HUMAN PERFORMANCE AND LIMITATIONS

HUMAN FACTORS: BASIC CONCEPTS

Human Factors in Aviation
1. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance
of the biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human performance?
A – Liveware – Environment
B – Liveware – Hardware
C – Liveware – Software
D – Liveware – Liveware

Ans: A

2. Thinking on human reliability is changing

A – The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of
safety
B – Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend
ones knowledge
C – Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive
function of human and are generally inescapable
D – It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future

Ans: C

3. Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of

interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter?
A – Liveware – Environment
B – Liveware – Software
C – Liveware – Hardware
D – Liveware – Liveware

Ans: C

A pilot is skilled when he:

1. trains or practises regularly
2. knows how to manage himself/herself
3. possesses all the knowledge associated with his aircraft
4. knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 2
D – 2, 3, 4

Ans: A

4. The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which:

 A – increases with increasing altitude
B – is dependent on the present air pressure
C – is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
D – decreases with increasing altitude

Ans: c

5. The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately34,000 ft is:

A – 21%
B – 5%
C – 10.5%
D – 42%

Ans: A

Where can you find medical fitness requirements for pilots?

A – FAR PART 61
B – JAR-FCL
C – JAR-OPS
D – JAR-NPA

Ans: B

A flight crew licence holder has completed a two-day stay at a hospital. What must
he/she do before flying as a crewmember?
A – Informs the authority in writing
B – Seek advice of the authority or AME
C – Wait until his/her common sense says that he/she is fit for flight
D – Not fly before he/she is released by an AME

Ans: B

6. Ergonomics are associated with:

A – comunications
B – cognition
C – the human/workplace interface
D – information processing

Ans: C

7. In 1972, a psychologist named Edwards presented a concept of the interface

between flight crew and other parts of the airspace environment. What is this
concept called and the names of those elements involved:
A – The SHEL Concept: Software, hardware, economy and liveware
B – The SHEL Concept: Software, hardware, environment and liveware
C – The SHEL Concept: Software, harmony, environment and location
D – The SHEL Concept: Software, hardware, environment and location

Ans: B
 8. What are the main sources of radiation at height?
A – Galactic (Cosmic) caused by galactic particles and Solar radiation caused
by solar flares
B – Ionisation of the layers in the atmosphere due to the bombardment of
Galactic (Cosmic) radiation
C – Solar radiation caused by solar flares and Nuclear radiation caused by the
earth’s natural radiation
D – Galactic (Cosmic) and Nuclear radiation which are both caused by the
earth’s natural radiation

Ans: A

9. Who in the Aviation Industry is responsible for flight safety:

A – Aircrew
B – Everyone involved
C – Aircrew and Ground Crew
D – Management, Aircrew, Ground crew and ATC personnel

Ans: B

Accident statistics
1. The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of
terrorism):
A – has improved considerably over the last fifteen years
B – is approximately 1 accident per million airport movements
C – is a long way short of the safety level of road transport
D – repreents about fifty accidents around the world every year

Ans: B

As a cause of accidents, the human factor:

A – which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only
B – has increased considerably since 1980 – the percentage of accident in
which this factor has been involved has more than tripled since this date
C – is cited in approximately 70 to 80% of aviation accidents
D – plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more
important in general aviation

Ans: C

2. The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations

manual are related to an interface mismatch between:
A – Liveware – Hardware
B – Liveware – Software
C – Liveware – Environment
D – Liveware – Liveware

Ans: B
3. Which of the following human error rates can be described as both
realistic and pretty good, after methodical training:
A – 1 in 10000 times
B – 1 in 1000 times
C – 1 in 100 times
D – 1 in 100000 times

Ans: C

4. Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that:

A – there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
B – only front-line operators are involved
C – only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation
D – failure of the human factor is always connected with technical
breakdowns

Ans: A

5. Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance

oscillations of the:
A – photosensitive cells
B – eyeballs
C – optic nerve
D – crystalline lens

Ans: B

6. Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:

A – good maintenance of aircraft
B – good judgement
C – physical skills
D – interpersonal relations

Ans: B

The distribution of primary causes of accidents in the worldwide jet aircraft

commercial fleet shows that human error is involved in:
A – all cases, one way or another
B – about 90% of cases
C – about 55% of cases
D – about 70% of cases

Ans: D

7. The trend in aeroplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be
related to:
A – the number of engines
B – the manufacturer
C – the crew
D – the year of manufacture
 Ans: C
Flight safety concepts
1. In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and
expertise can be described as:
A – the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does
neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole
system
B – the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he
can and cannot do
C – during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential
knowledge of the machine
D – the pilot has a sphere of expertise which is reduced to daily use of his
skills

Ans: A

2. Between which components s an interface mismatch responsible for

deficiencies in conceptual aspects of warning systems?
A – Liveware – Liveware
B – Liveware – Hardware
C – Liveware – Environment
D – Liveware – Software

Ans: D

3. 2689. With regard to the level of automation of behaviour in the attention

mechanism, we know that:
A – the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the
less it frees resources
B – the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more
it frees resources
C – the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention
and thus the more it frees mental resources
D – the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the
more it frees resources

Ans: C

As a result of automation in cockpits:

A – man-man communication has been significantly improved
B – co-ordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more
precise and more important information
C – communication and co-ordination have clearly improved in man-man and
man-machine relations
D – communication and co-ordination call for an even greater effort on the
part of the crew members

Ans: D
4. Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error
mechanism?
1. It is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to
identify what error has been committed and by whom. It is the process
whereby the perpetrator is made responsible which may lead to elimination
of the error
2. If we have a better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will
be possible to adapt procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc
3. It is error management procedure which enables us to continuously adjust
our actions. The better we understand the underlying mechanism of an
error, the better will be our means for detecting and adapting future errors
4. Since error is essentially human, once it has been identified by the use of
procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal with it
automatically in the future
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 2 and 4
B – 3 and 4
C – 2 and 3
D – 1 and 4

Ans: C

5. The elements of the SHEL model are:

A – Software, hardware, electronics and liveware
B – Software, hardware, environment and liveware
C – Shareware, hardware, education and limitations
D – Shareware, hardware, environment and limitations

Ans: B

Which is true regarding the interaction between various elements of the SHEL
model?
A – Temperature, pressure, humidity, noise and time of day can all be
reflected in performance and also in well being
B – Proficiency testing should be done on an individual basis to avoid SHEL
element mismatch
C – Information processing can be stimulated by mind sets and vigilance
D – The liveware is the hub of the SHEL model; therefore the non-human
components should be adapted and matched to this central component

Ans: D

6. A pilot using a checklist is an example of the interaction within the SHEL

Concept of:
A – L and S
B – L and L
C – L and H
D – L and E

Ans: A
7. Between which components, with reference to the SHEL Concept, covers pilot
misinterpretation of the old three-point altimeter?
A – Liveware – Liveware
B – Liveware – Software
C – Liveware – Environment
D – Liveware – Hardware

Ans: D

8. With reference to the SHEL Model, S represents:

A – Software (which includes check lists)
B – Security (which includes Safety)
C – Self-awareness (which includes Safety)
D – Symbology (which includes safety)

Ans: A

BASIC AVIATION PHYSIOLOGY AND HEALTH

MAINTENANCE
Basics of flight physiology
1. In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):
1. do not exist
2. have slight physiological consequences
3. may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of consciousness
4. cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
A – 2, 4
B–1
C – 3, 4
D–3

Ans: A

The following applies for the physical prperties of gases:

A – at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27,000 ft
B – at an altitude of 18,000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would
be at sea level
C – a water vapour saturated gas at 34,000 ft has 6 times its volume as it
would have at sea-level
D – at an altitude of 63,000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65oC

Ans: A

2. The chemical composition of the earth’s atmosphere (ICAO standard

atmosphere) is:
A – 71% nitrogen, 28% oxygen, 0.9% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide
B – 78% nitrogen, 28% oxygen, 0.9% carbon dioxide, 0.03% argon
C – 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% carbon dioxide, 0.03% argon
D – 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide
 Ans: D

Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot

A – is using additional oxygen when flying above 10,000 feet
B – is relying on the body’s built in warning system recognising any stage of
hypoxia
C – is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
D – will not exceed 20,000 ft cabin pressure altitude

Ans: A

3. The rate and depth of breathing is primarily regulated by the concentration of:
A – oxygen in the cells
B – water vapour in the alveoli
C – nitrogen in the air
D – carbon dioxide in the blood

Ans: D

4. The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:

A – 30 to 50 beats/min
B – 60 to 80 beats/min
C – 90 to 100 beats/min
D – 110 to 150 beats/min

Ans: B

What is the Time of Useful Consciousness?

A – The pilots reaction time when faced with hypoxia
B – The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
C – The length of time during which an individual can act with both mental
and physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at
which he loses his available oxygen supply
D – The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the
pilot becomes aware of it

Ans: C

5. With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the
cardial output is about:
A – 5 litres/min
B – 6 litres/min
C – 7 litres/min
D – 8 litres/min

Ans: A

6. Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical

disqualification?
A – High blood pressure only
 B – High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory
system
C – Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can
be treated by in-flight medication
D – Low blood pressure only

Ans: B

7. The effect of hypoxia to vision:

A – can only be detected when smoking tobacco
B – is usual stronger with the cones
C – is stronger with the rods
D – does not depend on the level of illumination

Ans: C

8. What is meant by metabolism?

A – Information exchange
B – The transformation by which energy is made available for the uses of the
organism
C – Transfer of chemical messages
D – Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood

Ans: B

9. Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which

of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
A – Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood
B – Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled
C – With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide
poisoning will be compensated
D – Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless

Ans: B

10. Flying at pressure altitude of 10000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy
smoker, has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude:
A – lower than 10000 ft
B – of 10000 ft
C – above 10000 ft
D – of 15000 ft when breathing 100% oxyge

Ans: C

What could cause hyperventilation?

A – Extreme low rate of breathing
B – Abuse of alcohol
C – Fear, anxiety and distress
D – Fatigue
 Ans: C

11. Gases of physiological importance to man are:

A – oxygen and carbon dioxide
B – nitrogen and carbon dioxide
C – oxygen and carbon monoxide
D – oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour

Ans: A

12. Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes
during climb and/or descent?
A – The cochlea
B – The semi-circular canals
C – The Eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
D – The sacculus and utriculus

Ans: C

13. Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to:

1. loss of muscular power
2. headache
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints
5. loss of consciousness
A – 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct
D – 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct

Ans: C

14. Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to
hypoxia?
1. Fatigue
2. Euphoria
3. Lack of concentration
4. Pain in the joints
5. Sensation of suffocation
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 4 and 5 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – Only 5 is false

Ans: C

15. Haemoglobin is
A – dissolved in the plasma
B – in the platelets
C – in the red blood cells
 D – in the white blood cells

Ans: C

16. Equalisation of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient,
when:
A – barotraumas exists in the sinuses
B – the nose is pinched
C – you breath through the mouth
D – the Eustachian tube is blocked

Ans: D

17. The volume of air being exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal
volume) is about:
A – 150 ml of air
B – 350 ml of air
C – 500 ml of air
D – 75 ml of air

Ans: C

18. What is hypoxia

A – A state characterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due
to maladjustment of the mask
B – The total absence of oxygen in the air
C – The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
D – Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below
normal limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used
due to some pathological condition

Ans: D

19. Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced

atmospheric pressure. The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of
solution in body tissues can be derived from:
A – Dalton law
B – Boyle Mariottes law
C – Henrys law
D – Gay Lussacs law

Ans: C

20. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the
alveoli:
A – nitrogen
B – carbon monoxide
C –carbon dioxide
D – oxygen
 Ans: C

21. The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is:

A – the excess pressure caused by inhaling
B – dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during
respiration
C – independent from the partial pressures of the participating gases
D – depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the alveoli

Ans: B

Hypoxia can occur because:

A – you are hyperventilating
B – you are getting too much solar radiation
C – you inhale too much nitrogen
D – the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude

Ans: A

22. The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:

A – 16 cycles per minute
B – 4 cycles per minute
C – 32 cycles per minute
D – 72 cycles per minute

Ans: A

23. Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:

1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases
2. permeable membranes
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 2 and 3 are false
D – only 1 is correct

Ans: B

Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive

acceleration (+ Gz)?
1. Decrease in heart rate
2. Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
3. Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
4. Downward displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
A – 1, 2,
B – 2, 3, 4
C–1
D – 1, 3, 4
 Ans: B

24. The earth’s atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentration.

Match the following:
1. nitrogen A 0.03%
2. oxygen B 0.92%
3. carbon dioxide C 20.95%
4. rare gas D 78.10%
A – 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A
B – 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
C – 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D – 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

Ans: D

25. The atmosphere contains the following gases:

A – 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
B – 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
C – 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.03% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
D – 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0.03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

Ans: C

26. Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?

