1

NAME:_____________________________

Entrance English Test:

Masters in Management
July 19, 2015
Duration: 1h 30min.

Part 1: Writing Assessment. Duration: 35 min (30 points)

Part 2: Reading Skill. 30 questions: 35 min (30 points)
Part 3: Grammar Skill. 20 questions: 20 min (20 points)

Part 1: Writing Assessment

Duration: 35 min (30 points)
2 pages maximum
Please use the exam sheet to write your essay. (Do not forget to indicate your first and last name
on the exam sheet!)

Directions: On your exam copy, write a clear logical and well organized response to the
following question. Your response should be in the form of a short essay. Your answer should
not exceed 2 pages. Write legibly. Essays that are illegible or are written on a topic other than
the one outlined in the question will not be scored.

According to a recent report from the Asian Development Bank, Cambodia is set to continue its
7-plus per cent expansion in 2015 and 2016, with improving export and tourism numbers,
although labor unrest in the garment industry and ballooning credit growth in the property
sector pose risks to sustained future growth. Discuss these factors, as well as any other relevant
factors and issues, in regard to the outlook for Cambodia’s economy in the immediate future.

TURN TO NEXT SECTION

 2

Part 2: Reading Skill

Duration: 35 min (30 points)
Below are three passages. Read each passage and answer the 10 questions that follow
each passage.

PASSAGE #1:

The Alaska pipeline starts at the frozen edge of the

Arctic Ocean. It stretches southward across the largest
and northernmost state in the United States, ending at
Line a remote ice-free seaport village nearly 800 miles from
(5) where it begins. It is massive in size and extremely
complicated to operate.
The steel pipe crosses windswept plains and endless
miles of delicate tundra that tops the frozen ground. It
weaves through crooked canyons, climbs sheer
(10) mountains, plunges over rocky crags, makes its way
through thick forests, and passes over or under hundreds
of rivers and streams. The pipe is 4 feet in diameter, and
up to 2 million barrels (or 84 million gallons) of crude
oil can be pumped through it daily.
(15) Resting on H-shaped steel racks called "bents," long
sections of the pipeline follow a zigzag course high
above the frozen earth. Other long sections drop out of
sight beneath spongy or rocky ground and return to the
surface later on. The pattern of the pipeline's up-and-
(20) down route is determined by the often harsh demands
of the arctic and subarctic climate, the tortuous lay of
the land, and the varied compositions of soil, rock, or
permafrost (permanently frozen ground). A little more
than half of the pipeline is elevated above the ground.
(25) The remainder is buried anywhere from 3 to 12 feet,
depending largely upon the type of terrain and the
properties of the soil.
One of the largest in the world, the pipeline cost
approximately $8 billion and is by far the biggest
(30) and most expensive construction project ever
undertaken by private industry. In fact, no single
business could raise that much money, so eight major oil
companies formed a consortium in order to share
the costs. Each company controlled oil rights to
(35) particular shares of land in the oil fields and paid
into the pipeline-construction fund according to the
size of its holdings. Today, despite enormous
problems of climate, supply shortages, equipment
breakdowns, labor disagreements, treacherous
(40) terrain, a certain amount of mismanagement, and
even theft, the Alaska pipeline has been completed
and is operating.

QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER):

1. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline's
A. operating costs
B. employees
C. consumers
D. construction
 3

2. The word "it" in line 5 refers to

A. pipeline
B. ocean
C. state
D. village

3. According to the passage, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each
A. day
B. week
C. month
D. year

4. The phrase "Resting on" in line 15 is closest in meaning to

A. consisting of
B. supported by
C. passing under
D. protected with

5. The author mentions all of the following as important in determining the pipeline's route
EXCEPT the
A. climate
B. lay of the land itself
C. local vegetation
D. kind of soil and rock

6. The word "undertaken" in line 31 is closest in meaning to

A. removed
B. selected
C. transported
D. attempted

7. How many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline?

A. three
B. four
C. eight
D. twelve

8. The word "particular" in line 35 is closest in meaning to

A. peculiar
B. specific
C. exceptional
D. equal

9. Which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member
of the consortium would pay?
A. How much oil field land each company owned
B. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields
C. How many people worked for each company
D. How many oil wells were located on the company's land
10. Where in the passage does the author provide a term for an earth covering that always
remains frozen?
A. Line 4
B. Line 15
C. Line 23
D. Line 37
 4

PASSAGE #2:

"The evolution of the banana, star of the Western fruit bowl" By Rosie Mestel

Did you hear? The genome of the banana has been sequenced, an important development in
scientist's efforts to produce better bananas.

