethnicity
evening c. Race
c. Oral temperatures are higher than rectal d. Values
temperatures
4. In order for a nurse to acquire certain skills in order a. Listen and let the patient do the talking
to provide the appropriate nursing care for people of b. Offer valid solutions
different c. Advise the patient that his/her condition is God’s will
cultures, the nurse must first develop d. Refer the patient to their family
a. Cultural competence
b. Cultural awareness 10. Which of the following questions is not under
c. Cultural desire sources of hope and strength in Stoll’s guidelines for
d. Cultural humility spiritual
assessment?
5. Which of the following self-reflection answers by the a. “Who is the most important person to you?”
nurse would pose a problem later on in rendering b. “To whom do you turn when you need help? Are they
health care available?
to a patient who has a different culture than hers? c. “What is your source of strength and hope?”
a. “I am aware of my biases, prejudices, stereotypes to d. “Is religion or God significant to you? If yes, can you
other people.” describe how?”
b. “I feel comfortable interacting with people from
different cultures.” SAS 8
c. “I learn who to seek experiences with other cultures.” 1. The patient has told you, “I want to play basketball.
d. “I sometimes have issues with the cultural beliefs of Do you know that my brother loves to play it? However,
some patients.” my
brother is in Europe right now. One place in Europe I
6. Nurses should learn about their own strengths and want to visit would be Greece. The beaches there are
weaknesses by doing which of the following? nice. I
a. Self-awareness have read things about Greek mythology as well…” This
b. Respectful communication is an example of
c. Collaborative partnerships a. Looseness of association
d. Counter transference b. Flight of ideas
c. Clang association
7. Which of the following is NOT true about respectful d. Word salad
communication?
a. Let your patients be the experts on their own unique 2. When the patient has no variation in his or her affect
cultural perspectives the nurse must note this as
b. Maintain an open, respectful, and inquiring attitude. a. Labile affect
c. Try to change the patient’s unconventional cultural b. Inappropriate affect
practice c. Blunted affect
d. Always be ready to acknowledge your areas of d. Flat affect
ignorance or bias
3. The patient talking to you says, “I want to go to
8. When the patient diagnosed with stage 4 cancer cries Baguio, because it’s hot here in the plains yo! There is
out, “Why? Why is God punishing me like this?!” The always one
patient thing I am always missing from there. That why I want
here is demonstrating to my friends there and hangout everywhere.” This type
a. Emotional distress of
b. Physiological distress thought processing must be noted by the nurse as
c. Spiritual distress a. Neologism
d. Psychological distress b. Clang association
c. Verbigeration
9. When the patient is suffering from spiritual distress d. Perseveration
the role of the nurse is to
4. When the patient says that he is the current what krizzits are and the patient was pointing at his
president of the Philippines and vows to get rid of China soiled clothes. This is an example of
from the a. Clang association
Spratlys, he is demonstrating which of the following b. Tangentiality
types of delusions? c. Neologism
a. Religious delusion d. Verbigeration
b. Delusion of persecution
c. Delusion of grandeur 10. The nurse has asked the patient, “What do you
d. Thought insertion recall about your 10th birthday?” The nurse here is
testing the
5. The patient saw two nurses who were quietly talking patient’s
to each other at the nurses’ station. The patient then a. Memory
said, b. Orientation
“You two! I know that you are talking about me.” This c. Comprehension
type of delusion is known as d. Consciousness
a. Jealous delusion
b. Delusion of persecution SAS 9
c. Thought insertion 1. What type of sweat glands are present in the armpits
d. Ideas of reference and groin area?
a. Eccrine
6. The most common type of hallucination seen in b. Apocrine
schizophrenic patients is c. Sebaceous
a. Auditory d. None of the above
b. Tactile
c. Visual 2. These cells are responsible for the skin color of a
d. Olfactory person
a. Epithelial cells
7. When the nurse is asking, “What would you do if you b. Melanocytes
are on the 4th floor of a building and suddenly a fire c. Dermatocytes
broke d. Eponychium
out?” The nurse here is testing the patient’s
a. Insight 3. Which of the following is NOT a function of the
b. Reliability integumentary system?
c. Judgment a. It regulates the body temperature
d. Impulsivity b. It serves as a protection for the internal organs
c. Excrete waste materials
8. The nurse is asking the patient, “Do you have d. Provide posture and structure to the body
anything that extremely frightens you whenever you
see that 4. The layer of the skin that consists of adipose tissue
thing?” The nurse here is determining the patient’s would be the
a. Orientation a. Epidermis
b. Anxiety b. Dermis
c. Insight c. Subcutaneous
d. Phobia d. Any of the above

9. A patient has told the nurse, “Nurse my krizzits are 5. Which of the following mechanisms that the skin
dirty. You need to wash them.” The nurse asked the does in order to regulate the body temperature? Select
patient all that
apply
a. Release of catecholamines body. The patient later on was diagnosed to have
b. Vasodilation chicken pox. The type of skin lesion seen in chicken pox
c. Release of pyrogens is
d. Vasoconstriction a. Bulla
b. Vesicle
6. Excessive intake of yellow or orange colored fruits c. Pustules
and vegetables can lead to which of the following? d. Burrow
a. Pallor
b. Carotenemia 2. These are highly pigmented brown and flat lesions on
c. Jaundice the skin of a person. They are more commonly known
d. Redness as
birth marks.
7. Loss of oxygen from the skin can lead to which of the a. Spider angiomas
following skin colors? b. Vitiligo
a. Carotenemia c. Hemangioma
b. Jaundice d. Café-au-lait spots
c. Flushing
d. Cyanosis 3. A person who has atopic dermatitis constantly
scratches the affected skin leading to the formation of a
8. Which of the following organs will the nurse suspect thick and
to have a disorder if she has observed the patient with a leathery skin called
jaundiced skin? a. Scale
a. Kidneys b. Crust
b. Stomach c. Lichenification
c. Liver d. Scars
d. Pancreas
4. This stage of pressure ulcer has full-thickness skin
9. Tinea versicolor is caused by an infection of which of loss, with damage to or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue
the following microorganisms? that
a. Fungi may extend to, but not through, underlying muscle
b. Protozoan a. Stage I
c. Bacteria b. Stage II
d. Virus c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
10. The nurse is tasked to assess the degree of
dehydration of a patient who is suffering from acute 5. In the ABCDEs of melanomas, the nurse must know
gastroenteritis. that D – diameter of the melanoma should be
She is going to assess the patient’s skin turgor. The best a. < 6 mm
site for the assessment of skin turgor would be at the b. < 3 mm
a. Elbow c. > 6 mm
b. Forearm d. > 10 mm
c. Abdomen
d. Thigh 6. The nurse is assessing a patient and saw that the skin
of the patient has grouped lesions of herpes simplex.
SAS 10 The
1. A nurse is assessing a patient and has observed that patient is diagnosed to have shingles. The nurse should
the patient has skin elevations that are fluid-filled all note this on her chart as which of the following
over his according
to patterns and shapes?
a. Linear
1/1
b. Geographic
c. Clustered a. Epithelial cells
d. Serpiginous b. Melanocytes
c. Dermatocytes
d. Eponychium
7. Which of the following skin conditions can cause the
patient to have burrows on the skin? A patient is taking about the shared values
a. Ringworm
that they have in the Middle East such as
b. Jock itch
c. Athlete’s foot strictly conforming to their religious practices.
d. Scabies The patient here is exhibiting which of the
following? *
8. Animal scratches such as that from cats or dogs can
1/1
cause which of the following on the skin of patients?
a. Erosion a. Culture
b. Excoriation b. Ethnicity
c. Fissure c. Race
d. Beliefs
d. Ulcers
What type of sweat glands are present in the
9. This is the type of fingernails seen in patients with
Raynaud’s disease? armpits and groin area? *
a. Beau lines 1/1
b. Mees lines
a. Eccrine
c. White spots b. Apocrine
d. Clubbing of the fingers c. Sebaceous
d. None of the above
10. A nurse is assessing the fingers of a patient and she
notes that the patient has clubbing of the fingers. This The patient saw two nurses who were quietly
condition is associated to chronic talking to each other at the nurses’ station.
a. Alcoholism The patient then said, “You two! I know that
b. Smoking
you are talking about me.” This type of
c. Dehydration
d. Hypoxia delusion is known as *
1/1
SAS 6-10
a. Jealous delusion
In order for a nurse to acquire certain skills in b. Delusion of persecution
order to provide the appropriate nursing care c. Thought insertion
d. Ideas of reference
for people of different cultures, the nurse
must first develop * When the patient has no variation in his or her
1/1 affect the nurse must note this as *

a. Cultural competence 1/1

b. Cultural awareness a. Labile affect
c. Cultural desire b. Inappropriate affect
d. Cultural humility c. Blunted affect
d. Flat affect
These cells are responsible for the skin color
of a person * A nurse is assessing a patient and has
observed that the patient has skin elevations
that are fluid-filled all over his body. The a. Release of catecholamines
b. Vasodilation & Vasoconstriction
patient later on was diagnosed to have c. Release of pyrogens
chicken pox. The type of skin lesion seen in d. Vaporization

chicken pox is * Pain resulting to direct injury to the peripheral

1/1 or central nervous system is known as *
a. Bulla 1/1
b. Vesicle
c. Pustules a. nociceptive pain
d. Burrow b. neuropathic pain
c. psychogenic pain
When counting the pulse rate, you may use the d. idiopathic pain

pulse at what points? * Which of the following self-reflection answers

1/1 by the nurse would pose a problem later on in
a. The carotid artery rendering health care to a patient who has a
b. The radial artery
different culture than hers? *
c. The apical area of the heart via the chest using a
stethoscope 1/1
d. All of the above
a. “I am aware of my biases, prejudices, stereotypes
23. A person who has atopic dermatitis to other people.”
b. “I feel comfortable interacting with people from
constantly scratches the affected skin leading different cultures.”
to the formation of a thick and leathery skin c. “I learn who to seek experiences with other
cultures.”
called * d. “I sometimes have issues with the cultural beliefs
1/1 of some patients.”

a. Scale When the patient says that he is the current

b. Crust
c. Lichenification
president of the Philippines and vows to get
d. Scars rid of China from the Spratlys, he is
demonstrating which of the following types of
24. This stage of pressure ulcer has full-
delusions? *
thickness skin loss, with damage to or
1/1
necrosis of subcutaneous tissue that may
extend to, but not through, underlying a. Religious delusion
b. Delusion of persecution
muscle * c. Delusion of grandeur
1/1 d. Thought insertion

a. Stage I The most accurate temperature is obtained

b. Stage II
c. Stage III
when taken *
d. Stage IV 1/1

Which of the following mechanisms that the a. Under the arm

b. Rectally
skin does in order to regulate the body c. At the groin
temperature? * d. In the ear

