Car 1000 MCQ

CAR 66
1) Category C experience requirement for large aircraft (CAR 66/pg. 15)
A) 3 yrs experience exercising category B1.1 orB1.3 or B2 privileges
B) CAR 145 B1.1,B1.3 or B2 support staff
C) Both A and B
2) Credits expire …………………. After they were granted to the applicant by the DGCA (CAR 66/pg.14)
A) 5 yrs
B) 2 yrs
C) 10 yrs
3) Continued validity of AME license is (CAR 66/pg.16)
A) 2 yrs
B) 1 yr
C) 5 yrs
4) ICAO convention is held on
A) 7 December 1944
B) 7 January 1997
C) 7 November 1937
14) Application for initial issue of CAR 66 AME license in CA FORM (CAR 66/pg.153)
A) 19-01
B) 19-02
C) 19-03
28) MTCS (CAR 66/pg.16)
A) The certification authorization of AME license become invalid as soon as license become invalid
B) The certification authorization of AME license become earlier license becomes invalid
C) Both A and B
60) Category B2 license holder can holder can issue CRS on (CAR 66/pg.13)
a) Following maintenance on avionics and electrical system of an specific type of a/c
b) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an aircraft endorsed on license
c) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an a/c
d) NTA
61) Eligibility criteria for application of AME license (CAR 66/pg.12)
a) 10+2 P, C
b) 10+2 P, C, M, B
c) 10+2 P, C, M
85) B2 licence engineer can issue CRS (CAR 66/pg.13)
a) before completion of avionics and electrical maintenance
b) after maintenance on avionic and electrical systems of aircraft type endorsed on the licence
c) base maintenance
d)after maintenance, including aircraft structure, power-plant, mechanical and electrical systems,
103) certification privileges based upon an (CAR 66/pg.16)
a) Invalid aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence.
b) aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence becomes valid as soon as the aircraft maintenance
engineer’s licence is invalid.
c) aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence becomes invalid as soon as the aircraft maintenance
engineer’s licence is invalid.
d) all the above
130) For category A, sub categories B1.2 and B1.4 and category B3 experience required (CAR
66/pg.14)
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
131) For category B2 and sub-categories B1.1 and B1.3 experience required (CAR 66/pg.14)
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
156) Who conduct the basic exam (CAR 66/pg.14)
a. CEO
b. RAO
c. DGCA
d. all of the above
181)Cat. A license holder can issue CRS on
a) Minor scheduled line maintenance and simple defect rectification for broad cat.
b) Minor scheduled line maintenance and simple defect rectification on aircraft endorsed on the
license
c)Both
182)Cat.A1 and Cat.B1.1- (CAR 66/pg.11)
a) aeroplane piston
b) Aeroplane Turbine
c) aeroplane piston and Aeroplane Turbine
184)Certification privileges based on AME license
a) Become invalid as soon as AME license invalid
b) Become invalid before AME license invalid
c) both
260) Certification responsibilities of Licensed Engineers and Approved Inspectors can be found in.
1) CAIPs pt 111
2) CAR-66.
3) Airworthiness Notices 3 and 10.
283) Maintenance on electromechanical and pitot static components may also be released by
1) B1 LIECENCE HOLDER
2) B2 LICENCE HOLDER
3) B1 OR B2 LICENCE HOLDER
294)In order to obtain a type approval on an aircraft, an engineer must.
1) must work on aircraft for 12 months within the last 24 months
2) have a manufacturers course within the last 3 years.
3) work on the type for 12 months in the last 24 months.
46. Category A license holder to issue [CAR-66, pg.13]

a. CRS after miner scheduled line maintenance
b. Simple defect rectification
c. both
47. Credits shall be granted in accordance with [CAR-66, pg.14]

a. APM chapter 10
b. APM chapter 7
c. APM chapter 17
48. Basic experience required for category B2 and sub-categories B1.1 and B1.3 [CAR-66, pg.14]
a. 3 yr
b. 5 yr
c. 2 yr
49. for category C with respect to non large aircraft: [CAR-66, pg.15]
a. 5 yrs of experience exercising category B1 or B2 privileges on non large aircraft
b. Following option A, CAR 145 B1 or B2 support staff also
c. None
50. A failed module may not be retaken for [CAR-66, pg.81]
a. At least 90 days
b. At least 30 days if training org conducts course
c. Both
d. None
51. Application for appearing in CAR 66 type Examination [CAR-66, pg.153]

a. CA Form 19-08A
b. CA Form 19-08B
c. CA form 19-09
52. Category B2 license holder can holder can issue CRS on [CAR-66, pg.13]
a) Following maintenance on avionics and electrical system of an specific type of a/c
b) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an aircraft endorsed on license
c) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an a/c
d) NTA
53. Eligibility criteria for application of AMe license [CAR-66, pg.12]

a) 10+2 P,C
b) 10+2 P,C,M,B
c) 10+2 P,C,M
54. Category C experience requirement for large aircraft [CAR-66, pg.15]

A) 3 yrs experience exercising category B1.1 orB1.3 or B2 privileges
B) CAR 145 B1.1,B1.3 or B2 support staff
C)Both A and B
55. Credits expire …………………. After they were granted to the applicant by the DGCA [CAR-66,pg.14]
A) 5 yrs
B) 2 yrs
C)10 yrs
56. Continued validity of AME license is [CAR-66, pg.16]

A) 2 yrs
B) 1 yr
C)5 yrs
57. Application for initial issue of CAR 66 AME license in CA FORM [CAR 66, pg.153]
A) 19-01
B) 19-02
C) 19-03
58. MTCS [CAR-66, pg.16]

A) The certification authorization of AME license become invalid as soon as license become invalid
B) The certification authorization of AME license become earlier license becomes invalid
C) Both A and B
FTS
5) For FTS continuation training is provide for period of every ………………. (CAR M/pg.254)
A) 2 yrs
B) 4 yrs
C) 1 yrs
9) MTCS (Fuel tank safety) (CAR 145/Pg.109)
A) Aircraft above 5700kg 10 passenger
B) Aircraft below 5700 19 passengers
C) Large aero plane maximum type certified passenger capacity of 30 or more of maximum
certified payload of 7500lbs (3402kg) cargo or more
35) FTS included phenomenon (CAR M/Pg.254)
A) Electric arcing
B) Ignition
C) Hot ignition prevention
D) All the above

36)phase 1 training is for (CAR M/Pg.252)
A) Quality manager
B) Quality staff
C) Both
55) Phase 1 training should be given to (CAR 145/APD.8/Pg.109)
a) Group of persons representing management structure
b) Quality manager and staff whose monitor the organization
c) Both a & b
65) Person of MA subpart G org involved in management and review of CAMO (CAR M/Pg.252)
a) Phase 1 only
b) Phase 2 only
c) Phase 1 + phase 2 + continuation training
66) Phase 2 includes (CAR M/Pg.253)
a) Detail of SB
b) Examination should be required at end of the phase
c) MCQ and pass mark 75%
d) Both a & b
67) W.R.T. FTST it consists should include (CAR M/pg.253)
a) Some example of STC holder
b) Some example of mfr document showing CDCCL item
c) Some example of inspection
d) None
100) FTS Phase 1 Objective include (CAR M/Pg.252)
a) Be familiar with the basic elements of the fuel tank safety issues.
b) Be able to give a simple description of the historical background and the elements requiring a
safety consideration, using common words and showing examples of non-conformities.
c) Be able to use typical terms.
d) All Are Correct
109) Continuation training should be given to a person (CAR M/Pg.254)
a. once in each two-year period
b. twice in each two-year
c. once in a year
113) fuel tank safety training effective for (CAR M/Pg.251)
a. maximum certified payload capacity of 7500 lbs (3402 kg) cargo
b. Large aeroplanes type certified for passenger capacity of 30 or more
c. both a & b
132) Phase 1 training given to the person to start work without supervision in FTS (CAR M/Pg.252)
a. at least 6 months after joining the organization
b. not later than 6 months after joining the organisation
c. after 6 months joining the organization
173)group of person representing maintenance management structure of org.should require FTST

(CAR 145/Pg.109)
a) phase-1
b) phase-2
c)phase-1+2+continuation training
175)FTST should completed within – (CAR 145/Pg.110)
a) Note later than 6 months after joining the org
b) Note later than 24 after joining org.
c)Note late than 12 after joining org.
153) In fuel tank safety ignition source increase (CAR M/Pg.254)

a. flammability
b. ignition
c. both a and b
d. only b
284) For fuel tank safety training the interval between continuing training shall be established by the
organization employing such personnel
1) But should not exceed 2 years
CAR 21
6) The document which described Design organization approval (CAR 21/ index)
A) CAR145
B) CAR147
C) CARM
D) CAR21
38) for TC & RTC CA form (CAR 21/APD B-6/SUB-Q)
A) 28
B) 30
C) 23
47) MTCS
a) Type certificate is given to prototype A/C
b) Type certificate has unlimited validation
c) STC is not given by DGCA
d) Both a & b
101) Component marking in accordance with CAR 21 subpart – (CAR 21/Pg.11)
a) P
b) Q
c) R
140) CA Form for type certificate (CAR 21/Pg.5)
a. CA-30
b. CA-28
c. CA-35
d. CA-33
185)What is most important when importing new type of aircraft in India first time (
a) Adequately trained person is available such as engineer and pilots
b) appropriate approved org. is available for maintenance
c)CAR 145 org. is available for the maintenance
279) What could invalidate a Noise Certificate
1) A modification
.
2) An unauthorised or unapproved repair is carried out.
3) Once issued, nothing can invalidate it.
290) A Type Certificate is a.
1) requirement prior to the issue of a C of A for aircraft in the Transport Category

2) requirement for aircraft above 2730Kg MTWA
3) prerequisite to the issue of a C of A
73. The competent authority shall be establish ----------------of that allows adequate traceability
of the process to issue, continue, change, suspend or revoke each certificate [CAR-21, pg.41]
a. Record keeping
b. Storing
c. Program
74. Continued validity of AME license is [CAR-66, pg.16]
C) 2 yrs
D) 1 yr
C)5 yrs
75. The document which described ITSOA [CAR-21, sub.O]
A. CAR145
B. CAR147
C. CAR M
D. CAR21
76. Application for Approval of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) [CAR-21, index pg.20]
a. CA form 33
b. CA 34
c. CA 35
77. A document issued or adopted by DGCA which mandates actions to be performed on an
aircraft to restore an acceptable level of safety [CAR-21, pg.4]
a. SB
b. SL
c. AD
d. ALL
78. An airworthiness directive shall contain information [CAR-21, pg.4]
a. An identification of the unsafe condition;
b. An identification of the affected aircraft;
c. The action(s) required
d. All
79. Validity of ITSOA, TC, STC ,RTC and Noise certificate [CAR-21, pg.11/20/41/62]
a. Unlimited
b. 5 yr
c. 3yr
80. The document which described Design organization aproval [CAR-21, imdex]
A) CAR145
B) CAR147
C) CARM
D)CAR21
980) The records of noise certificate shall be archived for a minimum retention period of _____ after
leaving the register. (CAR 21/Pg.41)
• 06 years
• 05 years
• 03 years
• 01 years
981) A design organization approval shall be issued for a limited period of (CAR 21/Pg.45)
• 02 years
• 12 months
• 05 years
• Unlimited
982) The holder of a design organization approval shall be entitled (CAR 21/Pg.46)
• to classify changes to type design and repairs as ‘major’ or ‘minor’
• to propose the design of major repairs to products for which it holds the type certificate
or the STC
• to approve minor changes to type design and minor repairs
• all the above
983) Term “handbook” is related to
• Subpart H
• Subpart JA
• Subpart JB
• Both b) & c) are correct
984) No part or appliance (except a standard part), shall be eligible for installation in a type
certificated product unless it is
• Accompanied by an authorized release certificate
• Marked in accordance with subpart Q
• Both a) & b)
• None
985) A repair shall be classified ‘major’ or ‘minor’ (CAR 21/Pg.54)
• By DGCA
• BY an appropriately approved design organization under a procedure agreed with DGCA.
• Either a) or b)
• None
988)” ITSO” stands for (CAR 21/Pg.2)

• Indian Technical standard order
• International Technical standard organization
• Institute of technology & science organization
• International transportation specification order
992) All the flight conditions not related to safety of design shall be approved by (CAR 21/Pg.65)
• DGCA
• Need not require DGCA approval
• As in b) & QCM can issue approval
• none
993) Placards related to public information shall be presented in (CAR 21/Pg.75)
• bilingual
• as in a) & in English & Hindi
• Only English
• Only hindi
994) The identification of products shall include (CAR 21/Pg.67)
• Manufacturer's name.
• Product designation.
• Manufacturer's Serial number.
• All the above
995) Which of the following components requires DGCA approval for installation & removal of
identification plate (CAR 21/Pg.67)
• Aircraft
• Engine
• Propeller blade
• All the above & APU is also included.
996) Critical parts are identified by (CAR 21/Pg.68)
• Part number
• Serial number
• Both a) & b)
• As in c) and they are permanently marked
997) Type certificate is issued for (CAR 21/Pg.5)
• Products
• only aircraft
• only aircraft engine
• only propeller
989) ITSO is detailed airworthiness specification issued by (CAR 21/Pg.2)

• DGCA
• As in a) to ensure compliance with the essential requirements of the Regulation
• As in b) and is a minimum performance standard for specified articles.
• None
CAR SECTION 2 SERIES

7) For category B by a company or corporation (SERIES-F PART I/Pg.4)
A) Registered and having its principal place of business within India
B) Registered elsewhere than in India and carry on business in India
C) Both A and B
11) MTCS (engine change) (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.2)
A) Reinstallation of same engine on the same aircraft in its original position would not constitute an
engine
change
B) Remove from same position and fitted to same position and fitted to same position on same
aircraft
C) None
12) The” observed actual climb performance” shall in no case be lower than………. of the expected
climb performance figure for the purpose of acceptable of test flight report (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.5)
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 2%
15) Mandatory modification MTCS (SERIES-M PART-1/Pg.3)
A) Airworthiness directive including SB, SI, SL required DGCA approval
B) Airworthiness directive including SB, SI, SL is not required DGCA approval
C) Both A and B
23) Fuelling of aircraft MTCS (SERIES-H PART-2/Pg.6)
A) Fuelling during electrical storms fuelling shall be continued during severe lighting
B) Fuelling during electrical storms fuelling shall be suspended during severe lighting disturbance
in vanity of aerodrome or helipad
C) None
25) MTCS (SERIES-F PART-15/Pg.7)
A) First aid kit box is carried on board
B) Fire extinguisher
C) Seat belts harness are properly installed
D) All of the above
27) During test flight incident and accident occurred will report to ……………… (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.3)
A) DGCA
B) Quality department
C) RAO
31) MTCS (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.6)
A) Temporary C Of R for purpose of bringing the aircraft by air
B) Valid till first landing at custom aerodrome in India
C) Both A and B
D) Tem c of r is valid for 1yr

32) C OF R lost/destroyed (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.12)
A) Duplicated thereof may be issued on payment of 10% of the payable
B) For lost duplicate is issued
C) For destroyed temporary C OF R is issued
33) C of R validation fee (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.13)
A) 50%
B) 10%
C) None
37) weighing must be done (SERIES-X PART-2/Pg.2)
A) 5years
B) 2years
C) AT the time of CofA
42) MEL shall include (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.2)
A) cat. A
B) Cat.A + B
C) Cat. A+B+C
D) Cat.A+B+C+D
44) weighing shall be done (SERIES X PART-2/Pg.3)
A) By operator
B) DGCA
C) Officer or any person authorised by DGCA
D) QM
46) Mandatory modification (SERIES M PART 1/Pg.1)
a) Means the modification incorporated in A/C , accomplishment and item of equipment
b) After type certification to maintain it in an A/W condition
c) Both a& b
49) Test flight is done for (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.4)
a) MAOW
b) MTOW
c) Both a & b
50) Shall be responsible for recording the result of the test flight (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.4)
a) PIC
b) Person authorize by the operator
c) Both a & b
53) Fees for c of R is given in accordance to (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.12)
a) MTOW
b) Seating capacity
c) Both a & b
d) None
54) MTCS MEL (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.3)
a) Maintenance procedure given in DDPG
b) Operational procedure given in DDPG
c) MEL requirements accordance to MMEL
d) All of the above
68) The actual weight of passenger is (SERIES-X PART-2/Pg.5)
a) A/C weight up to 2000 kg
b) A/C weight less than 2000 kg
c) A/C weight more than 2000 kg
73) MTCS (SERIES-H PART-2/Pg.6)
About refuelling of A/C during electrical storm
a) Refuelling should be stopped

b) Refuelling should be carried out until the damage will occur
c) Refuelling should be done until the next flight
74) When the new type of A/C imported in India first time (SERIES-F PART-23/Pg.8)
a) Maintenance station should be available accordance with CAR 145
b) Documents
c) The type certificate must be approved by DGCA
84) Which of the following not required DGCA approval (SERIES-M PART-1/Pg.3)
a) AD
b) DGCA MANDATORY MODIFICATIONS
c) Service bulletin
d) All
91) MEL is prepared by (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.1)
a) Operator
b) AME
c) operational person
92) MEL MTCS (SERIES-B PART-1/pg.3)
a) MMEL issued by the State of design/manufacturer
b) MEL issued by the State of design/manufacturer
c) The preamble of the MEL shall also stipulate that whenever the MEL is invoked, the flight dispatch
shall be informed.
d)Both A& C
93) Who is responsible for recording the result of the test flight and for making such comments in
writing as considered necessary for a further test flight. (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.3)
a) PIC
b) AME
c) person authorised by operator
d) Both A and C
98) C OF R duplicate (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.2)
a) 10% fee payable of original fee
b) 20 % fee payable of original fee
c) 50% fee payable of original fee
102) Application for Registration (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.14)
a) CA 25
b) CA 28
c) FORM 28
111) fee applicable for renewal of CofA (SERIES-F PART-3/Pg.25)
a. 50% of fees payable
b. 25% of fee payable
c. 10% of fee payable
112) When a company or corporation registered elsewhere then India and carrying on business in
India falling in cat. (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.4)
a. cat. B
b. cat. A
c. either A or B
114) Who record the test flight (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.4)
a. PIC
b. operator
c. QCM
115) At the time of issue of CofA to a new type of a/c imported into the country, operator shall
insure that (SERIES-M PART-1/Pg.2)
a. AD’s issued by regulatory authority of state of manufacturer are compiled

b. must have a maintenance organisation
c. must have a CAMO
123) Engine change is (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.2)
a. removes from one place then install at that place
b. removes from one side of wing and install another side of wing
c. none of these
133) In the MEL item in category A shall be repaired in the interval (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.2)
a. within the time interval specified in the remark’s column of the MEL.
b. 30 days
c. 120 days
135) Flight test report given to (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.3)
a. PIC
b. operator
c. RAO
143) Category of MEL (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.2)
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
145) service bulletin issued by (SERIES-M PART-1/Pg.2)
a. manufacturer
b. dgca
c. operator
d. all of the above

147) Copy of weight schedule is retain for a period of (SERIES-X PART-2/Pg.4)
a. 1-year
b. when aircraft permanently withdrawn
c. until fresh schedule come
155) When CofR destroy or lost then issued (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.7)
a. duplicate CofR
b. temporary CofR
c. only a is correct
159)......shall be responsible for recording result of test flight (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.4)
a) PIC
b) any other person authorised by operator
c) operator
164)Which statement is false (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.3)
a) MEL is prepared by operator
b) Preamble of MEL contain operator philosophy to invoking MEL
c)MEL is less restrictive than MMEL
165)Which statement is false (SERIES-B PART-1/Pg.3)
a) MMEL issued by state of design/mfg.
b) MEL not contain operational and maintenance procedure issued by mfg. in DDPG
c)operator shall submit certificate that MEL has been prepared in consultation of operation
department
178)Limit of CG (SERIES-X PART-2/Pg.1)
a) C of A
b) Flight manual
c) C of A and Flight manual
180)Application for C of R (SERIES-F PART-1/Pg.4)
a) CA form 28
b) CA form 25
c)form 28
193)To satisfactory determine the cause of defect what is required (SERIES-T PART-2/Pg.3)
a) Ground test
b) test flight
c) RAMP test
148) CAME and its amendment approved by (SERIES-O PART-14/Pg.4)
a. manufacturer
b. dgca
c. operator
258) Aircraft over 5700 kg must be weighed
1) within 2 years of manufacture
2) at every major check.
3) annually
259) How many times must the nationality and registration marks appear on an aircraft?
1) 4 times.
2) 3 times
3) 5 times
275) A radio installation is. (SERIES I PART-8)
1) a C of R requirement
2) an operational requirement.
3) a C of A requirement
276) An aircraft with a transport category C of A cannot be flown for hire and reward except.
(SERIES F PART-14/Pg.21)
1) under the terms of an air operators’ certificate.
2) under the terms of an aerial work certificate.
3) under the terms of an aircraft dealers’ certificate.
289) A Certificate of Approval of Aircraft Radio Installation is awarded
1) before the aircraft obtains a C of A.
2) after the aircraft obtains a C of A.
3) regardless of the aircraft's C of A status
292) The responsibility for reporting incidents and occurrences during a flight Tests with the.
1) aircraft commander
2) engineer clearing the tech log.
3) air stewards
296) When Certificate of Airworthiness of an Indian Registered aircraft has lapsed within operation
in foreign country, then
1) short term Certificate of Airworthiness may be issued by DGCA to bring the aircraft to base
2) as in (a) and normal Certificate of Airworthiness renewal procedure will be attended on arrival at
base station
3) normal Certificate of Airworthiness procedure shall be carried out to renew the C of A at foreign
destination wherein aircraft is grounded
298) Total no of engine hours flown (no. of engine hours) equals

1) No of airframe hours X number of engines installed on that type of aircraft
2) No. of airframe hour X no. of aircraft
3) No. of airframe hour X no. of engine on same aircraft
299) For maintenance of airframe communication navigation& radar equipment.