A look at that genome has revealed curious things, said Pat Heslop-Harrison, a plant geneticist
at the University of Leicester in England who was a coauthor of the report published this week
in the journal Nature.

For example, there are regions of the banana genome that don't seem to be involved in making
proteins but are shared by many different species of plants, far beyond bananas. What, he
wonders, are they doing?

There are remnants of bits of banana streak virus spliced into the banana genome (too broken-
up to cause disease, however).

There are whole sets of DNA repeats that plants normally have but bananas do not. And,
intriguingly, three times since this genus of giant herbs took an evolutionary turn away from
its relatives -- the grasses -- it has duplicated its entire set of chromosomes.

Two of the doublings took place at the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary 65 million years ago,
back when the dinosaurs and lots of other species went extinct, Heslop-Harrison noted.

Duplications like this are known to have happened in other plant groups at this same time but
haven't occurred since, Heslop-Harrison said. Scientists don't know why, but they believe
having extra copies of genes may have imparted some stability to plants during a time of rapid
climate change after an asteroid hit Earth.

Having more than one gene of each type means that if one gene of a set loses function, the
plant still has another one that works. And there's more room for adaptability to new
circumstances, because one gene could be altered and co-opted for new purposes and there
would still be the other one left to perform the original job.

"Perhaps it's the reason [bananas have] done so well in the subsequent millions of years,"
Heslop-Harrison said. "One can ask, will changes occurring in the world's climate now mean
there's going to be a whole set of new genome duplications that will enable plants to survive?
We don't know that, but it's interesting to consider."

The banana genome sequenced by the French scientists was from the Pahang, a wild
Malaysian banana of the species Musa acuminata. It's a key species in the complicated
evolution of the bananas and plantains people eat around the world, including the Cavendish
banana that we buy at the supermarket.

The sterile Cavendish is a so-called triploid: It has three sets of chromosomes instead of the
normal two. One of those genomes came from Pahang. The others came from other subspecies
of Musa acuminata.
The changes occurred stepwise, and went something like this:
Thousands of years ago, two wild banana species from different parts of the islands of
Southeast Asia were brought into the same range by people. They formed hybrids. A bit like
mules, the hybrids were vigorous but fairly sterile.
The hybrids were kept going without sex through propagation of their shoots.
At some point, the hybrids developed the ability to set fruit without being fertilized.
Then (for most bananas, including the Cavendish) came another chance event that caused the
 5

hybrids to end up with three sets of chromosomes. Every now and again, the few viable eggs
and pollen that they made would mistakenly contain two sets of chromosomes instead of just
one.

When a double-chromosome pollen combined with a single-chromosome egg (or vice versa),
the result was a hopelessly sterile plant with even more vigorous fruit.

Events like this happened more than once and sometimes included other types of ancestral
banana species.

Some scientists, in fact, have made a whole study of banana domestication and movement
around the world. They've pieced the story together using quite different strands of
information, including the genomes of wild and cultivated bananas, the microscopic relics of
banana leaf material found at archaeological sites, and even the word for "banana" in different
languages.

QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER):

1. In paragraph 2, the word "curious" is closest in meaning to
A. inquisitive
B. peculiar
C. nosy
D. intricate

2. What does paragraph 5 suggest about bananas?

A. The banana genus may not yet be classifiable into a traditional category
B. Bananas are actually a species of grass
C. Bananas may now be categorized as "herbs" in supermarkets
D. Because banana chromosomes duplicate themselves, they have better potential for successful
cloning

3. Why does the author use "intriguingly" to describe the phenomenon in paragraph 5?
A. To imply that bananas are far more interesting than other fruits
B. To make readers doubt the claims scientists are making about bananas
C. To suggest that duplication of chromosomes is a rare and interesting occurrence in the plant
world
D. To encourage questions about whether bananas are grasses or herbs