1/1
Deep breathing due to metabolic acidosis is The patient has told you, “I want to play
known as * basketball. Do you know that my brother loves
1/1 to play it? However, my brother is in Europe
a. Ataxic breathing right now. One place in Europe I want to visit
b. Cheyne-stokes breathing would be Greece. The beaches there are nice.
c. Kussmaul breathing
I have read things about Greek mythology as
d. Tachypnea
well…” This is an example of *
You can count respirations like * 1/1
1/1
a. Looseness of association
a. Taking blood pressure b. Flight of ideas
b. Counting pulse c. Clang association
c. Taking his temperature d. Word salad
d. None of the above
These are highly pigmented brown and flat
25. In the ABCDEs of melanomas, the nurse lesions on the skin of a person. They are more
must know that D – diameter of the commonly known as birth marks. *
melanoma should be *
1/1
1/1
a. Spider angiomas
a. < 6 mm b. Vitiligo
b. < 3 mm c. Hemangioma
c. > 6 mm d. Café-au-lait spots
d. > 10 mm
The nurse has noted the skin color of the
The taking of vital signs includes * patient on the patient’s chart as part of the
1/1 assessment. The nurse here is documenting
a. Temperature, blood pressure, respirations. and the patient’s *
pulse
1/1
b. blood pressure, respirations, pulse and ROM
c. temperature, I&O, respirations, pulse and blood a. Culture
pressure b. Ethnicity
d. All of the above c. Race
d. Values
Which of the following statements is true
about global migration in relation to health This device is used to measure the patient’s
care? * blood pressure *
1/1 1/1

a. Patient care has been easier since most nurses a. Goniometer

can adapt to the different needs of patients. b. Stadiometer
b. There is globalization of health care therefore c. Pulse oximeter
creating more ease of work for health care workers. d. Sphygmomanometer
c. There is an increased challenge of providing
health care to patients with health care beliefs, This type of breathing which has gradual
practices and needs different from the health care increases and decreases of breathing with
provider.
d. Health care workers nowadays are comfortable periods of apnea *
with the different cultures around the world. 1/1
a. Ataxic breathing a. The cuff is the correct size
b. Obstructive breathing b. John is lying on his left side
c. Hypopnea c. The cuff is positioned dependent to his elbow
d. Cheyne-Stokes breathing d. The cuff is pumped to at least 20 mm above his
baseline b/p
Which of the following is NOT a function of
the integumentary system? * SAS 11
1/1 1. What would be the cause of primary headaches?
a. Stroke
a. It regulates the body temperature b. Meningitis
b. It serves as a protection for the internal organs c. No identifiable underlying cause
c. Excrete waste materials d. Seizures
d. Provide posture and structure to the body
2. Which of the following types of headache has an aura
When the patient has a blood pressure of and is accompanied by seizures?
more than 160/110, the patient is categorized a. Tension-type headache
b. Cluster headache
as having * c. Metabolic headache
d. Migraine headache
1/1
a. Prehypertension 3. When palpating for the lymph nodes on the neck of a
b. Stage 1 hypertension patient, the nurse must use which of the following?
c. Stage 2 hypertension a. Thumb and index fingers
d. Stage 3 hypertension b. Index and middle fingers
c. Thumbs only
The layer of the skin that consists of adipose d. Index fingers only

tissue would be the * 4. Which of the following is the characteristic of the face
1/1 of a patient who has hypothyroidism?
a. Swelling of the face
a. Epidermis b. Emaciated face
b. Dermis c. Mask-like face
c. Subcutaneous d. Moon face
d. Any of the above
5. The nurse assessing the neck of the patient has
The patient talking to you says, “I want to go observed for an enlargement of the thyroid gland. The
nurse
to Baguio, because it’s hot here in the plains
must suspect for which of the following conditions?
yo! There is always one thing I am always a. Goiter
missing from there. That why I want to my b. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Cushing syndrome
friends there and hangout everywhere.” This d. Addison’s disease
type of thought processing must be noted by
6. Which of the following signs is not seen in a patient
the nurse as * who has hyperthyroidism?
1/1 a. Palpitations
b. Frequent bowel movements
a. Neologism c. Periorbital puffiness
b. Clang association d. Exophthalmos
c. Verbigeration
d. Perseveration 7. Which of the following must be included in the
teaching to prevent motor vehicular head injuries?
When taking blood pressure, you should make a. Always use the seatbelt
certain that * b. Wear a helmet when riding motorcycles, all-terrain
vehicles, motorized scooters, bicycles, horses or
1/1 snowmobiles.
c. Small children should sit in the back seat especially if
the car has a passenger airbag 5. Excessive tearing of the eyes can be commonly
d. All of the above caused by which of the following?
a. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction
8. In order to decrease the likelihood of falls, the nurse b. Retinal detachment
must teach the following precautions EXCEPT c. Cataract
a. Install safety features in the home such as grab bars d. Presbyopia
in the bathroom and nonslip mats in the bathtub.
b. Wear nonslip, well-fitting shoes. 6. A nurse is assessing a patient who has Bell’s Palsy
c. Allow babies to use walkers. has observed for the drooping of the eyelid of the
d. Install window guards. affected
side. The nurse must note this as
9. When assessing for the lymph nodes of the head, the a. Ectropion
very last lymph node that the nurse must palpate would b. Entropion
be c. Ptosis
the d. Pterygium
a. Supraclavicular lymph nodes
b. Preauricular lymph nodes 7. When the nurse is assessing a 4-year old child, she
c. Submental lymph nodes has noticed that the child has an eye misalignment. She
d. Occipital lymph nodes should note this as
a. Strabismus
10. The characteristic face of a patient who has Cushing b. Amblyopia
syndrome would be c. Presbyopia
a. Emaciated d. Exophthalmos
b. Moon face
c. Puffy and reddish cheeks 8. When teaching a patient who is going to use contact
d. Reddish cheeks and cyanotic face all over lenses for the first time, the nurse must teach the patient
that
SAS 12 prior to the application of the contact lenses the patient
1. Which of the following structures of the eye regulates must
the amount of light entering the eye? a. Look at a bright light
a. Pupil b. Do handwashing
b. Iris c. Clean the contact lenses
c. Cornea d. Ask assistance from a family member in the
d. Lens application of the contact lenses

2. Which of the following vitamins is deficient in a patient 9. This is the fine rhythmic oscillations of the eyes
who is experiencing xerophthalmia? a. Amblyopia
a. Vitamin C b. Presbyopia
b. Vitamin K c. Nystagmus
c. Vitamin D d. Exophthalmos
d. Vitamin A
10. A patient who has hyperthyroidism can have which
3. A patient who can see objects that are near but is not of the following eye conditions?
able to see objects from afar has which of the following a. Ptosis
conditions? b. Exophthalmos
a. Hyperopia c. Ectropion
b. Presbycusis d. Entropion
c. Myopia
d. Astigmatism SAS 13
1. The labyrinth within the inner ear is responsible for
4. The patient can be declared legally blind if the patient which of the following?
has a visual acuity of a. Air conduction
a. 20/150 b. Bone conduction
b. 20/100 c. Equilibrium
c. 20/180 d. Hearing
d. 20/200
2. In conductive hearing loss the patient will most likely d. Hypothyroidism
have problems in which of the following ear structures?
a. Auricle 10. The patient with tumor growing on their larynx has
b. Tympanic membrane stated to the nurse that she has difficulty in swallowing.
c. Ossicles The
d. All of the above nurse must note this on her chart as
a. Polydipsia
3. Otitis media is common among children below 5 years b. Polyphagia
old since c. Dysphagia
a. Their immune system is not yet mature d. Odynophagia
b. The auditory canal is too short
c. Children often insert objects into their ears SAS 14
d. The eustachian tube is short and more horizontal 1. Nurse Megumi is taking care of a patient who has
pulmonary tuberculosis. During the inspection of the
4. When tinnitus is present together with hearing loss patient’s sputum, she has noticed some blood streaks on
and vertigo, this may suggest it. This is termed as
a. Conductive hearing loss a. Rhinitis
b. Sensorineural hearing loss b. Rhinorrhea
c. Meniere’s disease c. Hematemesis
d. Otosclerosis d. Hemoptysis

5. Which of the following causes of worsen symptoms of 2. During the history of present illness, a patient named
rhinorrhea due to excessive use of decongestants? Subaru is complaining of a dry cough for less than 3
a. Vasomotor rhinitis weeks. He is currently suspected for COVID-19. His
b. Rhinitis medicamentosa cough can be categorized as
c. Allergic rhinitis a. Acute cough
d. Hay fever b. Subacute cough
c. Chronic cough
6. Which of the following beverages can cause nasal d. None of the above
congestion in a patient if taken in excess?
a. Alcohol 3. Nurse Alice is currently auscultating a 4-year old
b. Coffee patient who is suffering from pneumonia. Upon
c. Milk auscultation through her stethoscope she has heard a
d. Carbonated drinks high-pitched inspiratory sound. She must document this
as
7. Fever, pharyngeal exudates, and anterior a. Wheezing
lymphadenopathy, especially when cough is not present b. Stridor
can suggest c. Crackles
an infection of which of the following microorganisms? d. Rhonchi
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Filterable virus
4. Nurse Ikumi is currently admitting a patient who is
c. Haemophilus influenzae
complaining of shortness of breath and cough. The
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
nurse has noticed that the patient’s chest is barrel-
shaped. According to the patient’s health history, he has
8. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause been a chronic smoker for the past 20 years and has
hoarseness? been smoking 2-3 packs of cigarettes per day. The
a. Smoking nurse must suspect for which of the following diseases?
b. Voice abuse a. Asthma
c. Increased intake of high-sodium foods b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
d. Tuberculosis c. Cystic fibrosis
d. COVID-1
9. The nurse has observed for a sore smooth tongue in a
patient while doing a physical examination. The nurse 5. Which of the following would best describe tactile
must suspect for fremitus?
a. Streptococcal infection a. These are popping sounds heard from the patient’s
b. Nutritional deficiencies chest wall
c. Gingivitis b. It is a harsh and high-pitched inspiratory sound
c. These are palpable vibrations transmitted through the structures
bronchopulmonary tree to the chest wall as the of the heart
patient is speaking a. Precordium
d. It is a high-pitched musical sound usually heard during b. Myocardium
expiration c. Endocardium
d. Pericardium
6. Nurse Hisako is assessing a patient with asthma.
Which of the following breath sounds will she expect to 3. Which of the following statements is true about the
hear from this patient? point of maximal impulse (PMI)?
a. Stridor a. It is found behind the right ventricle and to the left,
b. Wheezing outlined below in black, forms the left margin of the
c. Rhonchi heart.
d. Vesicular b. This is located at the left border of the heart and is
found in the 4th intercostal space 7-9 cm lateral to the
7. What type of cardiac disease does the patient have if midsternal line.
the patient has the presence of crackles in the lung area c. Located at the right and left 2nd intercostal space next
upon auscultation of the nurse? to the sternum.
a. Atherosclerosis d. It is found between the 2nd intercostal space and the
b. Right-sided heart failure 5th intercostal space.
c. Aneurysm ANSWER: This is located at the left border of the heart
d. Left-sided heart failure and is found in the 5th intercostal space 7-9 cm lateral to
the midsternal line.
8. This type of deformity of the thorax shows that the
sternum is displaced anteriorly, increasing the 4. Which of the following layers of the heart contains
anteroposterior diameter. The costal cartilages adjacent cardiac muscle?
to the protruding sternum are depressed. a. Pericardium
a. Funnel chest b. Precordium
b. Flail chest c. Myocardium
c. Pigeon chest d. Endocardium
d. Barrel chest
5. How much is the normal peak pressure of systole?
9. When Nurse Ryoko is percussing the patient’s lungs. a. 70 mmHg
A normal percussion note that the nurse must percuss b. 80 mmHg
must be c. 100 mmHg
a. Dull d. 120 mmHg
b. Hyperresonant
c. Flat 6. A nursing student is asking her instructor about the
d. Resonant definition of the stroke volume. The nursing instructor is
correct
10. Nurse Satoshi has read on the patient’s chart that when she says which of the following definitions?
the patient has pleural effusion. Which of the following is a. It is the amount of blood ejected by the ventricle with
true with regard to this condition? each heartbeat.
a. This is the inflammation of the pleurae b. This is the difference between the systolic and
b. This is the air-trapping at the alveoli diastolic blood pressure.
c. This is fluid accumulating in the pleural space c. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in a minute.
d. This is also known as pulmonary edema d. The total number of heart beats in a minute.