1) All defect rectified must be entered in the relevant PDR/ off job sheet/log books
2) As in b and is issued by AME/approved/authorized person after carrying out inspection
Either Institutor or in the workshop
3) Both a and b are correct
136. Use of aircraft by invoking MEL for longer periods

will result in [sec.2, series.B, part.1, pg.2]
a. Improved flight safety
b. Reduced flight safety
c. Improved system efficiency
137. MEL items may be categorized [sec.2, series.B, part.1, pg.2]
a. A,B
b. A,B,C
c. A,B,C,D
138. Approval of any revision/ amendment to the MEL shall be
approved by [sec.2, series.B, part.1, pg.4]
a. MFR
b. state of design
c. RAO
139. MTCS MEL [sec.2, series.B, part.1, pg.3]
d) All of the above
140. Which category of item regarding to MEL is repaired
within 3 day [sec.2, series.B, part.1, pg.2]
a) Cat. A
b) Cat. B
c) Cat. C
d) Cat. D
141. Aircraft operator which operates its fleet, whole or part of it, as
per a published schedule [sec.2, series.C, part.1, pg.2]
a. Other than SOP
b. SOP
c. NSOP
142. Minimum Three aircraft of a particular type / Model
shall constitute [sec.2, series.C, part.1, pg.2]
a. Boggie
b. Conventional types a/c
c. A/C fleet
143. SOP shall carry out review [sec.2, series.C, part.1, pg.4]
a. Monthly
b. Daily
c. Weekly
144. The scheduled operator should submit major
defect report within [sec.2, series.C, part.1, pg.4]
(A) 24 hrs
(B) 3 days
(C) quarterly
(D) two weeks
145. The component associated with major defects shall be preserved
for a period of [sec.2, series.C, part.1, pg.8]
a) 2 weeks from the date of information
b) 3 weeks from the date of information
c) 4 weeks from the date of information
d) None
146. Who has authority for ensuring that all tasks as per the scope of approval of the
approved
organization carried out to the standard required by DGCA [sec.2, series.E, part.1, pg.2]
a. Owner
b. Owner/operator
c. SOP
d. AM
147. A document issued to an organization approved by DGCA and defining the
scope of approval granted [sec.2, series.E, part.1, pg.2]
a. Approved certificate
b. MOE
c. Certificate of approval
148. A management system for programming and coordinating the ongoing quality and
improvement efforts of the various groups in an organization in accordance with the
requirements of DGCA [sec.2, series.E, part.1, pg.3]
a. Quality manual
b. Quality control
c. Quality system
149. Petroleum in bulk: means petroleum contained in receptacle [sec.2, series.E, part.6,
pg.1]
a. Upto 900 liters
b. exceeding 900 liters
c. 900 liters
150. Rule 61 is applicable for [sec.2, series.E, part.8, pg.1]
a. AME FEES
b. module paper
c. grant of AME licence
151. DGCA approval to the Institute is deemed to be suspended till another suitably qualified
person nominated by institute is accepted by Regional Director of Airworthiness in case of
absence of AM [sec.2, series.E, part.8, pg.4]
a. 15 days
b. more than 60 days
c. more than 30 days
152. In trg org, intructors are approved by [sec.2, series.E, part.4, pg.5]
A. AM
b. RAO
c. CI
153. The overall ratio of whole-time instructors to students shall [sec.2, series.E, part.8,
pg.5]
a. Not be more than1:30
b. Not be more than1:30
c. Not be more than 1:35 students
154. During any semester the practical training shall
not be normally. [sec.2, series.E, part.8, pg.32-33]
Less than
a. 50% of the total training time
b. 70% of the total trg time
c. 75% of the total trg time
155. Fees for c of R is given in accordance to [sec.2, series.F, part.1, pg.12]
a) MTOW
b) Seating capacity
c) Both a & b
d) None
156. FEES for Issue of Certificate of Airworthiness/ Special Certificate of
Airworthiness for an aircraft having maximum permissible take-off
weight 800 kilograms [sec.2, series.F, part.3, pg.25]
a. 20,000
b. 1,000
c. 15,000
157. Issue or extension of Airworthiness Review Certificate aircraft having maximum
permissible take-off weight 2000 kilograms [sec.2, series.F, part.3, pg.25]
a. 21000
b. 10500
c. 20,000
d. 1000
158. A company or corporation registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on business in
India [sec.2, series.F, part.1, pg.4]
a. CATEGORY A
b. CATEGORY B
c. Both
159. Fee shall be payable in respect of a certificate of registration for an aircraft having
maximum permissible take−off weight 1700 kilograms [sec.2, series.F, part.1, pg.12]
a. 20000
b. 15000
c. 25000
d. 30000
160. MTCS [sec.2, series.F, part.15, pg.7]
A) First aid kit box is carry on board
C) Seat belts harness are properly install
D) All of the above
161. In case of A/c imported in dismantled condition [sec.2, series.F, part.3,
pg.3]
a. Export C of A
b. Erection certificate signed by appropriate licensed/authorized person
c. As in b & flight test report by pilot licensed/approved person
162. The registration of an a/c registered in India may be cancelled by DGCA in what
circumstances [sec.2, series.F, part.1, pg.8]
a. If a/c sufferers with major defects /damage
b. If a/c major defect is not rectified according to the manufacturers instruction
c. the a/c could be more suitable to be registered in some other country
d. All
163. For category B by a company or corporation [sec.2, Series F, Part 1, pg.4]
A) Registered and having its principal place of business within India
B) Registered elsewhere than in India and carry on business in India
C)Both A and B
164. MTCS [Series F, part 15, pg.7]
A) First aid kit box is carry on board
C) Seat belts harness are properly install
D) All of the above
165. Rule 5 of aircraft rule 1937 requires that [Series.F, part.1, pg.1]
A. No person shall fly or assist in flying any aircraft unless it has been registered
B. As in A and bears its nationality marking
C. As in B and bears its registration marking
D. As in C name & residence of the owner painted accordance with rule 37
166. If aircraft is imported by air [series.F, part.1, pg.6]
A. Temporary C of R may be granted as per rule 30 & 31
B. As in A and it will be valid till first landing at a customs aerodrome in india
C. As in B and owner surrender it to representative of DGCA
D. As in C with the application for registration of the aircraft
167. It may be noted that the registration by the DGCA is for. [Series.F, part.1, pg.1]
A. The purpose of controlling the safety of aviation in india
B. It is in way establishes the legal ownership of an aircraft
C. As in A and it is not in way establishes the legal ownership of an aircraft
D. As in C and to solve disputes with the regard to ownership and liabilities of the owners.
168. Fireproof material means. [Series.F, part.1, pg.2]
A. A material capable of withstanding heat
B. As in A as well as or better than steel
C. As in A as well as or better than wood
D. Only A is correct
169. IDERA stands for [Series.F, part.1, pg.2]
A. Irrevocable deregistration and export requested authorisation
B. Irrevocable deregistration and export requested approval
C. Irrevocable deregistration and export required approval
D. Irrevocable deregistration and export required authorisation
170. If aircraft is wholly owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India and carrying on
business in India,
said aircraft shall be register in [Series.F, part.1, pg 2]
A. Category B
B. Category A
C. Category C
D. None of the above
171. If aircraft is on lease [series.F, part.1, pg.4]
A. Owner may apply for registration of aircraft
B. A in form CA-25 at least 10 working days before the expected date of issue of C of R
C. A in form CA-28 at least 5 working days before the expected date of issue of C of R
D. A in form CA-28 at least 10 working days before the expected date of issue of C of R
172. Import licence issue by [series.F, part.1, pg.5]
A. DGCA HQ
B. RAO
C. Director general foreign trade
D. MHA
173. Fueling of aircraft MTCS [sec.2, series.H, part.2, pg.6]

A) Fueling during electrical storms fueling shall be continued during severe lighting
B) Fueling during electrical storms fueling shall be suspended during severe lighting
disturbance in vanity of aerodrome or helipad
c. None
174. Fueling of aircraft MTCS [sec.1, series H, part 2, pg.6]
A) Fueling during electrical storms fueling shall be continued during severe lighting
B) Fueling during electrical storms fueling shall be suspended during severe lighting disturbance in
vanity of
aerodrome or helipad
C) None
175. GPWS shall be fitted in [sec.2, series.I, part.7,pg.2]
a) Piston engine with MTOW of less than 5700Kg
b) Piston engine with MTOW of more than 5700Kg
c) Turbine Engine with less than 1500Kg
d) Both b and c are correct
176. Which type of FDR is capable of retaining
information for last 10 hours [sec.2, series.I, part.5, pg.7]
a) IA
b) II A
c) IV A
d) I
177. Mandatory modification [sec.2, series.M, part.1, pg.1]

c) Both a& b
178. Modification and repairs [a/c rules 1937] [sec.2, series.M, part.1] [aac 1 of 2017]
a. IAR 55
b. IAR 50
c. IAR 52
179. Mandatory modification MTCS [sec.2, series.M, part.1, pg.3]
A) Airworthiness directive including SB,SI,SL required DGCA approval
B) Airworthiness directive including SB,SI,SL is not required DGCA approval
C) Both A and B
180. Mandatory modification MTCS [Series M, part 1, pg.3]
A) Airworthiness directive including SB,SI,SL required DGCA approval
B) Airworthiness directive including SB,SI,SL is not required DGCA approval
C) Both A and B
181. A CAT II or Cat 2, landing decision height is below 200 feet

but not less than [sec.2, series.O, part.14, pg.2]
a. 200ft
b. 30 ft
c. 100ft
d. 60ft
182. ICAO convention is held on [sec.2, series.O, part.6, pg.21]
A. 7 December 1944
B. 7 January 1997
C. 7 November 1937
183. ICAO convention is held on [sec.2, series.O, part.6, pg.21]
A) 7 December 1944
A) 7 January 1997
B) 7 November 1937
184. Test flight is done for [sec.2, series.T, part.2, pg.4]

a) MAOW
b) MTOW
c) Both a & b
185. Shall be responsible for recording the result of the test flight [sec.2, series.T, part.2,
pg.4]
a) PIC
b) Person authorize by the operator
c) Both a & b
186. MTCS (engine change) [sec.2, series.T, part.2, pg.2]
A) Reinstallation of same engine on the same aircraft in its original position would not
constitute an engine change
aircraft
C) None
187. The” observed actual climb performance” shall in no case be lower
than……….. of the expected climb performance figure for the purpose of
acceptable of test flight report [sec.2, series.T, part.2, pg.5]
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 2%
188. "Flight Test" means the flying of an aircraft, without any passenger on board, for the
purpose of ensuring that [sec.2, series.T, part.2, pg.1]
a. The aircraft handling characteristics have not deteriorated with time
b. The aircraft performance remains as scheduled
c. Aircraft and its equipment function properly
d. All
189. An aircraft shall be flight tested. [sec.2, series.T, part.2, pg.1]
a. At the time of renewal of Certificate of Airworthiness
b. After major repair or overhauled
c. Both
190. MTCS (engine change) [Series T, part 2, pg.2]
A) Reinstallation of same engine on the same aircraft in its original position would not constitute
an engine
change
aircraft
C) None
191. The” observed actual climb performance” shall in no case be lower than……….. of the expected
climb
performance figure for the purpose of acceptable of test flight report [Series T, part 2, pg.5]
A) 1%
B) 3%
C) 2%
192. During test flight incident and accident occurred will report to ……………… [sec.2, series.T,
part.2, pg 3]
A) DGCA
B) Quality department
C) RAO
193. The actual weight of passenger are [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.5]
194. Every aircraft shall be weighed [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.2]
a. Before the issue of Certificate of Airworthiness
b. Every 5 yr
c. Every 3 month
195. After the aircraft has been weighed as required, the persons shall prepare weight
schedule [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.3]
a. A person specifically approved by DGCA
b. A person specifically approved by Quality Manager
c. A Category "B" licensed AME
d. All
196. The Weight Schedule shall contain information [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.3]
a. MTOW (as per Certificate of Airworthiness/ Flight Manual) (kg.).
b. Empty weight Centre of Gravity
c. Both
197. weight schedule shall be approved by [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.3]
a. RAO
b. DGCA
c. Quality control manager
198. For the preparation of load & trim sheet [sec.2, series.X, part.2, pg.5]
a) Fixed ballast not included in empty weight
b) A children having 11 year age his weight is counted as 35 kg
c) Both
199. MTCS :- Regarding logbook [sec.2, series.X, part.6, pg.3]
a. Section - III contains major repair & overhaul
b. Section – I contains minor repair
c. Section – II contains modification & repair
200. Any operation by an airplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion
time to
an enroute alternate aerodrome is greater than the threshold time established by the state of
the operator [sec.8, series.S, part.1, pg.2]
a. RVSM
b. ETOPS
c. AWOP
410) Fees for the validaton of Certificate Of Airworthiness (SERIES-F PART-3/ APD.E)
a. 10% of fees payable
b. 25% of fees payable
c. None of the above
411) What is the period of validity for a Certificate of Registration?. (SERIES F PART-1/Pg.5)
a. Until a change of ownership or maintenance arrangements.
b. Until a change of ownership.
c. The same as for the aircrafts C of A.
416) Mandatory modification (SERIES M PART-1/Pg.1)

c) Both a& b
422) Documents to be carried on board (SERIES X PART 7)

a) 7
b) 7A
c) 7B
426) The central government may cancel or suspend C of R in accordance with sub rule (1) of
(SERIES F PART-1)
a) 17
b) 19
c) 15
d) NTA
423) Fees for c of R is given in accordance to (SERIES F PART 2/Pg.12)

a) MTOW
b) Seating capacity
c) Both a & b
d) None
424) MTCS MEL (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.3)

d) All of the above
439) The actual weight of passenger are (SERIES X PART 1/Pg.5)

444) MTCS (SERIES H PART-2/Pg.6)

About refuelling of A/C during electrical storm
a) Refuelling should be stopped
b) Refuelling should be carried out until the damage will occur
c) Refuelling should be done until the next flight
445) When the new type of A/C imported in India first time (SERIES F PART 3 /Pg.2-Pt-21)
b) Documents
448) MTCS (SERIES F PART 1/Pg.13)

a) Fees for validation of C of R is 50% of original fees
b) Temporary C of R is not issued by DGCA
c) C of R may not be cancelled in any circumstances
d) ATA
453) When small type of aircraft imported in India for first time (SERIES F PART 14/Pg.2)
a) AED accepted by DGCA
b) AED not accepted by DGCA
c) LVTO is not accepted by DGCA
d) NTA
454) Mandatory modification (SERIES M PART 1/Pg.1)

c) both a and b
481) When the new type of A/C imported in India first time (SERIES F PART 1)
b) Documents
CAP
10) Proving flight …… (CAP 3300/CH.3/Pg.18)
A) First issued of non –schedule operator
B) First issued of schedule and non-schedule
C) The introduction of new aircraft type in the organization
D) Both B and C
45) Fax no. Is on (CAP 3300/APD.E/Pg.4)
A) C of a
B) C of r
C) AOP
D) none
78) Which of the following involved in phase 1 (CAP 3300/CH.3/Pg.1)
a) Pre application
b) Formal application
c) Document evaluation
79) MTCS (CAP 3300/CH.3/Pg.19)
AOP certificate
a) Certificate true copy of an AOP along with operational specified shall be carried on board each
A/C operated
by the operator
b) Certificate true copy of an AOP along without operational specified shall be carried on board each
A/C
operated by the operator
c) Certificate true copy does not require
d) NTA
80) How many phases are there for certification procedure for AOP (CAP 3300/CH.4/Pg.16)
a) Three phases
b) Four phases
c) Five phases
d) Pre application for initial studies
99) MTCS AOP (CAP 3300/CH.1/Pg.1)
a) AOP carried on board with operational specifications
b) AOP carried on board
c) AOP carried on board without operational specifications
104) Document evaluation (CAP 3300/CH.2/Pg.1)
a) During this phase, the applicant is required to submit the complete application.
b) During this phase, the DGCA will undertake a detailed study of the applicant’s manuals and
other documents.
c) During this phase, the applicant conducts initial studies, prepares plans.
d) A and C are correct

186)CAP 3100 certification phase-1 (CAP 3100/CH.2/Pg.10)
a) pre-application phase
b) formal application phase
c)doc evaluation phase
188)AOP holder's aircraft requires (CAR M/Pg.25)
a) CAMO is requiring as part of AOP to manage continuing A/W of their aircraft
b) As in (a) and it can contract with another CAMO
c)AMO is must
189)Failure to comply to AOP requirement (CAP 3300/CH.1/Pg.5)
a) Administrative penalties
b) cancellation, suspension and revocation of AOP
c)All the Above
274). A register of airlines operating on an AOC is maintained by the. (CAP 3300)
1) ICAO
2) DGCA
3) EASA
278) What Certificate must an Operator have who flies for public transport and cargo carrying?
(CAP 3300/Pg.1 OF 5)
1) Air Navigation Certificate.
2) Air Transport Licence.
3) Air Operators Certificate
281) The operator of aircraft used for commercial air transport.
1) Need not to be approved to 145 organisations providing they are contracted to 145 organisations
2) Must be approved to car m only
3) Must be approved to car 145