4. Why is the observation in paragraph 6 important?

A. It suggests that the banana mutated its genetic structure for survival
B. It shows that bananas can be traced as far back as dinosaurs
C. It suggests that bananas were fatal to dinosaurs and other species
D. It proves that bananas are immune to atmospheric changes

5. The word "co-opted" in paragraph 8 is closest in meaning to

A. decided upon together
B. argued against
C. removed from the study
D. adopted

6. The quote in paragraph 9 most closely suggests

A. Bananas may be an example of ways that species might alter their genetics to survive changes
in the earth's climate and atmosphere
B. That the genetic mutations of bananas have no implications for other species
C. That genetic structure is the only factor that should be considered when predicting survival
D. Though bananas have made it this far, there is no proof that they will survive the next wave of
significant atmospheric changes.
 6

7. According to the article, all are steps in the evolution of the banana EXCEPT
A. Some banana hybrids began to develop three sets of chromosomes
B. The merging of two different banana species
C. Bananas reproduced widely and easily through fertilization
D. Bananas developed the ability to develop fruit without fertilization

8. The word "chance" in paragraph 16 is closest in meaning to

A. random
B. gamble
C. risky
D. opportune

9. All are variations of banana mentioned in the article EXCEPT

A. the Cavendish
B. Dolus mundi
C. Musa acuminata
D. plantains

10. The word "domestication" in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to>
A. housebroken
B. well-controlled
C. adapted for human consumption
D. accepted within the culture

PASSAGE #3:
Since the world has become industrialized, there has been an increase in the number of animal
species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction. Bengal tigers, for instance,
which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300, and by the year
2025 their population is estimated to be down to zero. What is alarming about the case of the
(Line 5) Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who,
according to some sources, are not interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is
an example of the callousness that is part of what is causing the problem of extinction. Animals
like the Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are a valuable part of the world's
ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival,
(Line 10) and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some
countries, in order to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal
reserves. They then charge admission to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they
often must also depend on world organizations for support. With the money they get, they
(Line 15) can invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another solution that is an
attempt to stem the tide of animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from
endangered species. This seems fairly effective, but it will not, by itself, prevent animals from
being hunted and killed.

QUESTIONS (CIRCLE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER):

1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger
B. international boycotts
C. endangered species
D. problems with industrialization

2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "alarming" in line 4?

A. dangerous
B. serious
C. gripping
D. distressing
 7

3. Which of the following could best replace the word "case" as used in line 4?
A. act
B. situation
C. contrast
D. trade

4. The word "poachers" as used in line 5 could be best replaced by which of the following?
A. illegal hunters
B. enterprising researchers
C. concerned scientists
D. trained hunters

5. The word "callousness" in line 7 could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness
B. independence
C. incompetence
D. insensitivity

6. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast

A. a problem and a solution
B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and a contrast
D. specific and general information

7. What does the word "this" refer to in line 6?

A. endangered species that are increasing
B. Bengal tigers that are decreasing
C. poachers who seek personal gratification
D. sources that may not be accurate

8. Where in the passage does the author discuss a cause of extinction?

A. Since the world . . . down to zero.
B. What is alarming . . . personal gratification.
C. Country around . . . for support.
D. With the money . . . endangered species.

9. Which of the following could best replace the word "allocated" in line 12?
A. set aside
B. combined
C. organized
D. taken off

10. The word "defray" in line 13 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower
B. raise
C. make a payment on
D. make an investment toward

TURN TO NEXT SECTION

 8

Part 3: Grammar Skill

Duration: 20 min (20 points)

The sentences in this section contain errors in grammar, usage, choice of words, or idioms.
Each sentence contains just one error. Some words or phrases are underlined and lettered;
everything else in the sentence is correct.