SAS 15 7. Where can you find the sinoatrial node on the heart?
1. Which of the following is NOT a main function of the a. At the atrial septum
cardiovascular system? b. At the ventricles
a. Delivering oxygen and nutrients to cells c. At the ventricular septum
b. Removing waste products d. At the right atrium
c. Maintaining perfusion to the organs and tissues
d. Regulate the blood glucose levels 8. Cardiac output is the product of (Select all that apply)
a. Heart rate
2. This is the area found on the exterior chest where the b. Pulse pressure
health worker examines in order to detect the underlying c. Myocardial contractions
d. Stroke volume d. The total number of heart beats in a minute.

9. What best describes a preload? Otitis media is common among children below
a. This is the degree of vascular resistance to ventricular
contraction
5 years old since *
b. Sources of resistance to left ventricular contraction 1/1
include the tone in the walls of the aorta and the
peripheral a. Their immune system is not yet mature
vascular tree. b. The auditory canal is too short
c. Refers to the load that stretches the cardiac muscle c. Children often insert objects into their ears
before contraction. d. The eustachian tube is short and more horizontal
d. The ability of the cardiac muscle, when given a load,
to contract or shorten. Nurse Alice is currently auscultating a 4-year
old patient who is suffering from pneumonia.
10. Which of the following equipment are used in
measuring the blood pressure? (Select all that apply) Upon auscultation through her stethoscope
a. Sphygmomanometer she has heard a high-pitched inspiratory
b. Stethoscope
c. Watch sound. She must document this as *
d. Ruler 1/1

SAS 11--15 a. Wheezing

b. Stridor
Cardiac output is the product of * c. Crackles
1/1 d. Rhonchi

a. Heart rate & Stroke volume What best describes a preload? *

b. Pulse pressure & Blood pressure
c. Myocardial & contractions 1/1
d. Stroke & volume a. This is the degree of vascular resistance to
ventricular contraction
Fever, pharyngeal exudates, and anterior b. Sources of resistance to left ventricular
lymphadenopathy, especially when cough is contraction include the tone in the walls of the aorta
and the peripheral vascular tree.
not present can suggest an infection of which c. Refers to the load that stretches the cardiac
of the following microorganisms? * muscle before contraction.
d. The ability of the cardiac muscle, when given a
1/1 load, to contract or shorten.
a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Filterable virus Which of the following causes of worsen
c. Haemophilus influenzae symptoms of rhinorrhea due to excessive use
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
of decongestants *
A nursing student is asking her instructor 1/1
about the definition of the stroke volume. The a. Vasomotor rhinitis
nursing instructor is correct when she says b. Rhinitis medicamentosa
c. Allergic rhinitis
which of the following definitions? *
d. Hay fever
1/1
Which of the following conditions does NOT
a. It is the amount of blood ejected by the ventricle
with each heartbeat. cause hoarseness? *
b. This is the difference between the systolic and 1/1
diastolic blood pressure.
c. The amount of blood pumped by the heart in a a. Smoking
minute. b. Voice abuse
c. Increased intake of high-sodium foods When the nurse is assessing a 4-year old child,
d. Tuberculosis
she has noticed that the child has an eye
Which of the following structures of the eye misalignment. She should note this as *
regulates the amount of light entering the 1/1
eye? *
a. Strabismus
1/1 b. Amblyopia
c. Presbyopia
a. Pupil d. Exophthalmos
b. Iris
c. Cornea What would be the cause of primary
d. Lens
headaches? *
Which of the following beverages can cause 1/1
nasal congestion in a patient if taken in
a. Stroke
excess? * b. Meningitis
c. No identifiable underlying cause
1/1
d. Seizures
a. Alcohol
b. Coffee The nurse assessing the neck of the patient
c. Milk has observed for an enlargement of the
d. Carbonated drinks
thyroid gland. The nurse must suspect for
When tinnitus is present together with hearing which of the following conditions? *
loss and vertigo, this may suggest * 1/1
1/1
a. Goiter
a. Conductive hearing loss b. Hyperparathyroidism
b. Sensorineural hearing loss c. Cushing syndrome
c. Meniere’s disease d. Addison’s disease
d. Otosclerosis
This is the fine rhythmic oscillations of the
Which of the following types of headache has eyes *
an aura and is accompanied by seizures? * 1/1
1/1 a. Amblyopia
a. Tension-type headache b. Presbyopia
b. Cluster headache c. Nystagmus
c. Metabolic headache d. Exophthalmos
d. Migraine headache
A patient who has hyperthyroidism can have
Where can you find the sinoatrial node on the which of the following eye conditions? *
heart? * 1/1
1/1
a. Ptosis
a. At the atrial septum b. Exophthalmos
b. At the ventricles c. Ectropion
c. At the ventricular septum d. Entropion
d. At the right atrium
When palpating for the lymph nodes on the
neck of a patient, the nurse must use which of
the following? *
 a. Swelling of the face
1/1
b. Emaciated face
a. Thumb and index fingers c. Mask-like face
b. Index and middle fingers d. Moon face
c. Thumbs only
d. Index fingers only Which of the following vitamins is deficient in
a patient who is experiencing
When Nurse Ryoko is percussing the patient’s
xerophthalmia? *
lungs. A normal percussion note that the
1/1
nurse must percuss must be *
a. Vitamin C
1/1
b. Vitamin K
a. Dull c. Vitamin D
b. Hyperresonant d. Vitamin A
c. Flat
d. Resonant Which of the following signs is not seen in a
patient who has hyperthyroidism? *
Nurse Satoshi has read on the patient’s chart
1/1
that the patient has pleural effusion. Which of
the following is true with regard to this a. Palpitations
b. Frequent bowel movements
condition? * c. Periorbital puffiness
1/1 d. Exophthalmos

a. This is the inflammation of the pleurae Which of the following equipment are used in
b. This is the air-trapping at the alveoli measuring the blood pressure? *
c. This is fluid accumulating in the pleural space
d. This is also known as pulmonary edema 1/1

Nurse Ikumi is currently admitting a patient a. Sphygmomanometer & Stethoscope

b. Stethoscope & Watch
who is complaining of shortness of breath and c. Watch & Ruler
cough. The nurse has noticed that the d. Ruler & Blade

patient’s chest is barrel-shaped. According to When teaching a patient who is going to use
the patient’s health history, he has been a contact lenses for the first time, the nurse
chronic smoker for the past 20 years and has must teach the patient that prior to the
been smoking 2-3 packs of cigarettes per day. application of the contact lenses the patient
The nurse must suspect for which of the must *
following diseases? *
1/1
1/1
a. Look at a bright light
a. Asthma b. Do handwashing
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. Clean the contact lenses
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Ask assistance from a family member in the
d. COVID-19 application of the contact lenses

Which of the following is the characteristic of How much is the normal peak pressure of
the face of a patient who has systole? *
hypothyroidism? * 1/1
1/1 a. 70 mmHg
b. 80 mmHg
c. 100 mmHg c. Try to change the patient’s unconventional
d. 120 mmHg cultural practice
d. Always be ready to acknowledge your areas of
Nurse Megumi is taking care of a patient who ignorance or bias
has pulmonary tuberculosis. During the
When the nurse is assessing a 4-year old child,
inspection of the patient’s sputum, she has
she has noticed that the child has an eye
noticed some blood streaks on it. This is
misalignment. She should note this as *
termed as *
1/1
1/1
a. Strabismus
a. Rhinitis b. Amblyopia
b. Rhinorrhea c. Presbyopia
c. Hematemesis d. Exophthalmos
d. Hemoptysis
Which of the following facets of health is
During the history of present illness, a patient
demonstrated if the patient feels very much
named Subaru is complaining of a dry cough
optimistic about the results of her
for less than 3 weeks. He is currently
pregnancy? *
suspected for COVID-19. His cough can be
1/1
categorized as *
a. Spiritual influences
1/1 b. Physical health
a. Acute cough c. Cultural influences
b. Subacute cough d. Emotional health
c. Chronic cough
d. None of the above The nurse has observed for a sore smooth
tongue in a patient while doing a physical
P1 SAS 1-15 examination. The nurse must suspect for *
Which of the following would best describe 1/1
tactile fremitus? * a. Streptococcal infection
b. Nutritional deficiencies
1/1
c. Gingivitis
a. These are popping sounds heard from the d. Hypothyroidism
patient’s chest wall
b. It is a harsh and high-pitched inspiratory sound The assessment of the parallel alignment of
c. These are palpable vibrations transmitted through the eye axes is done by shining a light towards
the bronchopulmonary tree to the chest wall as the
patient is speaking the person's eyes, and noting the symmetry or
d. It is a high-pitched musical sound usually heard asymmetry of the reflection on the corneas.
during expiration
this test is known as which of the following? *
Which of the following is NOT true about 1/1
respectful communication? * a. The Hirschberg Test
1/1 b. Corneal Assessment
c. Cover Test
a. Let your patients be the experts on their own d. Confrontation Test
unique cultural perspectives
b. Maintain an open, respectful, and inquiring This is a component of the adult health history
attitude.
that documents personal/social history *
 a. Memory
1/1
b. Orientation
a. Health patterns c. Comprehension
b. Chief complaint(s) d. Consciousness
c. Identifying data
d. History of present illness Where can you find the sinoatrial node on the
heart? *
The best way to measure the height of an
1/1
infant patient is by *
a. At the atrial septum
1/1
b. At the ventricles
a. Letting the infant sit c. At the ventricular septum
b. Place the infant flat on an examination table d. At the right atrium
c. Allow the infant to stand and be held by the
guardian Animal scratches such as that from cats or
d. Any of the above dogs can cause which of the following on the
Which of the following types of headache has skin of patients? *
an aura and is accompanied by seizures? * 1/1

1/1 a. Erosion
b. Excoriation
a. Tension-type headache c. Fissure
b. Cluster headache d. Ulcers
c. Metabolic headache
d. Migraine headache Excessive tearing of the eyes can be
Which of the following tests are direct commonly caused by which of the following? *
inspections of extraocular muscle function? * 1/1

1/1 a. Nasolacrimal duct obstruction

b. Retinal detachment
Confrontation Test c. Cataract
Corneal Light Reflex (Hirschberg Test) d. Presbyopia
Corneal Assessment
Cover Test Which of the following self-reflection answers
When dealing with an angry or disruptive by the nurse would pose a problem later on in
patient in the ward the nurse must do the rendering health care to a patient who has a
following EXCEPT * different culture than hers? *

1/1 1/1

a. Allow them to express their angry without getting a. “I am aware of my biases, prejudices, stereotypes
angry in return to other people.”
b. Alert the security staff b. “I feel comfortable interacting with people from
c. Stay calm, appear accepting, and avoid being different cultures.”
confrontational in return. c. “I learn who to seek experiences with other
d. Try to pat the patient’s back cultures.”
d. “I sometimes have issues with the cultural beliefs
The nurse has asked the patient, “What do you of some patients.”

recall about your 10th birthday?” The nurse The head circumference is measured routinely
here is testing the patient’s * especially for children aged *
1/1 1/1
a. 2 to 3 years old Which of the following therapeutic
b. 9 to 12 years old
c. 4 to 8 years old communication techniques is most
d. 13 to 18 years old appropriate for a patient who is crying? *
The labyrinth within the inner ear is 1/1
responsible for which of the following? * a. “Please stop crying, it will only further upset you.”
b. “I have suffered the same thing you have
1/1
experienced and it is traumatizing.”
a. Air conduction c. “I am glad you were able to express your
b. Bone conduction feelings.”
c. Equilibrium d. “Don’t cry, all of these things that has happened
d. Hearing to you is part of life.”