83. MTCS about [3300, ch.3, pg.19]
AOP certificate
a) Certificate true copy of an AOP along with operational specified shall be carried on board
each A/C operated by the operator
b) Certificate true copy of an AOP along without operational specified shall be carried on
board each A/C operated by the operator c) Certificate true copy does not require
d) NTA
84. How many phases are there for certification procedure for AOP [3300, ch.4, pg.16]
a) Three phases
b) Four phases
c) Five phases
85. The applicant/ operator will be required to conduct proving/ validation flights for purpose
[3300, ch.3, pg.18]
a. First issue of an AOC/ AOP for scheduled or non-scheduled operations.
b. The introduction of a new Aircraft type in the organization.
c. Prior to commencing any special operations
d. All
86. Applicant for a Schedule Commuter Service/non-scheduled operator’s permit will be required to
conduct a minimum of [3300, ch.3 ,pg.18]
a. 2 flight sectors on intended routes/ area of operations
b. total duration of not less than 2 flights hours
c. None
87. in case of proving flight, Issuance of approval letter for the Special operations is done by
[3300, ch.3, pg.19]
a. PAWI
b. POI
c. CFOI
88. An applicant who is a holder of an AOP shall apply for the renewal, to the DGCA
[3300, ch.3, pg.19]
a. At least a minimum of 90 days prior to the date of expiry
b. At least a minimum of 30 days prior to the date of expiry
c. None of these
89. Amendment to Ops Specs will be required for but not limited to [3300, ch.3, pg.20-21]
a. Addition of new type of Aircraft in the organization
b. Addition of same type of Aircraft in the organization.
C. Special operation
d. All
90. The POI and the PAWI are responsible for [3300, ch.4, pg.1]
a. O/P related matters for the issuance of an AOP/AOC
b. A/w related matters for the issuance of an AOP/AOC
c. Both
91. MTCS [3300, ch.0, pg.6]

a. IAR 134 – SAOP
b. IAR 134- SAOP AND NSAOP
c. IAR 134- NSAOP
92. The purpose of an AOC/AOP is to certify that [3300, ch.1, pg.2]

a. General aviation o/p are authorized
b. commercial air transport operations are authorized by DGCA
c. Both
93. The operator shall have a FDTL Scheme approved as per [3300, ch.1, pg.3]
a. limitations for flight time
b. Flight duty periods
c. Duty periods
d. All
94. an accident victim relief programme has been drawn

up as per guidance of [3300, ch.1, pg.4]
a. ICAO CIR- 280/AN/166
b. ICAO CIR- 285/AN/166
c. ICAO 9683
d. Annex 10
95. Pre- Application - The applicant is required to provide a Statement of Intent, which should
contain [3300, ch.3, pg.1]
a. The type of operation
b. The type(s) of Aircraft
c. Aircraft owned or leased
d. All
96. The formal application and its attachments must be submitted [3300, ch.3, pg.2]
a. At least 90 working days before the date of intended revenue operation
b. At least 15 working days before the date of intended revenue operation
c. At least 30 working days before the date of intended revenue operation
97. The requirement of FSDS to be published on [3300, ch.3, pg.15]

a. FOM
b. MCM
c. CAME
d. All
98. Permission for import a/c shall be granted by [3300, ch.3, pg.16]
a. DGFT
b. ATD (DGCA)
c. POI
99. Records of aircraft loading & fuel must be kept for [3100, app.1, pg.245]
a. 3 month
b. 24 month
c. 36 month
100. MTCS [3300, ch.0, pg.6]

A) Rule 134 schedule air transport services
B) Rule 134A schedule air transport services
C) Rule 133A schedule air transport services
101. Proving flight …… [3300, ch.3, pg.18]

A) First issued of non –schedule operator
B) First issued of schedule and non-schedule
C) The introduction of new aircraft type in the organization
D) Both B and C
449) Which of the following involved in phase 1 (CAP 3300/CH.3/Pg. 1 OF 21)

a) Pre application
b) Formal application
c) Document evaluation
452) How many phases are there for certification procedure for AOP (AOP CH.2)
a) Three phases
b) Four phases
c) Five phases
CAR 145
13) Application for issue of approval of approved maintenance organization is in CA FORM
(CAR 145/Pg.107)
A) 2
B) 3
C) 1
64) Component certifying staff requirements
a) CAR section 2 series L part 14
b) CAR section 2 series L part 12
c) CAR section 2 series L part 10
76) Accountable manager known about maintenance knowledge because (CAR 145/Pg.18)
a) He is responsible for financial
b) He is supported by technical post holder
c) He only has basic understanding of CAR 145
95) Where the hangar is not owned by the organisation, it may be necessary to establish proof of
tenancy. In addition, sufficiency of hangar space to carry out planned base maintenance should be
demonstrated by the preparation of a projected aircraft hangar visit plan relative to _ _ _
(CAR 145/Pg.18)
a) MOM
b) maintenance programme
c)BOTH
108) The maintenance engineer and quality audit engineer of an org. should be (CAR 145/Pg.14)
a. full time
b. part time
c. full time or part time
d. none of above
117) Sufficient of hanger space in facilities requirement relative to the (CAR 145/Pg.18)
a. maintenance program
b. maintenance data
c. manufacturer
124) Which form is applicable for issue or approval of maintenance organization
(CAR 145/APD.7/Pg.107)
a. CA form 3
b. CA form 2
c. CA form 180
142) accountable manager (CAR M/Pg.97)
a. supports the organization

b. direct access to CEO and for finding allocation
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
150) CAR-145 approval application shall be (CAR-145/Pg.15)
a. accompanied with para wise CAR-145 compliance report
b. accompanied with para wise CAR-66 compliance report
c. all of the above
161)Application for initial issue or grant of approval made on (CAR M/Pg.90)
a) CA form 2
b) CA form 3
c) form 2
172)MTCS (CAR 145/Pg.15)
a) Application shall be based on CAR 145 report
b) Application shall be accompanied with para-wise CAR 145 compliance report
c)Application shall be accompanied with CAR 145 companied report
177)CAR 145 approval is required which of small org.- (CAR 145/Pg.14)
a) Light aircraft maintenance hanger
b) Component maintenance workshop, like small piston engine and radio equipment
c)both
200) Accountable manager may be the accountable manager (CAR M/Pg.97)
(a) For one organization
(b) For more than one organization
(c) both
21) Certification of authorization is issued to whom (CAR 145 /pg.39)
A) Certifying staff or support staff

B) Certifying staff and support staff
C) Certifying staff
139) Maintenance organization used tools and material are specified by (CAR 145/Pg.45)
a. QCM
b. certifying staff
c. manufacturer
d. all of the above
286) The larger maintenance training organization (an organization with the capacity to provide
training for 50 students or more)
1) should appoint a training manager with the responsibility of managing the training organization
on a day to day basis.
288) A certificate of fitness for flight
1) clears an aircraft for a scheduled flight.
2) permits the aircraft to fly under A condition.
3) permits the aircraft to fly under B conditions.
295) Within an aircraft maintenance organisation approved in accordance with CAR-145, the
limitations of an individual's certification rights are recorded upon
1) the personnel authorisation certificate
2) the aircraft maintenance licence
3) the personnel record
297) The independent audit CAR 145 the sample check means
1) repeat re-assembly or testing under sample check identifies finding

2) To witness any relevant testing and visual inspect the product associated documentation
3) disassembly, re-assembly and testing
300) MTCS
1) Organization with more than about 500 maintenance staff should have a dedicated quality audit
group
2) Organization with less than 500 staff should have dedicated audit group
3) Max 10 staff should have dedicated quality audit group
59. . Maintenance man hour plan must be reviewed [CAR-145, pg.23]

a. 3 month
b. 6 month
c. 3 month and updated when necessary
60. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the safety and efficiency of
aeronautical operations [CAR-145, pg.19]
a. Human factor
b. human performance
c. both
61. Continuation training should be of sufficient duration in each [CAR-145, pg.42]

a. 2 yrs
b. 3 yr
c. 5 yr
62. FTS [CAR-145, pg.109]

a. Large aeroplanes as defined as maximum type certified passenger capacity of 30
b. Maximum certified payload capacity of 7502 lbs cargo or more
c. Both
63. Phase 1 only FTS [CAR-145, pg.109]

a. The group of persons representing the maintenance management structure
b. Personnel of the competent authorities
c. Both
64. The approved maintenance org shall retain a copy of all maintenance records and any
associated maintenance data for [CAR-145, pg.65]
a. 5 yr
b. 3yr
c. 2 yr
65. A complex motor powered aircraft means: [CAR-145, pg.11-12]

a. An aeroplane Above 5700 Kg MTOM, or
b. Certificated for more than 19 seated passengers, or
c. Certificated for operation with at least 2 pilots, or
d. all of the above
66. Certification of authorization is issued to whom [CAR-145, pg.39]

C) Certifying staff
67. Maintenance org use equipment, tools & material as specified by [CAR-145, pg.45]
A) Operator
B) DGCA
C) Manufacture
68. Any maintenance which is carried out before flight to
ensure continued validity. [CAR-145, pg.13]
a) Line maintenance
b) Pre-flight inspection
c) Base maintenance
d) None
69. MTCS ( Fuel tank safety) [CAR 145, pg.109]
A) Aircraft above 5700kg 10 passenger
B) Aircraft below 5700 19 passenger
C) Large aero plane maximum type certified passenger capacity of 30 or more of maximum
certified payload of
7500lbs (3402kg) cargo or more
70. Application for issue of approval of approved maintenance organization is in CA FORM [CAR-145,
pg.107]
A) 2
B) 3
C)1
71. Certification of authorization is issued to whom . [CAR 145, pg.39]
C) Certifying staff
72. Small org sub part F [CAR-145, pg.14]
a) Aircraft maintenance manager
b) Work shop manager
c) Both A and B
412) An CAR approved maintenance organisation in the category B rating, is approved to carry-out
maintenance on. (CAR 145/Pg.92)
a. aircraft
b. aircraft and engines.
c. engines.
413) Who carries out the practical task training required for a category A licence? (CAR 145/Pg.43)
a. Either a CAR-145 or aCAR-147 organisation.
b. A CAR-147 organisation only.
c. A CAR-145 organisation only.
CAR M
17) MTCS (maintenance data) (CAR M/Pg.72)
A) All applicable maintenance data is readily available

B) All applicable maintenance data is not readily available
C) All applicable maintenance data is readily available when required
18) Sufficiency of hanger space to carry out planned base maintenance should demonstrated by
preparation of (CAR M/Pg.94)
a projected a/c hanger visit plan relative to the………………………,
A) Maintenance data
B) Maintenance program
C) Size of aircraft is docked
26) Small org sub part F (CAR 145/Pg.14)
a) Aircraft maintenance manager
b) Work shop manager
c) Both A and B
29) The aircraft maintenance program must establish compliance with (CAR M/Pg.33)
A) Instruction issue by DGCA
B) Instruction for continuing airworthiness issued by TC/STC/RTC
C) Additional or alternative instruction prepared by owner or
Operator
30) According to CAR-M subpart F organization dependent upon the extent of approval
(CAR-M/Pg.97)
A) Aircraft maintenance manager and workshop manager
B) Aircraft maintenance manager
C) workshop manager
41) technical log does not include (CAR M/Pg.67)
A) C OF R
B) AD of other state
C) SB
D) ATA
57) All required tools, equipment document for maintenance is given in (CAR M/Pg.74)
a) AMP
b) Maintenance data
c) MOE
58) Application of maintenance org is given in (CAR M/Pg.90)
a) CA form 2, app 9
b) Any other form acceptable to DGCA
c) Both a & b
d) CA form
59) Operator technical log is preserved for (CAR M/Pg.68)
a) 24 months
b) 12 months
c) 36 months
62) Which section of aircraft technical log contains details of next maintenance schedule
(CAR M/Pg.68)
a) Section 1
b) Section 2
c) Section 3
63) Deferred defect rectification included in (CAR M/Pg.68)
a) A/C technical log book
b) Procedure document
c) A/C technical log book or procedure document
75) CAME records (CAR M/Pg.73)
a) It should not be preserved

b) It should be available when and where is carried out
c) AM, QM & CAM
88) A/C technical log preserved for (CAR M/Pg.68)
a)12 month
b)36 month
c) 36 months after date of last entry
89) TECHNICAL LOG SECTION-1 should contain (CAR M/Pg.68)
a) details of the registered name
b) address of the operator
c) both A and B
106) - The responsibility of component classified as unsalvageable its custody may transfer
(CAR M/Pg.86)
a. to an org. for training or research without mutilation
b. cannot transfer it custody
c. to any maintenance origination
107) The applicable maintenance data is (CAR M/Pg.72)
a. any applicable requirement, procedure, standard or information issued by DGCA,
b. any applicable airworthiness directive,
c. applicable instructions for continuing airworthiness, issued by type certificate holders
d. all of above
125) Maintenance of a/c will be done according to (CAR M/Pg.21)
a. maintenance program
b. maintenance data
c. IPC
144) operator technical log not include (CAR M/Pg.68)

a. continuing airworthiness of aircraft
b. CRS
c. airworthiness directives
146) Operator technical log approved by (CAR M/Pg.68)
a. RAO
b. dgca
c. QM
d. all of the above
196) CA form 2 is (CAR M/Pg.90)
(a) An application for issue or variation of CAMO approval
(b) An application for issue or variation of MO approval
(c) Both*
197) Continuing airworthiness management exposition and its amendments shall be approved by
(CAR M/Pg.117)
(a)DGCA*
(b) RAO
(C) Local airworthiness office
198) Minor amendments of CAME are submitted to (CAR M/Pg.117)
(a) DGCA headquarter at least 15 days before their affectivity
(b) DGCA local office at least 30 days before their affectivity
(c) RAO at least 15 days before their affectivity
(d) DGCA local office at least 15 days before their affectivity
201) Subpart G of CAR M is (CAR M/Pg.115)
(a) CAMO*
(b) AMO
(c)ARC
202) Qualification of airworthiness review staff for aircraft above 2730 kg MTOM and except balloon
is/are (CAR M/Pg.124)
(a) At least 5years experience in continuing airworthiness
(b) Formal aeronautical maintenance training
(c) Appropriate CAR 66 licence
(d) All of the above*
204) In order to keep the validity of the airworthiness review staff authorisation, the airworthiness
review staff should have (CAR M/Pg.128)
(a been involved in continuing airworthiness management activities for at least six months in every
two-year period
(b) conducted at least one airworthiness review in the last twelve-month period.
(c) Either (a) or (b)*
(d) None
209) The airworthiness review can be anticipated by a maximum period of (CAR M/Pg.136)
(a) A maximum period of 30 days without loss of continuity
(b) A maximum period of 90 days without loss of continuity*
(c) Not less than 90 days without loss of continuity
(d) Not less than 45 days without loss of continuity
210) A copy of any airworthiness review certificate issued or extended for an aircraft shall be sent to
(CAR M/Pg.136)
(a) RAO within 10 days along with requisite fees
(b) RAO within 15 days along with requisite fees
(c) DGCA local office within 10 days along with requisite fees
(d) DGCA within 10 days along with requisite fees*
211) Any discrepancies found at the time of airworthiness review shall be informed to
(CAR M/Pg.136)
(a) DGCA in any case within 36 hours
(b) DGCA in any case within 72 hours*
(c)RAO in any case within 36 hours
168)When owner or operator wants change from one approved programme to other –
(CAR M/Pg.37)
a) transfer check
b) inspection to be performed to implementation of change
c) both
16) Maintenance of an aircraft is done according to (CAR M /Pg.21)
A) Aircraft maintenance program
B) Maintenance data
C) Flight manual
257)Scheduled maintenance inspection time or hour limits
1) can be extended by a LAME with respect to the extension limits of the maintenance schedule
2) can never be exceeded.
3) can be exceeded in extraordinary circumstances
261) On a light aircraft with a 3-year C of A, a Star Inspection must be carried out.
1) at each annual inspection
2) at the third annual inspection
3) at every 150 flying hours
263) Condition monitoring
1) permits in-life until failure occurs
2) is a time lifted method of maintenance
3) is a preventative maintenance process

264) Duplicate inspections are required to be made following the disturbance of.
1) all engine and propeller controls and any vital points.
2) all engine & propeller components and any vital points.
3) aircraft, engine & propeller controls and any vital points.
265) The Certificate of Fitness for Flight is issued in
1) 1 copy: for the Aircraft
2) 2 copies: for Aircraft and File
3) 3 copies: for Tech Log, File and Aircraft
267) The number of electrical fuses of a particular rating required to be carried in an aircraft is.
1) 5 amp or less 3, off 5 amp or more 10 off.
2) 3% of each rating or 10, whichever is the greater.
3) 10% of each rating or 3, whichever is the greater.
268) A Certificate of Maintenance Review must be retained for
1) two years after expiry of period of validity.
2) two years after date of issue.
3) Six months after the date of issue
269) The purpose of the CRS is.
1) to comply with article 15 of the ANO which states that an aircraft must not fly unless it is properly
equipped for the intended flight.
2) to turn a log book or job card entry into a legal document and to ensure that the signatory takes
full responsibility for the work done
3) to ensure that the log book entry is complete.
270) Vital points are.
1) parts of the aircraft where a single malfunction could cause catastrophic failure.
2) a check on every maintenance schedule input.

3) when an engine/fuel system is disturbed
271) A staff member of a CAR-M organisation authorised to issue or recommend issue of an

airworthiness review certificate
1) need not be CAR 66 qualified
2) must be both CAR-66 qualified and have an aeronautical degree.
3) must be CAR-66 qualified
272) All outstanding deferred defect rectifications are recorded in. (CAR M/Pg.68)
1) the flight manual.
2) the operator's technical log.
3) the appropriate Log Book.
273) What is the retention time for a Technical Log? (CAR M/Pg.68)
1) 2 years after the last entry.
2) 2 years.
3) 3 years after the last entry.
282) Which of the following document forms a part of technical log?
1) Maintenance statement
2) Air operators’ certificate
3) Type certificate data sheet
255) What modifications are recorded in the aircraft log book?
1) Aircraft only.
2) Engine, propeller and aircraft
3) Engine and propeller
291)The minimum distribution of the Authorised Release Certificate CA Form 1 is
1) 1, to remain with the component to which it refers.
2) 2, one for the originator and one to remain with the component to which it refers
3) 1, to be retained by the originator
293) Who certifies maintenance of private category aircraft of mass 5700kg or less after 28
September 2006?.
1) A type rated engineer independent of a CAR 145 organisation.
2) A CAR-147 licensed engineer
3) A certifying staff member of a CAR-145 approved organisation
1. Technical log does not contain- [CAR-M, pg.68]

a. CRS
b. Next due maintenance
c. Training program
3. The person or org maintaining an a/c shall have access to and use only [CAR-M, pg.72]
a. Modification data sheet
b. Applicable current SB
c. Applicable current maintenance data
4. Any applicable requirement, procedure, standard or information issued by [CAR-M, pg.72]

a. DGCA
b. Manufacturer
c. Competent authority or agency
5. Applicable instruction for continuing A/w issued by [CAR-M, pg.72]

a. TC
b. STC
c. Both
6. Computer system should have at least one back up system should be updated within. [CAR-M, pg.147]
a. 36 month
b. 72 hours
c. 24 hours
7. CA Form 2 is for [CAR-M, pg.90]

a. Approval of org
b. Grant, renewal
c. Both
8. During maintenance any incomplete maintenance is brought to the notice to [CAR-M, pg.152]
a. QCM
b. Owner
c. DGCA
d.operator
9. Who will ensure that components is not in airworthy condition [CAR-145, pg.25]
a. Support staff
b. Certifying staff
c. Both
10. Any instances where safe operation could not be assured or which could lead to an unsafe
condition [CAR-M, og.152]
a. Hazard
b. Incident
c. Endanger flight safety
14. When an operator is requested by a member state to hold a certificate for commercial o/p
other than commercial air transport accordance
a. M.A. subpart-G
b. M.A. Subpart F
c. Part 145
d. Any of the above
15. Who will be responsible for granting the competent authority access to the organization/
aircraft to determine continued compliance with Accountability
a. Owner
b. Operator
c. Owner/operator
16. Occurrence reporting is done [CAR-M, pg.28]

a. Till 72 hour
b. Within 24 hour
c. Within 72 hour
17. Maintenance of each a/c shall be organized in accordance with [CAR-M, pg.21]
a. Maintenance data
b. Maintenance program
c. Maintenance control system
18. Components shall be identified and stored in a secure location under the control of an approved
maintenance org until a decision is made on the future status of such component [CARM, pg.86]
a. Unserviceable
b. Serviceable
c. Solvegable
19. The manufacturers’s maintenance planning document (MPD) aids operators in fulfilling their
obligation to create and follow their own approved [CAR-M]
a. Maintenance data
b. Maintenance program
c. Steering group
20. Information about each flight, necessary to ensure continued flight safety [CAR-M, pg.67]
a. Technical log
b. Aircraft manual
c. SMDS
21. The operator is responsible for the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft it operates
and shall [CAR-M, pg.21]
a. Ensure that no flight takes place unless the airworthiness certificate remains valid
b. Any person or organization performing maintenance shall be responsible for the tasks
performed
c. Both
22. MTCS [CAR-M, pg.25]

a. The performance of ground de-icing and anti-icing activities does not require a Part-145
maintenance organization approval
b. Removing de-icing and/or anti-icing fluid residues are not considered as maintenance
c. inspections may not be carried out by suitably authorized personnel
d. None
23. All required tools, equipment document for maintenance is given in [CAR-M, pg.74]
a) AMP
b) Maintenance data
c) MOE
24. Application of maintenance org is given in [CAR-M, pg.90]

a) CA form 2, app 9
b) Any other form acceptable to DGCA
c) Both a & b
25. Which section of aircraft technical log contains details of next maintenance schedule [CAR-M, pg.68]
a) Section 1
b) Section 2
c) Section 3
26. Deferred defect rectification included in [CAR-M, pg.68]