Identify the one underlined word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to
be correct

CIRLCE THE LETTER OF THE CORRECT ANSWER UNDER THE SENTENCE:

1. Washington Irving, one of America’s most (A) famous (B) authors, was a lawyer, a
businessman, and (C) a United States (D) diplomatic to England and Spain.
A B C D

2. The main boyhood (A) interesting of (B) psychologist Jean Piaget (C) was observation of
animals (D) in their natural habitat.
A B C D

3. Because (A) its (B) gravitationally bound to the Milky Way, the Andromeda galaxy is (C)
currently (D) approaching Earth.
A B C D

4. Dams may (A) be built for multiple purposes: (B) providing water for irrigation, aid flood
control, furnish (C) hydroelectric power, and improve the (D) passability of waterways.
A B C D

5. (A) As soon as psychologists developed ways to measure human (B) attributes, they discovered
that most characteristics (C) of the human beings seem to be distributed in (D) the form of a bell-
shaped curve.
A B C D

6. On (A) the bottom of (B) the New York Metro Card (C) have three arrows and little white letters
(D) that say: "Insert this way/This side facing you." What is it about that instruction that is
so impossible to understand?
A B C D

7. The (A) increase population, and (B) rapid economic growth in recent years, have put (C) a large
and growing stress on (D) the water resources and environment in Ho Chi Minh City, Vietnam.
A B C D
8. For decades the food industry (A) has been known serving up (B) sugary or fat-laden products,
(C) promoted with (D) ceaseless advertising.
A B C D

9. (A) Most of the large industries in (B) the country are well organized and structured and (C) are
sometimes (D) backed up internationally reputable mother companies.
A B C D
 9

10. All of the east-west interstate highways in the United States (A) has even (B) numbers, while
(C) north-south interstate highways (D) are odd-numbered.
A B C D

11. As two nuclei move (A) closer together, their mutual electrostatic potential energy (B) becomes
(C) more large and (D) more positive.
A B C D

12. The economy is (A) heavy dependent on (B) industry, and economic growth (C) has always
been of greater concern (D) than environmental preservation.
A B C D

13. Aspen, where (A) the limousines have (B) four-wheel drive and an empty plot can cost ten
million dollars, (C) has been declared the (D) more expensive town in America.
A B C D

14. The old system (A) of paying road taxes in labor has proved (B) inefficient and is (C)
been rapidly discarded for the better plan of (D) requiring all road taxes to be paid in cash.
A B C D

15. (A) The fractional rig is preferred for all sizes of racing (B) craft, from The Lightning all the
way up to (C) the highly complex, (D) fifty-feet-long offshore racing dinghies.
A B C D

16. Because genetic researchers already (A) will find the blueprint of the human genome, many
scientists (B) believe that (C) cures to most of the major diseases will soon (D) be found.
A B C D

17. Malaria, once thought (A) to be completely (B) eradicated, (C) remained today a source of
sickness through the (D) developing world.
A B C D

18. (A) Progesterone, the (B) femaled sex hormone, (C) is secreted in the body by the corpus
luteum, the adrenal cortex, or by the placenta during (D) pregnancy.
A B C D

19. (A) Ideal purity of thought, simplicity of means, (B) simplicity and wise orchestration, (C) all
contribute to the freshness and (D) ingenuousness of Haydn's cantatas.
A B C D

20. Every open space in (A) the targeted area that (B) has grass and a few bushes (C) are (D)
occupied by the white-crowned sparrow.
A B C D

END OF TEST
 ANSWER SHEET

Name: Applied Master:   M1‐EPM          M1‐RMIBF          M1‐GEB

PART 2: Reading Skill PART 3 ‐ Grammar Skill

Question #
Passage 1 Question #
1 A B  C D 1 A B  C D
2 A B  C D 2 A B  C D
3 A B  C D 3 A B  C D
4 A B  C D 4 A B  C D
5 A B  C D 5 A B  C D
6 A B  C D 6 A B  C D
7 A B  C D 7 A B  C D
8 A B  C D 8 A B  C D
9 A B  C D 9 A B  C D
10 A B  C D 10 A B  C D
Passage 2 11 A B  C D
1 A B  C D 12 A B  C D
2 A B  C D 13 A B  C D
3 A B  C D 14 A B  C D
4 A B  C D 15 A B  C D
5 A B  C D 16 A B  C D
6 A B  C D 17 A B  C D
7 A B  C D 18 A B  C D
8 A B  C D 19 A B  C D
9 A B  C D 20 A B  C D
10 A B  C D
Passage 3
1 A B  C D
2 A B  C D
3 A B  C D
4 A B  C D
5 A B  C D
6 A B  C D
7 A B  C D
8 A B  C D
9 A B  C D
10 A B  C D
 French Department of Economics and Management