A – Tingling sensations in arms or legs
B – Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails)
C – Severe headache
D – Euphoria

Ans: A

27. You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag.
The intention is:
A – to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
B – to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
C – to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
D – to reduce blood pressure

Ans: A

28. Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This
is because:
A – carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in
the alveoli
B – haemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide that it has for
oxygen
C – carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
D – the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract

Ans: B
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights
should be delayed:
A – 3 hours after non-decompression diving
B – 24 hours
C – 36 hours after any scuba diving
D – 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made

Ans: B

29. A human breathing 100% oxygen at 33,700 ft is equivalent of breathing air at:
A – 10,000 ft
B – Sea level
C – 8,000 ft
D – 21,300 ft

Ans: B

30. Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells:

A – have a shortage of oxygen
B – are saturated with nitrogen
C – are saturated with oxygen
D – have a shortage of carbon dioxide

Ans: A

31. One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it
significantly more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to:
A – Carbon monoxide
B – Carbonic anhydride
C – Tar
D – Carbon dioxide

Ans: A

32. Affinity to haemoglobin is best with:

A – oxygen
B – nitrogen
C – carbon monoxide
D – carbon dioxide

Ans: C

33. In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and
carbon monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide
poisoning:
A – Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness
B – High levels of arousal, increased error proneness
C – Euphoria, accommodation problems, blurred vision
D – Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing
 Ans: A

34. If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need:
A – the blood turns more alkaline
B – the blood turns more acid
C – the acid-base balance of the blood will not change
D – the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

Ans: A

35. On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will:

A – expand
B – be absorbed by tissues and blood
C – stay the same
D – shrink

Ans: A

36. The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:

A – surplus of CO2 in the blood
B – surplus of O2 in the blood
C – shortage of CO in the blood
D – shortage of CO2 in the blood

Ans: D

A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get
unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
A – there is an increased blood flow to the brain
B – there is a low CO-pressure in the blood
C – he is flying a tight turn
D – the pilot is emotionally aroused

Ans: D

When the pressureceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are

adaptation mechanisms which result in:
1. an increase of respiratory activity
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output
4. the heart rate to rise
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
C – 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

Ans: A

37. During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level
in the blood. The consequence is:
 A – cyanosis
B – hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)
C – hypoxia
D – vertigo

Ans: B

38. Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:

1. SCUBA-Diving
2. Obesity
3. Age
4. Body height
A – All are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 1 and 3 are correct
D – 1, 2, and 4

Ans: B

39. Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight?
A – Dizziness
B – The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions
C – Lack of adaptation
D – Adaptation

Ans: B

When exhaling, the expired air contains:

A – more oxygen than the inhaled air
B – more carbon dioxide that the inspired air
C – less water vapour than the inhaled air
D – more nitrogen than the inhaled air

Ans: B

40. The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:

A – the auricles
B – the coronary arteries
C – ventricles
D – the pulmonary veins

Ans: B

41. Anxiety and fear can cause:

A – spatial disorientation
B – hyperventilation
C – hypoxia
D – hypoglycaemia

Ans: B
42. Fatigue and permanent concentration:
A – increase the tolerance to hypoxia
B – do not affect hypoxia at all
C – lower the tolerance to hypoxia
D – will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15,000 feet

Ans: C

43. Hyperventilation causes:

A – acidosis
B – an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
C – hypochondria
D – a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood

Ans: D

Which of the following statements is correct? The blood-pressure which is

measured during flight medical checks is the pressure:
A – in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole
body)
B – in the muscles of the upper arm
C – in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
D – in the veins of the upper arm

Ans: C

44. A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:

A – don an oxygen mask
B – execute the valsalva manoeuvre
C – talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm
down and reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
D – close the eyes and relax

Ans: C

45. Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis):

A – is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport
B – is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays
C – is only caused by colds and their effects
D – is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and
the ambient air

Ans: D

46. Oxygen, combined with haemoglobin in blood is transported by:

A – white blood cells
B – platelets
C – red blood cells
D – blood plasma
 Ans: C

A pressurised cabin helps to prevent:

1. decompression sickness
2. the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines
3. hypoxia
4. coronary disease
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Ans: C

Blood-pressure depends on:

1. the cardiac output
2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)
A – 1 is correct 2 is false
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is false 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both false

Ans: B

47. Hyperventilation is
A – a decreased lung ventilation
B – a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
C – an increased lung ventilation
D – a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood

Ans: C

48. When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):
A – his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious
B – his oxygen need will not be affected
C – his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better tolerance to hypoxia
at higher altitudes
D – his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be
Increased

Ans: A

49. Where is the critical threshold at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the
critical or lethal zone? It starts at:
A – 18,000 ft
B – 21,000 ft
C – 25,000 ft
D – 38,000 ft

Ans: B
50. When oxygen is being transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon
dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called:
A – ventilation
B – external respiration
C – internal respiration
D – hyperventilation

Ans: C

51. Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by:

A – noises in the ear
B – dizziness
C – a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
D – pain in the joints

Ans: C

52. Tunnel vision (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is

subjected to more than:
A - +3.5 Gx
B - -3.5 Gzn
C - +3.5 Gz
D - -3.5Gy

Ans: C

53. Which statement is correct?

A – Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial
oxygen pressure
B – The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen
C – The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level
D – Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial
oxygen pressure gradient

Ans: D

54. In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?

A – This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the

blood while hyperventilating
B – This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory
system to compensate by decreasing the heart rate
C – Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads
in a direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
D – This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs
of the body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing
impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions

Ans: D
55. The type of hypoxia which occurs at altitude is explained by:
A – Daltons law
B – Boyle Mariottes law
C – Henrys law
D – Grahams law

Ans: A

56. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
A – a reduction of red blood cells
B – a decrease of acidity in the blood
C – shortness of breath
D – an improving resistance to hypoxia

Ans: C

57. Among the factors which affect acuity are:

A – Smoking, colour blindness and angular distance from the fovea
B – Hypoxia, age and angular distance from the fovea
C – Colour blindness, alcohol and angular distance from the fovea
D – Colour blindness, visibility and angular distance from the fovea

Ans: B

Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when
hyperventilating. This causes the blood
A – to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
B – to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the haemoglobin
C – to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached
to the haemoglobin at lung area
D – not to change at all

Ans: C

58. Which statement applies to hypoxia?

A – you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia
B – carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency
C – sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person
D – it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to
set in

Ans: C

59. Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:

A – oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied
with more blood than normal
B – oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased
C – not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
D – blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
 Ans: D

Carbon monoxide poisoning:

A – is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically
supplied by coating the exhaust
B – is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high
engine efficiency
C – only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
D – occurs only above 15 degrees OAT

Ans: A

60. The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be
explained by the principle that:
A – the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of
that gas above the fluid (Henrys Law)
B – a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at
constant temperature (Boyles law)
C – the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressures of the separate gases (Daltons Law)
D – the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or
partial pressure to an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law
of diffusi

Ans: A

61. Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo:

A – The pilot may lose control when he is using the oxygen mask
B – Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane
C – Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of
danger
D – Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of
the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (ie. Activate his
emergency oxygen system)

Ans: D

You climb from 0 to 50000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per
5000 ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between:
A – 10000 ft and 15000 ft
B – 5000 ft and 10000 ft
C – 0 ft and 5000 ft
D – 45000 ft and 50000 ft

Ans: C

62. The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described
by:
A – Boyles Law
B – the law of diffusion
 C – Daltons Law
D – Henrys Law

Ans: B

Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?

1. Dizziness
2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
4. Cyanosis
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B – 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
C – 1 is false, all others are correct
D – 2 and 4 are false

Ans: A

Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation

decreases with:
1. decreasing air pressure
2. carbon monoxide poisoning
3. increasing altitude
4. increasing air pressure
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

Ans: C

63. Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain
to:
A – remain constant
B – decrease
C – increase
D – first increase, then decrease

Ans: B

Hypoxia is caused by:

A – a higher affinity of the red blood cells (haemoglobin) to oxygen
B – reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
C – an increased number of red blood cells
D – reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung

Ans: D

64. Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during
positive G-manoeuvres?
A – Breathing oxygen
 B – A tilt back seat
C – Sit in upright position and keep relaxed
D – Hyperventilation

Ans: B

According to the ICAO standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the
troposphere is approximately:
A - -2oC every 1000 feet
B – 10oC every 100 feet
C – 2oC every 1000 metres
D – constant in the troposphere

Ans: A

65. What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear
(aerotitis)?
A – Stop climbing, start descent
B – Increase rate of descent
C – Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the
pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or
move lower jaw (Valsalva)
D – Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent
barotraumas in the middle ear

Ans: C

66. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:

A – lower than in the blood
B – almost the same as in the atmospheric air
C – higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
D – lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air

Ans: A

67. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles)

(>10m depth):
A – should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
B – can be performed without any danger
C – are allowed, if 38000 ft are not exceeded
D – are forbidden

Ans: D

68. A pilot will get hypoxia:

A – after decompression to 30000 feet and taking 100% oxygen via an oxygen
mask
B – after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in
time
C – if his rate of climb exceeds 5000 ft/min
 D – if he is flying an un-pressurized airplane at an altitude of 15000 ft and
breathing 100% oxygen

Ans: B

69. The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be described by:
A – Boyles Law
B – the law of diffusion
C – Daltons Law
D – Henrys Law

Ans: B

70. What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above
12000 ft?
A – Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
B – Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of co-ordination
C – Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
D – Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of the rate
of breathing

Ans: B

71. Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:

1. euphoria
2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
4. visual disturbances
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Ans: D

Which of the following is/are symptom(s) of hypoxia?

A – Pain in the joints
B – Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
C – Low blood pressure
D – Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest
area

Ans: B

72. The blood-pressure depends on:

1. the work of the heart
2. the peripheral resistance
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the blood volume and viscosity
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
 B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false

Ans: A

73. When suffering from Hypoxic Hypoxia, short-term memory impairment starts
at approximately:
A – 10,000 ft
B – 12,000 ft
C – 14,000 ft
D – 16,000 ft

Ans: B

During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get
tingling sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms
could indicate:
A – hypoxi
B – disorientation
C – hyperventilation
D – carbon monoxide poisoning

Ans: C

74. The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for:

A – protein
B – platelets
C – gases
D – red blood cells

ans: C

The respiratory process consists mainly of:

A – the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood,
transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of
carbon dioxide from the body
B – the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon
monoxide
C – the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogen
D – the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen

Ans: A

Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?

A – The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning
B – inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation
C – Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning
D – A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is
euphoria
 Ans: C

75. Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?

A – It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen
B – It is always present in the lungs
C – It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smokers
physiological altitude
D – It combines 5 times faster to the haemoglobin than oxygen

Ans: C

76. In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will
diffuse from the blood into the lungs?
A – Carbon monoxide
B – Carbon dioxide
C – Ambient air
D – Oxygen

Ans: B

77. Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by:

A – the blood plasma
B – attaching itself to the haemoglobin in the red blood plasma
C – attaching itself to the haemoglobin in the white blood cells
D – the haemoglobin in the red blood cells

Ans: D

Hypoxia can be caused by:

1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when flying at high
altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide
attached to the haemoglobin
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+Gz)
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolise oxygen (ie. after a hangover)

Ans: C

78. In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon
monoxide poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
A – Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria
B – Nausea and barotitis
C – Dll headache and bends
D – Dizziness, hypothermia

Ans: A

79. A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:

A – altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10000 ft
B – symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when
 100% oxygen is given
C – cyanosis 9blue colour of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
D – there are great differences between the two

Ans: C

80. Hypoxia can also be caused by:

A – a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
B – too much carbon dioxide in the blood
C – increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases
D – a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the
haemoglobin to transport oxygen

Ans: D

81. When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or

overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in :
A – a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
B – the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia
C – less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
D – a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood

Ans: C

82. With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:

A – finger nails and lips will turn blue (cyanosis)
B – more oxygen will reach the brain
C – peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved
D – an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular
spasms and even unconsciousness

Ans: D

83. What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing
2. Anxiety or fear
3. Overstress
4. Strong pain
5. Jogging
A – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
B – 1 and 5 are both false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
D – Only 2 and 3 are correct

Ans: C

During flight all crew members have one or more of the following
symptoms:
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
4. reduction of peripheral vision.
Which is the possible cause?
A – Hypothermia
B – Glaucoma
C – Hypoxia
D – Hypoglycaemia

Ans: C

The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressures of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to:
A – Grahams law
B – Daltons law
C – Henrys law
D – Boyle Mariottes law

Ans: B

84. Which symptom does not belong to the following list:

A – leans
B – bends
C – chokes
D – creeps

Ans: A

85. Hyperventilation is:

A – a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain
B – an accelerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure
C – an accelerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood pressure
D – a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen
pressure (ie when climbing a high mountain)

Ans: D

The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial

acceleration is:
A – loss of consciousness
B – grey-out
C – black-out
D – red-vision

Ans: B

86. Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:

A – 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
B – 21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
C – 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
D – 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gase
 Ans: B

87. One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
A – hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
B – reduced co-ordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
C – cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
D – impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognise the symptoms

Ans: D

88. Hypoxia effects visual performance. A pilot may:

A – get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
B – get blurred and/or tunnel vision
C – have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 ft AGL
D – be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 ft AGL

Ans: B

Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important

physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into
consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body:
A – are of no interest when performing aerobics
B – change blood pressure and blood volume distribution in the body
C – will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative
force acts across the body at right angles to the body axis
D – will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs

Ans: B

89. A pilot who smokes will lose some of his capacity to transport oxygen
combined with haemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen
transportation capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack of
cigarettes a day?
A – 5 – 8%
B – 0.5 – 2%
C – 12 – 18%
D – 20 – 25%

Ans: A

90. Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because:

A – it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane
B – it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
C – it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract
D – it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys

Ans: B

It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
A – swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through
 the tympanic membrane
B – swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss
C – pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast
descents
D – gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum

Ans: C

91. The normal rate of breathing is:

A – 32 to 40 cycles a minute
B – 60 to 100 cycles a minute
C – 20 to 30 cycles a minute
D – 12 to 16 cycles a minute

Ans: D

92. A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:

A – the use of drugs stabilising blood pressure
B – depending on instruments
C – increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon
dioxide
D – controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or
speaking with a loud voice

Ans: D

If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:

A – more alkaline
B – less saturated with oxygen
C – more saturated with carbon dioxide
D – more acid

Ans: A

93. Boyles law is directly applicable in case of:

A – hyperventilation with increasing altitude
B – the occurrence of decompression sickness at high altitude
C – the occurrence of hypoxia with increasing altitude
D – the expansion of trapped gases in the human body with increasing altitude

Ans: D

94. You should not dispense blood without prior information from your flight
surgeon. The most important reason for this advise is:
A – you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood donation
B – the chance you get the bends is higher after blood donation
C – your blood pressure is too low after blood donation
D – your heart frequency is too low after blood donation

Ans: A
95. Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
following symptoms:\
=’ A – blue finger nails and lips
B – dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred
vision
C – reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
D – a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate

Ans: B

Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?