27. Maintenance of an aircraft is done according to [CAR-M, pg.21]

B) Maintenance data
C) Flight manual
30. Total time of flight cycle as appropriate of components are retained for a period [CAR-M, pg.65]
a) 12 months
b) 24 months
c) 36 months
d) 48months
31. The essential element of quality system is. [CAR-M, pg.144]

a) Quality assurance
b) Quality control
c) Independent audit
d) None
32. Minor changes in MOE [CAR-M, pg.117]
a. Indirect approval
b. Direct approval
c. None
33. Where an owner wishes to change from one programme to another because of a change in
the type of operation [CAR-M, pg.37]
a. Transfer check
b. Proving flight
c. Both
34. All mandatory maintenance information and any additional tasks derived from the
assessment of the recommendations issued by [CAR-M, pg.28]
a. DGCA
b. DAH
C. TC HOLDER
35. Damage shall be assessed and modifications and repairs carried out using [CAR-M, pg.63]
(a) Data approved by DGCA; or
(b) Data by an approved by CAR 21/ EASA Part 21/ FAA Part 21 design organization, as
appropriate
C. Both
36. The aircraft continuing airworthiness records shall contain the current [CAR-M, pg.64]
a. Status of compliance with maintenance program
b. Status of service life limited components
c. Mass and balance report
37. Who shall ensure when an aircraft is permanently transferred from one owner or operator
to another [CAR-M, pg.70]
a. Owner
b. QCM
c. Owner or operator
39. Maintenance of an aircraft is done according to [CAR M, pg.21]

B) Maintenance data
C) Flight manual
40. MTCS ( maintenance data ) [CAR M, pg.72]

A) All applicable maintenance data is readily available
B) All applicable maintenance data is not readily available
C) All applicable maintenance data is readily available when required
41. The aircraft maintenance program must established compliance with [CAR-M, pg.33]
A) Instruction issue by DGCA
B) Instruction for continuing airworthiness issued by TC/STC/RTC
C) Additional or alternative instruction prepared by owner or
Operator
42. According to CAR-M subpart F organization dependent upon the extent of approval [CAR-M, pg.97]
A) Aircraft maintenance manager and workshop manager
B)Aircraft maintenance manager
C)workshop manager

470) Which section of aircraft technical log contains details of next maintenance schedule (CAR M/Pg.68)
a) Section 1
b) Section 2
c) Section 3

CAR 147
280) For CAR 147 organization Internal audit programme for succeeding 12 months period should
Provide
1) At the time of making application for renewal of approval and audit should be submitted to DGCA
within 15 days of their completion.
2) At the time of making application for renewal of approval and audit should be submitted to DGCA
within 25 days of their completion
3) At the time of making application for renewal of approval and audit should be submitted to RAO
within 15 days of their completion
285) The basic criteria for an aircraft Type Training Instructor must be, to either
1) Hold an aircraft maintenance engineer’s license endorsed with the type rating relevant to the type
course being taught and successfully completed a formal instructor instructional techniques training
program course
2) Hold a supervisory position or, a position of responsibility, as an avionic or mechanical practitioner

within a CAR-145 maintenance environment and can prove practical experience of 6 months within
the last 24 months
3) Hold a supervisory position or, a position of responsibility, as an avionic or mechanical practitioner

within a CAR-145 maintenance environment and can prove practical experience of 12 months within
the last 24 months
SMS
19) The safety policy shall be signed by whom………………. (SECTION 1 SERIES-C PART-1/Pg.5)
A) Service provider
B) Accountable executive
C) Operator
20) A service provider shall ensure that the organization .......................policy is consistent with and
support (SMM/APD.1/Pg.10)
the fulfilment of activities of SMS.
A) Safety
B) Quality
C) Both A and B
22) The safety policy shall include the responsibilities of…………………. with respect to safety
performance of the SMS (SECTION 1 SERIES C PART-1/Pg.6)
A) Management
B) Employee
C) Management and employee
34) SMS shall contain proactive and reactive (SMM/CH.10/APD.1/Pg.9)
A) Quality assurance
B) Individual performance
C) Facility, equipment, document and procedure
39) SSP is (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.4)
A) Integrated with safety promotion
B) It is with AOP
C) part of CofR
40) SMS is (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.2)
A) Safety instrument to improve safety
B) IT is related to SSP
C) Both
43) Reliability programme (CAR M/Pg.43)
A) Provides monitoring effectiveness of maintenance programme
B) based on MSG logic
C) improves the safety standard
D) All
69) Definition SMS (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.3)
a) Is a management tool for the management of safety of an org., reflecting an organized and orderly
approach
b) Potential out/come of hazard
c) Safety arrangement of an organization
d) ATA
70) Definition SSP (state safety programme) (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.4)
a) Min deg of safety that must be assured by a system
b) Hazard identification and safety risk
c) Integrated set of requirements and activity aimed at improving safety
d) ATA
71) The SMS implementation plan shall be endorsed by (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.1)
a) Service provider
b) Series management org
c) Accountable executive
72) A service provider shall identify the safety accountability and responsibilities
(SERIES C PART-1/Pg.6)
a) Managements
b) Employs
c) Management employs
82) SMS implementation plan endorsed by... (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.6)
A) Quality manager
b) safety manager
c) both a and b
88) A condition or an object with the potential to cause or contribute to an aircraft incident or
Accident (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.2)
a. Errors
b. Hazard
c. Defences
105) Hazard identification shall be (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.8)
a) based on a combination of reactive and proactive methods.
b) also include predictive methods of safety data analysis.
c) Both A and B
118) Safety policy signed by
a. Accountable executive
b. safety manager
c. service provider
119) A service provider shall ensure that the organization……………………. policy is consistent with a
support the fulfilment of activities of SMS (SMM/CH.10/APD.1/Pg.10)
a. safety
b. quality
c. special
120) Safety policy shall include the responsibility of………With respect to safety performance of SMS
a. management & employee
b. quality manager
c. related to safety
127) An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at improving safety is known as
a. Safety policy
b. State safety program
c. Quality policy
128) Who is responsible for the support of organization (CAR M/Pg.97)
a. Accountable manager
b. if he is not CEO then direct access to AM for funding allocation
c. both a & b
d. NOT
158)A condition or an object with the potential to cause or contribute an aircraft accident and
incident (SERIES C PART-1/Pg.2)
a) error
b) hazard
c) defence
190)Service provider shall take in consider responsibilities and accountably of
(SECTION 1 SERIES C PART-1/Pg.6)
a) Management
b) Employs
c) management and employees
266) An incident is classified as an accident if the aircraft suffers serious structural damage or
someone is injured between the times.
1) when the aircraft takes off and the aircraft lands

.
2) when the second person boards the aircraft with the intention of flying and the last person leaves
the aircraft after flight.
3) when the first passengers aboard the aircraft and the last passenger leaves the aircraft.
301) Operator shall implement safety management system to

1) Intimate TC holder for identified safety hazard
2) Provides for continuous monitoring and regular assessment of safety
3) As in (a) & ensures the implementation of remedial action necessary to maintain agreed safety
Performance
121. A single, identifiable person having responsibility for the effective and efficient
performance of the State’s SSP or of the service provider’s SMS [sec.1, series.C, part.1,
pg.2]
a. Accountable executive
b. Service provider
c. Senior management system
d. All
122. An action or inaction by an operational person that leads to deviations from
organizational or the operational person’s intentions or expectations [sec.1, series.C,
part.1, pg.2]
a. Hazard
b. Defences
c. Errors
123. A condition or an object with the potential to cause or contribute to an aircraft
incident or accident [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.2]
a. Errors
b. Hazard
c. Defences
124. A systematic approach to managing safety, including the necessary organizational
structures, accountabilities, policies and procedures [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.3]
a. SMS
b. Safety risk
c. Safety information
125. An integrated set of regulations and activities aimed at
improving safety [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.4]
a. SMS
b. Safety performance
c. State safety
126. Safety policy and objectives are included [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.4]
a. Management commitment
b. Safety accountability and responsibilities
c. Appointment of key safety personnel
d. All
127. Safety assurance included [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.5]
a. The Management of change
b. Training and education
c. Coordination of emergency response planning
128. The guidance for composition and functions of SRC/SAG and selection of safety manager
are provided in [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.7]
a. SMDS
b. O/p manual
c. ICAO DOC 9859
d. ICAO DOC 9685
129. ERP is made for [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.7]
a. Accident
b. Incident
c. BOTH
D. none
130. develop and maintain SMS operational records by. [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.7]
a. Service provider
b. AE
c. Senior management personnel
131. It shall be the responsibility of the custodian of safety information to apply all possible
protection regarding the disclosure of the information, unless: [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.15]
a. There is a consent of the originator of the information for disclosure; or
b. There is a reason that release of safety information is in accordance with the principles
of exception.
c. Both
132. PHASE-1 SMS [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.13]
a. Establish SMS implementation team
b. Define scope of the SMS
c. Perform SMS gap analysis
d. All
133. The safety policy shall be signed by whom……………….. [sec.1, series.C, part.1, pg.5]
A) Service provider
C) Operator
134. The safety policy shall be signed by whom……………….. [Series C, part 1, pg.5]
A) Service provider
C)Operator
135. The safety policy shall includes the responsibilities of………………….with respect to safety
performance of the SMS. [Sec.1, Series C, part 1, pg.6]
A) Management
B) Employee
C) Management and employee
AIRCRAFT RULE 1937

51) Any power or duty conferred or imposed by these ……. on the central government may be excess
or discharged (RULES)
a) 3A
b) 3B
c) 3
52) Documents to be carried on board (RULES)
a) 7
b) 7A
c) 7B
56) The central government may cancel or suspend C of R in accordance with sub rule (RULES)
(1) of
a) 17
b) 19
c) 15
81) When small type of aircraft imported in India for first time
a) AED accepted by DGCA
b) AED not accepted by DGCA
c) LVTO is not accepted by DGCA
d) NTA
77) MTCS (RULE 62)
a) Fees for validation of C of R is 50% of original fees
b) Temporary C of R is not issued by DGCA
c) C of R may not be cancelled in any circumstances
d) ATA
97) MTCS C OF R (RULE 62)
a) renewal 50% the fee payable Original C OF R
b) C OF R are unlimited valid
c) original certificate of registration is lost or destroyed, a duplicate thereof may be issued on
payment of 60percent of the fee payable original C of R
141) Permit to fly given to aircraft (rules 39A)
a. microlight aircraft
b. heavy aircraft
c. large aircraft
48) Fees for type certificate (RULE 62)
a) 25000
b) 20000
c) 40000
160)Mark the correct statement in respect of C of R renewal (RULE-62)
a) will be renewed on payment of 10% of fees specified
b) will be renewed on payment of 50% of fees specified
c) CofR will not be renewed

194)doc. to be carried on board the aircraft (RULES)
a) sub rule 1 of rule 7
b) sub rule 2 of rule 7
c)sub rule 3 of rule 7
195)Cancellation and suspension of certificate related to A/w – (RULES)
a) sub rule 1 of rule 19
b) sub rule 2 of rule 19
c)sub rule 3 of rule 19
8) MTCS (A/C RULES)
A) Rule 134 schedule air transport services
B) Rule 134A schedule air transport services
C) Rule 133A schedule air transport services
110) which rule applicable for non-schedule operator (A/C RULE)
a. 134-A
b. 134-B
c. 133-B
104. Any power or duty conferred or imposed by these ……..on the central government may
Be excess or discharged [a/c rules 1937]
a) 3A
b) 3B
c) 3
105. Documents to be carried on board [a/c rules 1937]
a)7
b) 7A
c) 7B
106. The central government may cancel or suspend C of R in accordance with sub rule (1) of. [Rules]
a) 17
b) 19
c) 15
107. SECTION 10 [a/c act 1934]
a. Penalty for act in contravention of rule made under this Act
b. Penalty for flying so as to cause danger.
c. Penalty for failure to comply with directions issued under section 5A
108. SECTION 9C [a/c act 1934]

a. Payment of compensation
b. Appeals from awards in respect of compensation
c. Arbitrator to have certain powers of civil Courts
a. Penalty for abetment of offences and attempted offences
b. Power of court to order forfeiture
c. Rules to be made after publication
a. Bar of certain suits
b. Saving for acts done in good faith under the Act
c. Saving of application of Act
a. Power of central govt. to make rules for investigation
b. Power of central govt. to make orders in emergency
c. Power to detain aircraft
112. Conditions to be complied with by an aircraft in flight
accordance with rule [a/c rules 1937]
a. IAR 16
b. IAR 14
c. IAR 15
113. IAR 19 [a/c rules 1937]
a. Cancellation, suspension of licenses
b. Endorsement of licenses certificates
c. Authorization and approval
d. All
114. Fees for C of C [a/c rule 1937, rule 62(D)]
a. 2500
b. 5000
c. 500
115. An aircraft which is equipped or required to be equipped with radio apparatus in
accordance with. [a/c rule 1937, rule 63]
a. IAR 62
b. IAR 13
c. IAR 63
116. In case of General safety No person shall, act in any manner, either directly or indirectly,
so as to
a. Endanger safety and security of an aircraft or aircraft operation;
b. Cause interference with the normal functioning of any facility established for the safe and
secure operation of aircraft; or
c. Obstruct or distract the functioning of any person entrusted with any responsibility towards
ensuring safe and secure operation of aircraft
d. ALL
117. Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in aircraft. [a/c rule 1937]
A. 24A
B. 24B
C. 24C
118. Smoking in aircraft comes under rule. [a/c rule 1937]
a. Rule 24A
b. 25A
c. 25
D. 24
119. Rule 26 [a/c rule 1937]
a. In an emergency, the dropping of liquid fuel
b. In an emergency, the dropping of cargo over areas where hazard to persons or property
outside the aircraft is not thereby created
c. The dropping of message bags
d. All
120. Minimum age for sole control of aircraft according to IAR 28 [a/c rule 1937]
a. 15 yr
b. 18 yr
c. 16yr
417) MTCS (CAR 21/Pg.11)

a) Type certificate is given to prototype A/C
b) Type certificate has unlimited validation
c) STC is not given by DGCA
d) Both a & b
421) Any power or duty conferred or imposed by these ……..on the central government may be
excess or discharged (A/C RULE)
a) 3A
b) 3B
c) 3
AAC
86) EXPORT C OF A
a) AAC 2 OF 2017
b) AAC 1 OF 2017
c) AAC 4 OF 2004
87) Procedure for approval modification and repair (AAC 1 OF 2017)
a) AAC 2 OF 2017
b) AAC 1 OF 2017
c) AAC 4 OF 2004
152) Instrument storage condition (AAC 13 OF 2017/Pg.5)
a. 5-25 degree centigrade and humidity not more than 70%
b. dust free
c. both a and b
d. only a
163)instrument shall be inspected prior to installation to ensure that – (AAC 13 OF 2017/Pg.2)
a) The instrument is approved for that type of aircraft
b) The range of dial marking is adequate to reflect correct operation of aircraft, powerplant and
equipment
c)The of any coloured sector on instruments dials corresponds to range specified in aircraft flight
manual and engine mfg. manual
d)AOTA
170)Requirement for export C of A
a) AAC 2 of 2006
b) AAC 3 of 2006
c) AAC 4 of 2006
191)MTCS- (Ref.AAC 2 of 2013)
a) Repair covered in SRM (structural Repair Manual) does not require DGCA approval
b) Repair not covered in SRM (structural Repair Manual) require DGCA approval #
c)both
179)Repair shall be classified major or minor by (AAC 1 OF 2017/Pg.5)
a) DGCA
b) Appropriately approved org.
c)both
203) CA form 4 is (AAC 2 OF 2018/Pg.5)
(a) Application for issue the CRS
(b) Acceptance of post holder*
(c) Authorized release certificate
256)To what does Airworthiness Notice 60 refer?
1) Toilet flush motors

2) Cabin and toilet fire protection.
3) Bogus parts.
102. In absence of manufacture recommendation VSI should be overhauled [AAC 13 of 2012, pg.4]
a. 3 year/2000 hours whichever is earlier
b. 2 year/2000 hours whichever is earlier
c. 2000 hours only
d. None
103. The fuel quantity gauge should be [AAC 10 of 2017, pg.2]

a) Unusable fuel should be marked with green arc in the dial
b) Unusable fuel should be calibrated as zero datum line
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
REFERANCE DINT GIVEN

302) In accordance with rule 54 of CAR, 1937
1) All manufacturing/maintenance work performed on aircraft shall be certified by Licensed
AME/approved/authorized person
2) CCL to be carried on board
3) Major maintenance and modification
303) Flame resistances means

1) Susceptible to combustion to the pt of propagating a flame after the ignition source is required
2) Not susceptible to combustion to the pt of propagating a flame after the ignition source is
removed
3) Susceptible to combustion to the put-off propagating a flame before the ignition source is
Required
304) Repetitive preflight airworthiness directive and certification authorities be issued limited by
CAR 145 AMO to
1) Commander and flight engineer
2) Commander or flight engineer
3) Commander and /or flight engineer
305) Weight scheduled not includes
1) Weight details of removed equip (excluding wireless equip)
2) Weight details of removed equip (including wireless equip)
3) Weight of Oil capacity
306) Which of the following information is not required while an applicant seeking approval for
ETOPS?
1) Aircraft registration number
2) Type & model of the APU fitted
3) Total engine hrs of the type in the world fleet
307) Which document & factor shall be kept in view by an operator while preparing TBO/COSL for
major component of an aircraft?
1) Manufacture recommendation & operating environment in the country
2) Category of aircraft whether private passenger category
3) Maintenance facilities available
308) Modification used by manufacture on a type certified a/c

1) Requires approval of DGCA headquarters
2) Requires approval of RAO
3) Is decamped as approved modification
309) AAC 4 of 1998 deals with

1) Approval of an organisation which is located outside the of India
2) Approval of an organisation which is located within the territories of India
3) Oral examination of foreign licenced AME to work on Indian Registered Aircraft
310) Guidelines for preparing installation check schedule for addition of a new ratio equipment on
an aircraft is available in
1) Aircraft rule 1937
2) BCAR, section ‘R’ & FAA advisory circular AC43-13
3) CAR, section-2, series ’R’
311) Mandatory modifications means promulgated by

1) DGCA
2) Manufacturer
3) Airworthiness authority of manufacturing of Aircraft component etc
312) Helicopter above 7000 kg should be equipped with
1) One FDR & CVR
2) Two CVR & one FDR
3) 1 FDR &2 ELT
313) Regarding Aircraft hoses mark the correct statement