Nurse Ikumi is currently admitting a patient The patient information in the health history
who is complaining of shortness of breath and format should have which of the following
cough. The nurse has noticed that the EXCEPT *
patient’s chest is barrel-shaped. According to 1/1
the patient’s health history, he has been a a. Written form
chronic smoker for the past 20 years and has b. Electronic form
c. Interview form
been smoking 2-3 packs of cigarettes per day. d. Verbal form
The nurse must suspect for which of the
In order to allay the fears of a younger
following diseases? *
pediatric patient in the measurement of their
1/1
blood pressure the nurse must do which of the
a. Asthma
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
following? *
c. Cystic fibrosis 1/1
d. COVID-19
a. Explain the procedure to the client
Which of the following parameters is the b. Tell the mother to hold the child while BP
measurement will be done
major determinant of diastolic blood c. Taking the blood pressure on a stuffed animal or
pressure? * doll will show the child that the procedure is not to
be feared.
1/1 d. Inform the child that blood pressure
Baroreceptors measurement is not painful.
Cardiac output
Renal function When the nurse observes for pallor and
Vascular resistance cyanosis on the patient’s appearance, she
should note this under *
How many major regions are in the skin? *
1/1
1/1
a. Facial expression
1.
b. Skin color and obvious lesions
5
c. Dress, grooming, and personal hygiene
3
d. Level of consciousness
7
None of the above
Which of the following skin conditions can
cause the patient to have burrows on the
skin? *
1/1 1/1
a. Ringworm a. Release of catecholamines
b. Jock itch b. Vasodilation & Vasoconstriction
c. Athlete’s foot c. Release of pyrogens
d. Scabies d. Vasoconstriction

Lies superior to the dermis and are constantly When measuring the pediatric client’s chest
dividing and producing new cells. * circumference with a tape measure, the nurse
1/1 must do which of the following? *
Stratum lucidum 1/1
Stratum corneum
a. Measure at the nipple line
Stratum basale
b. Measure below the nipple line
Stratum factum
c. Measure above the nipple line
d. Any of the above
A patient has told the nurse, “Nurse my
krizzits are dirty. You need to wash them.” The This is the ability of the nurse to extrapolate
nurse asked the patient what krizzits are and the findings, prioritize them, and finally
the patient was pointing at his soiled clothes. formulate and implement the plan of care is
This is an example of * the overall goal *
1/1 1/1
a. Clang association a. Health history
b. Tangentiality b. Health assessment
c. Neologism c. Physical examination
d. Verbigeration d. Nursing process

A nurse is assessing a patient who has Bell’s If a nurse has detected a fruity odor in the
Palsy has observed for the drooping of the breath of the patient, the nurse must suspect
eyelid of the affected side. The nurse must for *
note this as * 1/1
1/1 a. Stroke
b. Hypertension
a. Ectropion
c. Diabetes mellitus
b. Entropion
d. Pneumonia
c. Ptosis
d. Pterygium
The following s/sx are associated with upper
Which cells of the epidermis produce fibrous motor neuron lesions EXCEPT ? *
protein keratin? * 1/1
1/1 Muscle spasticity, contractures
Absent abdominal reflex
Melanocytes
Muscle flaccidity, decreased tone
Langerhans' Cells
Hyperreflexia
Merkel cells
None of the above
What best describes a preload? *
Which of the following mechanisms that the 1/1
skin does in order to regulate the body a. This is the degree of vascular resistance to
temperature? * ventricular contraction
b. Sources of resistance to left ventricular a. Goniometer
contraction include the tone in the walls of the aorta b. Stadiometer
and the peripheral vascular tree. c. Pulse oximeter
c. Refers to the load that stretches the cardiac d. Sphygmomanometer
muscle before contraction.
d. The ability of the cardiac muscle, when given a The following are causes of palpable, tender,
load, to contract or shorten.
hard lymph nodes except ? *
Cardiac output is the product of * 1/1
1/1 Infection
Malignancies
a. Heart rate & Stroke volume
AIDS
b. Pulse pressure
TB
c. Myocardial contractions
Surgical procedures
d. Stroke volume
Of the following, which is not an anatomical
Which of the following is NOT true with regard
structure of the external portion of the ear? *
to the working phase of interview? *
1/1
1/1
Helix
a. Identify and respond to emotional cues
Antihelix
b. Review patient record
Tragus
c. Expand and clarify the patient’s story
Lobe
d. Generate and test diagnostic hypotheses
Annulus
When assessing the eyes OD...refers to which Which of the following is NOT an identifying
of the following? * data in the adult health history? *
1/1
1/1
Right
a. Age
Left
b. Date of birth
Both
c. Gender
Neither
d. Immunization status
The patient has told you, “I want to play The layer of the skin that consists of adipose
basketball. Do you know that my brother loves tissue would be the *
to play it? However, my brother is in Europe
1/1
right now. One place in Europe I want to visit
a. Epidermis
would be Greece. The beaches there are nice. b. Dermis
I have read things about Greek mythology as c. Subcutaneous
d. Any of the above
well…” This is an example of *
1/1 Deep breathing due to metabolic acidosis is
a. Looseness of association known as *
b. Flight of ideas 1/1
c. Clang association
d. Word salad a. Ataxic breathing
b. Cheyne-stokes breathing
This device is used to measure the patient’s c. Kussmaul breathing
d. Tachypnea
blood pressure *
1/1
Which of the following is true with regard to Upon auscultation through her stethoscope
the infant or younger children’s abdomen? * she has heard a high-pitched inspiratory
1/1 sound. She must document this as *
a. The abdomen is flat 1/1
b. The abdomen may protrude slightly
a. Wheezing
c. The abdomen appears globular
b. Stridor
d. The abdomen is retracted
c. Crackles
d. Rhonchi
A nurse is assessing the fingers of a patient
and she notes that the patient has clubbing of When palpating for the lymph nodes on the
the fingers. This condition is associated to neck of a patient, the nurse must use which of
chronic * the following? *
1/1 1/1
a. Alcoholism a. Thumb and index fingers
b. Smoking b. Index and middle fingers
c. Dehydration c. Thumbs only
d. Hypoxia d. Index fingers only

Which of the below tissues forms the What would be the cause of primary
exchange surfaces of the alveolus? * headaches? *
1/1 1/1
Strafied squamous epithelium a. Stroke
Ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium with b. Meningitis
goblet cells c. No identifiable underlying cause
Simple squamous epithelium d. Seizures
Hyaline cartilage
This type of breathing which has gradual
This is the type of fingernails seen in patients increases and decreases of breathing with
with Raynaud’s disease? * periods of apnea *
1/1
1/1
a. Beau lines
a. Ataxic breathing
b. Mees lines
b. Obstructive breathing
c. White spots
c. Hypopnea
d. Clubbing of the fingers
d. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Nurses should learn about their own strengths Which of the following is the characteristic of
and weaknesses by doing which of the the face of a patient who has
following? * hypothyroidism? *
1/1
1/1
a. Self-awareness
a. Swelling of the face
b. Respectful communication
b. Emaciated face
c. Collaborative partnerships
c. Mask-like face
d. Counter transference
d. Moon face
Nurse Alice is currently auscultating a 4-year The patient with tumor growing on their larynx
old patient who is suffering from pneumonia. has stated to the nurse that she has difficulty
in swallowing. The nurse must note this on her
3. Chest pain, especially on the left chest, signals which
chart as * of the following diseases?
a. Asthma
1/1
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
a. Polydipsia c. Hypertension
b. Polyphagia d. Coronary artery disease
c. Dysphagia
d. Odynophagia 4. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of
angina EXCEPT?
The normal pulse rate for a neonate is at * a. Jaw pain
b. Chest pain most especially at the precordium
1/1 c. Pain radiating to the right shoulder
d. Pain radiating to the left shoulder and arm
a. 50-60 beats per minute
b. 60-80 beats per minute
5. Nurse Zelda is assessing a patient admitted due to
c. 80-100 beats per minute
myocarditis. Upon assessment, Zelda has noticed that
d. 100 to 180 beats per minute the
patient is having difficulty of breathing while in supine
When the patient diagnosed with stage 4 position but feels relieved when placed in an upright
cancer cries out, “Why? Why is God punishing position.
Zelda must note this on her chart as
me like this?!” The patient here is a. Dyspnea
demonstrating * b. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
c. Bradypnea
1/1 d. Orthopnea
a. Emotional distress
b. Physiological distress 6. Edema of the hands and feet in a patient who has a
c. Spiritual distress cardiovascular problem is usually associated with a
d. Psychological distress diagnosis
of
Nurse Hisako is assessing a patient with a. Heart failure
b. Hypertension
asthma. Which of the following breath sounds c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
will she expect to hear from this patient? * d. Congenital heart disease

1/1 7. At which time would the nurse expect the patient to

a. Stridor have increased urination if the patient has nocturia
b. Wheezing a. Early morning
c. Rhonchi b. Late morning
c. At night
d. Vesicular
d. Afternoon

SAS 16 8. Why is fatigue felt by a patient who is suffering from a

1. Which of the following structures can best estimate heart disease?
the jugular venous pressure? a. There is decreased blood volume in the patient’s
a. Right external jugular vein cardiovascular system.
b. Right internal jugular vein b. The heart is not adequately supplying the body with
c. Left external jugular vein oxygen and nutrients.
d. Left internal jugular vein c. The kidneys receive a little amount of blood for
filtration of waste products.
d. The brain is not coordinated enough with the heart in
2. Which angle of the head of the bed is best to easily
sending electrical impulses.
visualize the internal jugular veins?
a. 30 degrees
9. Which of the following nutritional imbalances can
b. 60 degrees
cause edema?
c. 90 degrees
a. Hyperkalemia
d. 45 degrees
b. Hyponatremia b. Index and the middle finger
c. Hypoalbuminemia c. Thumb
d. Hypocalcemia d. Ball of her hand