Entrance Exam
July 19th, 2015
Duration 1h30
No document allowed – No calculator allowed –
Please switch off your mobile phone
Part 4: Problem solving & Quantitative reasoning
20 points - Indicative time: 45 minutes

Part 5: General Knowledge in Management & Foundations of Economics

20 points - Indicative time: 45 minutes

Please write your answers on the answers sheet.

PreahMonivong Blvd., SangkatTonleBassac, Khan Chamkamon, PO Box 842, Phnom Penh, CAMBODIA.
Tel: (855) 23 726471 - Email: [email protected] - Website: www.rule.edu.kh
 Part 4: Problem solving & Quantitative Reasoning

1. If is positive, which of the following is true?

a. a>0
b. b>0
c. a/b>0
d. a–b>0
e. a+b>0
2. Amongst the following sets, which one belongs to the real number R?
a. [1 ; 2 ; 5i ; 7 ; 9.5 ; 15]
b. [1 ; 5 ; 9 ; 2+5i ; 20]
c. [1 ; 5 ; 7 ; 9+i2 ; √15]
d. [-5 ; 0 ; 5 ; 5.5i ; 10]
e. [-2+i ; 1 ; 5 ; 9 ; 12 ]
3. The sum of prime numbers that are between 110 and 125 is:
a. 113
b. 119
c. 232
d. 240
e. 353
4. If S is an integer, which of the following must be odd?
a. S + 1
b. 2S – 1
c. S2 + 2
d. S + 2
e. 2S
5. If abc> 0, then which of the following must be true?
a. <0
b. a > 0
c. >0
d. bc< 0
e. a >bc

6. Tom and Jerry were avid comic book collectors. The number of comic books that Tom
and Jerry owned was in the ratio of 5:3, respectively. After Tom sold Jerry 10 of his
comic books, the ratio of the number of comic books Tom had to the number that Jerry
had was 7:5. As a consequence, Tom had how many more comic books than Jerry did
after the sale?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 60
d. 90
e. 150

Page 2 of 12 
 
 7. If x is an odd integer and y is an even integer, which of the following must be true?
a. y is not a factor of x
b. xyis an odd integer
c. x2is an even integer
d. y – x is an even integer
e. x is a prime number
8. The mean ( ) of a distribution of 10 ; 20 ; 15 ; 20 ; 10 ; 25 ; 100 ; 20 ; 25 and 20 is :
a. 25.5
b. 26
c. 26.5
d. 27
e. 27.5
9. If the sum of 5, 8, 12, and 15 is equal to the sum of 3, 4, x, and x+3, what is the value of
x?
a. 14
b. 15
c. 16
d. 17
e. 18
10. The probability of drawing a Seven of Hearts in the Cards game is equal to:
a. 4/52
b. 1/52
c. 1
d. 0
e. 13/52
11. The probability of rolling two dies to get two “1” is equal to:
a. 2/6
b. 1/6
c. 1
d. 1/36
e. 1/3
12. An economy’s gross domestic product (GDP) increased annually for three years by 5%,
6%, and 7%, respectively. What is the overall growth rate of the GDP?
a. 6%
b. 18%
c. 18.50%
d. 19.09%
e. 20.09%
13. What is the average growth rate of a salary which increased by 80% for the first year,
and by 50% for the second year?
a. –10%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
e. 100%

Page 3 of 12 
 
 14. A water lily has doubled its size for 3 years. What is its annual growth rate?
a. 20.50%
b. 26%
c. 33.33%
d. 50%
e. 67%
15. Fred’s age is 5 more than twice Janet’s age. In 20 years, Janet’s age tripled will be 7
more than Fred’s age doubled. How old will Janet be 10 years from now?
a. 10
b. 13
c. 21
d. 30
e. 31
16. If 27x+2. 25y = 39 . 5x-3, what is the value of y?
a. – 3
b. – 2
c. – 1
d. 0.5
e. 2