A – Haemoglobin in the red blood cells
B – White blood cell
C – Plasma
D – Blood fat

Ans: A

96. The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):

A – 80/20 mm Hg
B – 120/80 mm Hg
C – 180/120 mm Hg
D – 220/180 mm Hg

Ans: B

97. The pressureceptors are located in:

A – the lungs
B – the intestines
C – the heart
D – the carotid and aortic arterial vessels

Ans: D

98. What is the procedure above 10,000 ft altitude when faced with explosive
decompression:
A – Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
B – First inform ATC
C – Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency
D – Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight

Ans: A

How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz?

A – Take an upright seat position
B – tighten shoulder harness
C – Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure
breathing
D – Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward
 Ans: C

99. What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon
the pilot?
A – Transverse acceleration (+Gy)
B – Linear acceleration (+Gx)
C – Radial acceleration (+Gz)
D – Combined linear and transverse acceleration

Ans: C

100. The main function of the red blood cells is:

A – the cellular defence of the organism
B – to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood
C – to transport oxygen
D – to contribute to the immune response of the organism

Ans: C

101.
Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct:
A – It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate
for it
B – it is never a problem at altitudes below 25,000 ft
C – It activates the senses and makes them function better
D – It Is a potential threat to safety

Ans: D

102. What are the main limits of short-term memory? It is:

1. very sensitive to interruptions and interference
2. difficult to access
3. limited in size
4. subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
A – 1, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4

Ans: A

103. The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to
38oC:
A – impairment of physical and mental performance
B – apathy
C – considerable dehydration
D – nothing significant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs
only start to appear at 39oC

Ans: A
1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia
2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to error
A – 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
B – 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C – 1 and 2 are both not correct
D – 1 and 2 are both correct

Ans: D

104. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Modern aircraft allow for 50 – 60% relative humidity in the cabin air
under any conditions of flight, which is satisfactory for the body
2. Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
3. Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and
fatigue
4. Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to
periods of low hydration will otherwise be lost
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 4

Ans: B

Which of the following statements about hypothermia is correct?

A – Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body
temperature
B – Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high
C – Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40oC
or more
D – Complete adaptation to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight

Ans: D

Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere?

1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. Humidity
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 3, 4

Ans: A

105. In the pulmonary artery there is:

A – oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
B – oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blood
 C – oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
D – oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood

Ans: D

106. The circulatory system, among other things, allows for

1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide
2. transportation of information by chemical substances
A – both are false
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 is correct and 2 is false
D – 1 is false and 2 is correct

Ans: B

The part of blood without cell is called:

A – serum
B – water
C – plasm
D – lymph

Ans: C

107. Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:

A – arteriols
B – adrenal glands
C – pacemakers
D – pressureceptors

Ans: D

108. The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:
A – partial pressure of nitrogen
B – partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
C – total air pressure in the blood
D – pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

Ans: D

109. The severity of hypoxia depends on the:

1. rate of decompression
2. physical fitness
3. flight level
4. individual tolerance
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

Ans: C
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?
1. Blue lips and finger nails
2. Euphoria
3. Flatulence
4. Unconsciousness
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Ans: A

110. Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?

1. Descend below 10,000 ft
2. Breathe 100% oxygen
3. Climb to or above 10,000 ft
4. Reduce physical activities
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – Only 1 is correct
C – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
D – 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Ans: D

During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy,
feel dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating
you should:
A – descend
B – apply the Valsalva method
C – use the oxygen mask
D – control your rate and depth of breathing

Ans: D

111. The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:

A – the amount of nitrogen in the blood
B – the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
C – the total atmospheric pressure
D – the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood

Ans: B

112. A barotraumas of the middle ear (aerotitis):

A – is more likely when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and
during descent
B – is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
C – causes severe pain in the sinuses
D – is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent
immediately following the decompression will eliminate the problem
 Ans: A

Grey out can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:

A - +3 Gz
B - +3 Gx
C - -3 Gz
D - +3 Gy
Ans: A
113. The atmosphere is a mixture of gases and the largest part is:
A – Oxygen
B – Nitrogen
C – Helium
D – Hydrogen
Ans: B
114. How much of the air is occupied by oxygen?
A – 78.0%
B – 78.08%
C – 17%
D – 20.94%
Ans: D
How much of the air is occupied by nitrogen?
A – 76%
B – 21%
C – 78.08%
D – 20.94%
Ans: C
Which statement about partial pressure is correct?
A – Partial pressure decreases approximately 2% per 1000 feet
B – One can calculate the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture by using
Boyles law
C – The sum of the partial pressure of individual gases, in a mixture of gases,
is equal to the total pressure
D – Partial pressure of oxygen in air is always approximately 20
Ans: C
The pressure at 18,000 ft is lower than at sea level. How much lower is it
approximately?
A–½
B – 1/3
C–¼
D – 75% of the pressure at sea level
Ans: A
115. The effects of Boyles law can cause:
A – Hypoxia
B – Evolved gas disorders
C – Trapped gas disorders
D – Bends
Ans: C
Which law explains evolved gas problems?
A – Henrys law
B – Daltons law
 C – Charles law
D – Boyles law
Ans: A
116. A balloon is often used to illustrate the effects of which gas law:
A – Henrys law
B – Daltons law
C – Charles law
D – Boyles law
Ans: D
117. What is the purpose of respiration?
A – Intake of N2, which the living cells need for the metabolic process
B – Intake of CO2, which the living cells need for the metabolic process
C – Intake of CO2, which the living cells need for the metabolic process
D – Intake of NO2, which the living cells need for the metabolic process
Ans: B
What controls the volume of breathing?
A – Receptor cells in the brain
B – Pharynx
C – Angina
D – Alveoli in the lungs
Ans: A
118. What are the main components of the respiratory system?
A – Oral-nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, trachea, capillaries and alveoli
B – Oran-nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and alveoli
C – Oral-nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, lungs, capillaries and alveoli
D – Oral-nasal passage, pharynx, larynx, lungs, bronchi and alveoli
Ans: B
119. What is hypertension?
A – A blockage of the coronary artery
B – A blockage of the blood supply to part of the brain
C – A symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle
D – A physiological condition involving increased pressure on the arterial
walls
Ans: D
120. What is the most correct regarding hypoxia?
A – It is an abnormal reduction of the haemoglobin content of the red blood
cells
B – It is the result of insufficient oxygen in the blood stream
C – It causes chest pain
D – It is caused by too much CO2 in the air
Ans: B
Hypoxia is the result of:
A – High barometric pressure at higher altitudes
B – Excessive nitrogen in the blood stream
C – Decreasing amount of oxygen as your altitude increases
D – Both A and B are correct
Ans: C
121. Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?
A – Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognise before the pilots
reactions are affected
 B – Night vision may be so important, that the pilot cannot see other aircraft
C – The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen
D – During multi-crew operation, one pilot can fly while the other puts on
his/her oxygen mask
Ans: A
122. Which statement best defines hypoxia?
A – An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed
B – A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
C – A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
D – A condition of too low CO2 level in the blood
Ans: D
123. What is angina?
A – Angina is a symptom of too high oxygen supply to the heart muscle,
usually caused by enlarged coronary arteries
B – Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle,
usually caused by narrowing or obstruction of lung alveoli
C – Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the brain, usually
caused by narrowing or obstruction of the coronary artery
D – Angina is a symptom of reduced oxygen supply to the heart muscle,
usually caused by narrowing or obstruction of the coronary artery
Ans: D
124. What is heart infarct?
A – A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary vein
B – A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will almost always
lead to a heart attack
C – A heart infarct is a blockage of the coronary artery; it will seldom lead to a
heart attack
D – A heart infarct is the same as a heart attack
Ans: B
125. What is a stroke?
A – A stroke occurs when blood supply to a certain part of the brain is cut off
B – A stroke is a blood vessel rupture in the brain and internal bleeding will
cause too high internal pressure
C – A stroke is caused by angina to the heart
D – A stroke occurs when blood supply to a certain part of an alveoli is cut off
Ans: A
126. The purpose of the red blood cells is to:
A – Transport CO2, nutrients and hormones
B – Fight infection
C – Clot blood
D – Transport oxygen
Ans: D
127. List the four major types of hypoxia, which are classified according to the
cause of the hypoxia.
A – Hypoxic, hypaemic, stagnant and histotoxic
B – Hypoxic, hypaemic, hyperventic and histotoxic
C – Anaemic, angina, stroke and seizure
D – Altitude, CO, hyperventilation and self-induced
Ans: A
How can alcohol create hypxia?
 A – An individuals susceptibility to hypoxia is greatly influenced by metabolic
rate, diet, nutrition, alcohol and emotions
B – An individual under the influence of alcohol will be susceptible to
hypoxia because it is greatly influenced by metabolic rate and emotions
C – Alcohol can create histotoxic hypoxia, since it increases the physiological
altitude. Individuals who have consumed 1 ounce of alcohol can have a
physiological altitude of 2000 feet
D – Alcohol can create histotoxic hypoxia since like smoking it increases the
physiological altitude. In some cases, an individual who has consumed 1
ounce of alcohol has a physiological altitude of 7000 ft
Ans: C
128. How does CO affect O2 carriage in the blood?
A – By killing red blood cells
B – By killing white blood cells
C – By binding to the haemoglobin before O2 does
D – By splitting the O2 to CO2
Ans: C
What is hyperventilation?
A – Excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of CO2
from the blood
B – A condition which prevents the diffusion of O2 from the lungs to the
bloodstream
C – Elevated arterial blood pressures, both systolic and diastolic
D – A reduction in the O2 carrying abilities of the blood
Ans: A
129. A person should be able to overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation by:
A – Increasing the breathing rate, in order to increase ventilation
B – Slowing the breathing rate and increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in
the body
C – Refraining from the use of alcohol and over-the-counter drugs such as
antihistamines and tranquilisers
D – A and C are correct
Ans: B
130. To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should:
A – Swallow or yawn
B – Increase the breathing rate
C – Slow the breathing rate
D – Use 100% oxygen
Ans: C
131. How much of our knowledge is acquired through sight?
132. A – 85%
B – 75%
C – 65%
D – 90%
Ans: B
133. How much of our knowledge is acquired through hearing?
A – 13%
B – 25%
C – 35%
D – 45%
 Ans: A
134. Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
A – Hearing
B – Motor co-ordination
C – Night vision
D – Speech
Ans: C
135. An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
A – a decrease of acidity in the blood
B – an increased respiratory rate
C – a reduction of red blood cells
D – an improving resistance to hypoxia
Ans: B
136. At rest the cardiac output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one
minute) of an adult is approximately:
A – 75 litres/min
B – 450 ml/min
C – 45 litres/min
D – 5 litres/min
Ans: D
137. Below 70000 ft, what gas makes up the major part of the atmosphere?
A – Ozone
B – Oxygen
C – Carbon dioxide
D – Nitrogen
Ans: D
138. Blood pressure depends on:
1. the cardiac output
2. the resistance of the capillaries
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 1 and 2 are both false
B – 1 is correct 2 is false
C – 1 is false 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: D
139. By ‘long duration acceleration’, we mean that it lasts more than:
A – 20 seconds
B – 1 second
C – 1 minute
D – 5 minutes
Ans: B
140. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning in flight:
A – presents an extremely dangerous situation as the blood may not be able to
carry sufficient amounts of oxygen to vital cells and tissues of the body
B – can be cured by breathing into a plastic bag to retain the carbon monoxide
C – is usually harmless because oxygen is more easily attached to
haemoglobin than carbon monoxide to a magnitude of 200 times
D – is a complication when hyperventilating and requires its own special and
individual treatment
Ans: A
141. Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning leads to hypoxia because:
A – CO is far less easily attached (200 times) to haemoglobin that oxygen
B – CO in blood displaces oxygen from the blood corpuscles impairing
oxygen transport
C – accumulation of CO in blood leads to hyperventilation and thus to hypoxia
D – the increasing amounts of CO in the lung alveoles gradually reverses
oxygen diffusion
Ans: B
Carbon Monoxide is particularly dangerous because:
1. It is initial symptoms are not alarming
2. It is colourless
3. It is odourless
4. It is highly toxic
5. Its effects are cumulative
A – all of the above
B – 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C – 2, 3 and 4 only
D – 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Ans: A
142. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated by:
A – increasing the amount of oxygen being physically dissolved in the blood
B – decreasing the amount of oxygen being combined with the haemoglobin in
the blood
C – increasing the amount of nitrogen being physically dissolved in the blood
D – breathing into a paper bag
Ans: A
143. CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to:
1. reduction of time of useful consciousness
2. hypoxia at a lower altitude than normal
A – 1 and 2 are both correct
B – 1 is correct, 2 is false
C – 1 is false, 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both false
Ans: A
144. Define Hypoxia and explain why living tissues require oxygen.
A – Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body
tissues which require oxygen for oxidation of carbohydrates from food to
produce energy
B – Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body
tissues which require oxygen to coagulate the blood in case of infection
C – Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body
tissues which require oxygen to fight infection or invading bacteria
D – Hypoxia is the lack of sufficient oxygen to meet the needs of the body
tissues which require carbon dioxide for metabolism
Ans: A
145. During hyperventilation:
A – acidity level of the blood is reduced
B – alkalinity level of the blood is reduced
C – oxygen concentration of the blood is below normal
D – nitrogen concentration of the blood is above normal
 Ans: A
146. Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving, using compressed gas, to depths
greater than 10 metres:
A – can be performed without any danger
B – are to be avoided because of the possibility of decompression sickness
C – are allowed if you fly no higher than 38,000 ft
D – should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
Ans: B
147. Free running circadian rhythms normally have a cycle of approximately:
A – 25 hours
B – 6 hours
C – 8 hours
D – 36 hours
Ans: A
148. Haemoglobin has an affinity for carbon monoxide of ___ times over oxygen.
A – 50 – 75
B – 210 – 250
C – 5 – 10
D – 500 – 1000
Ans: B
How are oxygen and carbon dioxide transported throughout the body?
A – Diffusion
B – Oxidisation
C – Circulation
D – Metabolism
Ans: C
149. How is oxygen mainly transported in the blood?
A – Plasma
B – White blood cells
C – Haemoglobin in the red blood cells
D – Blood fat
Ans: C
150. How will hyperventilation cause the acid-base balance of the blood to be
affected?
A – Hyperventilation causes too much oxygen to be removed from the blood
causing the level of carbonic acid to fall
B – Hyperventilation causes too much CO2 to be removed from the blood
causing the level of carbonic acid to rise
C – Hyperventilation causes too much CO2 to be removed from the blood
causing the level of carbonic acid to fall
D – Hyperventilation causes too much oxygen to be removed from the blood
causing the level of carbonic acid to rise
Ans: C
151. Hypoxia is:
A – often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a
direction opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
B – a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system
to compensate by decreasing the heart rate
C – a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the
body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing
 impaired thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
D – a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood
while hyperventilating
Ans: C
152. Hypoxic hypoxia may be caused by:
1. climbing to a high altitude without using additional oxygen
2. malfunction in the oxygen supply system
3. loss of cabin pressurisation at high altitude
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 1, 2 and 3
B – 1 and 3
C – 2 and 3
D – 1 and 2
Ans: A
153. If a stop-over is more than 24 hours, the correct action is to:
A – No adjustment is necessary
B – Stay on home time and, on arrival, move to the new time
C – Stay on home time
D – Move to the new time as soon as possible
Ans: D
154. List the constituent parts of the blood and state their function.
A – Red cells carry oxygen, white cells are involved in immunity and platelets
coagulate blood
B – Red cells carry oxygen, white cells coagulates blood and platelets are
involved in immunity
C – Red cells coagulate blood, white cells are involved in immunity, and
platelets carry oxygen
D – Red cells are involved in immunity, white cells carry oxygen and platelets
coagulate blood
Ans: A
155. One of the dangers of extreme cold is that:
A – sleepiness occurs very quickly with a feeling of agitation
B – sleepiness occurs very slowly with a feeling of alertness
C – sleepiness occurs associated with a feeling of contentment or apathy
D – it degrades the fatty tissues of the body
Ans: C
One of the earliest and most significant features of Hypothermia (extreme
cold) is:
A – apathy
B – aggression
C – anxiety
D – aggression and anxiety
Ans: A
156. Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most
effective measure is:
A – breathe into a plastic or paper bag
B – hold breath
C – avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres
D – speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly
Ans: A
157. Pilots should not take antihistamines because they may cause:
1. Drowsiness and dizziness
2. Hypoglycaemia
3. Hyperventilation
4. Flatulence
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – only 1
B – 3 and 4
C – 2, 3 and 4
D – 1 and 3
Ans: A
158. Positive g will cause the blood flow to the brain to:
A – decrease
B – remain constant
C – increase
D – first increase, then decrease
Ans: A
159. Preventing hypoxia at altitude is achieved by:
A – hyperventilating to increase the intake of oxygen, trading oxygen for
carbon dioxide
B – reducing the contents of carbon dioxide by filtering the cabin air
C – pressurising the air inside the aircraft to maintain oxygen saturation in
blood of 30%
D – pressurising the air inside the aircraft to achieve oxygen saturation in
blood of more than 90%
Ans: D
160. Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:
A – environmental stressors
B – a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
C – the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting,
standing or lying down
D – the condition of the body itself
Ans: C
161. The blood in the pulmonary artery is:
A – lacking in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
B – lacking in both oxygen and carbon dioxide
C – rich in oxygen and lacking in carbon dioxide
D – rich in both oxygen and carbon dioxide
Ans: A
The body obtains its energy from:
A – minerals, carbohydrates and vitamins
B – minerals and vitamins
C – carbohydrates, protein and fats
D – protein and vitamins
Ans: C
162. The circulation of blood:
1. trnsports oxygen to the body cells
2. withdraws waste products from the cells
3. conveys nutrients to the cells
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
 A – 1 and 3
B – 2 and 3
C – 1, 2 and 3
D – 1 and 2
Ans: C
163. The exchange of gases between the alveoli and the blood is due to:
A – changes in atmospheric pressure
B – diffusion
C – inspiration
D – physical exercise
Ans: B
164. The General Adaptation Syndrome is associated with the:
A – CNS (Central Nervous System)
B – NIHL (Noise Induced Hearing Loss)
C – ANS (Autonomic Nervous System)
D – PNS (Peripheral Nervous System)
Ans: C
165. The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:
A – 48 hours
B – 1.5 hour
C – 12 hours
D – 24 hours
Ans: D
166. The changes in atmospheric gas pressure with altitude are:
A – rises with altitude
B – non-linear, with a higher rate of change at lower levels
C – decreases in a linear manner with altitude
D – decreases more slowly at lower altitudes compared with at higher levels
Ans: B
167. The low level of humidity found in a pressurised aircraft cabin:
A – should be compensated for by breathing in to a paper bag
B – should be compensated for by drinking water before one gets thirsty
C – requires a regular supply of water only for those who are in poor health.
Healthy people compensate for this naturally
D – should be compensated for by a regular supply of coffee or tea
Ans: B
168. The normal rate of breathing when at rest is:
A – 32 to 40 cycles a minute
B – 25 to 30 cycles a minute
C – 12 to 20 cycles a minute
D – 60 to 100 cycles a minute
Ans: C
The symptoms of hypoxia include:
A – Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria
B – Nausea and barotitis
C – Dull headaches and bends
D – Dizziness, hypothermia
Ans: A
169. The total gas volume of the lung is the sum of:
1. tidal volume
 2. inspiratory reserve volume
3. expiratory reserve volume
4. residual volume
Which of the following lists the correct combination?
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4
B – 1 and 2
C – 2 and 3
D – 1, 2 and 3
Ans: A
170. Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood into the
lungs?
A – Oxygen
B – Ambient air
C – Carbon dioxide
D – Carbon monoxide
Ans: C
171. What is meant by metabolism?
A – Information exchange
B – The generation and utilisation of energy by the body’s cells and tissues
C – Transfer of chemical messages
D – Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood
Ans: B
172. What is the name of the functional connection between neurones?
A – Occlusion
B – By-pass
C – Interconnection
D – Synapse
Ans: D
173. What law(s) governs the oxygen transfer at the alveoli?
A – Gas Diffusion Laws
B – Charles’
C – Henry’s
D – Boyle’s
Ans: A
174. When a pilot suffers from hypothermia (eg. after loss of cabin heating) his/her
demand for oxygen will be:
A – initially increased
B – unaffected
C – reduced giving a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes
D – raised leading to an increased tolerance to hypoxia
Ans: A
When flying above 10,000 feet hypoxia arises because:
A – the partial oxygen pressure is below the critical value of 55 mm/Hg
B – the composition of the blood changes
C – the composition of the air is different from sea level
D – the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level
Ans: A
175. When hyperventilating you should:
A – descend
B – control your rate and depth of breathing
 C – apply the Valsalva method
D – use the oxygen mask
Ans: B
176. Which gas most readily combines with haemoglobin?
A – oygen
B – nitrogen
C – carbon monoxide
D – carbon dioxide
Ans: C
177. Which of the following gases is fundamentally responsible for decompression
sickness?
A – O2
B – Nitrogen
C – Carbon dioxide
D – Sodium
Ans: B
Which of the following laws explains bubbles of nitrogen coming out of
solution in body tissues due to a decrease in atmospheric pressure?
A – Henry’s law
B – Boyle’s law
C – Dalton’s law
D – Gay Lussac’s law
Ans: A
Man and Environment: the sensory system
To optimise ones night-vision performance, it is necessary:
1. to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of illumination
2. to increase the instrument panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting
3. not to focus on the point to be observed
4. to avoid blinding
A–2
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: D
1. Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by:
A – the semi-circular canals
B – the tympanum
C – the saccule and the ultricle
D – the cochlea
Ans: A
2. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the
visual system and the vestibular system?
1. Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
2. Auto-kinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
3. Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects
4. Illusions of rotation
A – 1, 4
B – 2, 3, 4
C–2
D – 3, 4
 Ans: A
3. What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the
runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should:
A – make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can
be induced
B – be aware that approaches over down-sloping terrain will make him believe
that he is higher than actual
C – make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance
D – be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot feel that he is
lower than actual height
Ans: A
4. A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get:
A – the illusion to turn
B – the feeling of rotation
C – the illusion of climbing or descending
D – the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left
Ans: C
5. The vestibular organ:
A – reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
B – gives the impression of hearing
C – reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
D – reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
Ans: A
6. Flying a co-ordinated level turn will:
A – make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the
body’s vertical axis
B – first give the impression of climb, then the impression of descent
C – make the blood being pooled in the head
D – make the body’s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the
body’s vertical axis
Ans: D
7. During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has
decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:
A – dim the instrument lights
B – closing one eye
C – scanning sectors of the field of vision
D – breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask
Ans: D
8. The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the:
A – utriculus and sacculus
B – semi-circular canals
C – muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of
body parts
D – skin of the breech only
Ans: C
9. The semi-circular canals monitor:
A – angular accelerations
B – relative speed
C – horizontal and vertical accelerations
D – gravity
 Ans: A
10. Which flight-manoeuvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head
while
A – banking
B – descending
C – climbing
D – flying straight and level
Ans: A
11. Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on
a snowed up, foggy or cloudy winter day? Because:
A – perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low
contrast
B – his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions
C – the danger of a greying out will make it impossible to determine the height
above the terrain
D – pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information
Ans: A
12. Presbycusis causes loss of:
A – High tones
B – Low tones
C – Both equally
D – Can be prevented by ear plugs
Ans: A
13. The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision:
A – are rods and cones
B – are the cones
C – are the rods
D – is the cornea
Ans: C
14. The Leans or Somatogyral illusion can be caused by:
A – going into a turn to quickly
B – bunting the aircraft
C – prolonging a turn
D – a carrier take-off
Ans: C
15. Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:
A – when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument
cross check
B – if the brain receives conflicting information and the pilot does not believe
the instruments
C – when flying in light rain below the ceiling
D – when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer
Ans: B
16. The fovea:
A – is an area in which rods predominate
B – is sensitive to very low intensities of light
C – is an area in which cones predominate
D – is the area responsible for night vision
Ans: C
17. Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:
 A – undergoing positive G
B – simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
C – gazing in the direction of a flashing light
D – normal deterioration of the semi-circular canals with age
Ans: B