10. A patient named Eren tells the nurse that he feels 7. Which of the following conditions can exhibit thrills in a
like his heart is fluttering inside his chest. The nurse patient?
must note a. Aortic stenosis
this on her chart as b. Patent ductus arteriosus
a. Tachycardia c. Ventricular septal defect
b. Palpitations d. All of the above
c. Dyspnea
d. Orthopnea 8. This is a condition where the internal organs from the
thoracic and abdominal cavity are found on the opposite
SAS 17 sides from what is normal
1. When assessing the amplitude and contour of the a. Dextrocardia
patient’s carotid pulse, Nurse Sakura must place the b. Situs inversus
patient in a c. Congenital heart disease
a. High Fowler’s position d. Cardiomegaly
b. Supine position
c. Head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees 9. The right ventricle of the heart can be palpated at the
d. Left Sim’s Position a. Left 2nd intercostal space
b. Right 2nd intercostal space
2. What will happen if the nurse has accidentally pressed c. Left 5th intercostal space
both carotid arteries at the same time while assessing d. Lower left sternal border in the subxiphoid area
the
patient’s neck? 10. When assessing the point of maximal impulse in a
a. Syncope female patient, we tell the patient to do which of the
b. Hypertension following?
c. Stroke a. Let the patient displace her left breast upward and
d. Myocardial infarction laterally
b. Let the patient displace her left breast downward and
3. What would be the characteristic of the pulse of a medially
patient who is suffering from aortic insufficiency? c. Let the patient displace her left breast upward
a. Slow, weak, and thready d. Let the patient displace her left breast laterally
b. Bounding pulse
c. Fast and bounding SAS 18
d. Weak and almost unpalpable 1. This type of murmur starts immediately after S2,
without a discernible gap, and then usually fades into
4. The hepatojugular reflux is elicited by applying silence
pressure on the patient’s abdomen. Which quadrant will before the next S1
the nurse a. Midsystolic murmur
apply pressure on? b. Early diastolic murmur
a. Right upper quadrant c. Late systolic murmur
b. Left upper quadrant d. Pansystolic murmur
c. Right lower quadrant
d. Left lower quadrant 2. Which of the following best describes a crescendo-
decrescendo murmur?
5. When detecting the point of maximal impulse on the a. It grows louder
patient, the nurse must stand at the b. It grows softer
a. Left side of the patient c. It first rises in intensity, then falls.
b. Right side of the patient d. It has the same intensity throughout.
c. Head of the patient
d. None of the above 3. A nurse has noted that the murmur has a loud with
palpable thrill. The nurse should grade this on her chart
6. When assessing for any palpable thrills over the heart as
of the patient, Nurse Ikumi must use her a. Grade 1
a. Fingerpads b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3 SAS 19
d. Grade 4 1. Intermittent claudication is described as
a. Pain felt in the hands during a cold weather
4. The shape of a midsystolic murmur is a b. Pain that radiates into the left shoulder and arm
a. Crescendo c. Pain or cramping in the legs during walking or exertion
b. Decrescendo d. Pain felt in the feet due to edema
c. Crescendo-decrescendo
d. Plateau 2. Edema, varicose veins, and aching in the legs are
symptoms of
5. When a patient has a constant blood pressure reading a. Arterial stasis
of 150/100, which of the following should be advised to b. Venous stasis
the c. Arterial pooling
patient? d. Atherosclerosis
a. No treatment required
b. Lifestyle modifications advised 3. Which of the following findings in the fingertips and
c. Lifestyle modifications and drug therapy toes is usually associated with Raynaud disease?
d. Lifestyle modifications, drug therapy with two-drug a. Pallor or cyanosis in the fingertips and toes
combination required b. Redness in the fingertips and toes
c. Clubbing of the fingers and toes
6. The following are modifiable risk factors for coronary d. Any of the above
heart disease EXCEPT
a. Diabetes 4. When asking the female patient about a possible risk
b. History of cardiovascular disease for developing blood clots, which of the following
c. Obesity medications that the patient has previous taken should
d. Physical inactivity the nurse pay attention to?
a. Aspirin
7. Which of the following habits can contribute to the b. Diphenhydramine
worsening hypertension of the patient? c. Oral contraceptives
a. Excessive use of seasonings on food d. Warfarin
b. Frequent aerobic exercises
c. Having an average body built 5. Which of the following type of jobs would increase the
d. Increased intake of potassium-rich foods risk for the development of a peripheral vascular disease
like varicosities?
8. The optimum body mass index that people should a. Truck driver
maintain is at b. Traffic enforcer
a. Below 18.5 c. Call center agent
b. 18.5 to 24.9 d. Any of the above
c. 25 to 29.9
d. 30 and above 6. Nurse Mikasa is assessing the patient radial pulse.
Upon placing her fingers, she has noted that the patient
9. Which of the following foods must the nurse has a
recommend to a patient who has hypertension? bounding pulse. The nurse should grade this pulse on
a. Carrots her chart as
b. Cucumbers a. 3+
c. Bananas b. 2+
d. Tomatoes c. 1+
d. 0
10. In order to do lifestyle medication on a patient who
has a risk for cardiovascular disease the nurse must 7. Nurse Sasha is assessing the patient bipedal edema.
teach Upon indenting her finger unto the edema she has
which of the following? measured for at least 6 mm depression that has lasted
a. Eating a balanced diet and avoidance of fast food and for more than a minute. Nurse Sasha must grade this on
processed food her chart as
b. Having regular aerobic exercises a. 1
c. Complete cessation of smoking b. 2+
d. All of the above c. 3+
d. 4+
 the
8. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the abdomen will this type of pain be felt at?
development of peripheral vascular disease? a. Hypogastric
a. Obesity b. Umbilical
b. Smoking c. Epigastric
c. Hyperlipidemia d. Right iliac
d. Malnutrition
5. In early acute appendicitis, the initial complaint of
9. Which of the following definitions best describes abdominal pain is usually felt at
paradoxical pulse? a. Right hypochondriac
a. There is a palpable decrease in the pulse’s amplitude b. Left hypochondriac
with quiet inspiration. c. Epigastric
b. This is caused by a normal beat alternating with a d. Umbilical
premature contraction
c. The pulse alternates in amplitude from beat to beat 6. A patient named Soma is currently experiencing pain
even though the rhythm is regular. at the costovertebral angle or the flank area. The nurse
d. An increased arterial pulse with a double systolic peak must know that the pain is originating from which of the
following organs?
10. When the patient has a pulsus alternans, the nurse a. Uterus
must suspect for which of the following in the patient? b. Kidneys
a. Aortic stenosis c. Stomach
b. Hyperthyroidism d. Liver
c. Pericardial tamponade
d. Left ventricular failure 7. The nurse must ask which following questions when
the patient is experiencing abdominal pain?
SAS 20 a. “Where does the pain start?”
1. A patient being admitted is complaining of right upper b. “Does it radiate or travel anywhere?”
quadrant pain. Upon ultrasonography, the physician has c. “Does the pain have an aching, burning, or gnawing
diagnosed the patient to have cholecystitis. Which of the quality?”
following best describes this disease? d. All of the above
a. Inflammation of the liver
b. Inflammation of the pancreas 8. Which of the following microorganisms can cause the
c. Inflammation of the stomach patient to suffer from peptic ulcer disease?
d. Inflammation of the gallbladder a. Escherichia coli
b. Helicobacter pylori
2. Nurse Mito is admitting a patient who has right lower c. Staphylococcus aureus
quadrant pain of the abdomen. Upon palpation of the d. Streptococcus pyogenes
right
lower quadrant, the nurse has observed for rebound 9. Which of the following diseases does NOT cause the
tenderness. This may be an indication of which of the patient to have chronic upper abdominal pain?
following conditions? a. Dyspepsia
a. Appendicitis b. Peptic ulcer disease
b. Pancreatitis c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
c. Gastritis d. Acute cholecystitis
d. Gastroenteritis
10. Which of the following foods can aggravate the
3. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to occurrence of heartburn?
visceral pain? a. Toast
a. It originates from inflammation in the parietal b. Coffee
peritoneum c. Rice
b. It occurs when hollow abdominal organs such as the d. Apple
intestine contract unusually or forcefully
c. It may be difficult to localize SAS 16-20
d. It is typically palpable near the midline
Which of the following definitions best
4. A patient named Erina is experiencing pain from the describes paradoxical pulse? *
stomach brought about by hyperacidity. Which region of
1/1 Which of the following are signs and
a. There is a palpable decrease in the pulse’s symptoms of angina EXCEPT? *
amplitude with quiet inspiration. 1/1
b. This is caused by a normal beat alternating with a
premature contraction a. Jaw pain
c. The pulse alternates in amplitude from beat to b. Chest pain most especially at the precordium
beat even though the rhythm is regular. c. Pain radiating to the right shoulder
d. An increased arterial pulse with a double systolic d. Pain radiating to the left shoulder and arm
peak
Which of the following foods can aggravate
Which of the following findings in the the occurrence of heartburn? *
fingertips and toes is usually associated with 1/1
Raynaud disease? *
a. Toast
1/1 b. Coffee
c. Rice
a. Pallor or cyanosis in the fingertips and toes
d. Apple
b. Redness in the fingertips and toes
c. Clubbing of the fingers and toes
The shape of a midsystolic murmur is a *
d. Any of the above
1/1
A patient being admitted is complaining of
a. Crescendo
right upper quadrant pain. Upon b. Decrescendo
ultrasonography, the physician has diagnosed c. Crescendo-decrescendo
d. Plateau
the patient to have cholecystitis. Which of the
following best describes this disease? * When a patient has a constant blood pressure
1/1 reading of 150/100, which of the following
a. Inflammation of the liver should be advised to the patient? *
b. Inflammation of the pancreas 1/1
c. Inflammation of the stomach
d. Inflammation of the gallbladder a. No treatment required
b. Lifestyle modifications advised
Which of the following structures can best c. Lifestyle modifications and drug therapy
d. Lifestyle modifications, drug therapy with two-
estimate the jugular venous pressure? * drug combination required
1/1
Which of the following microorganisms can
a. Right external jugular vein
b. Right internal jugular vein cause the patient to suffer from peptic ulcer
c. Left external jugular vein disease? *
d. Left internal jugular vein
1/1
Which of the following conditions can exhibit a. Escherichia coli
thrills in a patient? * b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Staphylococcus aureus
1/1 d. Streptococcus pyogenes
a. Aortic stenosis
b. Patent ductus arteriosus When the patient has a pulsus alternans, the
c. Ventricular septal defect nurse must suspect for which of the following
d. All of the above
in the patient? *
1/1
a. Aortic stenosis c. Pain or cramping in the legs during walking or
b. Hyperthyroidism exertion
c. Pericardial tamponade d. Pain felt in the feet due to edema
d. Left ventricular failure
Edema of the hands and feet in a patient who
When asking the female patient about a has a cardiovascular problem is usually
possible risk for developing blood clots, which associated with a diagnosis of *
of the following medications that the patient
1/1
has previous taken should the nurse pay
a. Heart failure
attention to? * b. Hypertension
1/1 c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
d. Congenital heart disease
a. Aspirin
b. Diphenhydramine The optimum body mass index that people
c. Oral contraceptives
d. Warfarin should maintain is at *
1/1
Edema, varicose veins, and aching in the legs
a. Below 18.5
are symptoms of * b. 18.5 to 24.9
1/1 c. 25 to 29.9
d. 30 and above
a. Arterial stasis
b. Venous stasis A patient named Soma is currently
c. Arterial pooling
d. Atherosclerosis experiencing pain at the costovertebral angle
or the flank area. The nurse must know that
A patient comes to the emergency department the pain is originating from which of the
with reports of a swollen and painful leg but following organs? *
denies sustaining any injury. Physical
1/1
examination reveals a tense calf muscle,
a. Uterus
decreased sensation to the foot and leg, and b. Kidneys
absent pedal pulses. The cardiac-vascular c. Stomach
d. Liver
nurse asks the patient when the symptoms
began because: * The nurse must ask which following questions
1/1 when the patient is experiencing abdominal
a. a compartment syndrome develops days after an pain? *
arterial occlusion. 1/1
b. an arterial thrombosis is sudden and emergent,
and an embolism develops gradually. a. “Where does the pain start?”
c. irreversible anoxic injury to muscles and nerves b. “Does it radiate or travel anywhere?”
can occur in as few as four hours. c. “Does the pain have an aching, burning, or
d. metabolic alkalosis from muscle swelling is gnawing quality?”
cardiotoxic. d. All of the above

Intermittent claudication is described as * When detecting the point of maximal impulse

1/1 on the patient, the nurse must stand at the *
a. Pain felt in the hands during a cold weather 1/1
b. Pain that radiates into the left shoulder and arm a. Left side of the patient
b. Right side of the patient A nurse has noted that the murmur has a loud
c. Head of the patient
d. None of the above with palpable thrill. The nurse should grade
this on her chart as *
When asking the female patient about a
1/1
possible risk for developing blood clots, which
of the following medications that the patient a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
has previous taken should the nurse pay c. Grade 3
attention to? * d. Grade 4