1) During storage periodic inspection should be carried out once in a year
2) Aircraft hoses pressure tested 1½ times the working pressure every 2 years
3) Both a and b are correct
314) The following personnel exempted from undergoing refresher course are
1) Welders holding certificate of competency
2) Instructors of AME training institutes
3) Member of flying crew
315) Under which following circum stances flight testing is not necessary
1) Subsequent to change of an engine
2) Subsequent to maintenance & error or modification
3) For the purpose of evaluation in suspect of fuel consumption, engine power
316) Which are the following aspects is not overhead in AAC issued regarding ’Good maintenance
practice?
1) Maintenance technicians
2) Personal Minimum
3) Manager
317) Which are the following documents needs to be carried on board in case an Aircraft does not
leave the vicinity if its starting place &returns without landing elsewhere to its starting place ?
1) Operation manual
2) Certificate of flight release
3) Air operator permit
318) The AME responsible for releasing an a/c after involving the provisions of MEL should
1) Inform pilot in command & record the same in relevant technical document
2) Take permission from chief of engineering before releasing a/c under MEL
3) Take permission from pilot in command before releasing a/c under MEL
319) When the propeller is removed from an engine entry for removal of propeller shall be made in
1) Engine log book only
2) Concerned engine & propeller log book
3) As in b & a/c log book also
320)When any modification is carried out on an a/c it is duty of concerned operator to intimate
1) Manufacture
2) DGCA
3) None of the above is correct but regulatory authority of the country of manufactured
321) Mark the correct statement regarding alert values of components or system it means
1) Minimum deviation from the normal operating limit
2) values are within the acceptable limit
3) For reference only to indicate that corrective maintenance action in required
322) The operators must comply with requirement relating to ETOPS in the following circumstances
1) whenever flying circumstances
2) Whenever flying over water more than 120 NM
3) whenever flying beyond a distance corresponding to 120 minutes flight from an airport
323) Hot air balloons used for personal flying by pilot need not have a type certificate and is issued
with Certificate of Airworthiness in
1) normal category, subdivision – private
2) special category, subdivision – experimental
3) aerobatic category, subdivision – racing
324)MTCS
1) reciprocating engines must be completely stripped, thoroughly inspected, reassembled and tested
at least once in 10 yrs
2) as in (a) manufacturer laid down overhaul periodicity on calendar basis between two consecutive
overhaul, prevails
3) overhauling done in 6 years
325 A/c may fly with invalid Certificate of Airworthiness

1) Certificate of Airworthiness suspended away from the base & fly to the base
2) a/c fly for the purpose of test flight within the vicinity of departing aerodrome
3) after inspection carried out by QCM & special permission given by DGCA
326) The renewal of Indian licenced AME in Singapore is done by

1) DGCA Headquarters-India
2) A/W authority of any ICAO approved country
3) Aviation authority of that country in Singapore
327) Mark the incorrect statement

1) Hoses should be uncoiled
2) Tire must be stored vertically at 3 points on tread
3) Temp of storage of hoses 50˚ f 70˚ f
328) The operator can change the maintenance practice of a component from condition to condition
monitoring or vice versa such a program will have to be
1) accepted by manufacturer
2) approved by DGCA Head Quarters
3) approved by RAO
329) NDT lines under which class of CAR 145 organisation

1) non destructive testing rating only
2) NDT is applicable component + DGCA manufacture
3) both a and b
330) CAR 145 approved maintenance organization with a category APU class rating may carry out
maintenance
1) organization with an approval class rating in Cat. B
2) organization with an approval class rating in Cat. A
3) maintenance procedure and workshop
331) What is the service life of rubber parts and valve sheets?
1) maximum 6 years from the cure date
2) more than 4 years
3) maximum service life sheets shall not exceed 4 years
332) Aircraft is landed and the engine is shutdown in parking runway when will responsibility to park
the aircraft
1) duty operator
2) duty owner of aircraft
3) both a and b
333) For an imported aircraft, DGCA shall issue Certificate of Airworthiness of aircraft if ,
1) application includes a statement signed by the exporting authority that Aircraft conforms to
design approved by authority
2) As in (a) and documents required as per CAR-21 sub H
3) The aircraft conforms to approved design of manufacturer and is in condition for safe operation.
334) Regarding noise certificate

1) It is valid for 1 year
2) It is valid for unlimited duration
3) As in 2) subject to compliance with applicable type –design & environment protection
Requirements
335) A CAR 145 approved maintenance organization with cat ‘B’ may carryout maintenance
1) on an installed engine during base &line maintenance
2) NDT on products containing NDT producers
3) both a)&b)
336) DGCA issues export C of A for Aircraft:

a) Manufactured in India.
b) For other country
c) For aircraft manufactured outside India
337) Validity of Noise Certificate is

a) Unlimited
b) Till C of A remains valid
c) Till remain compliance with unit protection & Type Certificate
338) Who is responsible for transfer of Airworthiness Records?

a) Owner /Operator
b) AMO
c) Manufacturer
339) After findings Major defect, report is sent to:

a) DGCA
b) Type Certificate /STC holder.
c) Manufacture
340) To issue Notice to Airmen (NOT AMS) & AIP (Aeronautical Information publication, aircraft
owners and Maintains Engineers, Civil Aviation requirement of rule.
a) 61
b) 133A
c) 133B
341) Refresher Course guidance

a) AAC 8of 2000
b) AAC 2 of 2000
c) AAC 2 of 2007
342) Safety Management is meant:

a) For TC (Type certificate)
b) For all to control the overall aim of controlling safety
c) Both a) & b)
343) See and avoid is given by

a) ACAS I+ with SSR transponder
b) ACASII
c) Mode A/C Transponder
344) When there is only one person for all carry combination then up to Accountable Manager.
a) Directly
b) Through either base Manager or line Manager or anyone to accountable Manager.
c) DGCA
345) Class C are carry out maintenance on installed component where

a) Maintenance in base & line Maintenance
b) At engine /APU Maintenances facility
c) Control procedure in MOE
346) Number of flight crew to be carried out:

a) C of A (certificate of airworthiness)
b) Flight Manual
c) Both A) and B)
347)Changes to that part product covered by a supplemental type certificate? Shall be classified
&approved in accordance with CAR-21 sub D
a) CAR 21 Subpart E
b) CAR 21 Subpart F
c) CAR 21- Subpart G
348) Flame resistance means

a) Not susceptible to propagating flame before source removed.
b) Not susceptible to propagating flame after ignition source is removed
c) Not susceptible to propagation flame ignition after 10 min is removed
349) New radio equipment installation requires short form aero mobile license form:
a) Ministry of communications (WPC)
b) DGCA
c) RAO
350) Colour of nose for fuel dispending

a) JET A1 black
b) AVGAS –RED
c) Both (a) & (b)
351) For C of A each component type certified by ACT regulatory of

a) DGCA
b) FAR /EASA21
c) EASA of JAR any other acceptable to DGCA
352) Maintenance-Man hour plan should be based on

a) Minimum maintenance workload, need for commercial viability
b) Maximum maintenance workload needed for commercial viability
c) Both (a) & (b) are correct
353) Repair Assessment programs is gives to aircraft

a) Which have crossed design economic
b) Which are newly manufactured
c) Only (a) is correct
354) In MOE (Management resources & personnel)
a) Part 1
b) Part 2
c) Part 3
355) GPWS should be fitted in

a) Piston engine above 5700 kg & type seating More than 9 passengers
b) AUW above 2700 kg
c) Turbine engine above 5700 kg
356) Rectification period of defect group I and group II

a) As to satisfaction of DGCA
b) Include corrective action & root cause.
c) Both a & b
357) For helicopters having MTOW of 7000 KG:

a) One FDR is installed
b) One CVR must be installed
c) One FDR & one CVR must be installed
358) ACAS-II
a) Threat detection
b) Maintain vertical clearance
c) Terrain warring
359) RVSM requirements

a) Vertical Distance etc
b) As in (a) horizontal distance also
c) Both (a) & (b) are correct
360) CAR 145 Org. all defects certified as per

a) DGCA allows contract with foreign, major org. Maintenance for primary parts like landing gear
b) DGCA gives concession if modification can’t be done
c) All
361) Maintenance programme in case of QCM having more than 3 years of experience
a) Indirect approval
b) Direct approval
c) Approval by QCM with intimation to RAO
362) Fuelling should not be done when jet aircraft maneuvers’ so as to bring the rear jet outlet
within:
a) 43 meter
b) 15 meter
c) 30 meter
363) Defects recorded

a) ATA code wise
b) Ms. Manual
c) QC Manual
364) Continuing Airworthiness is Responsibility of

a) Persons Org performing maintains
b) Owner
c) Consider licensing responsibility.
365)Components of twin-engine helicopter is maintained by

a) CAR M Subpart F
b) CAR 145
c) CAR M Sub part G
366) Contents of First Aid Kit and Physician Kit shall be examined and certified
a) 6 monthlies
b) every year
c) as in (a) for non-schedule & general aviation
367) For repetitive pre-flight AD can be carried by:

a) Flight commander or flight engineer.
b) Flight commander
c) Pilot
368) When Aircraft is away from main base:

a) Entry is made in working copies of log book
b) Daily send report to main base.
c) Journey log book column number XI
369) ACAS in MEL is rectified

a) Within 10 days
b) Within 48 hours
c) Within 7 days
370) Application for registration of ETOP not required

a) Aircraft reg.
b) Aircraft serial No
c) APU details
371) Deactivation procedure for GPWS:

a) Aero plane flight Manual
b) Maintenance system manual
c) Pilot Notes
372) For Multiengine aircraft

a) CVR should be installed where STC is available
b) CVR should be installed where STC is not available
c) No CVR installed
373) Decision altitude less than 60 m but greater than 30 Meter runway visual range not less than
350 m
a) Category 1
b) Category IIIA
c) Category II
374) While deciding TBO overhaul of component life of Aircraft /COSL component part operated
consider;
a) Manufacture recommendation & environmental conditions.
b) Private or passengers Aircraft
c) Authority of maintenance facilities
345) For dropping of an article, permission from

a) District magistrate or police commissioner
b) DGCA and District magistrates
c) DGCA + DM + police commissioner
376) How long is an CAR-66 licence valid?

a. 2 years once signed in ink
b. 5 years once signed and verified that the information contained in the licence is the same as that
contained in the competent authority records
c. 5 years once signed in ink
377) Aircraft rating requirement for CAT B3

a. Individual type rating,type training plus OJT or type examination plus practical experience on
piston engine non pressurized aeroplanes of 2000 kg MTOM and below
b. Full rating on piston engine non pressurized aeroplanes of 2000 kg MTOM and below
c. Manufacturer subgroup rating on piston engine non pressurized aeroplanes of 2000 kg MTOM and
below
378) Continuous improvement of the service provider’s SMS shall include

a. changes within the organization which may affect established processes and services
b. arrangements to ensure safety performance prior to implementing changes
c. proactive and reactive evaluations of facilities, equipment, documentation and procedures, to
verify the effectiveness of strategies for control of safety risk
349) The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold or the aerodrome
elevation as applicable used in establishing compliance with appropriate obstacle clearance criteria
is termed as
a. Obstacle free zone
b. Obstacle clearance altitude
c. Missed approach altitude
380) Any operator requesting approval for EDTO should submit the request with the supporting data
to the Regional Airworthiness office of DGCA
a. at least three months prior to the proposed start of EDTO with the specific airframe/engine
combination
b. at least four months prior to the proposed start of EDTO with the specific airframe/engine
combination
c. at least six months prior to the proposed start of EDTO with the specific airframe/engine
combination
381) Class-1 Aeronautical products for Export to INDIA should be accompanied by

a. Airworthiness Approval Tag
b. Export Certificate Of Airwothiness
c. Supporting data
382)To what does a B1-3 License apply to?

a. Helicopter with turbines, their engines, airframes and electrics
b. Light aircraft with piston engines
c. Helicopters with piston engines, their engines, airframes and electrics
383) What can an A1 licensed engineer sign for?

a. Minor Scheduled Line Maintenance tasks on turbine engined helicopters
b. Minor Scheduled Line Maintenance tasks on turbine engined aircraft
c. Minor Scheduled Line Maintenance tasks on piston engined aircraft.
384) The RVSM approval process shall verify that the predicted rate of occurrence of undetected
failure of the altimetry system does not exceed
a. 1 ×10-5 per flight hour
b. 1×10-6 per flight hour
c. 1 × 10-7 per flight hour
385) Category C licensed engineers are backed up by.

a. engineers holding existing licence in the appropriate category.
b. hanger based cat B1 and B2 licensed maintenance technicians and mechanics with appropriate
type ratings.
c. cat B1 and B2 technicians with type rating.
386) Tasks which may be completed without the certification of a CRS is given.
a. CAR -66 Appendix V.
b. CAR-21 Appendix III.
c. CAR-M Appendix VIII.
387) The time scale for retaining training records within a CAR-147 school is
a. five years after the candidate leaves the course.
b. five years after the completion of the course.
c. three years after the completion of the course.
388) Periodic review of Maintenance programme contents should be done by operator

a. Annualy
b. 3 monthly
c. 6 monthly
389) Documents to be carried onborad include.

a. Certificate of Registration, Airworthiness, Insurance and Radio License.
b. C of A, Permit to Fly, radio License, Crew Licenses, and C of R.
c. Crew licenses, radio licence and aircraft dealers certificate
390) An aircraft manufacturer approved to CAR-21, may maintain aircraft and issue certificates of
release to service.
a. for any aircraft providing it is on its schedule of approval.
b. only if it holds a Part-M or Part-145 approval also.
c. only for the aircraft that it has produced.
391) When preparing a weight and C of G schedule, the variable load can be calculated from the
a. weight of the pilots and any special equipment that they carry
b. weight of A.P.S. and payload
c. Nothing
392) Which of the following does not require a Noise Certificate?.

a. A helicopter under 5700 kg.
b. A small business jet aircraft.
c. A fixed wing aircraft under 2730 kg
393) A radio station license becomes invalid.

a. upon change of ownership of aircraft
b. when the c of a is due for renewal
c. when c of a becomes invalid
394) When is a Certificate of Fitness for Flight under A conditions required?.

a. To allow an unregistered aircraft to fly for air test
b. After a certificate of maintenance review has been signed
c. To allow an aircraft to fly on Air test to check out modification
395) An aircraft components which comes with an CA form 1
a. will not need a CRS when fitted as a form 1 is also a CRS.
b. will also require a form 8130-3
c. will require a CRS to be issued when fitted to certify correct installation as the form 1 CRS applies
only to the conformity of the component.
396) A Service Bulletin contains

a. a detailed description of a problem and corrective action to be taken
b. information concerning the airworthiness of aircraft
c. a list of maintenance tasks to be carried out on a particular aircraft
397) A Certificate of Maintenance Review is retained.

a. for six (6) months from date of issue
b. for two (2) years from date of issue.
c. until two (2) years after the aircraft has been destroyed or permanently withdrawn from service.
398) A Part-66 maintenance license remains valid.

a. if he/she has worked on aircraft for 6 months in the last 2 years
b. if he/she has worked on aircraft for 6 months in the last 3 years
c. if he/she has worked on aircraft for 3 months in the last 2 years
399) What is an Exposition?

a. A document which sets out details of an organisation
b. A document which sets out details of the maintenance schedule.
c. A document which sets out details of how management work is carried out
400) A type certificate is issued to.

a. aircraft identical in all major areas to a previous approved aircraft.
b. aircraft similar to a previous aircraft but with design differences.
c. a prototype aircraft.
401) For what period of time must a load sheet be kept?

a. Five years.
b. Two years.
c. Six months.
402) On completion of a major modification to an EASA aircraft, for the purposes of a flight test.
a. issue a Certificate of Fitness to Fly since the C of A has been invalidated.
b. the C of A is valid providing it is still within the date shown on it.
c. issue a Permit to Fly.
403) Maintenance documents are kept for

a. three years after the aircraft has returned from a CAR-145 organisation to the operator.
b. five years after the aircraft has been returned from a CAR-145 organisation to the operator.
c. two years after the aircraft has been withdrawn from service.
404) After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued?
a. Certificate of Release to Service
b. A Certificate of Maintenance Review
c. Flight release certificate
405) The aircraft registered in category A is wholly owned either

a. By a person resident in or carrying on business in INDIA ,who are not citizens of INDIA
b. By citizens of INDIA
c. By a company or corporation registered elsewhere than in INDIA and carrying on business in INDIA
406) On completion of the overhaul of an aircraft component by a CAR-145 organization.

a. the Worksheets with a certified CRS are placed in the aircraft file with the log books
b. the Worksheets are retained by the overhaul organization in their own files
c. the Worksheets with a certified CRS are not retained by the overhaul organization
407) Whose responsibility is it that no unauthorised entries are made in a CAR-66 licence?.
a. The licence holder.
b. CAR-145 organisation.
c. CAR-66 organisation.
408) An operator adds a new aircraft to its fleet

a. An amendment to its Approved Maintenance Schedule must be applied for, only if the aircraft
differs in any way to the aircraft already in its fleet
b. An amendment to its Approved Maintenance Schedule must be applied for, only if the aircraft is a
totally different Type to any of the aircraft already in its fleet
c. An amendment to its Approved Maintenance Schedule must be applied for, even if the aircraft is
identical to the aircraft already in its fleet
409) To what stage of flight is a Noise Certificate applicable?
a. Take-off and landing.
b. All stages of flight.
c. Take-off only
414) When an item is removed from an aircraft, then subsequently refitted.

a. no certificate of release to service is required if it is the same item.
b. only one certificate of release to service is required to cover both the removal and the re-fitment.
c. two certificates of release to service is required to cover the removal and the re-fitment
respectively.
415). A basic aircraft maintenance in category B1, B2 or C licence.