17. What is √ 2
?

a. √2
b. 2√2
c. 8
d. 8√2
e. 16
18. Which of the following equation is NOT equivalent to 9a2 = (b – 3) (b + 3) ?
a. a2 = (b2 – 9) / 9
b. (3a – b) (3a + b) = – 9
c. 18 a2 – 2b2 + 18 = 0
d. 27 a2 = (√3b – 3√3) (√3b + 3√3)
e. 3 a2 + 6 = b2
19. The function f(x) is equal to the square of a number lessened by 5. The function g(x) is
equal to a number tripled. What is f ?
a. 4
b. 7
c. 13
d. 22
e. 31
20. What is the lowest positive integer that is divisible by each of the integers 1 through 8,
inclusive?
a. 420
b. 840
c. 2520
d. 5040
e. 40,320

Page 4 of 12 
 
 21. In the infinite sequence a1, a2, a3, …, an, each term after the first is equal to triple the
previous term. If a4 – a3 = 36, what is the value ofa1?
a.
b. 1
c. 2
d.
e. 4
22. What is the sum of x and y given that 2x + y = 10, and x – 2y = 15 ?
a. – 2
b. 0
c. 2
d. 3
e. 5
23. If x is a product of all integers from 2 to 24, inclusive, what is the greatest integer y for
which 35y is a factor of x?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. 9
24. What are the measures of angles w, x, y and z, respectively given that a // b and c // d ?
a. 70o, 70o, 110o, 110o
b. 110o, 110o, 70o, 70o   w      y 
c. 110o, 70o, 70o, 110o
  x                   z 
d. 70o, 110o, 110o, 70o   70o 
e. 110o, 70o, 110o, 70o
25. Triangle ABC is shown in the figure above. What is its perimeter given that BC is half of
AB, and AB is length 6 and is perpendicular to BC ?
  A 
a. 9 + √5
b. 9 + 3√3  
c. 9 + 5√3
d. 9 + 3√5  
e. 9 + 5√5   B     C 

26. What is the sum of the measures of the angle , and ?

a. 180o           D 
       E              B 
b. 250o
c. 270o
A      C 
d. 300o
e. 320o

Page 5 of 12 
 
 27. The median of the four terms a, b, a + b, and b – a is 4. If a >b> 0, what is the arithmetic
mean (average) of the four terms ?
a. 4

b.

c. +a

d. 3 +

e. 4 +
28. Which of the following statement is not true?
a. 0! = 1
b. =n
c. =0
d. =1
Below is the table representing the number of students enrolled in the Masters programs in the
year N at the RULE’s French Department (you will use it to answer the questions 27 to 28).
Sex\Programs EPM RMIBF GEB
Male 22 5 15
Female 12 19 5
29. What is the probability of getting from the malepopulation by random a student from
the program EPM?
a. 25.57%
b. 28.20%
c. 28.57%
d. 52.38%
e. 55.38%
30. What is the probability of getting by randomwithout replacement from the institution 2
students enrolled in the EPM and RMIBF programs?
a. 0.12%
b. 2.56%
c. 13.41%
d. 13.58%
e. 15.41%

Page 6 of 12 
 
 Part 5: General Knowledge in Management & Foundations of Economics

31. Which of the following is the central problem of every economy?

a. Abundance of resources
b. Scarcity of economic resources
c. Poverty
d. Moral and ethical values
32. Which of the following figures represents the price equilibrium on a market?

Price (P) Price (P)

Supply Demand Demand Supply

P* E E
P*

Q* Quantity (Q) Q* Quantity (Q)

Figure (A) Figure (B)

a. Figure A
b. Figure B

33. Which of the following is an advantage of the organizational structure of Option A over the
structure of Option B?

a. Departments will have more functional similarity with Option A than with Option B.
b. Employees will have more opportunities for advancement with Option A than with
Option B.
c. Employees will receive more guidance during new projects with Option A than with
Option B.
d. Communication and decision making will be faster with Option A than with Option B
34. Microeconomics addresses which of the following issue(s)?
a. Inflation
b. Unemployment
c. GDP Growth
d. Total production volume of a company
e. All of (a), (b) and (c)