1/1 The hepatojugular reflux is elicited by applying

a. Aspirin pressure on the patient’s abdomen. Which
b. Diphenhydramine quadrant will the nurse apply pressure on? *
c. Oral contraceptives
d. Warfarin 1/1
a. Right upper quadrant
This is a condition where the internal organs
b. Left upper quadrant
from the thoracic and abdominal cavity are c. Right lower quadrant
found on the opposite sides from what is d. Left lower quadrant

normal * When assessing for any palpable thrills over

1/1 the heart of the patient, Nurse Ikumi must use
a. Dextrocardia her *
b. Situs inversus
1/1
c. Congenital heart disease
d. Cardiomegaly a. Fingerpads
b. Index and the middle finger
Examination of a patient in a supine position c. Thumb
reveals distended jugular veins from the base d. Ball of her hand

of the neck to the angle of the jaw. This Which of the following diseases does NOT
finding indicates: * cause the patient to have chronic upper
1/1 abdominal pain? *
a. decreased venous return. 1/1
b. increased central venous pressure.
c. increased pulmonary artery capillary pressure. a. Dyspepsia
d. left-sided heart failure. b. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Which of the following habits can contribute d. Acute cholecystitis

to the worsening hypertension of the The following are modifiable risk factors for
patient? * coronary heart disease EXCEPT *
1/1 1/1
a. Excessive use of seasonings on food a. Diabetes
b. Frequent aerobic exercises b. History of cardiovascular disease
c. Having an average body built c. Obesity
d. Increased intake of potassium-rich foods d. Physical inactivity

In early acute appendicitis, the initial

complaint of abdominal pain is usually felt at *
 d. Aluminum hydroxide
1/1
a. Right hypochondriac 7. Which of the following pain medications can cause
b. Left hypochondriac constipation as a side effect?
c. Epigastric a. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)
d. Umbilical b. Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen (Vicodin)
c. Ibuprofen (Advil)
d. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

SAS 21 8. The patient complains of having black stools, the

nurse must know that the patient is suffering from a/an
1. When assessing the vomitus of a client who has
a. Upper GI bleeding
peptic ulcer disease, the nurse has noted a blackish
b. Intussusception
color from it.
c. Ulcerative colitis
She notes this as “coffee ground” vomitus on her chart.
d. Lower GI bleeding
This type of vomitus is due to
a. Bile
9. Obstruction of the biliary tree can cause the stools to
b. Gastric acid
have which of the following colors?
c. Blood
a. Reddish
d. Digestive enzymes
b. Yellowish
c. Grayish
2. A client with peptic ulcer disease suddenly vomits at
d. Blackish
her hospital room. The nurse has observed for the
presence of bright red blood from the patient’s vomitus.
She must note this on her chart as 10. Which of the following forms of contraceptives can
a. Hematemesis cause the patient to have jaundice?
b. Hemoptysis a. Intrauterine device
c. Hematochezia b. Oral contraceptives
d. Hematuria c. Cervical cap
d. Diaphragm
3. When the patient complains of pain upon swallowing
the nurse must note this on her chart as SAS 22
a. Dysphagia 1. Patients with bladder disorders may cause pain to
b. Odynophagia occur in which of the following areas
c. Globus pharyngeus a. Left iliac
d. Polyphagia b. Right iliac
c. Flank area
4. Which of the following conditions may bring about d. Suprapubic area
chronic diarrhea in a patient?
a. Chron’s disease 2. In men experiencing prostatic pain the pain may be
b. Ulcerative colitis felt
c. Amebiasis a. Proximal to the glans penis
d. Both a and b b. At the perineum
c. At the suprapubic area
5. If the stools of the patient has an oily residue, frothy d. Distal to the glans penis
and floating on the surface of the water the patient has
which 3. Pain associated with a urinary tract infection in a
type of condition patient is often described as
a. Peptic ulcer disease a. Gnawing pain
b. Cholecystitis b. Stabbing pain
c. Malabsorption c. Burning pain
d. Intussusception d. Searing pain

6. Which of the following medications do NOT cause 4. Usually men who have a urinary tract infection is also
diarrhea as a side-effect in a patient? suspected to have which of the following coexisting
a. Penicillin disease?
b. Magnesium hydroxide a. Prostate cancer
c. Macrolides b. Kidney stones
c. Sexually transmitted infection up to age 55
d. Kidney failure b. Ages 30-50, regress after menopause except with
estrogen
5. Which of the following beverages is related to having c. Ages 30-90, most common over age 50
urinary frequency in a patient? d. Ages 0-14, during the childhood stage
a. Milk
b. Orange juice 2. Retractions seen on breasts of females can be
c. Smoothies present in which of the following conditions?
d. Coffee a. Fibroadenoma
b. Cysts
6. In men, painful urination without frequency or urgency c. Adenocarcinoma
strongly suggests of which of the following urinary d. Cancer
conditions?
a. Nephritis 3. When palpating for the shape of the breast mass in
b. Urethritis patients with breast cancer, the nurse must observe for
c. Uteritis which
d. Cystitis of the following?
a. Round, disc-like, or lobular
7. Polyuria refers to a significant increase in 24-hour b. Round only
urine volume which usually exceeds c. Irregular or stellate
a. 3 liters d. None of the above
b. 0.8 liter
c. 1.5 liters 4. The nurse assessing the breast of a patient has
d. 2 liters observed for peau d’orange on the lower portion of the
patient’s
8. Which of the following cardiovascular diseases can breast. This is indicative of which of the following?
cause the patient to suffer from nocturia or increased a. Edema
urination b. Paget disease of the nibble
at night? c. Breast cancer
a. Angina pectoris d. Fibroadenoma
b. Coronary artery disease
c. Hypertension 5. Which of the following is NOT a risk for breast
d. Heart failure cancer?
a. Age of 65 years and above
9. Urinary incontinence may be experienced by patients b. Two or more first-degree relatives with breast cancer
during which of the following situations? diagnosed at an early age
a. Coughing c. High breast tissue density
b. Sneezing d. Low breast tissue density
c. Laughing
d. All of the above 6. In identifying women at risk for BRCA1 or 2 mutation
the doctor must establish which of the following risk
10. Which of the following best describes ureteral pain? factors?
a. It is a visceral pain that is typically dull, aching, and a. First-degree relative with a known BRCA1 or 2
steady. mutation
b. It is usually severe and colicky, originating at the b. 2 or more relatives with a diagnosis of breast cancer
costovertebral angle and radiating around the trunk into before age 50
the lower quadrant of the abdomen, or possibly into the c. 2 or more relatives with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer
upper thigh and testicle or labium. d. All of the above
c. It is the pain felt on the side of the body between the
upper abdomen and the back. It may radiate 7. The histology results of a patient who is suspected to
anteriorly toward the umbilicus. have breast cancer came back as having atypical lobular
d. It is pain that is felt in the perineum and occasionally hyperplasia. How is the result interpreted?
in the rectum. a. No increased risk
b. Small increased risk
c. Moderate increased risk
SAS 23 d. High increased risk
1. Cysts can occur in women who are
a. Ages 15-25, usually puberty and young adulthood, but 8. The nurse must teach a female patient to do monthly
breast self-examination at around
a. 5-7 days after the onset of menses 6. The knee is an example of a
b. During the ovulation day a. Spheroidal joint
c. 14 days after the onset of menses b. Hinge joint
d. At the start of menses c. Condylar joint
d. None of the above
9. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor in the
development of breast cancer? 7. Which of the following may have happened if the
a. Height (tall) patient is currently experiencing calf wasting, weak ankle
b. Alcohol consumption dorsiflexion, absent ankle jerk, positive crossed straight-
c. Jewish heritage leg raise?
d. Personal history of endometrium, ovary, or colon a. Osteoarthritis
cancer b. Disc herniation
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
10. The recommended age for mammography in order to d. Hip joint dislocation
detect breast cancer in women who are asymptomatic
should be at around 8. Which of the following diseases can cause referred
a. 40 to 50 years pain to the low back?
b. 30 to 40 years a. Peptic ulcer disease
c. Above 50 b. Pancreatitis
d. Below 30 c. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
d. All of the above
SAS 24
1. This includes the periarticular ligaments, tendons, 9. Which of the following is the nurse going to suspect if
bursae, muscle, fascia, bone, nerve, and the overlying the client complains of lower back pain with associated
skin bladder and bowel dysfunction?
a. Articular structures a. Bursitis
b. Extra-articular structures b. Sciatica
c. Ligaments c. Herniated nucleus pulposus
d. Tendons d. Cauda equina syndrome

2. Example of fibrous joint are the 10. 45% to 60% of cases with cervical radiculopathy
a. Knees have a compressed nerve root which is usually the
b. Shoulders a. C7
c. Vertebral bodies of the spine b. C6
d. Skull sutures c. C5
d. C4
3. The extent of movement of cartilaginous joints are
a. Freely movable SAS 25
b. Slightly moveable 1. Which of the following types of arthritis usually has
c. Immovable high uric acid serum levels in the blood?
d. None of the above a. Gouty arthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. This is the fibrocartilaginous material at the center of c. Osteoarthritis
each vertebral disc that serves as a cushion or shock d. Any of the above
absorber between bony surfaces
a. Vertebral body 2. Which of the following is the cause of rheumatoid
b. Ligament arthritis in a patient?
c. Nucleus pulposus a. Overweight or obese body
d. Hyaline b. Increased intake of purine rich foods
c. Recent infection
5. Which of the following joints is an example of a d. Unknown
spheroidal joint?
a. Hip joint 3. Tenderness or warmth above a thickened synovium is
b. Shoulder joint indicative of which of the following?
c. Elbow joint a. Arthritis
d. Both a and b b. Infection
c. Tendinitis patient who is post-stroke. The nurse has noticed a
d. Both a and b barely
detectable flicker or trace of contraction from the muscle.
4. Which of the following conditions have progressive She must grade the patient’s muscle strength as
loss of cartilage within the joints causing damage to a. 0
underlying b. 1
bone, and formation of new bone at the margins of the c. 2
cartilage? d. 3
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis SAS 21-25
c. Gouty arthritis
d. Fibromyalgia syndrome Which of the following finger abnormalities
are seen in patients who have osteoarthritis or
5. Which of the following joints are affected in
degenerative joint disease? *
osteoarthritis?
a. Knees 1/1
b. Hips
c. Cervical and lumbar spine Heberden’s nodes
d. All of the above Boutonniere deformity
Bouchard’s nodes
6. Which of the following best describes the “swan neck” Both a and c
deformity seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joints You are assessing a patient with diffuse joint
with fixed flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints. pains and want to make sure that only the
b. Persistent flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint
with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joints are the problem, and that the pain is not
joint. related to other diseases. Which of the
c. Knobby swellings around the joints ulcerate and
contains discharges of white chalk-like urates. following is a systemic cause of joint pain? *
d. It is a thickened plaque overlying the flexor tendon of 1/1
the ring finger and possibly the little finger at the
level of the distal palmar crease. Gout
Osteoarthritis
7. Which of the following finger abnormalities are seen in Lupus
patients who have osteoarthritis or degenerative joint Spondylosis
disease?
a. Heberden’s nodes Urine passes through the *
b. Boutonniere deformity
c. Bouchard’s nodes 1/1
d. Both a and c renal hilum to the bladder to the ureter
pelvis of the kidney to ureter to bladder to urethra
8. Quadriplegia can occur due to injury to the glomerulus to ureter to renal tubule
a. Cervical spine hilum to urethra to bladder
b. Thoracic spine
c. Lumbar spine
When assessing the vomitus of a client who
d. Sacral spine
has peptic ulcer disease, the nurse has noted
9. When assessing for the muscle strength of a post- a blackish color from it. She notes this as
stroke patient, the nurse has noticed paralysis in the
right half “coffee ground” vomitus on her chart. This
of the body. The nurse must note this on her chart as type of vomitus is due to *
a. Paraplegia
b. Quadriplegia 1/1
c. Hemiplegia Bile
d. Hemiparesis Gastric acid
Blood
10. The nurse is assessing the muscle strength of a Digestive enzymes
A 58-year-old man comes to your office Which of these organs is involved in
complaining of bilateral back pain that now ELIMINATION of waste? *
awakens him at night. This has been steadily 1/1
increasing for the past 2 months. Which one Esophagus
of the following is the most reassuring in this Small intestine
Large intestine
patient with back pain? *
Stomach
1/1
When palpating for the shape of the breast
Age over 50
Pain at night mass in patients with breast cancer, the nurse
Pain lasting more than 1 month or not responding to must observe for which of the following? *
therapy
Pain that is bilateral 1/1
Round, disc-like, or lobular
Urinary incontinence may be experienced by Round only
patients during which of the following Irregular or stellate
None of the above
situations? *
1/1 You are assessing a patient with joint pain and
Coughing are trying to decide whether it is inflammatory
Sneezing or noninflammatory in nature. Which one of
Laughing
All of the above the following symptoms is consistent with an
inflammatory process? *
Which of the following is a modifiable risk
1/1
factor in the development of breast cancer? *
Tenderness
1/1 Cool temperature
Ecchymosis
Height (tall)
Nodules
Alcohol consumption
Jewish heritage
Personal history of endometrium, ovary, or colon What is the nurse assessing when performing
cancer a breast assessment on a client and palpating
along the inner aspect of the humerus? *
When gathering breast history information on
a client, the client states that she has noticed 1/1