a. does confer licensing responsibilities
b. allows you to sign a CRS but not CMR.
c. does not confer any licensing responsibilities
418) Fees for type certificate

a) 25000
b) 20000
c) 40000
440) Definition SMS
a) Is a management tool for the management of safety of an org., reflecting an organized and orderly
approach
b) Potential out/come of hazard
c) Safety arrangement of an organization
d) ATA
446) CAME records

c) AM, QM & CAM
451) MTCS
AOP certificate
a) Certificate true copy of an AOP along with operational specified shall be carried on board each
A/C operated by the operator
b) Certificate true copy of an AOP along without operational specified shall be carried on board each
A/C operated by the operator
c) Certificate true copy does not require
d) NTA
456) Fees for type certificate

a) 25000
b) 20000
c) 40000
461) Fees for c of R is given in accordance to

a) MTOW
b) Seating capacity
c) Both a & b
d) None
482) CAME records

c) AM, QM & CAM
483) Accountable manager known about maintenance knowledge because

a) He is responsible for financial
b) He is supported by technical post holder
c) He only has basic understanding of CAR 145
650) Operator shall mention in his __ manual as to when and where MEL item will be attended to
a) Quality control manual
b) Aircraft maintenance manual
c) Maintenance system manual
d) Quality assurance manual
651) Mark the correct sentence
a) AME need not certify an aircraft for flight even though defective s system is covered under MEL
b) With MEL invoked pilot can refuse to fly if it is unsafe to fly
c) QCM is responsible to ensure that aircraft is not dispatched for flight with multiple items in
operative
d) All above are correct
652) MEL is normally applicable to
a) Parent base
b) All transit stations & main stations only
c) All transit, terminal & parent base only
d) All transit, terminal and main stations only
653) MEL can be invoked at parent base
a) Provided defect encountered an hour or so before the departure of that flight
b) As at a) and RAO should be informed in writing with in 24 hours
c) Provided defect encountered an hour or so before the departure of first flight of the day
d) As at c) and RAO should be informed in writing within 24 hours.
654) Select the wrong statement
a) MEL defects shall be rectified at first available opportunity
b) In any case MEL defects shall be rectified, once aircraft returns to the
main base
c) MEL defects can be carried forward for indefinite periods provided
they are covered in MMEL also
d) All above are correct
655) The preamble of MEL will indicate
a) Method of informing pilots about defect
b) Procedure of release of aircrafts with defects as per MEL
c) When and where the defects covered in MEL will be rectified
d) All above and define the main bases & transit station.
656) The responsibility of amending MEL is with
a) QCM b) RAO where the operator is based c) Accounatable Manager d) Manufacturer of aircraft
657) Who can put a time limit in MEL for rectifying
a) The RMU in QC department b) DGCA c) QCM d) None
658) Aircraft rules 7 B specifies that all radian registered aircrafts shall carry on board
a) First Aid kit and Physicians kit
b) Cockpit check list & emergency check list
c) Up dated CAR
d) Flight manual
659) A list containing items of inspection/action to be performed by the flight crew, in the order as
listed, and in the circumstances as indicated, for ensuring safe operation of air craft is called
a) Cockpit check list
b) Emergency check list
c) Flight inspection schedule
d) Flight manual
660) Emergency check list is a list
a) Containing action to be performed by flight crew in the order listed, and in the circumstances as
indicated, for ensuring safe operation of aircraft.
b) As at a) but whenever emergent situations develop in flight on failure of aircraft
systems/components.
c) As at b) requires extra alertness on the part of flight crew
d) Check list to be followed whenever the aircraft wants to take off in emergency.
661) Challenge and response method while using the CCL needs __ crew Members
a) One only
b) Two or more
c) Three only
d) None
662) Cockpit check list/emergency check list is given by the aircraft manufacturers in their
a) Flight Manual
b) Operations Manual
c) Crew operating Manual
d) All above
663) Mark the correct sentence
a) Alterations to check list can be carried out by the operator on his Own depending on his
experience
b) Operators can prepare the CCL and ECL based on their experience
c) The check list will list the function of each flight crew member against each item of the list
d) None of the above.
664) Items not included in MEL
a) Wings, complete engines
b) One engine failure
c) Galley equipment
d) All above
665) CAR section 2. series B, part II is issued vide (Preparation of CCL & ECL)
a) Aircraft rule 7B b) Aircraft rule 133A
c) Aircraft rule 50 d) Aircraft rule 15
666) Alteration to check list on the basis of operators own experience must be carried only after
obtaining the concurrence of
a) DGCA b) RAWO c) Manufacturer d) RAA
667) Rectification of a minor defect may be deferred:
a) If it is included in MEL
b) Included in MEL and pilot in charge is satisfied with regard to safe operation
c) As in (b) at any transit / Terminal Station
d) For al Flights
668) Amendments to MEL based on revised MMEL shall be approved by a) RAWO/Sub RAWO b)
DGCA c) QCM d) Manufacturer 1. MEL shall be prepared by the operator
a) Scheduled, Non scheduled operator
b) Scheduled, Non-Scheduled and General Aviation aircraft
c) For all aircraft where manufacturer has issued MMEL
d) none
669) Safe operation of modern aircraft is possible to day even with existence of certain defects
because
a) Inherent safeguards introduced in the form of duplicated components system
b) Redundancy of aircraft system / components
c) By having approved MEL and preamble on board
d) (a) & (b)
670) Practice of permitting aircraft to continue their flights from transit station to base station with
existence of defects results in
a) Reduces safety, increases engineering cost and avoids passenger discomfort
b) Reduces safety, increases crew work load avoids passenger discomfort
c) Reduces safety, crew work load, engineering cost and avoid passenger discomfort
d) All are correct
671) Rectification of in-operative system/components covered under MEL shall be carried out: a) As
per MSM b) At Main station c) At parent base d) At first place where time and spares permit 5.
Operator shall obtain MMEL and frame MEL so as:
a) MEL is to be less restrictive, than MMEL
b) MEL can not be less restrictive, than MMEL
c) MEL does not differ in its format with MMEL
d) MEL shall be same that of MMEL
672) The following cannot be included in MEL?
a) Stand-by Radio Navigation equipment
b) One of the two engines of the aircraft
c) Rudder operating system
d) B and C
673). Aircraft rule which requires carriage of CCL & ECL onboard: a) 7/1937 b) 7/1934 c) 7B/1937 d)
None 16. CCL & ECL for each type of aircraft is prepared by:
a) Operator
b) Manufacturer
c) QCM
d) None
674) CCL & ECL is generally provided by:
a) Regulating authority of country of manufacture
b) By the manufacturer
c) As in (A), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
d) As in (B), operator shall use it under intimation to RAWO
675) Deviation/ amendment to CCL/ECL provided by the manufacturer shall be approved by: a)
RAWO b) DGCA HQ c) QCM d)Flt crew 5. Approval to MEL is given by
a) RAWO where the aircraft is mainly based
b) QC Manager along with authorized pilot
c) Representations from engineering operations and cabin crew
d) DGCA (HQs)
676) MEL shall be prepared by
a) MEL shall be prepared for all aircrafts where the aircraft manufacturer issued MMEL
b) Other operators operational experience for similar type of aircraft
c) Under the provision of Rule 133A
d) All correct
677) Items not included in MEL
a) Wings, flight controls, complete engines, landing gears etc. correct functioning of which is
absolutely necessary for any flight
b) Galley equipment, entertainment system, passengers convenience equipment
c) Flight control, one engine failure with galley equipment aircraft can fly under MEL
d) Both A and B correct
678) MEL is applicable
a) Transit station b) Terminal Station c) Main station d)All correct
679) Aircraft permitted to fly under MEL mark correct and appropriate answer
a) Defect encountered an hour before first flight of the day
b) Such cases shall be reported RAWO with in 24 hours.
c) MEL is not intended to fly for an indefinite period
d) All correct
680) MEL is to be rectified and signed
a) Within 24 hours of occurrence
b) Wherever the maintenance facilities available
c) Within 48 hours elapsed time
d) Within 72 hours of elapsed time
681) Cockpit & emergency check list is prepared a) Rule 7B of 37 b) Rule 7A of 37 c) Rule 7A of 34 d)
Rule 7A of 38 25. Cock-pit checklist means
a) Inspection / actions to be performed by the ground crew in the order listed and in the
circumstances indicated for safe operation of the aircraft
b) Inspections to be performed by the flight crew
c) Action to be performed by the flight crew
d) Both inspection/action to be performed by the flight crew for safe operation of the aircraft
682) Alterations to check list is carried out
a) Operators operational experience
b) On DGCA requirement
c) After obtaining concurrence of the DGCA
d) All correct
683) Regarding Maintenance
a) Maintenance and certificate standards – Rule 60 of 37
b) Major defect of aircraft - Rule 59 of 37
c) All correct
d) None of these
684) MTCS
a)No component may be fitted unless it is in a satisfactory condition, has been appropriately
released to service on a CA Form 1
b) a+marked in accordance with CAR 21 Subpart Q
c) otherwise specified in CAR 21, CAR 145 or CAR-M Section A, Subpart F
d)all.
685) Prior to installation of a component on an aircraft _________ shall ensure that the particular
component is eligible for fitment.
a)organisation b)person c)both d)only a is correct
686) MTICS
a) Standard parts shall only be fitted to an aircraft or a component
b) Material being either raw material or consumable material shall only be used on
an aircraft or a component
c) certifying staff of approved maintenance organisation should perform checks and verifications to
ensure a component is in a satisfactory condition,
d) organisations shall perform checks and verifications to ensure a component is in a satisfactory
condition
687)Purpose of CAFORM-1
a) to release components after manufacture
b)a+to release maintenance work carried out on such components under the approval of a DGCA
c)to allow components removed from one aircraft/component to be fitted to another aircraft/
component.
d)all
688) Document equivalent to a CA Form 1 may
a)release document issued by an organisation under the terms of a bilateral agreement signed by
DGCA
-b)EASA Form ONE
c) FAA Form 8130-3
d)all +Any other form acceptable to DGCA.
689)MTCS
a) Consumable material is any material which is only used once, such as lubricants,
cements, compounds, paints, chemicals dyes and sealants etc.
b) Raw material is any material that requires further work to make it into a component part of the
aircraft such as metals, plastics, wood, fabric etc.
c) When using raw or consumable material on an aircraft or component near, or
adjacent to, , it should be ensured that the CDCCL has not been compromised d)all
690)MTCS”Service life components”
a)Installed service life limited components shall not exceed the approved service life limit
b)The approved service life is expressed in calendar time, flight hours, landings or cycles.
c) a+At the end the approved service life, the component must be removed from the
aircraft for maintenance, or for disposal in the case of components with a certified life limit d)all
691)MTCS”Mutliation of component”
a) grinding,burning,removal of a major lug or other integral feature,permanent distortion of parts is
seldom effective
b) identification by tag or markings,drilling small holes,sawing in two pieces is best way to mutilate
and successfully method
c)both are correct
d)none is correct
692)In case of car-m organisation for fabrication
a)dgca approval is requirement b)agreement with dgca is required
c)a+approval BR TC,STC.CAR-21 organisation also required d)all
693) The maintenance organisation manual and its amendments shall be approved by
a)DGCA b)local office c)DGCA Regional Office. d)dgca hdqtr
694)MTICS’’Storage facility in case of subpart-f organisation”
a) clean, wellventilated
b)a+ maintained at an even dry temperature
c) Manufacturer’s storage recommendations should be followed
d)manufactures instruction is been published in recommendations given by manufacture
695) Segregation means
a) storing unserviceable components in a separate secured location from serviceable components
b) as in a) and from unsalvageable components
c) storing serviceable components in a separate secured location from unserviceable components
d) as in c) and from unsalvageable components
696) Limited certifying staff authorisation is issued to
a) Aircraft commander
b) As in a) and on the basis of the flight crew licence held
c) Aircraft Maintenance Engineer
d) as in c) and on the basis AME licence held
697) MTICS “Nominated persons”
a)practical experience and expertise in the application of aviation safety standards and safe
maintenance practices;
b)comprehensive knowledge of CAR M & maintenance organisation manual;
c) five years aviation experience of which at least three years should be practical maintenance
experience
c) instead of five years experience requirement is 3 yrs
d)all is correct except
698) MTCS
a)A certificate should not be issued for any component when it is known that the
component is unserviceable
b)except in the case of a component undergoing aseries of maintenance processes at several
approved maintenance organisations
c)In such a case clear statement of limitation should be endorsed in block 12.
d)all
699) The primary objectives of the organisational review
a)to org. Approval continued
b) to ensure that it can deliver a safe product
c)b+ approved maintenance organisation remains in compliance with therequirements.
d)all
700) MTICS ‘Endangers flight safety’
a) any instance where safe operation could not be assured or which could lead to an unsafe
condition
b)a+ significant cracking, deformation, corrosion or failure of primary structure, any evidence of
burning, electrical arcing, significant hydraulic fluid or fuel leakage
c) any emergency system or total system failure.
d)An airworthiness directive overdue for compliance is not considered a hazard to flight safety.”
701) “Pilot-owner” hold a valid pilot licence or equivalent
b)own the aircraft, either as sole or joint owner
c) one of the natural persons on the registration form; or a member of a non-profit recreational legal
entity,
d)all+ The scope of the limited Pilot-owner maintenance shall be specified in the aircraft
maintenance programme.
702) Controlled envoirnment
a) continuously managed during the previous 12 months by a unique continuing airworthiness
management organisation
b) maintained forthe previous 12 months by maintenance organisations
c)a+by CAMO
d)b+by CAMO
703) When DGCA carries out the airworthiness review and/or issues the airworthiness review
certificate itself, the owner or operator shall provide DGCA
a) the documentation required by DGCA; and
b) suitable accommodation at the appropriate location for its personnel;
c)when necessary, the support of personnel appropriately d)all
704) MTCS
a) It is acceptable to anticipate the extension of the airworthiness review certificate by a
maximum of 30 days without a loss of continuity
b) It is acceptable to anticipate the airworthiness review certificate by a maximum of 90 days
without a loss of continuity
c)both
d)only a is correct
705) MTCS
a) “Generic” maintenance programme: it is a maintenance programme developed to
cover a group of similar types of aircraft.
b) “Base line” and “generic” maintenance programmes are not applicable to a particular
aircraft registration mark
c) A copy of any airworthiness review certificate issued or extended for an aircraft shall be sent to
State of Registry within 10 days
d)allA copy of any airworthiness review certificate issued or extended for an aircraft shall be sent to
State of Registry within 10 days
706) MTICS
a) “3 years of appropriate maintenance experience” means 3 years working in an aircraft
maintenance environment on at least some of the aircraft type systems
b) “3 years of appropriate maintenance experience” means 3 years total maintenance exp.
c) A pilot owner should only issue a certificate of release to service for maintenance performed by
the pilot owner
d) The scope of the limited Pilot-owner maintenance shall be specified in the aircraft
maintenance programme
707) Data for modification and repair approved by
1. DGCA
2. As in 1 + CAR 21 / EASA 21 / FAR 21 Production org
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Only 2 is correct
708) CRS to be entered in continuing airworthiness record
1. As soon as Practicable
2. As in 1 + but in no event within 72 hours
3.As in 1 + but in no event more than 30 days 4. As in 3+ after the date of completion of
maintenance
709) Authorized Release Document
1. CA Form 1
2. As in 1 + E A S A Form 1
3. FA A 8 130-3
4. All of the above
710) Current states of AD Preserved for
1. 2 years
2. 12 month
3. 24 months
4. Either 1 or 3
711) MOM is approved by
1. DGCA 2. DGCA Local Office 3. DGCA Regional Office 4. Either 2 or 3
712) MTCS
1. Subpart- f approval includes fabrication of parts
2. Maint. Org. under CAR-M Subpart F cannot Fabricate parts
3. 1 + Provided they are used within own facilities
4. 3 + as identified in MOE
713)Personnel carrying out specialized tasks shall hold
1. Certificate of compliance
2. Certificate of competency
3. Certificate of course completion
4. Only 1 is correct
714) MTCS
1. Limited certifying staff authorization ( LCA)is issued to a/c commander by the organization
2. 1 + issued to personnel holding ATPL /CPL /FEL
3. 2 + not issued to when a/c is operating away from supported location
4. All of the above
715) CA Form 1 shall not be issued for
1. Components maintained by A rated organization 2. Component maintained by B rated
organization
3. Component maintained in a light a/c not used commercial transport 4. All the above
716) Approval of AMO is issued for
1. One year 2.Up to one year 3. Max period of one year 4.Any of the above
717) MTCS
1. Installed service life shall exceed the approved service life 2. Installed service life shall not exceed
the approved service life
3. Installed service life shall have no relation with approved service life
718) Components considered unserviceable
1. Expiry of certified life limit 2. 1 + non- compliance with Ads
3. 2 + evidence of defects or malfunctions 4. None
719) Environmental limitation given in
720) Defects that would not hazard the flight safety shall be rectified
1. As soon as practicable 2. But in no case with 72 hours 3. But in no event than 30 days 4. Both 1 & 2
721).When aircraft operating away from a supported location the organization may
issue a limited certifying staff authorization to the
a)aircraft commander
b)as in a and on the basis of the flight crew licence
c)As in b and organization ensures that sufficient practical training has been carried out to ensure
that such person can accomplish the task to the required standard d)None
722). where an aircraft is grounded at a location other than the main base where no appropriate
certifying staff is available, the maintenance organisation contracted to provide maintenance
support may issue a one-off certification authorization to
a)One of its employees holding type qualifications on aircraft of similar technology, construction and
systems
b)any person with not less than 3 years maintenance experience and holding a valid ICAO aircraft
maintenance licence rated for the aircraft type
c)Either a or b and in such case report to DGCA within 7 days
d)None
723). Defects that would not hazard the flight safety shall be rectified
1. As soon as practicable 2. But in no case with 72 hours
3. But in no event than 30 days 4. Both 1 & 2
724). Component certificate release to service document is
a)CA form 10 b)CA form 2 c)CA form 1 d)CA form 3
725). According to CAR M, approved maintenance organisation shall retain a copy of all maintenance
records and any associated maintenance data for
a)3 year b)2 year c)1 year d)None
726). According to CAR M ,an ORGINIZATION approval shall be issued for a maximum period of
a)1 yr b)2yr c)3yr d)5 yr
727) Maintenance that is carried out before flight to ensure that the a/c is fit for the intended flight
A Maintenance task
B Base maintenance
C Line maintenance
728) Application for issue approval shall be made to RAO/DGCA along with
A CA form 6 (CAR 145 compliance report)
B CA form 3 duly completed
C1&2
729)A CAR 145 approved maintenance organization may be approved in
A Base
B Line
C A or B or both
730) A CAR 145 AMO which employ only one person to both plan and carry out all maintenance can
hold A
A Limited scope approval rating
B Full scope approval
C None
D6
731) Class ‘Aircraft’ rating A1 indicates maintenance of
A Aeroplane 5700 kg and below
B Aeroplane above 5700 kg
C Helicopter
D7
732) Class ‘Aircraft’ rating A3 indicates maintenance of
A Aeroplanes
B Engines
C Helicopter
733) B1, B2, B3 are rating of
A Engines turbine, piston, APU respectively
B Piston, APU, turbine engine respectively
C Turbine APU & piston engine respectively
734) CAR 145 AMO is required to indicate scope of work in the
A Maintenance organization exposition (MOE)
B Quantity control cum assurance manual
C Engineering organization manual
735) “Class” under components other than complete engines or APU’s having ratings
A C1 – C20
B C21 – C81
C C1 - C10
736) NDT are covered under
A Specialized series, rating D1 non-destructive testing
B Various methods
C D1 – D6
737) CA form 4 to be filled up and sent to DGCA for
A Acceptance of management personnel law Car 145
B As in (1) and from forwarded under confidential cases
C All the above
738) Mark the correct statements
A “ accountable manager” of an AME should be accountable manager for one organization only
B Rating C 16 refers to landing gear equipment
C The maintenance man- hour plan should be reviewed every 6 months.
D None- above is correct
739) Limited certification authorization can be issued to
A ATPL/ CPL pilot
B FE license holder
C 1 or 2
740) One off authorization is issued by the
A QC dept of the contracted
B QC department of AMO
C DGCA
741) Block 13 “ remarks” on the CA form one in some cases contain
A Vital a/c related information
B As in one which may need appropriate and necessary activities
C Release documents
742) Identify the minor scheduled line maintenance of following
A Replacement of wheel assemblies
B Replacement of emergency equipment
C Routine lubrication and replenishment of all system fluids and gases
D All
743) Mark the correct statement
A Fabrication of parts, modification kits etc for onward supply and/or
B conducted by an organization approved under CAR 145 consumables should be approved either
by DGCA or TC holder or CAR-21 design organization approval holder, or STC holder’s
C Fabrication of control cables falls under scope of CAR 145 approval
D All
744) Issuance of “one off certification” by the organization contracted to provide maintenance
suppose to be reported to DGCA within
A one month of the issuance of such certification authorization
B One week of the such certification authorization
C One hour
745) A/C components are to be segregated of
A Released on CA form 1/marked with CAR 21
B Unserviceable and raw and consumables
C Un salvageable / standard parts, specified in IPL
D All the above
746) Mark the correct statements
A Fabrication and modification kits for sale may be conducted by an organization approved under
CAR 145
B Fabrication of electrical cable forms and assemblies not covered under the scope of CAR 145
organization.
C None is correct
747) Components that cannot be returned to airworthy condition due to exposure to extreme
forces, heat or adverse environment be classified as
A Unserviceable
B Standard parts
C Un salvageable
748) Consideration should be given to which of the following when establishing production planning
procedure :
A Logistics, inventory control, square meters of accommodation
B Man hour estimation, man-hour availability
C Hanger availability, environmental condition
D Preparation of work and 1,2,3
749) In case of CAR 145 approved organization such as reference to specific maintenance
procedures such as engineering procedure, a/c towing procedure, taxing procedure is to be referred
from
A Part 2 of MOE
B Part 1 of MOE
C Operations manual
750) Non-compliance with CAR 145 requirements which lower the safety standard and possibly
hazard the flight safety
A Level 1 finding
B Level 2 finding
C Level 3 finding
751) What do you mean by large a/c?
A Large a/c = 5700 kg & above = HA
B Large a/c means, MTOW above 5700 kg aero plane or a multi engine helicopter
C Above 27000 kg aero plane & above 3500 kg helicopter
752) Identify correct statement
A Component certificate of release to service form CA 2
B Application for approval and variation = form CA1
C Approval recommendation report = form CA 6
753) CA form 4
A Component certificate of release to service
B Details of management personnel
C None above
754) The rating A1 indicates, AMO is approved for maintenance of
A Helicopter
B Turbine engines
C Aero planes / airships above 5700 kg
755) The rating A2 indicate AMO is approved for maintenance of
A Aero planes / Airships below 5700kg
B Aero planes / Airships above 5700 kg
C A/c other than A1, A3
756) The rating B3 indicate AMO is approved for maintenance of
A Turbine engine
B APU
C Piston engine
757) The rating B1, indicate AMO is approved for maintenance of
A Piston engine
B Turbine engine
C APU
758) Rating D1 indicate, AMO is approved for
A Inspection of doors and access panels
B Carryout non destructive inspections on a/c
C Maintenance of destructive testing of a/c components
759) ‘Rating’ under components other than complete engine or APUs are rated as -------- under ------
-- specification respectively
A C10-C20, ATA 100 Specification
B C1-C20, ATA 100 Specification
C C1-C100, TATT 101 Specification
760) Find correct statements
A Accountable manager appoints QCM of an AMO
B Accountable manager of an AMO can be accountable manager for more than one organization
C The maintenance man hour plan should be reviewed at least every 3 months and updated when
necessary
D All correct
761) Small organization not working in shifts may cover HF in less depth subjects related to
A Professionalism and integrity
B Human error & environment
C Team work & communication
762) Find correct statement
A Initial training should be provided to personnel with in 06 months of joining the AMO
B Continuation training in HF shall be conducted every 2 year
C All correct
763) Find correct statement:
A Series ‘L’ part XIV does address regarding thermograph & stereography
B Boro scoping and delimitation coin tapping are NDTs rather than NDT
C When an organization name is proposed to change, DGCA need not be informed
764) “ One – off certification authorization” is issued by
A DGCA, HQRS
B The organization contracted to provide maintenance support to its employees
C RAO concerned
765) Issuance of “one – off certification authorization needs to be reported to DGCA within a
maximum period of
A One weeks
B One month
C 15 days
766) All certifying staff receive sufficient continuation training every
A One year
B Whenever new a/c, or equipment he qualities
C 2 years
767) Indian registered aircraft can be flown without a current and valid C of A only for the purpose
of
A Carrying out test flight without passenger & cargo
B Carryout cross country flight with out fare paying passengers
C Test flying for renewal of C of A without passenger and cargo in the vicinity of departing
aerodrome
D Test flying in the vicinity of departing aerodrome with maximum all up weight
768) Identify the objective of airworthiness authority
A Ensuring design level of reliability
B Ensuring operating safety of civil registered aircraft
C A & B are correct
D Monitoring of aircraft operation & approved organization only
769) Frequent visual inspection, in-situ test & physical measurements are elements of
A Hard time maintenance
B On condition maintenance
C Secondary maintenance process
D Condition monitoring
770) A component’s malfunction / failure not affecting safety of aircraft can be monitored under
B On – condition maintenance
C Condition monitoring
D MEL
771) Adverse trend of performance of an operator is checked by RAO in the form of
A Suggesting additional preventive maintenance
B Suggesting incorporating of modification on mandatory basis
C Varying the frequency of exiting preventive maintenance
D All the above
772) Foreign aircraft leased for operation by Indian operator are governed by requirements
stipulated in
A CAR sec 2 series ‘O’
B CAR sec 3 series ‘C’
C Airworthiness advisory circular 1/2007
D Rule 134
773) Airworthiness performance monitoring system of a scheduled operator for collection and
analyzing operational and airworthiness data is done through
A Emergency responding B ay to day monitoring
C Long term monitoring
D All the above
774) The responsibility of keeping the manuals upto date with all amendments is of
A Operational department of an operator
B QC department
C Flight safety department
D Stores department
775) AIC 17 of 1994 is regarding
A Approval of foreign AME to work on Indian registered aircraft
B Check list of advisory circulars
C AME licensing examination procedure
D Surveillance checklist of RAO
776) Which rule of following is the provision for release of aircraft under MEL
A Rule 59
B Sub rule (4) of 60
C Sub rule (5) of 60
D Rule 62
777) MEL is to be prepared based on MMEL by
A Scheduled & non – scheduled operators
B General aviation operators
C All operators
D None of the above
778) The responsibility of requesting latest MMEL copy from aircraft manufacture periodically is
belonging to
A DGCA
B RAO
C Operator
D Owner of the aircraft
779) Which of the following items, should not be included is MEL
A Landing gear, wings
B Entertainment system, galley equipments
C Passenger convenience items
D All the above
780) Which are the manual associated with MEL
A Dispatch deviation manual
B Maintenance system manual
C Operation manual
D All the above
781) MEL form part of
A Operations manual
B Tracing manual
C Maintenance manual
D Quality control manual
782) Mark the correct statement
A Rule 59 stipulates that a major defect or major damage to be reported to RAO
B Rule 60 is regarding maintenance and certification standards of Indian registered aircraft
C Aircraft fleet is said to be minimum 3 aircraft of a particular type
D All the statements are correct
783) For computing “reliability index” of a component
A All defects whether it is minor or major is taken into account
BAll occurrences of repetitive defect also including (A) above are taken in to account
C Only major defect is considered
D Only minor defects are taken into account
784)Investigation of a “major defect” must be completed by an operator with in
A 3 months of its occurrence
B One month of its occurrence
C 6 months of its occurrence
D 15 days
785) Analytical study of parameters recorded by scheduled operators on his turbo jet aircraft are to
be evaluated against alert value
A Every 6 months
B Every day
C Every month D Weekly basic
786 “Reliability” method of maintenance control after approval should be reflected in
AQuality control manual
B Maintenance manual
CWeight & balance manual
DEngineering organization manual
787) ‘RMU’ forms part of
A Engineering department
B Quality control division
CFlight safety division
D Operation division
788) Alert notice” will be issued in case of reliability degradation of aircraft system by
A Reliability monitory unit
B Quality assurance manager
C Engineering manager
D RAO
789)Aircraft systems reliability is measured by
A Number of confirmed failure / 100 hrs
B Number of pilot reported defects / 100 hrs for the system
C Number of premature removals / 100 hrs
D Number of major defects on a particular system / 100 hrs
790) Reliability monitoring unit for it’s functioning will gather information from
A Unscheduled & schedule maintenance
B Unscheduled removals
C Sampling inspection
D All of above are correct
791) If the defects observed in the a/c other than public transport a/c at places other than normal
base they may be recorded in the
A Defect register that carried on board
B Column XI of JLB
C Loose sheet for ultimate transferring to defect register