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 35. If a price increase of good A increases the quantity demanded of good B, then good B is :
a. Substitute good
b. Complementary good
c. Bargain
d. Inferior good
e. None of above
36. Opportunity costs are best described as the costs of:
a. Operating a business
b. Choosing one alternative over others
c. Developing new products
d. Entering a new market with an existing product

37. Price discrimination is :

a. Usually an illegal marketing strategy
b. The fact that poor customers are not well treated
c. Charging different prices to different customers
d. Based on differences in cost elasticity of supply
e. All of the above
38. A person has comparative advantage in producing a good or service if he/she:
a. Can produce the good or service faster than others
b. Can produce the good or service at a lower opportunity cost than other people
c. Has stronger energy
d. Can produce the good or service at the lowest absolute cost
e. Have a higher opportunity cost than other
39. Assuming a restaurant sells pizzas at the rate of $6 a pizza and hires workers at $8 per
hour to work an 8-hour day, how many workers should be hired in order to maximize
profit?
Number of pizza sold
a. 1 worker Number of workers
per day
b. 2 workers 1 50
c. 3 workers 2 80
d. 4 workers 3 100
e. 5 workers 4 110
5 120

40. Nominal GDP is :

a. The total value of goods and services net of exports
b. The total value of goods and services produced during periods of low unemployment
c. The total value of goods and services measured at current prices
d. The total value of goods and services produced at full employment
e. The total value of goods and services measured at the reference prices
41. Given Real GDP of 6.5% and rate of inflation of 5.5%, the nominal GDP will be…….
a. 1%
b. 6.85%
c. 12%
d. 12.35%
e. 35.75%

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 42. The belief that a firm's obligation goes beyond that required by law and economics, and
includes a pursuit of long-term goals that are good for society is known as:
a. Social responsiveness
b. Ethical responsibility
c. Social responsibility
d. Social obligation
43. The SWOT approach assesses an organization's :
a. Speed, Wants, Order, Timing
b. Structure, Workforce, Organization, Types
c. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
d. Signs, Worries, Objectives, Techniques
44. Answer on the basis of the relationships shown in the below four figures. The amount of
Y is inversely related to the amount of X in:

a. 2 only.
b. Both 1 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
e. Both 3 and 4

45. Shares are:

a. A loan contract
b. Also known as bonds
c. Issued by sole proprietorships.
d. Titles of ownership of a corporation
46. Which of the following is a public good or service?
a. Tires
b. Cars
c. Infrastructures
d. Gasoline
e. Any kinds of popular consumption goods and services
47. If you owned a small farm, which of the following would be a fixed cost?
a. Harvest labor
b. Weather insurance
c. Fertilizer
d. Seeds
48. Which of the following countries comprise the Great Mekong Sub-region (GSM) ?
a. China, Laos PDR, Thailand, Indonesia, Cambodia and Vietnam
b. Cambodia, Laos PDR, Myanmar, Vietnam, and China
c. Mongolia, Myanmar, Laos PDR, Cambodia, Thailand and Vietnam
d. Cambodia, Thailand, Indonesia, Myanmar, Laos PDR and Vietnam

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 49. What will be the date of the integration of the ASEAN Economic Community?
a. December 30, 2015
b. December 31, 2015
c. January 1st, 2016
d. January 2nd, 2016
e. No determined date yet
50. The mix marketing (4Ps) contains the following elements:
a. Product, Price, People, and Place
b. Product, Place, People and Promotion
c. Product, People, Process and Promotion
d. Product, Price, Place and Promotion
e. Product, People, Place and Promotion
51. The names of the two companies listed on Cambodia Securities Exchange (CSX) are:
a. ACLEDA Securities Plc., and Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA)
b. Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA), and Sonatra Securities Plc.,
c. Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA), and Grand Twins International
(Cambodia) Plc.,
d. Canadia Securities Plc., and Phnom Penh Water Supply Authority (PWSA)
e. Canadia Securities Plc., and ACLEDA Securities Plc.,
52. Which one of the following statements in accounting is false?
a. An asset has a debit account
b. An asset has a credit account
c. Retained earnings have a credit account
d. A short-term debt has a credit account
e. A short-term debt is a liability
53. The value of saving USD 5,000 at an annual of 5% for 5 years is:
a. USD 5,571
b. USD 5,581
c. USD 6,371
d. USD 6,381
e. USD 6,400