a few drops of clear discharge from her Subscapular nodes

Central axillary nodes
nipples over the past few months. Which of Pectoral nodes
the following actions is most appropriate in Brachial (lateral axillary) nodes
this situation? *
When assessing for the muscle strength of a
1/1 post-stroke patient, the nurse has noticed
Document the presence of the discharge. Refer the paralysis in the right half of the body. The
client for a mammogram.
Ask additional history questions about the nurse must note this on her chart as *
discharge and medications she is currently taking 1/1
health care provider.
Document the presence of the discharge. Paraplegia
Refer the client for a mammogram. Quadriplegia
Hemiplegia
Hemiparesis ticks. She has never been sick and takes no
This includes the periarticular ligaments, medications routinely; she has never been
tendons, bursae, muscle, fascia, bone, nerve, sexually active. What is the most likely cause
and the overlying skin * of her joint pain? *
1/1 1/1

Articular structures Trauma

Extra-articular structures Gonococcal arthritis
Ligaments Psoriatic arthritis
Tendons Lyme disease

Which of the following is NOT a risk for breast The extent of movement of cartilaginous
cancer? * joints are *
1/1 1/1

Age of 65 years and above Freely movable

Two or more first-degree relatives with breast Slightly moveable
cancer diagnosed at an early age Immovable
High breast tissue density None of the above
Low breast tissue density
Which of the following best describes the
When the patient complains of pain upon “swan neck” deformity seen in patients with
swallowing the nurse must note this on her rheumatoid arthritis? *
chart as * 1/1
1/1
Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal
Dysphagia joints with fixed flexion of the distal interphalangeal
Odynophagia joints.
Globus pharyngeus Persistent flexion of the proximal interphalangeal
Polyphagia joint with hyperextension of the distal
interphalangeal joint.
Each of the following is a waste product Knobby swellings around the joints ulcerate and
contains discharges of white chalk-like urates.
normally secreted by the kidneys except * It is a thickened plaque overlying the flexor tendon
1/1 of the ring finger and possibly the little finger at the
level of the distal palmar crease.
Urea
Bilirubin The nurse is preparing to examine the breasts
Glucose
Ammonia of a male client and plans to do which of the
Creatine following except ? *
1/1
A 19-year-old college sophomore comes to
the clinic for evaluation of joint pains. The Position the client in the supine position for
palpation of the breasts.
student has been back from spring break for 2 Ask about a family history of testicular cancer since
weeks; during her holiday, she went camping. testicular and breast cancer are related conditions.
Palpate the lymph nodes in the axillary region.
She notes that she had a red spot, shaped like Position the client in the sitting position for
a target, but then it started spreading, and inspection of the breasts.
then the joint pains started. She used insect
repellant but was in an area known to have
During a breast assessment, the nurse notes Angina pectoris
Coronary artery disease
an inverted right nipple. The nurse knows that Hypertension
this is: * Heart failure

1/1 A client with peptic ulcer disease suddenly

A normal finding in most women vomits at her hospital room. The nurse has
A significant finding if it is recent observed for the presence of bright red blood
Always indicative of a slow growing tumor
Usually found on lactating mothers from the patient’s vomitus. She must note this
on her chart as *
The nurse assessing the breast of a patient
1/1
has observed for peau d’orange on the lower
portion of the patient’s breast. This is Hematemesis
Hemoptysis
indicative of which of the following? * Hematochezia
1/1 Hematuria

Edema Quadriplegia can occur due to injury to the *

Paget's cancer
Breast cancer 1/1
Fibroadenoma Cervical spine
Thoracic spine
Example of fibrous joint are the * Lumbar spine
1/1 Sacral spine

Knees Which is not a function of the kidneys? *

Shoulders
1/1
Vertebral bodies of the spine
Skull sutures Production and release of calcitriol and
erythropoietin
Which is an example of chemical digestion? * Storage of urine
1/1 Regulation of blood composition and pH
Regulation of blood volume and pressure
Chewing food Maintenance of blood osmolarity
Food churning in the stomach
The esophagus pushing food down to the stomach
Acid breaking down proteins in the stomach

Polyuria refers to a significant increase in 24- SAS 26

hour urine volume which usually exceeds * 1. Modest activity such as walking or bicycling has
health benefits in reducing bone-related morbidities.
1/1 How many
minutes each day is recommended in doing these
3 liters activities?
0.8 liter a. 15 minutes
1.5 liters b. 30 minutes
2 liters c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes
Which of the following cardiovascular
diseases can cause the patient to suffer from 2. Which of the following body parts is most vulnerable in
experiencing pain due to repetitive lifting from
nocturia or increased urination at night? * occupations
1/1 such as nurses, heavy-machinery operators, and
construction workers?
a. Knee a. 30 minutes
b. Hips b. 15 minutes
c. Lumbar c. 45 minutes
d. Shoulder d. 10 minutes

3. A patient is having her bone density assessed. The 10. The nurse must teach a patient with osteoporosis to
results came back with a T score of 1.8. The nurse will avoid which of the following beverages?
anticipate the doctor to diagnose which of the following a. Milk
conditions? b. Orange juice
a. Osteoporosis c. Fruit shakes
b. Osteomyelitis d. Coffee
c. Osteomalacia
d. Osteopenia SAS 27
1. A patient is being admitted at the hospital states, “I am
4. The nurse must know the risk factors for osteoporosis. having the worst headache of my life!” The nurse must
Which of the following is NOT an osteoporosis risk report this immediately to the physician since the patient
factor? may have which of the following conditions?
a. Post-menopausal status in Caucasians and Asian a. Seizures
women b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Weight less than 70 kg c. Increased intracranial pressure
c. Age older than 35 years d. Aneurysm
d. Higher intakes of alcohol
2. A patient at the emergency room is suspected to have
5. Which of the following medications if used for stroke is experiencing oculomotor deficits with ataxia
prolonged periods of time would lead to the development and
of motor deficits. The knows must know that the area
osteoporosis in an individual? affected is at the
a. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs a. Anterior circulation – anterior cerebral artery
b. Narcotics b. Anterior circulation – middle cerebral artery
c. Corticosteroids c. Posterior circulation – brainstem, vertebral, or basilar
d. Diuretics artery branches
d. Posterior circulation – basilar artery
6. Which of the following inflammatory disorders can
cause a patient to have osteoporosis later in life? 3. A stroke patient is sent to the emergency department
a. Celiac sprue experiencing contralateral motor or sensory deficit
b. Anorexia nervosa without
c. Hypogonadism cortical signs. The area affected is in the
d. All of the above a. Anterior circulation – middle cerebral artery
b. Subcortical circulation – lenticulostriate deep
7. Which of the following endocrine disorders can have a penetrating branches of the middle cerebral artery
complication of osteoporosis? c. Posterior circulation – posterior cerebral artery
a. Hyperparathyroidism d. Posterior circulation – basilar artery
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Diabetes mellitus 4. The nurse must know that blockage in the anterior
d. Diabetes insipidus circulation – middle cerebral artery can cause which of
the
8. The average calcium intake for persons who are 19- following signs and symptoms in a patient suffering from
50 years old should be at around stroke?
a. 1300 mg/day a. Contralateral leg weakness
b. 1000 mg/ day b. Contralateral field cut
c. 1200 mg/day c. Contralateral face, arm, increased leg weakness,
d. 800 mg/day sensory loss, vision field cut, aphasia, and apraxia.
d. Dysphagia, dysarthria, tongue/palate deviation and
9. In order to receive adequate vitamin D per day a ataxia.
person with light-colored skin must spend how many
minutes of 5. A patient is complaining of tingling sensations in her
receiving sunlight per day? hands and feet as though they are being pricked. The
nurse 1. This condition is an important harbinger of stroke
must note this on her chart as a. Angina pectoris
a. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Heart failure
b. Dysesthesias c. Atherosclerosis
c. Paresthesias d. Transient ischemic attack
d. Numbness
2. A post-stroke patient is having difficulty forming
6. When the patient faints due to a strong emotion such words. The patient is exhibiting which of the following
as fear or pain the nurse must note this on her chart as signs
having a. Ataxia
a. Vasodepressor syncope b. Apraxia
b. Postural hypotension c. Aphasia
c. Micturition syncope d. Agnosia
d. Cough syncope
3. In teaching the family members about stroke in a
7. Which of the following best describes absence patient who has suffered from a transient ischemic
seizures? attack the
a. The person loses consciousness suddenly and the nurse must tell the family to do which of the following if
body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing the patient suddenly exhibits numbness or weakness of
stops and the patient becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase one side of the face, arm, or leg?
of rhythmic muscular contraction follows. a. Continue administering anticoagulants
b. A sudden brief lapse of consciousness, with b. Observe further for other signs and symptoms
momentary blinking, staring or movements of the lips c. Call for an ambulance
and hands but no falling. d. Let the patient have a bed rest
c. Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs.
d. Sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no 4. Which of the following is NOT a critical warning sign
movements. for stroke (cerebrovascular accident)?
a. Sudden chest pain together with pain on the left
8. A patient is exhibiting tonic and then clonic shoulder, arm, neck and jaw.
movements that start unilaterally in the hand, foot or face b. Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or
and spreads understanding
to other parts of the body. The nurse must know that this c. Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance
type of seizure is or coordination
a. Complex partial seizure d. Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes
b. Jacksonian seizure
c. Myoclonic seizure 5. The most common cause of ischemic signs and
d. Absent seizure symptoms in stroke is occlusion of the
a. Posterior cerebral artery
9. Resting hand tremors and pill rolling are indicative of b. Anterior cerebral artery
which of the following neurologic disorders? c. Middle cerebral artery
a. Myasthenia gravis d. Lateral cerebral artery
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Parkinson’s disease 6. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor
d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis in the development of stroke (cerebrovascular accident)?
a. Smoking
10. This is a disease where weakness is made worse b. Age
with repeated effort and improved with rest. This is c. Hyperlipidemia
brought d. Sedentary lifestyle
about by the destruction of the receptor sites for
acetylcholine. These are describing 7. Which of the following risk factors for stroke has the
a. Myasthenia gravis leading determinant of risk for both ischemic and
b. Multiple sclerosis hemorrhagic stroke?
c. Muscle dystrophy a. Hypertension
d. Guillain-Barre syndrome b. Smoking
c. Hyperlipidemia
SAS 28 d. Diabetes
8. Which of the following diseases is the most common d. Metrorrhagia
cause for peripheral neuropathies?
a. Heart failure 5. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of
b. Hypothyroidism perimenopause?
c. Diabetes mellitus a. Hot flashes
d. Coronary artery disease b. Flushing
c. Sleep disturbances
9. Which of the following cardiovascular disorders can d. All of the above
complicate into stroke (cerebrovascular accident) later if
it is 6. Estrogen replacement is helpful in relieving the signs
left untreated? and symptoms of menopause but can increase the risk
a. Arteriosclerosis of
b. Atherosclerosis which of the following?
c. Heart failure a. Thrombosis
d. Cardiomyopathy b. Varicosities
c. Hypertension
10. Which of the following is true regarding cigarette d. Heart failure
smoking and its relation to stroke?
a. Heavy smoking, or smoking more than 40 cigarettes a 7. Certain women can experience sexual dysfunction
day, doubles the risk of stroke compared to light such as inadequate vaginal lubrication despite adequate
smoking. arousal. Some women may not achieve orgasm. This is
b. Light smokers or smoking fewer than 10 cigarettes per due to a lack in
day have a lesser risk for stroke than heavy a. Progesterone
smokers. b. Luteinizing hormone
c. It takes 5 years for ex-smokers to drop to the same c. Estrogen
risk level as non-smokers. d. Lactogen
d. All of the above
8. A woman complains of painful sexual intercourse with
SAS 29 her husband. The nurse knows that the medical term for
1. Primary dysmenorrhea results from prostaglandin this
production during which phase of the menstrual cycle? is known as
a. Ischemic phase a. Vaginismus
b. Proliferative phase b. Dyspareunia
c. Menstrual phase c. Anorgasmia
d. Luteal phase d. Hypogonadism