18. The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when:

A – the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude
changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
B – there is contradictory information between the instruments and the
vestibular organs
C – the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring
illusions
D – information from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored
Ans: B
19. The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
A – the lens
B – the ciliary body
C – the cornea
D – the pupil
Ans: D
20. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27m), to an
international airport (runway width 45m). On reaching your destination
there is a risk of performing a:
A – high approach with overshoot
B – high approach with undershoot
C – low approach with overshoot
D – low approach with undershoot
Ans: A
21. The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is:
A – to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds
B – the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator
C – a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and
forth between instruments and visual references
D – to believe the attitude indicator
Ans: C
22. The time required for complete adaptation is:
A – for day and night: 30 min
B – for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of
illumination 30 minutes
C – for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min
D – for night 10 sec and for day 30 min
Ans: C
23. Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means:
A – a lesser selectivity
B – a greater sensitivity
C – a greater selectivity
D – a lesser sensitivity
Ans: D
24. Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight
 turn, are symptoms of:
A – Pilot’s vertigo
B – Flicker-vertigo
C – Nystagmus
D – Oculogravic illusion
Ans: A
25. Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing
aids (eg. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of being:
A – higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
B – higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (ducking under)
C – lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
D – lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
Ans: B
26. One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is:
A – fat
B – protein
C – sugar
D – water
Ans: D
27. A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight
turn, experiences:
A – auto kinetic illusion
B – coriolis illusion
C – barotraume
D – pressure vertigo
Ans: B
28. Empty field myopia is caused by:
A – lack of distant focal points
B – atmospheric perspective
C – ozone at altitude
D – flying over mountainous terrain
Ans: A
29. What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (eg.
fog, darkness, snow and vapour)?
A – Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
B – Objects seem to be closer than in reality
C – It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
D – There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day
Ans: C
30. Although we have a field of vision of more than 180o it is important during
flight to use the scanning technique, because:
A – it is tiring to look continually in the same direction
B – only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
C – good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
D – red vision, both during the day and at night
Ans: B
31. Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for:
A – precise vision of contours and colours
B – good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)
C – good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
 D – red vision, both during the day and at night
Ans: C
32. Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast
(fog, snow, darkness, haze)? Under these conditions it is:
A – difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
B – impossible to detect objects
C – no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
D – improbable to get visual illusions
Ans: A
33. The photosensitive cells being responsible for night vision are called:
A – the rods
B – the cones
C – the foveas
D – the corneas
Ans: A
34. The vestibular system is composed of:
1. two ventricles
2. a saccule
3. an utricle
4. three semi-circular channels
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: C
35. The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold. Possible
danger is:
A – approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
B – to drop far below the glide path
C – approach is higher than normal and may result in a long standing
D – to misjudge the length of the runway
Ans: C
36. Hypoxia will effect night vision:
A – at 5000 ft
B – less that day vision
C – and causes the auto-kinetic phenomena
D – and causes hyperventilation
Ans: A
37. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a
relatively long period of time in the dark is called:
A – oculografic illusion
B – white out
C – oculogyral illusion
D – auto-kinesis
Ans: D
38. What is the name for the sensation of rotation occurring during flight and
which is caused by multiple irritation of several semi-circular canals at the
same time?
A – Sudden incapacitation
B – Pilot’s vertigo
 C – Seat-of-the-Pants illusions
D – Graveyard spin
Ans: B
39. During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is
A – unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out
B – grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness
C – black-out, grey-out tunnel vision and unconsciousness
D – grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision
Ans: B
40. A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of
receptors is called:
A – reflex
B – data processing
C – control system
D – change of stimulation level
Ans: A
41. All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process
of growing old. The effects of aging:
A – are to cut out the high tones first
B – are to cut out all tones equally
C – are to cut out the low tones first
D – will not affect a pilot’s hearing it he is wearing earplugs all the time
Ans: A
42. Sensory input to the Seat-of-the-Pants sense is given by:
A – subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinaesthetic muscle activity sensors
B – pressure of the heart on the diaphragm
C – blood rushing into legs
D – acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
Ans: A
43. Once we have constructed a mental model we tend:
A – to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
B – to alter that model unnecessarily frequently
C – to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
D – to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
Ans: A
44. The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in:
A – the inner ear
B – the middle ear
C – the outer ear
D – the maxillary sinus
Ans: B
45. What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?
A – Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
B – Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness
C – Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
D – Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
Ans: B
46. Which of the following statements is correct?
A – Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man
B – 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
 C – 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
D – The kinaesthetic channel provides the most important information for
flying
Ans: B
47. What is understood by air-sickness?
A – An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood
B – A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea,
vomiting and fear
C – An illness caused by reduced air pressure
D – An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear
Ans: B
48. To prevent the auto-kinetic phenomena, the following can be done:
A – turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously
B – look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using
peripheral vision also
C – fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the other
D – look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
Ans: B
49. Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:
1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. having a cold
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: B
50. 1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat-of-the-
Pants-Sense
2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the
instruments you must believe the instruments
A – 1 is correct, 2 is false
B – 1 is false, 2 is correct
C – 1 and 2 are correct
D – 1 and 2 are false
Ans: B
51. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and
linear acceleration?
A – The Eustachian tube
B – The sacculus and utriculus
C – The semi-circular canals
D – The cochlea
Ans: B
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary:
1. for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient luminosity)
2. at night to look at the point to be observed at an angle of 15o
3. to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the light
4. to avoid white light
A–3
 B–2
C–1
D–4
Ans: C
Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor Contributing to
air-sickness, because they:
A – upset the vestibular apparatus
B – interfere with those of their own blood thus causing circulation problems
C – interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system
D – make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same frequency
Ans: A
52. Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?
A – Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive
cells
B – Accommodation is destroyed
C – Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
D – The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on
vitamin A
Ans: C
A shining light is fading out (ie. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What
kind of sensation could the pilot get?
A – The source of light moves away from him
B – The light source will make the pilot believe that he is climbing
C – The source of light stands still
D – The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
Ans: A
The so-called Seat-of-the-Pants sense is:
A – not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost
B – only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC
C – useful for instrument and contact flight
D – the only sense a pilot can rely on when flying in IMC
Ans: A
53. The mechanism of accommodation is caused by:
A – the functioning of the muscles of the eye
B – the elasticity of the optic nerves
C – the functioning of the ciliary muscle around the lens
D – the diameter of the pupil
Ans: C
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be:
A – vertical acceleration
B – radial acceleration
C – linear acceleration
D – angular acceleration
Ans: D
Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of noise?
A – The Eustachian tube
B – The semicircular canals
C – The sacculus and utriculus
D – The cochlea
Ans: D
54. Pilot’s vertigo:
A – is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
B – is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by
contradictory impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
C – is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
D – announces the beginning of airsickness
Ans: B
55. Auto-kinesis is
A – the automatic adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at
different distances
B – the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
C – the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
D – the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a
relatively long period of time in the dark
Ans: D
56. The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the
frequencies
A – 20000 – 40000 Hz
B – 0 – 16 Hz
C – 16 – 20000 Hz
D – 30 – 15000 dB
Ans: C
57. Scanning at night should be performed by:
A – avoiding food containing Vitamin A
B – scanning with one eye open
C – concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis)
D – slight eye movements to the side of the object
Ans: D
58. To prevent vertigo in flight we should
A – keep breathing normally
B – look towards the sides when we make a turn
C – breathe deeply but control the respiratory frequency
D – not move the head suddenly while we are turning
Ans: D
59. When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensatio
A – of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
B – of turning in the same direction
C – that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
D – of the immediate stabilisation of the aircraft
Ans: C
60. The proprioceptive senses (Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense):
A – can neither be used for motor co-ordination in IMC and VMC
B – is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude
C – can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
D – give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
Ans: D
61. When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself
from flash blindness by:
(a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights
(b) looking inside the cockpit
 (c) wearing sunglasses
(d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
A – (c) and (d) are correct, (a) and (b) are false
B – (a), (b) and (c) are correct, (d) is false
C – (a) and (b) are correct, (c) and (d) are false
D – (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
Ans: D
62. How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
A – Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check
B – Always try to catch outside visual cues
C – Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses
D – Rely on the kinaesthetic sense
Ans: A
63. Orientation in flight is accomplished by:
1. eyes
2. utriculus and sacculus
3. semi-circular canals
4. seat-of-the-pants-sense
A – 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct
B – only 1 and 4 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
D – 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct
Ans: A
64. What can a pilot do to avoid Flicker vertigo when flying in the clouds?
A – Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
B – Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
C – Switch strobe-lights off
D – Fly straight and level and avoid head movements
Ans: C
65. What do you do when you are affected by pilot’s vertigo?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check
2. Believe the instruments
3. Ignore illusions
4. Minimise head movements
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
D – Only 4 is false
Ans: A
The requirement of good sunglasses is to:
A – eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields
B – fit to the pilot’s individual taste
C – absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual
acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colours equally
D – increase the time for dark adaptation
Ans: C
66. Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping
the rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of:
A – spinning into the same direction
B – spinning into the opposite direction
 C – straight and level flight
D – climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
Ans: B
67. Positive linear acceleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation
of:
A – vertigo
B – pitching down
C – apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
D – pitching up
Ans: D
68. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial
disorientation?
A – tilt your head to the side to get better information from the semi-circular
canals
B – Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments
C – Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
D – Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-centre
vision all the time
Ans: B
69. With vertigo the instrument panel seems to tumble. This is due to:
A – conflicting information between the semi-circular canals and the
hympanic membrane
B – tuned resonance caused by vibration
C – the coriolis effect in the semi-circular canals
D – oxygen deficiency
Ans: C
70. The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
A – constant speed only
B – angular acceleration
C – angular speed
D – linear acceleration and gravity
Ans: D
71. Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
A – Gravity stone
B – Gravity and linear acceleration
C – Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
D – Angular acceleration
Ans: B
72. When a pilot is staring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the
dark, he might get the illusion that:
A – the colour of the light is varying
B – the size of the light is varying
C – the intensity of the light is varying
D – the light is moving
Ans: D
Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in:
A – noise induced hearing loss
B – conductive hearing loss
C – presbycusis (effects of aging)
D – a ruptured ear drum
 Ans: A
73. The semi-circular canals detect:
A – sound waves
B – angular accelerations
C – linear accelerations
D – changes in arterial pressure
Ans: B
74. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones on its central zone
2. The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has rods
3. The rods allow for night vision
4. The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the retina
A – 2, 3
B–1
C – 1, 3
D–4
Ans: C
75. We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for:
A – the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
B – the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation process
C – binocular vision
D – the analysis of visual signals
Ans: A
The PNS passes information from:
A – the brain to the sensory stores through sensory nerves
B – sensory inputs to the CNS through sensory and motor nerves
C – the brain to all parts of the body through sensory and motor nerves
D – the brain to all parts of the body through sensory nerves
Ans: B
76. When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will:
A – give the illusion of banking
B – give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going
up)
C – give the illusion of straight and level flight
D – give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards to towards nose
of the airplane going down)
Ans: B
77. When turning in IMC, head movements should be avoided as much as
possible. This is a prevention against:
A – pressure vertigo
B – auto-kinesis
C – oculogyral illusion
D – coriolis illusion
Ans: D
78. Visual disturbances can be caused by:
1. hyperventilation
2. hypoxia
3. hypertension
4. fatigue
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
 B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
79. Which is the audible range to human hearing?
A – Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
B – Between 16 MHz and 20000 MHz
C – Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
D – Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz
Ans: A
80. How can a pilot prevent pilot’s vertigo?
A – Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and
rely upon the senses of balance
B – Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-centre vision
C – Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments
D – Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight manoeuvres and maintain an effective
instrument cross check
Ans: D
81. When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of
hypoxia is the:
A – proprioceptive sensitivity
B – cochlea
C – sense of balance
D – vision
Ans: D
82. Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades:
A – can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer
period of time
B – can be neglected
C – can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on
D – should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve
Ans: A
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy):
1. are above all active in turns and pull-outs
2. are present during take-off and landing
3. are rare during routine flights
4. often lead to loss of consciousness
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D–3
Ans: D
83. The retina of the eye:
A – only regulates the light that falls into the eye
B – filters the UV-light
C – is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens
D – is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors
essential for vision
Ans: D
84. When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we are talking about:
 A – myopia
B – hypermetropia
C – presbyopia
D – astigmatism
Ans: A
85. Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning to hyperventilation?
A – Slow heart beat
B – Slow rate of breathing
C – Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
D – Dizzy feeling
Ans: D
86. Among the factors which affect night vision are:
A – Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking and alcohol
B – Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking alcohol and lack of Vitamin
C
C – Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking, alcohol and lack of Vitamin
D
D – Age, cabin altitudes above 8000 ft, smoking, alcohol and lack of Vitamin
E
Ans: A
87. The Eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalisation between:
A – nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere
B – frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses
C – middle ear and external atmosphere
D – sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere
Ans: C
88. Barodontalgia:
A – arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression
B – even arises with healthy teeth
C – arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of descent
D – arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of
a tooth
Ans: D
89. The semi-circular canals of the inner ear monitor:
A – relative speed and linear accelerations
B – movements with constant speeds
C – angular accelerations
D – gravity
Ans: C
The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants-sense) are important for motor
co-ordination. They:
A – allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition
B – are important senses for flight training in IMC
C – are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
D – indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces
Ans: C
90. Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC:
A – can cause colour illusions
B – will improve the pilot’s depth perception
C – will affect the pilot’s binocular vision
 D – can cause disorientation
Ans: D
91. A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a
larger and wider runway can lead to:
A – a flatter than normal approach with the risk of ducking under
B – the risk to land short of the over-run
C – an early or high round out
D – a steeper than normal approach dropping low
Ans: C
A pilot approaching an upslope runway:
A – is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long
B – establishes a higher than normal approach speed
C – establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling
out
D – may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land
short
Ans: D
What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze?
A – Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality
B – Objects seem to move slower than in reality
C – Objects seem to be further away than in reality
D – Objects will appear closer than they really are
Ans: C
92. Depth perception when objects are close (>1m) is achieved through:
A – seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
B – good visibility only
C – visual memory only
D – the blind spot at the retina
Ans: A
93. Adaptation is:
A – the reflection of the light at the cornea
B – the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina
C – the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
D – the change of the diameter of the pupil
Ans: C
94. A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller
and/or narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a:
A – greater height and the impression of landing short
B – lower height and the impression of landing slow
C – greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
D – lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
Ans: C
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at
a greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a:
A – higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
B – flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
C – compensatory glide path and land long
D – compensatory glide path and stall out
Ans: B
95. Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by:
 A – acceleration along the longitudinal body axis
B – angular velocity
C – vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
D – vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHzghh
Ans: C
96. What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?
A – Fast speed
B – Oxygen deficiency
C – Acceleration
D – Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)
Ans: A
97. The fovea centralis is:
A – where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
B – the area of best day vision and best night vision
C – the area of best day vision and no night vision at all
D – the area of the blind spot (optic disc
Ans: C
Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?
A – Ossicles
B – Otoliths
C – Endolymph
D – Semi-circular canals
Ans: A
98. Through which part of the ear does the equalisation of pressure take place,
when altitude is changed?
A – External auditory canal
B – Eustachian tube
C – Cochlea
D – Tympanic membrane
Ans: B
99. What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?
1. Avoid turbulences
2. Avoid flying through rough weather
3. Seat passenger close to the centre of gravity
4. Give pertinent information
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false
D – Only 4 is correct
Ans: A
100. The Vestibular Apparatus consists of the:
A – Cochlea and auditory nerve
B – Eustachian tube and the semi-circular canals
C – Semi-circular canals, Utricles and Saccules
D – Eustachian tube and the pinna
Ans: C
101. The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when:
A – the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies prior to flight
B – the student is motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli of flying
C – the student has good outside visual reference
 D – the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
Ans: D
102. Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot
lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation:
A – will not stimulate the seat-of-the-pants sense
B – corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or
performing a level turn
C – corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets, when flying straight and level
or starting a descent
D – makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight
Ans: B
103. Which sensations does a pilot get when he is rolling out ofa co-ordinated level
turn?
A – Flying straight and level
B – Climbing
C – Turning into the original direction
D – Descending and turning into the opposite direction
Ans: D
104. How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By:
A – maintaining a good instrument cross check
B – believing your body senses only
C – moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical
D – looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator
Ans: A
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated
instrument flight?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross check
2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your sense of feeling
3. Ignore arising illusions
4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to shake-off illusions
A – Only 4 is correct
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
Ans: C
105. A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow).
What is the correct action to prevent vertigo?
A – Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
B – Depend on information from the semi-circular canals of the inner ear,
because those are the only ones giving correct information
C – Depend on the instruments
D – Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe
normal again
Ans: C
106. Vertigo is the result of:
A – Oculogyral illusion
B – Autokinetic illusion
C – Elevator illusion
D – Coriolis effect
Ans: D
Starting a co-ordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to:
A – descent
B – turn into the opposite direction
C – increase the rate of turn into the same direction
D – climb
Ans: D
107. Pilot’s vertigo:
A – the impression of climbing when banking
B – is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritation of several
semi-circular canals at the same time
C – the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft is spinning
D – a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation
of the utriculus and sacculus at the same time
Ans: B
108. Vitamin A and possibly Vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential
to good night vision:
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance
2. An excess intake of Vitamin A will improve night vision performance
significantly
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balanced diet containing
sufficient Vitamin A
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but not
in scotopic vision
Ans: B
109. The semi-circular canals form part of the:
A – middle ear
B – ear drum
C – external ear
D – inner ear
Ans: D
110. The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain)
in spatial disorientation occurs:
A – on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
B – on stimulating the cochlea intensely
C – when no semi-circular canal is stimulated
D – on stimulating several semi-circular canals simultaneously
Ans: D
111. When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a:
A – climb
B – descent
C – turn
D – spin
Ans: A
112. The intensity of a sound is measured in:
A – cycles per second
B – curies
C – decibels
D – hertz
Ans: C
113. The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be
 obtained, is accomplished by which of the following?
A – The retina
B – The rods
C – The cones
D – The crystalline lens
Ans: D
The cupula in the semi-circular canal will be bent, when a rtation begins.
This is because:
A – the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression
B – the fluid (endolymph) within the semi-circular canal lags behind the
accelerated canal walls
C – the fluid (endolymph) will precede the accelerated canal walls
D – the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds
Ans: B
114. Auto-kinetic illusion is:
A – an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several
seconds in the day, may without a frame of reference appear to move
B – the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point
moving into the opposite direction of the acceleration
C – a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
D – poor interpretation of the surrounding world
Ans: A
115. The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
A – are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same
time
B – are virtually unlimited
C – allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness
D – are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the
same time
Ans: D
Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are:
1. classic and resistant when flying in IMC
2. sensed via impressions of rotation
3. sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft
4. considerable during prolonged shallow turns under IMC
A – 3, 4
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: D
116. During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to
overcome illusions is the:
A – visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator
B – seat-of-the-pants-sense
C – vestibular sense
D – visual sense by looking outside
Ans: A
117. Excessive exposure to noise damages:
A – the eardrum
B – the semi-circular canals
 C – the ossicles
D – the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
Ans: D
118. Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to:
A – interactions between cones and rods
B – binocular vision
C – peripheral vision
D – the high sensitivity of the retina
Ans: B
119. Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of
angular acceleration?
A – The sacculus and utriculus
B – The cochlea
C – The semi-circular canals
D – The Eustachian tube
Ans: C
120. When you stare at a single light against the dark (eg. an isolated star) you will
find the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called:
A – black hole illusion
B – auto kinetic phenomenon
C – coriolis illusion
D – leans
Ans: B
121. Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
A – The separation of figure and background
B – The intensity of the stimuli
C – The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory
D – The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory
Ans: B
122. The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing
vision:
A – is limited to daytime using the rod cells
B – is limited to the foveal area of the retina
C – is almost equally shared by the entire retina
D – is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees
of angle
Ans: B
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when:
A – stress and motivation are medium
B – stress and motivation are low
C – stress is high
D – stress is medium
Ans: C
123. Glaucoma is:
A – disturbed adaptation
B – disturbed colour vision
C – high intra-ocular pressure
D – disturbed night vision
Ans: C
124. What would be the effect if in a tight turn one bends down to pick up a pencil?
 A – Coriolis effect
B – Barotrauma
C – Vertigo
D – Inversion Illusion
Ans: A
125. How is haze affecting your perception?
A – Objects seem to be further away than in reality
B – Objects will give better contrast
C – Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity
D – Objects seem to be closer than in reality
Ans: D
The eye can adjust to:
A – high levels of illumination in 10 minutes and darkness in 1 hour
B – high levels of illumination in 10 seconds and darkness in 30 minutes
C – high levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 minutes
D – high levels of illumination in 30 minutes and darkness in 10 seconds
Ans: B
126. With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:
A – originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual
perceptions
B – are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical
and the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system
C – are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
D – are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception
between the various members of a crew
Ans: B
127. Among the factors that increase tolerance to long duration g forces are:
A – Correct use of pilot’s harness and tensing of abdominal muscles
B – Bending forward or supine body position and tensing of abdominal
muscles
C – Anti-g suits and correct use of pilot’s harness
D – Tensing the leg muscles and correct use of pilot’s harness
Ans: B
128. Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the
face of variations brought about by external stimulations. This internal
equilibrium is called:
A – Homeostasis
B – Heterostasis
C – Isothermy
D – Metastasis
Ans: A
129. Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion
sickness?
1. Hearing
2. The vestibular system
3. Vision
4. The propibceptive senses Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
5. The gastrointestinal system
A – 1, 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 2, 5
 C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: C
130. In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in
which you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside
which is moving is called:
A – somato-gravic illusion
B – illusion of relative movement
C – auto-kinetic illusion
D – cognitive illusion
Ans: B
131. What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?
A – A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood
available
B – An improvement of peripheral vision
C – An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-
level)
D – Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders
Ans: A
With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is due to the functioning of rods
2. It enables details, colours and movement to be seen
3. Its very active both during the day and at night
4. It represents a zone where about 150,000 cones per mm are located to give
high resolution capacity
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: D
132. The inner ear is able to perceive
1. angular acceleration
2. linear acceleration
3. noise
A – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
B – 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
C – 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
D – 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
Ans: C
133. Angular accelerations are perceived by:
A – the otholits
B – the receptors in the skin and the joints
C – the semi-circular canals
D – the cochlea
Ans: C
Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the
illusion of:
A – descending
B – yawing
C – spinning
 D – climbing
Ans: D
134. The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-force
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false
Ans: C
135. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
A – rely on instruments
B – use your oxygen mask
C – dim the cockpit lighting
D – scan the surroundings
Ans: A
The Black hole phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over
water, jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than
those of the aerodrome there is an illusion of:
A – being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal
B – being too close, landing long
C – being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short
D – climbing
Ans: C
136. Linear acceleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the
illusion of:
A – descending
B – yawing
C – spinning
D – climbing
Ans: D
137. Galucoma:
1. can lead to total blindness
2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
A – 1, 2 and 3 are false
B – 1 and 2 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 1 is correct
Ans: C
138. The Eustachian tube connects:
A – the semi-circular canals
B – the auditory duct and the inner ear
C – the middle ear and the inner ear
D – the middle ear and the throat
Ans: D
139. When focussing on near objects:
A – the cornea gets smaller
 B – the shape of lens gets more spherical
C – the pupil gets larger
D – the shape of lens gets flatter
Ans: B
140. The peripheral vision is important for:
A – detecting moving objects
B – colour vision
C – visual acuity
D – binocular vision
Ans: A
141. The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
A – adaptation
B – accommodation
C – binocular vision
D – depth perception
Ans: B
142. If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
A – rely on instruments
B – check your rate of breathing – do not breathe too fast
C – descend
D – look outside
Ans: A
The kinaesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his srroundings, but
informs him of:
A – the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
B – a touch on the skin
C – the condition in the body itself
D – our surroundings
Ans: A
143. How many words can we hear and speak per minute?
A – Listen to 700 and speak 500
B – Listen to 125 and speak 900
C – Listen to 900 and speak 125
D – Speak 500 and listen to 700
Ans: C
144. Trapped gas disorders of the ears can be caused by:
A – Flying when you have a cold
B – Flying after deep scuba diving with decompression
C – Flying at too high altitude without supplemental oxygen
D – Too hard equalisation of the pressure in your outer ear
Ans: A
145. What is the main purpose of the central nervous system?
A – The control of human emotions
B – The control of human emotions including love, hate, fear, anger and
sadness
C – To take care of the body’s reception of stimuli, the transmission of nerve
impulses and the activation of muscle mechanisms
D – The activation of the body’s muscles
Ans: C
The conducting elements of the nervous system cells are called:
 A – Neurones
B – Nerve conductors
C – Nervates
D – Irises
Ans: A
146. The nervous system cells are capable of:
A – Slow generalised activity
B – Stimulating the rate of recognition
C – Efficient and rapid activity
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: D
147. List the brain’s most important parts:
A – Fovea, cerebrum, cerebellum, and the brain stem
B – Cerebellum, brain stem and cornea
C – Reflex centre, cerebellum and the brain stem
D – Brain stem, cerebellum and cerebrum
Ans: D
148. Which part of the body acts as a reflex centre for the co-ordination of
equilibrium?
A – The Fovea
B – The brain stem
C – The cerebellum
D – The cerebrum
Ans: C
What is the cornea?
A – Optic eye discs
B – The source of the day blind spot
C – A clear portion of the eye where the light passes through
D – The lens of the eye
Ans: C
149. The iris’ main purpose is to:
A – Control the size, or diameter of the pupil
B – Initiate nerve impulses
C – Transmit impulses via the optic nerve
D – They let light into the eye
Ans: A
150. What is the day blind spot?
A – The optic nerve has no rods and cones which creates a blind spot
B – The fovea has no rods and cones which creates a blind spot
C – An area around the fovea is over-stimulated by bright daylight which
creates a day blind spot
D – The day blind spot is caused by the lack of rods on the iris
Ans: A
151. Why are the eyes more sensitive (better night vision), after 30 – 45 minutes in
a darkenvironment?
A – The pupil is expanded and the lodopsin level is increased, improving night
sensitivity
B – Light bleaches out visual purple (rhodopsin)
C – For night vision to take place, visual purple must build up in the rods
D – B and C are correct
 Ans: D
What is rhodopsin?
A – A chemical called visual purple which sometimes is present in rod cells
B – A chemical always present in rod cells
C – A chemical sometimes present in cone cells
D – A chemical called visual purple always present in cone cells
Ans: A
152. What is referred to as stereoscopic vision?
A – The ability to focus both eyes on a single object
B – Motion parallax