D All the above are correct
792) For effective monitoring of aircraft & engine system for functioning in flight, the crew member
should record all necessary parameter reading
A Once during each sector of flight
BOnly under stabilized cruise condition
C During climbing pace soon after take off
D Only under emergency condition of flight
793) The purpose behind recording of defects & in flight instrument reading is to achieve
A Smooth functioning of the reliability & statistical quality control system
B Effective monitoring
C Timely corrective action
D All of the above
794) Invoking MEL for a period of longer then absolutely necessary will result in
A Increased crew load & increase airworthiness
B Increased crew load & decrease airworthiness
C Decreased crew load & increase airworthiness
D Decreased crew load & decrease airworthiness
795) MEL is applicable to :
A All operator including private a/c operator
B Schedule operations only
C Non-schedule operations only
D General aviation operations only
796) Acceptable deficiency list of an aircraft of an operator :
A May differ in format of MMEL of that a/c
B Can be less restrictive than the MMEL
C As in (i) and any addition in the deficiency list requires RAO approval
D As in (A) and operator may add any equipment to the deficiency list
797) Information regarding number of services which were delayed for more than 15 minutes on
account of engineering defects are required to be submitted to the DGCA
A Every month by all schedule operator
B Every month by all schedule and non-schedule operator
C As in (i) and every three months by non-schedule operator
DEvery fort night by all schedule operator
798) The maintenance process for locating and resolving problems areas through analytical study of
failures or malfunctions not affecting safety of a/c is called
B Condition monitoring
C Preventive maintenance
D On-condition maintenance
799) On completion of flight, pilot of an aircraft has reported false fire warning during flight, then
A The a/c can be released on transit check without carryout maintenance task as the defect was not
present in the a/c
B The defect comes under the category of minor defect and can be released under MEL
C The cause of defect required to be investigated
D The a/c can be released after visual check and no further investigation as required in case of false
fire alarm
800) Negative trends in the maintenance inspection program is indicated by
A Increase in a/c delays due to operational reason
B Increase in deferred maintenance item
C Increase in flight cancellation due to bad weather
D All of the above
801) For determining the performance of air frame, a relationship is established b/w :
A Thrust and drag
B Fuel flow rate and N1 and N2
C EPR and ECT
D Fuel flow and TAS
802) A monthly report of fleet performance, engineering statics & analysis shall be forwarded by
A Scheduled operators
B Non-scheduled operators
C Private operators
803) Maintenance control by reliability method is applicable to
A Scheduled airlines
B Scheduled airlines holding approval in cat ‘C’
CPrivate airlines
804) Reliability displays shall be preserved by the operator for
A At least one years
BAt least five years
C At least two years
805) Alert value’ for maintenance control by reliability method will be equal to
AMean value plus one standard deviations
BMean value plus two standard deviations
C Mean value plus three standard deviations
D Mean value
806) Concurrent experience means
A Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied categories of mechanical stream
B As in A or avionics stream
C None
807) If AME license is submitted for renewal with in one month of its expiry, it will be renewed from
the date of
A Application
B Last validity
C As in 2 provided the AME has not exercised the privileges
D None of the above
808) For issue, renewal and issue of duplicate license fee to be paid to DGCA as per rule
A 61
B6
C 35
D None is relevant
809) The purpose of mandatory modification is to
A Notify aircraft owner’s of unsafe condition of aircraft
B A & Prescribe mandatory actions
C B & for continued safe operation
D All
810) Modification that is incorporated to aircraft and aircraft component after type certification to
maintain in airworthy condition is
A Mandatory condition
B Necessary modification
C Type modification
D Maintenance modification
811) The procedure for intimating the compliance of modification by manufacture should be
included in
A QCM
B MSM
C SB
D SL
812) Mandatory modification inspections are complied with
A Immediately in receipt
B With in 3 months
C With in stipulated period
D B or C, whichever earlier
813) Recent experience means experience acquired in the preceding
A 24 months
B 12 months
C 6 months
D 3 months
814) AME licence in category 'A' is equivalent to
A ICAO type I licence
B ICAO type II licence
C ICAO type III lincece
D ICAO type IV licence
815) AME licence in category 'D' is equivalent to
A ICAO type I licence
B ICAO type II licence
C ICAO type III licence
D ICAO type IV licence
816) An AME desirous of an extension in category 'A' (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
have to show on additional experience of
A 24 months with 3 months recent experience
B 24 months with 6 months recent experience
C 6 months with 3 months recent experience
D 6 months
817) An applicant applying for licence on helicopter of AUW below 3000 kg will have to show a total
aeronautical experience of four years both on airframe and engine simultaneously out of which
A 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 3 month recent experience
B 12 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience
C 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 12 month recent experience
D 24 months must be in type of helicopter applied with 6 month recent experience
818) Person having valid AME licence covering aircraft below 5700 kg and desirous of having an
extension of glider will have to show a recent experience of
A 12 months on particular type of glider
B 3 months on particular type of glider
C B. 6 months on particular type of glider
D 1 month on particular type of glider
819) AME licence is category 'D' is issued for all piston engines
A below 500 BHP
B below 450 BHP
C below 300 BHP
D below 250 BHP
820) For an extension on turbine engine in category 'C' the candidate should have
A 12 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent
B 12 months experience on type on which 3 months should be recent experience
experience
C 24 months experience on type on which 12 months should be recent experience
D 24 months experience on type on which 6 months should be recent experience
821) For issue of licence in category 'V' the candidate must possess
A a valid RTR (Aero) licence issued by Ministry of Communications at the time of oral-cum-practical
test
B a licence in category E,I and R
C BAMEC in category ES, IS, RN and have undergone an approved training course on integrated
avionics system
D All are correct
822) The licence in category R pertaining to heavy aircraft will be endorsed as
A valid for communication/navigation/radar system installed on the under mentioned aircraft
B HF, VHF, ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/Omega, DME weather radar etc. on particular type of aircraft
C 'valid for heavy aircraft'
D Both a and b are correct
823) Airborne communication system includes
A VHF, HF, CVR, FDR, audio equipment
B VHF, HF, VLF/omega ADF, audio equipment
C VHF, HF, CVR, audio equipment
D VHF, HF, VOR, ILS audio equipment
824) Airborne navigation system includes
A ADF, VOR, ILS, VLF/OMEGA and CW hyperblic equipment
B ADF, VHF, HF, FDR, VLF/omega and CW hyperbolic equipment
C WX Radar, DME, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder
D WX Radar, VOR/DME, ILS, Radio altimeter, ATC transponder
825) Airborne radar system includes
A ADF, WX Radar, VOR/ILS, ATC transponder
B ADF, VOR, Radar, VOR/ILS ATC transponder HF
C WX Radar, DME, Radio Altimeter, ATC transponder
D WX Radar, DME, ATC transponder
826)Engine power check on ground is done on helicopter by
A an AME having vast experience
B an AME having licence on that engine
C flight crew
D All the above
827) AME under-taking the rebuilding of aircraft must be endorsed in
A category 'A'
B category 'B"
C category 'C'
D category 'D'
828) For certification of ignition apparatus of light aircraft the AME should have his licence in
A Category 'A'
B Category 'B'
C Category 'C'
D Category 'X'
829) The candidates who have passed all the written papers and are due to appear in oral-cumpractical
test for issue or extension of AME licence will be intimated and CEO will issue for their oral
form
A CA 73 to the QCM of the candidate's organization
B CA 73 to the RAO of candidate's region
C CA 63 to the RAO of candidate's region
D CA 73 to the candidate
830) DGCA will recognize the approved course of a foreign country provided it has been approved by
that country and is
A Of two months' duration.
B Of three months' duration for heavy aircraft
C Of one month duration for heavy aircraft
D Of one month duration for light aircraft
831) AME licence for helicopter in category 'A' & 'C' is issued in combined form whose
A AUW is below 5700 kg
B AUW is below 3000 kg
C AUW is below 2000 kg
D None is correct
832) A helicopter engineer in category 'A' can certify
A all parts of airframe for assembly and condition
B balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor
C main gear boxes
D All are correct
833) An AME licensed in category 'C' on helicopter can certify
A balancing and tracking of main rotor and tail rotor
B main gear boxes intermediate gear boxes
C engine mounts and cowls for condition & security of attachment
D All are correct.
834) A candidate applying for endorsement in category 'A' will be exempted from appearing in
general paper III if he
A has vast experience
B has open rating in category 'D'
C has endorsement in category 'C' and 'D'
D has AME licence in category 'B' for the type of aircraft for which endorsement is required
835) According to appendix 'A' of CAR series 'L' part IV group V contains
A pressurised twin turbine engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW
B pressurised twin piston engine aeroplane not exceeding 5700 kg AUW
C piston engine helicopter not exceeding 5700 kg AUW
D Both a and b are correct
836) Avionics system includes instruments, electrical and radio systems of
A Boeing 737
B Boeing 747
C Airbus A 300
D Airbus A 320
837) An AME can exercise his privileges only
A when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 12 months
B when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than six months
C when within the preceding 12 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 3 months.
D when within the preceding 24 months he has exercised the appropriate privileges of AME for not
less than 3 months
838) A rating in category 'A' entitles the AME licence holder for .
A certification of major modification
B certification of major repair
C certification of minor repair
D certification of replacement of approved components
839) The holder of licence in category 'B' can issue
A certificate of maintenance for airframe
B certificate of maintenance for engine controls
C certificate of maintenance for engine fuel, oil & coolant system
D All are correct
840) A person will be deemed to be engaged in aircraft maintenance if
A he has undergone an approved refresher course run by approved training schools
B he is employed in production division of aircraft manufacturer
C he is employed as an AME in an airline
D All are correct
841) If an AME has certificated the work on appropraite procedure sheets and is on outstation duty
then the log book entry on his behalf can be made by
A any other AME
B Chief Engineer
C Quality Control Manager
D All are correct
842) Grant of open AME licences is contained in
A CAR series L PART VII
B CAR series L part VI
C CAR series L part V
D CAR series L part IV
843) Omnibus endorsement in respect of AME licence in category 'A' & 'B' is given to cover
A single engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg
B twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 5700 kg
C twin engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg
D single engine airplanes with an AUW below 3000 kg
844) 'Open' rating in category 'D' is given for piston engines not exceeding
A 500 BHP
B 400 BHP
C 300 BHP
D 250 BHP
845) Air operator certification manual is
1.CAP3100 2. CAP 3200 3. CAP 3300 4.none
846) A/c leasing manual is
1.CAP3100 2. CAP 3200 3. CAP 3300 4.none
847) no person shall operate air transport service ( non schedule) unless it holds non scheduled
operators permit as per rule
1. Rule 134 2. Rule 134A 3.Rule 140 4.both Rule 1333A
848) no person shall operate air transport service schedule unless it holds non scheduled operators
permit as per rule
1. Rule 134 2. Rule 134A 3.Rule 140 4.both Rule 1333A
849) AOP is issued by
1. central govt. 2.DGCA 3.Ministry of civil aviation 4. All
850) AOP is equivalent to
1. Aoc 2.s in 1 & issued by central govt.
3. AOC granted by ICAO 4. As in 3 & as per provision of annex 6
851) DGCA monitor the operation by procedure of
1. survelliance 2. Inspection 3. Both 1 & 2
852) CAP 3100 contains administrative procedure in respect of AOP
1. issue 2.as in 1 renewal 3. As in 2 it enlist requirement for AOP 4.as in 3 & guidance for DGCA
inspectors
853) CAP 3100explains the administrative procedure for AOP in order to make the process
1. dependent 2. As in 1 & transparent 3. Independent & transparent 4. none
854) CAP 3100 rev 2 is effective from
1. july 2013 2. March 2014 3.august 2013 4.july 2014
855) AIC stands for
1. Aeronautical information circular 2. Airworthiness information circular
3. airworthiness inspection certificate
856)DGR stands for
1. director general regulation 2. Dangerous goods receipt
3. Dangerous goods regulations 4. Director general reform
857) The responsibility for the safe conduct of operation
1. owner 2. Operator 3. Nominated person 4. All
858) Requirement for grant of permit for scheduled operations is reflected in …. Of a/c rule 1937
1. Rule 134 2.Rule 134 A 3. Schedule XI 4. All
859) the requirement for undertaking a/c operations with a/c owned by state govt./public sector
undertaking of center are reflected in
1. Section 8 series o part X 2. Section 3,series C part 8 3. Section 4,series P part IX4. Section 1,series A
part IV
860) AOP is issued to
1. Non- Commercial air transport operation 2. Airwork Operations 3. Commercial Air Transport
Operation 4. All
861). AOP Contain-
1. One Part 2. Two Part 3. Three Part 4. Five Part
862) Designated Post Holders are-
1. Nominated by opr 2.Acceptable to DGCA+ Asin I 3. Approved by DGCA + Asin I 4. All
863). An Accident Victim relief programme is prepared as per guidance of-
1. Section 3, Series C Part VIII 2. Schedule XI Of A/c Rule 1937 3. ICAO CIR-285/AN/166 4.All
864) The Application for the issue of an AOP is prepared in accordance in accordance with the
requirement given in CAP 3100-
1. Appendix A 2. Appendix B 3. Appendix C 4. Appendix D
865) Failure of an On OPR to comply with the applicable requirements may result into-
1. Administrative Penalties 2. Suspension/Cancellation of AOP
3. Revocation for the AOP + Asin II 4. All
866) The guidance for enforcement is given in-
1. Operations Manual 2.Administrative Manual 3. Enforcement Policy and procedure Manual 4.
None
867) Certification process for issue of an AOP Contain No. of Phases as-
1. Two 2.Three 3.Four 4.Five
868) The Financial economic and legal aspects of the applicant for AOP are assessed by DGCA during
phase known as-
1. Pre-application 2.Formal Application 3.Document evaluation 4.Certification
869) For issue of AOP, NOC is required for legal aspects from-
1. DGCA 2. Govt. of India 3.MCA 4.All
870) The Complete Application for issue of AOP is submitted during Phase-
1.First 2. Second 3. Third 4.Fourth
871) A Series of discussion between DGCA and Nominated post holders are held during phase known
as-
1.Formal Application 2. Document Evaluation
3. Demonstration and inspection prior to certification 4.Certification phase
872) Qualifications and experience of the nominees for designated post holders are evaluated and
interviewed during the phase known as-
1. Pre-application 2. Formal application
3. Document evaluation 4.Demonstration and inspection prior to certification
873) Who is in-charge of the certification process-
1. Joint Director General Air opr’s certification 2. Project Manager 3. Dy. Director of AOC Cell
4.Both II & III are correct
874) The Type training for FOI involve________ of flight time.
1. 4 hours 2.6 hours 3.8 hours 4. 10 hours
875) The format of the compliance statement by an opr is given in-
1. Appendix A 2. Appendix B 3. Appendix C 4. Appendix D
876) The format of AOP and operations specifications is reflected in-
1. Appendix B 2. Appendix C 3. Appendix D 4. Appendix E
877) The Activity which is not conducted during pre application phase-
1. Statement of intent 2. Pre-application meeting 3. Post Pre-application meeting 4. Schedule of
events
888) The formal application and its attachments for issue of an AOP are submitted to DGCA at least
______ before the date of intended revenue operates.
1. 30 Days 2.60 Days 3. 90 Days 4.120 Days
889) The Manual that does not require approval of DGCA
1. Operations Manual 2. Security Manual
3. Training Manual for Maintenance personal 4.Administrative procedure policy Manual
890) The Maintenance of A/c is control by-
1. Maintenance Control Manual 2. CAME 3.CAME is issued as a Maintenance control manual 4.None
891) For AOP (MTICS)
1. Operator Should have at least one Indian registered A/c in its fleet
2. A/c leasing agreement is as per CAP 3200
3. Formal application submitted before 90 days
4. Training manual for maintenance personnel is a part of Operation Manual
892) Reference No. used to identify the Manual document it is printed on-
1. Tip of the left Hand corner of cover page and Top of right hand corners of each page of Manual
2. Top of the right hand corner of front cover page and on each page of the manual
3. Top of the left hand corner of front cover and top of the left Hand corner of each page of Manual
4. None
893) Front/Cover page and top of the left Hand Corner in each page of the Manual shall contain-
1. Reference No. 2. Logo of the applicant 3. Title of Manual 4. Edition No.
894) The preamble of manual is signed by-
1. Accountable Manager 2.Nominatted Post Holder 3. Operator 4. None
895) The Manual/Document to be used in the flights deck shall be printed on papers
1. A2 size 2. A3 size 3. A4 size 4. A5 size
896) Compliance is recommended but not compulsory the word that gives this meaning is-
1. Shall or Must 2. Will 3. Should 4. May
897). Any specific instruction issued by the applicant is the operational staff shall be given using the
words-
1. Should 2. Will 3. May 4. Shall or must
898) Operations Manual shall be complied as per guidance in-
1. CAP 8100 2.CAP 8200 3. CAP 9100 4. CAP 9200
899). AFM is approved by-
1. DGCA 2. RAO 3. Aviation authority of the state of manufacturer 4.Accountable Manager
900) AFM should contain information and instructions relating to-
1. Identification of the A/c 2. Operating Procedures and limitations of the A/c
3. Performance and loading of the A/c 4. All
901) The training organizations that will conduct training for operations staff shall be approved by-
1. DGCA 2. ICAO Contracting state
3. Both I & II 4. Only Ist is correct
902) Security Manual is approved by-
1. DGCA 2.BCAS 3. Project Manager 4. None
903) AOP is a part of-
1. Operations Manual 2.AFM 3.Administrative procedures policy manual 4.None
904) Airworthiness Review Certificate is as per
1.CA-1 2.CA- 15 3.CA-23 4.CA-20
905) Application for restricted type certificate (RTC) is made on
1.CA-30 2.CA-20 3.CA-24 4.CA-23
906) Form no: CA-30 is applicable for issuance of
1.Type certificate 2.Restricted type certificate
3.Type certificate/ Restricted type certificate 4.Certificate of airworthiness
907). Application for Indian Technical Standard Order Authorization (ITSOA) is made on
1.CA-24 2.CA-25 3.CA-34 4.CA-35
. Application for Issue of Noise Certificate is made on
1.CA-45 2.Form CA 2006-1 3.CA-53 4.CA-34
908) . Noise certificate is issued on
1.CA-45 2.Form CA 2006-1 3.CA-53 4.CA-34
909). Application for production organisation approval under CAR 21, Subpart G
1 .CA-45 2.CA-50 3.CA-53 4.CA-34
910) . Application for Permit to Fly
1.CA-21 2.CA-22 3.CA-23 4.CA-25
911) . Subpart h of CAR-21 deals with
1.Certificates of airworthiness, restricted 2.Certificates of airworthiness and export
3.Certificates of airworthiness 4.All the above
912) Noise certificates is detailed in which part of CAR-21
1.SUBPART H 2.SUBPART I 3.SUBPART A 4.SUBPART B
913) . Which of the following parts of the CAR-21 is not applicable?
1.SUBPART A 2.SUBPART B 3.SUBPART I 4.SUBPART N
914) Which of the following parts of the CAR-21 deals with general provisions?
1.SUBPART A 2.SUBPART C 3.SUBPART I
915) Subpart B of car-21 deals with
1.SUBPART B 2.SUBPART C 3.SUBPART E
916) Supplemental type certificates deals with which part of CAR-21
1.SUBPART A 2.SUBPART B 3.SUBPART C 4.SUBPART E
917) . SUBPART M of CAR-21 deals with
1.Parts & appliances 2.Repairs 3.Permit to fly 4.None
918) . Indian technical standard order authorizations
1.SUBPART G 2.SUBPART H 3.SUBPART I 4.SUBPART O
919) . SUBPART P of CAR-21 deals with
1.Parts & appliances 2.Repairs 3.Permit to fly 4.None
920) . Which of the following parts of the CAR-21 is not applicable?
1.SUBPART C 2.SUBPART N 3.SUBPART L 4.All the above
921) . Which of the following parts of the CAR-21 deals with design organization approval?
1.SUBPART A 2.SUBPART JA 3.SUBPART JB 4.Both b) & c)
922) . SUBPART D of CAR-21 deals with
1.Changes to type certificates and restricted type certificates 2.C of A and export
3.Production without production organisation approval 4.Parts and appliances
923) . Certificate of Release to Service is made on
1.CA-45 2.CA-50 3.CA-53 4.CA-34
924) . Application for Approval of Major Change / Major Repair Design is made on
1.CA-30 2.CA-31 3.CA-32 4.CA-33
925) . Application for Approval of Minor Change / Minor Repair Design is made on
1.CA-30 2.CA-31 3.CA-32 4.CA-33
926) . Application for Approval of Supplemental Type Certificate (STC) is made on
1.CA-30 2.CA-31 3.CA-32 4.CA-33
927) . Production Organisation Approval Certificate is made on
1.CA-50 2.CA-53 3.CA-34 4.CA-55
928) . Form no: CA-21 is for
1.Flight conditions for a Permit to Fly 2.Application for Permit to Fly
• Certificate of Release to Service 4. None .
929 “HIRF” stands for
1.High Intensity Radiated Fields 2.High Intensity Radiated Frequency
Highly Isolated Radar Fields 4.Highly Isolated Radiated frequency
930 . “AED” stands for
1.Aeronautical Engineering Degree 2.Aircraft Engineering Directorate
3.Aircraft Engineering Directive 4.Aircraft Engineering Document
931) . “Product” as per CAR-21 means
1.Whole A/c 2.Aircraft 3.A/c landing gear 4.A/c hydraulic system
932) “Product” as per CAR-21 means
1.Aircraft, aircraft engine 2.Aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller
2.Only Aircraft engine 4.none
933) “Parts and appliances” means
1.instrument, mechanism 2.communications equipment
3.Airframe, engine or propeller. 4.All the above
934) In Subpart O, parts and appliances subject to an ITSO Authorization are referred to as
1.Appliances 2.Articles 3.Parts 4.Parts & appliances
935) MTCS
• In CAR-21, the term “appliance” can used alone;
• “Product” means an aircraft, aircraft engine, or propeller.
1.Only 1) is true 2.Only 2) is true
3.Both the statements are true 4.Both the statements are false
936) . “Person” as per CAR-21 means
1.Is a legal entity 2.As in a) & subjected to jurisdiction of India 3.As in b) & it includes an organization
or company 4.None
937). Which of the following certificate holders should have their System for Collection, Investigation
and Analysis of Data
1.Type certificate 2.Restricted type certificate 3.Supplemental type certificate & ITSO authorization
4.All the above
938). Reports regarding malfunctioning, failure & defects should be dispatched to dgca
1.Not later than 24 hrs after identification of defect 2.not later than 48 days after identification of
defect
3.Not later than 07 days after identification of defect 4.Not later than 72 hrs after identification of
defect
939). An airworthiness directive means a document
1.Issued by dgca 2.Adopted by dgca
3.Either a) or b) 4.Issued by manufacturer.
940). DGCA shall issue an airworthiness directive when
1.an unsafe condition has been determined by DGCA to exist in an aircraft, as a result of deficiency
2.That condition is likely to exist or develop in other aircraft.
3.Both a) & b) are correct 4.Aircraft age exceeds 20 years
941). An airworthiness directive shall contain
1.An identification of the unsafe condition 2. An identification of the affected aircraft
2.The compliance time for the required action(s) 4.All are correct
942). Any organization applying for a type-certificate or restricted type-certificate shall demonstrate
its capability by holding a
1.Design Organization Approval As Per Subpart-JA
2.Design Organization Approval As Per Subpart-JB
3.Production organization as per Subpart-G
4.Parts & appliances as per subpart-K
943). As an alternative procedure to demonstrate its capability for issuance of type certificate, an
applicant may seek DGCA agreement for the use of procedures setting out the specific design
practices, when the product is one of the
1.A powered sail plane 2.A microlight aircraft weight exceeding 450 kgs
3.A microlight aircraft weight not exceeding 450 kgs
4.A light aircraft weight less than 5700kgs
944). An application for an aircraft type-certificate or restricted type-certificate shall be
accompanied by
1.three-view drawing of that aircraft 2.preliminary basic data
3.proposed operating characteristics and limitations 4.all the above are correct
945). Special conditions/ special detailed technical specifications will be issued by dgca for
1.product has novel or unusual design features
2.The intended use of the product is conventional
3.Experience from other products in service 4.None
946). An application for type-certification of large aeroplanes shall be effective for
1.05 years 2.03 years 3.02 years 4.10 years
947) An application for type-certification of large rotorcrafts shall be effective for
948) An application for any other type-certification other than large aeroplanes and large rotorcraft
shall be effective for
949). The applicable noise requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for an aircraft are
prescribed according to the provisions of
1.Chapter 1 of Annex 16, Volume I, Part II to the Chicago Convention
3.Chapter 1 of Annex 10, Volume I, Part II to the Chicago Convention 4.None
950). The applicable noise requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for a subsonic jet aircraft
are prescribed according to the provisions of
2.Chapter 2,3 & 4 of Annex 16, Volume I, Part II to the Chicago Convention
3.Chapter 3,4,5 & 6 of Annex 16, Volume I, Part II to the Chicago Convention
951) The applicable noise requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for propeller-driven
aeroplanes are prescribed according to the provisions of
952). The applicable noise requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for a supersonic jet aircraft
are prescribed according to the provisions of
953). The applicable noise requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for helicopters are
prescribed according to the provisions of
1.Chapter 8 & 11of Annex 16, Volume I, Part II to the Chicago Convention
954) The applicable emission requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for prevention of
intentional fuel venting is specified in, Annex 16 to the Chicago Convention:
1.Volume II, Part II, Chapter 2 2.Volume II, Part III, Chapter 2
3.Volume II, Part III, Chapter 3. 4.Volume I, Part II, Chapters 2, 3 and 4,
955) The applicable emission requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for emissions of turbojet
and turbofan engines intended for propulsion only at subsonic speeds is specified in, Annex 16 to
the Chicago Convention:
3.Volume II, Part III, Chapter 3. 4.Volume I, Part II, Chapters 2, 3 and 4,
956) The applicable emission requirements for the issue of a type-certificate for emissions of turbojet
and turbofan engines intended for propulsion only at supersonic speeds is specified in, Annex 16
to the Chicago Convention:
3.Volume II, Part III, Chapter 3 4.Volume I, Part II, Chapters 2, 3 and 4,
957) A type-certificate and restricted type-certificate shall be issued for
1.05 years 2.02 years 3.01 years 4.Unlimited time period
958) Upon surrender or revocation, the type-certificate and restricted type-certificate shall be
returned to
1.Regulatory country of manufacturer 2.DGCA
3.Manufacturer 4.None
959) A ‘minor change’ is one that has no appreciable effect on
• Mass, balance, structural strength
• Reliability, operational characteristics,
• noise, fuel venting, exhaust emission
• All the above & any other characteristics affecting the airworthiness of the product.
960) Only the type-certificate holder may apply for approval of a major change to a type design
under
• SUBPART A
• SUBPART B
• SUBPART C
• SUBPART D
961) Other than type-certificate holder may apply for approval of a major change to a type design
under
• SUBPART E
• SUBPART B
• SUBPART C
• SUBPART D
962) Minor changes in a type design shall be classified and approved either:
• By DGCA
• By an appropriately approved design organization under a procedure agreed with DGCA.
• Either a) or b)
• None
SUBPART E — SUPPLEMENTAL TYPE-CERTIFICATES
963) A supplemental type-certificate shall
• Not be transferred
• Be transferable
• As in b) only to legal or natural person
• none
964) Which of following certificates has unlimited validity
• Type certificate
• Supplemental type certificate
• Restricted type certificate
• All the above
965) Who will validate the statement of conformity/ authorized release certificate of organization
engaged in production without production organization
• Authorized signatory
• QCM
• Licensed AME
• Inspector incharge
966) The authorized signatory of an organization approved in production without production
organization is approved by
• QCM
• Operator
• DGCA
• None
967) Statement of conformity is made on
• DGCA form 1
• DGCA form 52
• DGCA form 23
• DGCA form 27
968) Authorized release certificate is made on
• DGCA form 1
• DGCA form 52
• DGCA form 23
• DGCA form 27
969) In case of a level one finding in Subpart H, corrective action to the satisfaction of DGCA should
be taken
• Within a period of 07 working days
• Within a period of 10 working days
• As in a) & can be extended upto 21 working days depending on complexity
• As in b) & can be extended upto 21 working days depending on complexity
970) In case of level two findings, the corrective action period granted by DGCA shall be
• Within 15 days
• Within 01 month
• Within 03 month
• None
971) In certain circumstances and subject to the nature of the finding, DGCA may extend the period
of level two finding from
• 07 days to 21 working days
• 01 month to 03 months
• 03 months to 06 months
• shall not require immediate action by the holder
972) In case of a level three finding in Subpart H, corrective action to the satisfaction of DGCA should
be taken
• 07 days to 21 working days
• 01 month to 03 months
• 03 months to 06 months
• shall not require immediate action by the holder
973) The letter of agreement shall as per subpart H shall be issued for a period of
• one year
• 02 years
• 05 years
• Unlimited time period
974) Which of the following approved organization should prepare “Exposition?”
• Production organization
• As in a) & submitted to DGCA
• All the organizations specified in CAR-21
• None
975) The production organization shall nominate a manager who is accountable to
• Operator
• QCM
• DGCA
• None
976) A production organization approval shall be issued for a limited duration
• one year
• 02 years
• 05 years
• Unlimited time period
977)A statement of conformity should be issued no more than ______ before presentation of
aircraft to DGCA
• 30 days
• 45 days
• 60 days
• None
978) A noise certificate may be amended or modified
• Manufacturer
• QCM
• Accountable manager
• Only by DGCA
979) MTCS
• Noise certificate shall be issued for an unlimited duration.
• The noise certificate shall be transferred together with the aircraft.
• If the aircraft doesn’t remain in the Indian register then noise certificate is deemed to be invalid
• All the above are correct
986) Repair design approval is issued by