2. This is known as the abnormal growth of endometrial 9. Which of the following best describes vaginismus?
tissue outside of the uterus a. Superficial pain that is suggestive of local
a. Salpingitis inflammation of the vagina
b. Endometrial polyps b. Deep vaginal pain from pelvic disorders
c. Endometriosis c. Infection of the vagina
d. Pelvic inflammatory disease d. Involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding the
vaginal orifice that makes penetration during intercourse
3. Which of the following is NOT a sign of premenstrual painful or impossible
syndrome?
a. Depression 10. Which of the following cannot cause a(n) sexually
b. Blurred vision transmitted disease?
c. Angry outbursts a. Human immunodeficiency virus
d. Sleep disturbances b. Neisseria gonorrheae
c. Treponema pallidum
4. A patient comes to the nurse and complains of having d. Herpes zoster
an interval of 18 days between menses. The nurse must
note SAS 30
this her chart as 1. Nurse Sakura is observing for the penis of a male
a. Oligomenorrhea suspected to have a sexually transmitted infection. She
b. Menorrhagia has
c. Polymenorrhea observed for multiple cauliflower-like lesions on the
patient’s penis. The nurse must suspect for which of the 8. For an African-American male who has a positive
following STDs? family history of prostate cancer, the best time to have a
a. Genital warts prostatespecific-antigen (PSA) testing and digital rectal
b. Genital herpes simplex examination (DRE) would be at
c. Primary syphilis a. 30 to 40 years
d. Gonorrhea b. 40 years and above
c. 50 years and above
2. Which of the following best describes cryptorchidism? d. Below 30 years
a. The testicular length is usually less than or equal to
3.5 cm. 9. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of
b. The testis is acutely inflamed, painful, tender, and prostate disorders?
swollen. a. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
c. It usually appears as a painless nodule. b. Urinary frequency or urgency
d. The testis is atrophied and may lie in the inguinal c. Intermittent stream or straining to initiate flow
canal or the abdomen, resulting in an unfilled scrotum. d. All of the above

3. The nurse has noticed an appearance of a small red 10. Vesicles that are 1-3 mm in size found on the glans
papule that becomes a chancre or painless erosion on a or shaft of the penis is usually indicative of
patient’s penis. The patient is diagnosed to have a. Gonorrhea
syphilis. The causative agent of this is b. Syphilis
a. Neisseria gonorrheae c. Genital herpes
b. Treponema pallidum d. Chancroid
c. Human papilloma virus
d. Haemophilus ducreyi SAS 26-30
A client with a head injury is demonstrating
4. Which of the following best describes epispadias in a
male? dysphagia and dysphasia. Which cranial nerve
a. A congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to might be involved with this symptom? *
the inferior surface of the penis.
b. A nontender, fluid-filled mass within the tunica 1/1
vaginalis.
c. The urethral meatus is located on the top of the glans Accessory (CN XI)
penis. Trigeminal (CN V)
d. An indurated nodule or ulcer that is usually non- Facial (CN VII)
tender. Vagus (CN X)
Olfactory ( CN I )
5. Pain felt in the inguinal canal due to inguinal hernia is
usually aggravated by Which of the following types of food can
a. Eating increase the risk of the development of
b. Urinating
c. Lifting heavy objects prostate cancer in men? *
d. Lying down 1/1

6. Which of the following types of food can increase the Processed foods
risk of the development of prostate cancer in men? Saturated fat
a. Processed foods High sugar intake
b. Saturated fat Excessive intake of salt
c. High sugar intake
d. Excessive intake of salt The most common cause of ischemic signs
and symptoms in stroke is occlusion of the *
7. In teaching males on how to perform the testicular
self-examination, the patient must be taught to do it 1/1
a. At night
b. In the morning Posterior cerebral artery
c. After a bowel movement Anterior cerebral artery
d. After having a warm bath or shower Middle cerebral artery
Lateral cerebral artery
Which of the following body parts is most Which statement by the nurse is most
vulnerable in experiencing pain due to important? *
repetitive lifting from occupations such as 1/1
nurses, heavy-machinery operators, and "You can try a variety of briefs and undergarments."
construction workers? * "It will be important to keep that area clean and dry."
"I can refer you to a good incontinence clinic."
1/1 "Unfortunately, incontinence is common in women
Knee your age."
Hips
Lumbar The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a
Shoulder client who is scheduled to undergo
For an African-American male who has a mammography for the first time. What
positive family history of prostate cancer, the instruction by the nurse is accurate? *
best time to have a prostate-specific-antigen 1/1

(PSA) testing and digital rectal examination "The test should be carried out even if you are
pregnant."
(DRE) would be at *
"Do not use deodorant on breasts or underarms
1/1 before the test."
"You will not experience any discomfort because
30 to 40 years this is just an x-ray."
40 years and above "The entire test should not take longer than 1 hour."
50 years and above
Below 30 years In teaching the family members about stroke
Which of the following best describes in a patient who has suffered from a transient
vaginismus? * ischemic attack the nurse must tell the family
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to do which of the following if the patient
suddenly exhibits numbness or weakness of
Superficial pain that is suggestive of local
inflammation of the vagina one side of the face, arm, or leg? *
Deep vaginal pain from pelvic disorders 1/1
Infection of the vagina
Involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding the Continue administering anticoagulants
vaginal orifice that makes penetration during Observe further for other signs and symptoms
intercourse painful or impossible Call for an ambulance
Let the patient have a bed rest
In teaching males on how to perform the
testicular self-examination, the patient must A patient is having her bone density assessed.
be taught to do it * The results came back with a T score of 1.8.
The nurse will anticipate the doctor to
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diagnose which of the following conditions? *
At night
In the morning 1/1
After a bowel movement
Osteoporosis
After having a warm bath or shower
Osteomyelitis
Osteomalacia
The nurse is counseling a postmenopausal Osteopenia
woman about her new stress incontinence.
Primary dysmenorrhea results from Lying down

prostaglandin production during which phase The nurse must know the risk factors for
of the menstrual cycle? * osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT
1/1 an osteoporosis risk factor? *
Ischemic phase 1/1
Proliferative phase
Menstrual phase Connects bone to bone?
Luteal phase Muscles
Joints
During the assessment of sensory function of Cartilage
Tendons
a client, the nurse learns that the client has
decreased pain sensation. Which of the Which of the following is NOT a modifiable
following should the nurse document about risk factor in the development of stroke
this finding? * (cerebrovascular accident)? *
1/1 1/1

Analgesia Smoking
Hypalgesia Age
Hypoesthesia Hyperlipidemia
Anesthesia Sedentary lifestyle

Resting hand tremors and pill rolling are Which of the following best describes
indicative of which of the following neurologic absence seizures? *
disorders? * 1/1
1/1 The person loses consciousness suddenly and the
body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing
Myasthenia gravis stops and the patient becomes cyanotic. A clonic
Multiple sclerosis phase of rhythmic muscular contraction follows.
Parkinson’s disease A sudden brief lapse of consciousness, with
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis momentary blinking, staring or movements of the
lips and hands but no falling.
Modest activity such as walking or bicycling Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or
has health benefits in reducing bone-related limbs.
Sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no
morbidities. How many minutes each day is movements.
recommended in doing these activities? *
The nurse must know the risk factors for
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osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT
15 minutes
30 minutes an osteoporosis risk factor? *
45 minutes 1/1
60 minutes
Post-menopausal status in Caucasians and Asian
Pain felt in the inguinal canal due to inguinal women
Weight less than 70 kg
hernia is usually aggravated by * Age older than 35 years
1/1 Higher intakes of alcohol

Eating Which of the following cannot cause a(n)

Urinating
Lifting heavy objects sexually transmitted disease? *
 The client may have an altered cognitive status.
1/1
The client may have dementia.
Human immunodeficiency virus The client may be nervous.
Neisseria gonorrheae
Treponema pallidum The nurse is conducting a reproductive
Herpes zoster assessment of a postmenopausal woman.
Which of the following is NOT a critical Which assessment finding reported by the
warning sign for stroke (cerebrovascular client requires immediate intervention by the
accident)? * nurse? *

1/1 1/1

Sudden chest pain together with pain on the left Urinary incontinence
shoulder, arm, neck and jaw. Vaginal dryness
Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or Painful intercourse
understanding Returning periods
Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of
balance or coordination A patient is exhibiting tonic and then clonic
Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes movements that start unilaterally in the hand,
This is known as the abnormal growth of foot or face and spreads to other parts of the
endometrial tissue outside of the uterus * body. The nurse must know that this type of
seizure is *
1/1
1/1
Salpingitis
Endometrial polyps Complex partial seizure
Endometriosis Jacksonian seizure
Pelvic inflammatory disease Myoclonic seizure
Absent seizure
This is a disease where weakness is made
During the interview, the nurse notes several
worse with repeated effort and improved with
problems that Mr. Phelps has experienced,
rest. This is brought about by the destruction
leading to Parkinson's syndrome, that have
of the receptor sites for acetylcholine. These
affected his musculoskeletal system. Which
are describing *
of the following nursing diagnoses would be
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the most important when the client complains
Myasthenia gravis
Multiple sclerosis of shuffling gait, falls easily, and has poor
Muscle dystrophy posture with forward flexion? *
Guillain-Barre syndrome
1/1
During the neurologic assessment, the nurse Pain, chronic related to disease process
finds that a client is unable to calculate Skin integrity, impaired
Mobility, wheelchair impaired
mathematical problems; however, the Falls, risk for
remainder of the assessment is normal.
Which of the following does this finding An older woman is asking the nurse about her
suggest to the nurse? * husband's sexual functioning. Which
statement by the nurse is most accurate? *
1/1
1/1
The client could be depressed.
"Men his age tend to have a rapid decline in sexual
abilities."
"His testosterone levels will decrease only slightly
until he is quite old."
"Changes in testosterone levels do not affect sexual
performance."
"You are lucky your husband is healthy enough for
sexual activity."

Which bone "elevates" when you "shrug" your

shoulders? *
1/1
Sternum
Humerus
Scapula
Elbow