The following graph represents two investment projects proposed to an investor (A and B).
Use the graphic to answer the question 70 and 71. Note: “NPV” stands for “Net Present
Value”, a method of making an investment decision by subtracting discounted future cash
flows by its initial investment, and “IRR” stands for “Internal Rate of Return”, a discounting
rate which makes an investment project break even (for the Question 54 and 55).

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 54. Following NPV rule, the investor has to invest in the project ……………….

55. The rate of i* = …………………………….. given thatthe initial investment (CF0) and
returned cash flow (CF1) of the Project A are shown as (CF0 = -1000, CF1 = 1200),
andproject B (CF0 = -10, CF1 = 30)

Income Statement (for the Question 56 to 60)

Tom and Jerry decided to create a new company providing entertainment services. They had
put $50,000 cash in the bank account of the company, and a building valued at $360,000.
They bought a new car at $80,000 which was financed by a bank loan to be repaid in 5 years
by constant amortization (interest rate = 10% per year). Then, they purchased in credit drinks
from suppliers for $30,000 to put in stock. After one-year activities, they recorded the
following accounting information:
- Supplier debt was paid at the beginning of the year (January)
- More drinks were bought for $80,000 using cash to fill the inventory. A drink bought
at $1 was resold at $2
- Drinks sales: $130,000
- Entrance tickets sales: $20,000
- Insurance expenses: $40,000
- Personnel expenses: $140,000
After the one-year operations, the equipments were depreciated. The car has a useful life of 5
years, and the building has 10 years (constant depreciation). The corporate tax is 40%.
56. What is the total amount of depreciations recorded by the company for the year 1?
a. $16,000
b. $36,000
c. $52,000
d. $56,000
e. $66,000
57. What is the total amount of revenues of the year?
a. $130,000
b. $200,000
c. $230,000
d. $330,000
e. $430,000
58. What are the total expenses recorded for the year?
a. $188,000
b. $232,000
c. $268,000
d. $298,000
e. $305,000

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 59. What is the net income after tax for the year?
a. $15,000
b. $15,500
c. $19,200
d. $19,500
e. $85,200
60. What would be the value of the car after two-year operations?
a. $16,000
b. $32,000
c. $48,000
d. $64,000
e. None of above

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 ANSWER SHEET

Name: Applied Master:   M1‐EPM          M1‐RMIBF          M1‐GEB

PART 4 ‐ Problem Solving & Quantitative Reasoning PART 5 ‐ General Knowledge in Management & Economics

Question # Question #
1 A B  C D E 31 A B  C D
2 A B  C D E 32 A B 
3 A B  C D E 33 A B  C D E
4 A B  C D E 34 A B  C D E
5 A B  C D E 35 A B  C D E
6 A B  C D E 36 A B  C D
7 A B  C D E 37 A B  C D E
8 A B  C D E 38 A B  C D E
9 A B  C D E 39 A B  C D E
10 A B  C D E 40 A B  C D E
11 A B  C D E 41 A B  C D E
12 A B  C D E 42 A B  C D
13 A B  C D E 43 A B  C D
14 A B  C D E 44 A B  C D E
15 A B  C D E 45 A B  C D
16 A B  C D E 46 A B  C D E
17 A B  C D E 47 A B  C D
18 A B  C D E 48 A B  C D
19 A B  C D E 49 A B  C D E
20 A B  C D E 50 A B  C D E
21 A B  C D E 51 A B  C D E
22 A B  C D E 52 A B  C D E
23 A B  C D E 53 A B  C D E
24 A B  C D E 54 A B 
25 A B  C D E 55 i* = 18.18 %
26 A B  C D E 56 A B  C D E
27 A B  C D E 57 A B  C D E
28 A B  C D 58 A B  C D E
29 A B  C D E 59 A B  C D E
30 A B  C D E 60 A B  C D E