• By DGCA
• For minor repairs only, by an appropriately approved design organization under a procedure
agreed with DGCA.
• Either a) or b)
• None
987) The embodiment of a repair shall be made by an (CAR 21/Pg.58)
• AMO
• production organization appropriately approved in accordance with Subpart G
• only a) is correct
• either a) or b)
900)The DDP shall be endorsed with the date and signature of the
• Holder of ITSO authorization
• Authorized representatives of ITSO
• DGCA
• Either a) or b)
991) An ITSO authorization shall be issued for an
• Year
• 06 months
• 05 years
• Unlimited period of time

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CAR 66

1) Category C experience requirement for large aircraft (CAR 66/pg. 15)

A) 3 yrs experience exercising category B1.1 orB1.3 or B2 privileges

B) CAR 145 B1.1,B1.3 or B2 support staff

3) Continued validity of AME license is (CAR 66/pg.16)

4) ICAO convention is held on

28) MTCS (CAR 66/pg.16)

a) Following maintenance on avionics and electrical system of an specific type of a/c

b) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an aircraft endorsed on license

c) Following maintenance on avionic and electrical system of an a/c

61) Eligibility criteria for application of AME license (CAR 66/pg.12)

85) B2 licence engineer can issue CRS (CAR 66/pg.13)

a) before completion of avionics and electrical maintenance

103) certification privileges based upon an (CAR 66/pg.16)

a) Invalid aircraft maintenance engineer’s licence.

d) all the above

156) Who conduct the basic exam (CAR 66/pg.14)

d. all of the above

181)Cat. A license holder can issue CRS on

182)Cat.A1 and Cat.B1.1- (CAR 66/pg.11)

c) aeroplane piston and Aeroplane Turbine

184)Certification privileges based on AME license

a) Become invalid as soon as AME license invalid

b) Become invalid before AME license invalid

294)In order to obtain a type approval on an aircraft, an engineer must.

1) must work on aircraft for 12 months within the last 24 months

2) have a manufacturers course within the last 3 years.

3) work on the type for 12 months in the last 24 months.

46. Category A license holder to issue [CAR-66, pg.13]

47. Credits shall be granted in accordance with [CAR-66, pg.14]

51. Application for appearing in CAR 66 type Examination [CAR-66, pg.153]

53. Eligibility criteria for application of AMe license [CAR-66, pg.12]

54. Category C experience requirement for large aircraft [CAR-66, pg.15]

56. Continued validity of AME license is [CAR-66, pg.16]

58. MTCS [CAR-66, pg.16]

9) MTCS (Fuel tank safety) (CAR 145/Pg.109)

A) Aircraft above 5700kg 10 passenger

B) Aircraft below 5700 19 passengers

35) FTS included phenomenon (CAR M/Pg.254)

C) Hot ignition prevention

D) All the above

55) Phase 1 training should be given to (CAR 145/APD.8/Pg.109)

a) Group of persons representing management structure

b) Quality manager and staff whose monitor the organization

c) Phase 1 + phase 2 + continuation training

66) Phase 2 includes (CAR M/Pg.253)

b) Examination should be required at end of the phase

c) MCQ and pass mark 75%

67) W.R.T. FTST it consists should include (CAR M/pg.253)

a) Some example of STC holder

b) Some example of mfr document showing CDCCL item

c) Some example of inspection

100) FTS Phase 1 Objective include (CAR M/Pg.252)

c) Be able to use typical terms.

d) All Are Correct

109) Continuation training should be given to a person (CAR M/Pg.254)

a. once in each two-year period

b. twice in each two-year

113) fuel tank safety training effective for (CAR M/Pg.251)