C – Apparent foreshortening
D – The lack of ability to focus both eyes on a single object
Ans: A
153. Myopia is commonly called:
A – Farsightedness
B – Nearsightedness
C – Nutritional deficiency
D – Colour blindness
Ans: B
154. Which system(s) should be trusted during flight through clouds and instrument
meteorological conditions (IMC)?
A – Visual
B – Vestibular
C – Proprioceptive
D – Combined function of all sense
Ans: A
The vestibular system:
A – Consists of the outer, middle and inner ear
B – Is the body’s motor and gravity sensing organs
C – Should always be trusted to judge an aeroplane’s attitude
D – Is the body’s sound, motion and gravity sensing organ
Ans: B
155. what is the purpose of the semi-circular canals?
A – Sense linear (vertical) acceleration and gravity
B – Transform sound to nerve impulses
C – Sense angular acceleration
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: C
156. What is the purpose of the otolith organs?
A – Sense linear (vertical) acceleration and gravity
B – Transform sound to nerve impulses
C – Sense angular acceleration
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: A
157. The small sacs located in the vestibule are:
A – Chalk-like crystals called otoliths
B – Sacs with sensory hairs
C – Crystals in the semi-circular canals
D – Both B and C are correct
Ans: A
A forward acceleration, without visual reference, can cause:
A – An illusion of a turn in the opposite direction
B – An illusion of backward tilt because it results in backward displacement of
the otolithic membranes
C – An illusion of descent, because it results in backward displacement of the
otolithic membranes
D – Alternobar illusio
Ans: B
158. Select the angular accelerations that can be sensed by the semi-circular canals:
A – climb or descend
B – Acceleration or deceleration
C – Roll
D – Roll, pitch and yaw
Ans: D
159. How is a roll change sensed?
A – Roll change is sensed by chalk-like crystals, the vestibular nerve is
stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the brain
B – The middle ear senses roll, the vestibular nerve is stimulated and the nerve
impulses transmitted to the brain
C – Hairs in the semi-circular canals sense fluid motion caused by roll, the
vestibular nerve is stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the
brain
D – The roll is sensed by hairs in the Eustachian tube, the vestibular nerve is
stimulated and the nerve impulses transmitted to the brain
Ans: C
160. What does the proprioceptive system do?
A – React to sensation from pressure on skin, joints and muscles
B – Sense yaw motion
C – Sense the movements that have to the term seat-of-the-pants flying
D – Both A and C are correct
Ans: D
161. What is a pre-determined opinion?
A – A dominating crew member may have a very strong opinion of how to do
a task and not be willing to listen to suggestions
B – The tendency to see or hear what we expect; this is also called mind sets
C – A plan or opinion is made before the flight is conducted
D – Pilots with pre-determined opinions are planning ahead; they often play
the what if game to be prepared for the unexpected
Ans: C
162. Presbycusis is type of hearing loss which can be caused by:
A – Ageing
B – High noise
C – Damaged or fatigued sensory hair cells
D – B and C are correct
Ans: A
163. “Greyout” occurs in case of:
A - +gY
B - -gZ
C - +gX
D - +gZ
 Ans: D
164. “Pilot’s vertigo”:
A – is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by
contradictory impulses to the centre nervous system (CNS)
B – is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
C – is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
D – announces the beginning of airsickness
Ans: A
A “Graveyard-Spin” is:
A – a spin manoeuvre that should only be performed by well trained pilots
B – a fatal accident caused by a state of spinning the fluid in the brain
C – a spin in which the pilot, on recovery, tends to re-enter the spin due to the
somatogyral illusion where the vestibular system no longer senses radial
acceleration
D – an illusion caused by misperception of being higher than you really are
when performing a spin. Thus the recovery tends to be dangerously low
Ans: C
165. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when approaching
to a narrow runway, that he/she is at a:
A – lower height and the impression of landing slow
B – lower than actual height with the tendency to over-shoot
C – greater height and the impression of landing short
D – greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
Ans: D
166. A pilot may get the illusion of low altitude on approach although the aircraft is
on the correct glide path:
A – on night approaches only
B – when the runway is unusually narrow
C – when the runway is wider than he is used to
D – depending on the approach speed of the aircraft
Ans: C
167. Among the factors which can cause illusions while taxiing are:
A – distance from the edge of the taxiway and taxi lighting
B – visibility and distance
C – relative movement and cockpit height above the ground
D – distance from the edge of the taxiway and cockpit lighting
Ans: C
An illusion of obtaining greater height above ground can occur when:
A – accelerating at low altitude
B – suddenly flying over small trees after prolonged flying over tall trees
C – decelerating at low altitude
D – flying over high terrain in low visibility
Ans: B
168. At which altitude (within the “indifferent zone”) may a degradation of night
vision occur?
A – 5000m – 7000m
B – 3000m – 5000m
C – From approximately 1600m
D – up to 5000m
Ans: C
169. Auto-kinesis can give the pilot the impression that:
A – lights are further away than in fact they are
B – the aircraft is climbing
C – lights from ships are stars
D – a star is another aircraft
Ans: D
170. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
3. an obstruction in the outer ear
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
A – 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
B – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
171. Does noise (above 90 dbs) improve performance?
A – Never
B – Depends upon the awareness of the individual
C – Sometimes
D – Yes
Ans: A
172. During poor weather conditions a pilot should fly with reference to
instruments because:
A – his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions
B – perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low
contrast
C – the danger of a “greying out” will make it impossible to determine the
height above the terrain
D – pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information
Ans: B
173. Flying a co-ordinated level turn will
A – make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the
body’s vertical axis
B – first give the impression of climb, then the impression of descent
C – make the blood being pooled in the head
D – make the body’s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the
body’s vertical axis
Ans: D
174. Generally, the time required for dark adaptation is:
A – 10 sec
B – 30 min
C – 1/10 sec
D – 10 min
Ans: B
175. How can vertigo be prevented in conditions of good visibility?
A – By looking at the horizon
B – By closing the eyes momentarily
C – By looking approximately 5o to one side of an object
D – by avoiding blinking
 Ans: A
176. Hypoxia can affect night vision
A – less than day vision
B – at approximately 5000 ft
C – and causes the auto-kinetic phenomena
D – and causes the Coriolis Effect
Ans: B
177. If warned of an imminent thunderstorm:
A – no specific action is advised with regards to the adjustment of the
brightness of cockpit lights
B – cockpit lights should be dimmed
C – cockpit lights should be turned off
D – cockpit lights should be turned up
Ans: D
178. Illusions that pilots experience in conditions of fog or mist are that:
A – Objects appear closer than they really are and lead to steep approaches
B – Objects appear closer than they really are and lead to shallow approaches
C – Objects appear further away than they really are and lead to shallow
approaches
D – Objects appear further away than they really are and can lead to steep
approaches
Ans: C
Night vision is significantly reduced (ie. a loss of more than 25%) at 15,000 ft
in which stage of hypoxia?
A – Clinical manifestation phase
B – Indifferent
C – Compensatory
D – Anaemic phase
Ans: C
179. Night vision:
A – requires up to 30 minutes to reach its best performance
B – requires 5 minutes to reach its best performance
C – is insensitive to short duration light sources
D – is insensitive to lightning flashes in storms
Ans: A
180. On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glide slope
information:\
A – there is a risk of you underestimating your speed
B – judgement of height is extremely difficult
C – estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well-trained pilot
D – there is a risk of you entering a spin
Ans: B
181. On experiencing a vestibular illusion in straight and level flight, it is
recommended that:
A – you avoid head movements and rely on your instruments
B – you tilt your head to the side opposite to the turn to nullify the stimulus
causing the illusion
C – you close your eyes for a moment so that the occulo-vestibular conflict
disappears
D – you rely on your sensations only, as humans are much more reliable than
 flight instruments
Ans: A
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is:
A – carbon dioxide
B – protein
C – sugar
D – fat
Ans: A
182. Perceptional illusions are:
A – never caused by the brain’s ability to distort normal sense inputs
B – usually not serious except in bad weather
C – abnormal and indicate weakness in one or more of the senses
D – normal and can be prevented by trusting instrument read-out
Ans: D
183. State the conditions which cause the “black hole effect” and the danger to
flight safety
A – The “black hole effect” can be caused by flying over water at night on the
approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a
higher altitude than it is, leading to a high approach being flown
B – The “black hole effect” can be caused by flying over featureless terrain on
the approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is
at a higher altitude than it is, leading to a high approach being flown
C – The “black hole effect” can be caused by flying over water at night on the
approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a
higher altitude than it is, leading to a low approach being flown
D – The “black hole effect” can be caused by flying under instruments with
poor cockpit lighting and can lead to disorientation
Ans: C
Stimuli must be of a certain strength for the receptors to pick them up. This is
called:
A – Sensory threshold
B – Sensory filter
C – Sensory strength
D – Sensory volume
Ans: A
184. The “Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense”:
A – can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space
B – is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body
position in space
C – can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
D – can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in
visual and instrument meteorological conditions
Ans: C
185. The 5 human senses tend to adapt
A – This statement is untrue. Touch is the exception
B – This statement is true
C – This statement is untrue. None adapt
D – This statement is untrue. Only sight adapts (ie night flying)
Ans: B
186. The approximate time required for complete adaptation of the eye to the
 surrounding light is:
A – for night 10 sec and for day 30 min
B – for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of
illumination 30 minutes
C – for day and night: 30 min
D – for both day and night: 30 min
Ans: D
The Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) regulates:
A – reflexes, body temperature and reasoning
B – motor programmes and reflexes
C – reflexes only
D – sweating, arterial pressure, body temperature and the General Adaptation
Syndrome
Ans: D
187. The cornea and the crystalline lens of the eye:
A – allow for the regulation of the amount of light admitted into the eye
B – keep the retina clean and healthy
C – cause the convergence of light rays on to the retina
D – permit the reception and conversion of visual stimuli to images interpreted
by the brain
Ans: C
188. The damaging effects of noise on the pilot depends on:
1. The intensity of the noise
2. The frequency of the noise
3. The exposure time to noise
4. Proper use of the headset in the cockpit
Which of the following lists al the correct statements?
A – 1 and 4
B – 2, 3 and 4
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4
D – 3 only
Ans: C
The fovea is:
A – the area of best day vision and best night vision
B – the area of the blind spot (optic disc)
C – where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
D – the area of best day vision and of reduced value at night
Ans: D
189. The human vestibular system performs spatial orientation by:
A – measuring linear and radial acceleration within the inner ear
B – comparing the body’s position to gravity over the tympanic membrane
C – comparing linear and radial speeds of the body to the attitude of the
aircraft
D – measuring fluid movements in the tympanic membrane of the middle ear
Ans: A
190. The ossicles (the malleus, incus and stapes) are:
A – located in the inner ear
B – located in the middle ear
C – located in the outer ear
D – are not located in the ear
 Ans: B
191. The proprioceptors do not orient an individual to his/her surroundings, but
informs him/her of:
A – the condition in the body itself
B – a touch on the skin
C – our surroundings
D – the relative motion and relative position of his body part
Ans: D
The somatogravic illusion gives the pilot a false impression of:
A – descending and turning to the left
B – climbing or descending
C – climbing and turning to the right
D – descending and turning to the right
Ans: B
192. The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate, etc over which
there is no voluntary control is:
A – the local nervous system
B – the autonomic nervous system
C – the critical nervous system
D – non-existent, as all these functions are under conscious control
Ans: B
193. the time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
A – 10 minutes
B – 5 minutes
C – 25 – 30 minutes
D – 10 seconds
Ans: C
194. To prevent empty field myopia at higher altitudes:
A – it is recommended that a pilot focuses on an object known to be
approximately one metre away
B – it is recommended that a pilot uses short sharp scans, or periodically
focuses on a distant object such as a wing tip or cloud edge
C – one should concentrate only on instruments
D – one should book an appointment with an ophthalmologist as soon as
possible
Ans: B
Vision of terrain relief (eg. hills, valleys, etc)
A – is based on binocular vision at short distances and the rules of proportion
and perspective for objects that are further away
B – is impossible with only one eye
C – is possible at only at distances over 200m due to binocular vision
D – is impossible if a pilot wears sunglasse
Ans: A
195. What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System and where is vision
processed?
A – The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is
processed at the retina
B – The brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is
processed at the cerebellum
C – the brain and the brain stem are the main parts of the CNS and vision is
 processed at the optic nerve centre
D – The brain and spinal chord are the main parts of the CNS and vision is
processed at the cortex
Ans: D
196. What can cause spatial disorientation?
A – Reference to well-defined external visual references such as the horizon
B – Damage to the receptor cells in the eyes
C – False perception of orientation of the aircraft with respect to spatial
references
D – Flying in clear daylight conditions
Ans: C
what factors can lead to a deterioration in vision?
1. Hypoxia
2. Smoking
3. Poor diet, lacking Vitamin A
4. Exposure to bright lights
Which of the following lists all the correct statements?
A – 2 and 3
B – 1 and 3
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4
D – 1, 3 and 4
Ans: C
197. What human function is most sensitive to lack of oxygen?
A – Motor co-ordination
B – Night vision
C – Hearing
D - Touch
Ans: B
198. What is the correct action to counteract vertigo?
A – Concentrate on the vertical speed indicator
B – Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe again
normally
C – Believe the instruments
D – Rely on the information from the semi-circular canals, since these will be
transmitting correct information
Ans: C
When might a pilot have the sensation of a nose-low attitude?
A – When climbing at greater than 2000 ft/min
B – During linear acceleration
C – When turning (angular acceleration)
D – When decelerating in straight, horizontal flight
Ans: D
199. When scanning, how does the eye move and how is smooth vision achieved?
A – The eyes move in short jerky movements called saccades. Smooth vision
is created by the cerebellum
B – The eyes move in short jerky movements called saccades. Smooth vision
is achieved in the visual cortex
C – The eyes move in short jerky movements which last for approximately 1/3
of a second. Smooth vision is achieved by the optic nerve centre
D – The eyes move in short jerky movements which last for several seconds.
 Smooth vision is achieved by the cerebellum
Ans: B
200. When the weather is foggy, on approach, a pilot may get a feeling of:
A – his/her visual field shrinking (ie tunnel vision)
B – the airfield being further away than actually is
C – his/her eyes focusing on infinity
D – aircraft altitude being lower than it actually is
Ans: B
201. Which counter-measure can a pilot use against a barotraumas of the middle
ear
A – Stop chewing and swallowing movements
B – Increase the rate of descent
C – Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
D – Use drugs against a cold
Ans: C
While flying VFR “wings level” on top of clouds at 10,000 feet, your artificial
horizon indicates a 20 degree bank.
A – No attitude correction is needed since you know that your vision is more
reliable than the instrument with regards to spatial orientation
B – You pull the circuit breaker to the artificial horizon knowing that
perceptional illusions called “leans” might severely impair your control of
the aircraft
C – You take the proper action by “leaning” toward the lower end of the
artificial horizon, thus compensating for the perceptional illusion
D – You trust the instrument and level off according to the instrument read-out
Ans: D
202. You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45m) to a small airfield
(runway width 25m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of
performing a:
A – low approach with undershoot
B – high approach with overshoot
C – high approach with undershoot
D – low approach with overshoot
Ans: A
203. Disorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:
1. flying in IMC
2. frequently changing between inside and outside references
3. flying from IMC into VMC
4. approaching over still water at night
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
Health and hygiene
1. After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feetof depth) you have to wait a period of
time before flying again. This period is at least:
A – 48 hours
B – 12 hours
C – 6 hours
 D – 24 hours
Ans: D
2. When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the
pilot intends to fly, attention has to be paid to:
A – the effect they have on hearing
B – the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness
C – schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications
D – the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under
the influence of those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep
Ans: B
3. Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to:
A – 15,000 feet
B – 10,000 to 12,000 feet
C – 20,000 feet
D – 25,000 feet
Ans: B
4. The sleep pattern is closely associated with:
A – Heart rate
B – Adrenal gland
C – Blood pressure
D – Body temperature
Ans: D
How can you determine if a person is suffering a barotraumas of the sinuses of
the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis)?
A – Barotrauma of the middle ear will not affect hearing
B – Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
C – Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
D – There is no difference
Ans: C
5. It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
A - although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is
very small it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the
Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen, gentle descents at high altitude
would result in damage to the ear drum
B – the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be
swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the
middle ear and the nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can
result, particularly during fast descents
C – swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic
production resulting in hyperventilation
D – because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
Ans: B
6. The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate
of metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is
about:
A – 0.2 – 0.25 mg % per hour
B – 0.02 – 0.05 mg % per hour
C – 0.01 – 0.015 mg % per hour
D – 0.3 – 0.35 mg % per hour
Ans: C
astigmatism is normally caused by:
A – A lack of accommodation
B – A lack of vitamin A
C – A lack of empty field
D – A mis-shapened cornea
Ans: D
7. To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be:
A – double the resting heart rate of at least 20 minutes, three times a week
B – avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
C – double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
D – triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
Ans: A
8. Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot’s performance:
A – the primary and the side effects have to be considered
B – the side effects only have to be considered
C – medication has no influence on pilot’s performance
D – only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects are negligible
Ans: A
9. The body loses water via:
1. the skin and the lungs
2. the kidneys
A – both are false
B – 1 is correct and 2 is not correct
C – 1 is not correct and 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: D
10. Which statement is correct?
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from coronary heart disease
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals physiological altitude during
flight
3. Smokers have a greater chance for lung cancer
A – 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
C – 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: D
11. A slight lack of co-ordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate
and precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is
exceeding:
A – 0.15% blood alcohol
B – 0.1% blood alcohol
C – 0.05% blood alcohol
D – 0.2% blood alcohol
Ans: C
12. Presbyopia is:
A – myopia
B – short sightedness
C – far sightedness linked with age
D – high intraocular pressure
Ans: C
13. Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:
1. flatulence
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. pressure vertigo
4. pain in the nasal sinuses
Ans: B
14. Someone who has anaemia has:
A – not enough white blood cells
B – not enough platelets
C – not enough plasma
D – not enough functional haemoglobin
Ans: D
15. At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute)
of an adult is approximately:
A – 450 ml/min
B – 5 litres/min
C – 45 litres/min
D – 75 litres/min
Ans: B
16. The Eustachian tube is the passage way between the:
A – sinuses and the pharynx
B – nose, pharynx and inner ear
C – nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
D – nasopharynx and the middle ear
Ans: D
17. Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
A – bends
B – pain in the sinuses
C – chokes
D – hypoxia
Ans: B
Exchange of gases between the body and the environment takes place at the:
A – central nervous system
B – heart
C – muscles
D – lungs
Ans: D
18. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:
1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
3. an obstruction in the auditory duct
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
Ans: C
19. Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by:
1. anaemia
2. smoking in the cockpit
 3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
A – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: D
Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by
A – the intensity of the noise but not its duration
B – the duration of a noise but not its intensity
C – the suddenness of onset of a noise
D – the duration and intensity of a noise
Ans: D
20. Which of the following staements are correct?
1. Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities
2. Man has effective natural protection against intense cold
3. Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses
up a lot of energy
4. Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature of
less than 35oC
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 2, 4
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: B
21. Which of the following is most true?
A – Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the
metabolic rate
B – Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way
to lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
C – Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective
way to lose weight
D – Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential
in order to lose weight
Ans: B
The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on
qualification to fly for the following reasons:
1. The disease requiring a treatment may be cause for disqualification
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the body to a treatment
3. Drugs my cause adverse side effects impairing flight safety
4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when
the treatment is stopped
A – 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – Only 2 is false
Ans: C
22. Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may:
A – intensify the effects of the drugs
B – compensate for side effects of drugs
 C – show undesired effects only during night flights
D – increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood
Ans: A
23. Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
A – Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
B – Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of
alcohol
C – Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal
cautionary attitudes may be lost
D – Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken
Ans: C
Disturbances of pressure equalisation in air-filled cavities of the head 9nose,
ear etc) are called:
A – ebulism
B – hypoxia
C – hyperventilation
D – barotrauma
Ans: D
24. Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate):
A – depends on whether you get some sleep in between drinks
B – is approximately 0.3% per hour
C – is approximately 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
D – definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been
eaten
Ans: C
25. Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotraumas of the
middle ear (aerotitis):
A – stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
B – increase the rate of descent
C – stop chewing and swallowing movements (Valsalva)
D – use drugs against a cold
Ans: A
26. Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur:
A – when climbing
B – in sudden steep turns
C – when descending rapidly
D – during a long high altitude flight
Ans: C
27. Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses):
A – are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects
B – are advantageous for pilots
C – can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to the dependence
on ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass
D – are generally forbidden for pilots
Ans: C
28. Which is correct:
1. Paradoxic sleep refreshes the brain, memory and body
2. Paradoxic sleep decreases during the night
A – 1 and 2
B – 1 only
 C – 2 only
D – Neither
Ans: D
29. Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities:
A – can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
B – will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
C – will have no effect at all
D – may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are
much better to be identified
Ans: A
When assessing an individual’s risk in developing coronary artery disease, the
following factors may contribute:
1. obesity
2. distress
3. smoking
4. family history
A – Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
Ans: C
30. The metabolisation of alcohol:
A – can be accelerated even more by coffee
B – can be influenced by easy to get medication
C – is a question of time
D – is quicker when used to it
Ans: C
31. Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body:
A – Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount
of alcohol
B – A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity
C – An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol
D – When drinking coffee, the human body metabolises alcohol at a faster rate
than normal
Ans: A
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells
which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is:
A – tar
B – nicotine
C – carbon monoxide
D – lead
Ans: A
32. Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause
the following undesirable effects:
1. Drowsiness, dizziness
2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
4. Impaired depth perception
5. Nausea
A – only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
 B – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – only 1 is correct
D – 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
Ans: D
33. Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are
long-term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot
can get:
A – a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot’s tolerance to
hypoxia
B – a suppressed desire to eat and drink
C – a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot’s tolerance to
hypoxia
D – a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot’s tolerance to
hypoxia
Ans: C
Glaucma is characterised by:
1. disturbed light adaptation
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field
3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intro-ocular pressure
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
D – 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
Ans: C
34. Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
A – pressure differences on both sides of the ear drum
B – a blocked Eustachian tube
C – damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to over-exposure to
noise
D – reduced mobility of the ossicles
Ans: C
35. Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when exposed
to extreme high environmental temperatures?
1. Shivering
2. Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
3. Sweating
4. Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 3, 4
D–1
Ans: C
36. Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
A – air pressure increases
B – altitude decreases
C – altitude increases
D – relative humidity decreases
Ans: C
37. The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is:
 A – carbon monoxide
B – tar
C – the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
D – nicotine
Ans: D
38. A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor’s
prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is
correct:
A – the side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as
to be ignored by pilots
B – they will cause a condition of over-arousal
C – a pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from
an aviation medical specialist if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the
same time
D – they have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during
flight
Ans: C
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8000 feet. You advise
him to:
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbohydrated beverages before flight
in the future
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1 and 3 not advisable
D – only 4 is correct
Ans: A
39. We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia:
A – a rapid fall in ambient temperature
B – a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral
temperature at the skin is stable
C – reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37oC
D – greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
Ans: C
40. The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below
35oC:
A – shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
B – the appearance of intense shivering
C – mental disorders, and even coma
D – profuse sweating
Ans: A
The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:
A – rods located in its central par
B – crystalline lens
C – rods located in its peripheral zone
D – cones located in its central par
Ans: D
41. Which of the following statements are correct:
 1. Scuba diving may be practised without restriction
2. Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with flight safety
3. An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying
4. Diet has no repercussion on health
A – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 2 and 3 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: B
42. Our body takes its energy from:
1. minerals
2. protein
3. carbohydrates
4. vitamins
A – 1, 3
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 4
Ans: B
Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot
is exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
A – Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a
long period of time
B – When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body
will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are experienced
C – Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste
D – A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide
can seriously affect a pilot’s ability to operate an aircraft
Ans: D
43. What is “peer pressure”?
A – pressure caused by too much information
B – Self-imposed pressure by trying to live up to others performance or
expectation
C – Self-imposed pressure by trying to prepare for flight test examinations
D – A situation where an individual is pressured to perceive (peer-pressured)
to understand a complicated task
Ans: B
44. What is dysbarism?
A – Dysbarism refers to the various medical problems caused by gas
expansion induced by decreased barometric pressure
B – A meter used to measure pressure and volume changes
C – The combined effects of Boyles and Daltons Law
D – Dysbarism refers to the various medical problems caused by body
chemical imbalance
Ans: A
What may predispose a person for a heart attack?
A – Smoking, high cholesterol level, diet or blood pressure
B – Smoking, asthma, alcohol use and high blood pressure
C – Age and stress
D – Family history of asthma, smoking, over exertion and weight
 Ans: A
45. The phenomena called empty-field myopia is a problem for pilots when:
A – Wearing polarised lenses
B – Scanning for traffic at night (night blind spot)
C – Attempting to scan for traffic in a featureless sky
D – An object appears to have different shapes when viewed at varying
distances
Ans: C
46. Astigmatism is:
A – A condition caused by an equal curvature of the cornea
B – An error in refraction in which the lens of the eye does not focus an image
directly on the retina
C – A result of the normal ageing process
D – A condition caused by an unequal curvature of the lens of the eye
Ans: D
47. What is astigmatism?
A – The inability to focus different meridians simultaneously (eg. cannot see
vertical antenna and horizontal wires at the same time)
B – Cannot see one or more colour
C – Cannot focus well on an object far away
D – Reduced vision of only one eye
Ans: A
What is presbyopia?
A – The lack of ability to resolve shapes and fine details of an object
B – A result of the normal ageing process
C – Presbyopia causes the lens to harden
D – Both B and C are correct
Ans: D
48. How can a poor diet influence vision?
A – Vitamin D is essential for night vision
B – Vitamin C is an essential element in the build-up of conedospin (visual
purple) in the cone cells. Without this, night vision is degraded
C – Vitamin A is an essential element in the build-up of rhodopsin (visual
purple); without this, night vision is degraded
D – A correct blood sugar level is an essential element in the build-up of
conedospin (visual purple) in the cone cells; without this, night vision is
degraded
Ans: C
49. How can noise damage hearing?
A – Noise can fatigue the hearing rod cells and cause noise induced loss of
hearing
B – Exposure to loud noise may fatigue the hair cells so much that they need
several hours of quiet before they can revert to their normal state
C – If noise exposure is loud enough or continues too long, these hair cells
may not return to their normal state
D – Both B and C are correct
Ans: D
50. A pilot should not fly immediately after donating blood because:
A – your heart rate is too low after blood-donation
B – the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
 C – your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation
D – you have an increased susceptibility to fainting
Ans: D
51. Alcohol degrades:
A – stage 3 and 4 sleep
B – slow wave sleep
C – stage 2 sleep
D – paradoxical sleep
Ans: D
52. Among the measures that a pilot should taken when in an area where gastro-
intestinal upsets are endemic is:
A – avoidance of cooked fruits
B – avoidance of cooked meats
C – avoidance of ice in cold drinks
D – avoidance of curries or gassy foods
Ans: C
53. Among the symptoms of hypoglycaemia are:
A – Difficulty in focussing on near-by objects
B – Double vision and puffiness around the eyes
C – Severe eye and head aches
D – Headache and lack of concentration
Ans: D
54. Approximately how long will a blood/alcohol level of 60 mgm/100 ml take to
return to normal?
A – 4 hours
B – 20 hours
C – 12 hours
D – 1 hour
Ans: A
Barotrauma is caused by an increase or decrease in the volume of the gases
contained in the body’s cavities. Which, in practice, are the most frequent
locations of such problems?
A – Facial sinuses, middle ear and dental cavities
B – Inner ear, facial sinuses and stomach
C – Facial sinuses, outer ear and stomach
D – Dental cavities, outer ear and eyes
Ans: A
55. By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer
ear be balanced?
A – By breathing in
B – By swallowing
C – By breathing out
D – By coughing
Ans: B
56. Caffeine may cause an increase in cardiac rate, restlessness/nervousness,
insomnia, anxiety and intestinal irritability. Excessive consumption is
considered to be in excess of:
A – 40-65 mg/day
B – 3 mg/day
C – 250 mg/day
 D – 150 mg/day
Ans: C
57. Cataract is caused by:
A – A clouding of the lens
B – Lack of mobility of the cornea
C – A lack of accommodation at the cornea
D – A mis-shapened cornea
Ans: A
58. Disruptions of pressure equalisation in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear
etc) are called:
A – hypoxia
B – embolism
C – barotraumas
D – hyperventilation
Ans: C
59. Equalisation of air pressure between the outer and the middle ear is:
A – more important during climb because the lower pressure within the middle
ear can damage the tympanic membrane
B – impossible during descent because the pressure within the middle ear is
higher than in the ambient air
C – important to prevent pain and loss of hearing during flight
D – difficult to achieve when pressure changes are at a low rate
Ans: C
60. Even at normal cabin altitudes (ie. around 8000 ft) you can get severe
abdominal pain and flatulence after eating gas forming foods or fizzy drinks.
The correct counter-measure is:
A – climb to a higher altitude
B – descend to a lower altitude
C – perform “valsalva manoeuvre”
D – use supplemental oxygen
Ans: B
61. Excessive intake of aspirin can cause:
A – Memory impairment
B – Sensory loss
C – Fits
D – Gastric bleeding
Ans: D
62. Flying a non-pressurised light aircraft at 9,000 feet your passenger develops
blue lips:
A – you will attempt to calm him/her and occupying the passenger with
suitable tasks
B – you supply him with extra oxygen, but do not reduce altitude as the partial
pressure of oxygen never results in symptoms below 10,000 feet
C – assuming he is hyperventilating you order him to stop breathing while you
supply additional oxygen
D – assuming he is suffering from hypoxia you reduce altitude and supply
him/her with oxygen
Ans: D
63. Glaucoma is due to:
A – Excess light on the eyeball
 B – Drop in pressure of the liquid around the eye
C – Damage to the eyeball due to high altitude
D – increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye
Ans: D
64. Having a cold or an infection of the upper respiratory tract you:
A – should not fly because the congestion of the frontal sinuses may cause
great pain which can seriously affect your ability to control yourself and
the aircraft
B – may accept to fly an ambulance flight because “Sinus squeeze” is rare and
represents a minor danger to aviation
C – must be careful when flying because the infection may cause
hyperglycaemia
D – should not fly because the infection may cause hypoxia due to congestion
in the nose
Ans: A
Hepatitis ‘A’ is transmitted through:
A – bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin
B – droplets in the air caused by the breath of an infected person
C – insect bites
D – food or water which has been contamined
Ans: D
65. Cholera can be transmitted through:
A – insect bites
B – Droplets in the air caused by the breath of an infected person
C – Food or water which has been contaminated
D – Bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin
Ans: C
66. In order to avoid hypoglycaemia:
A – a pilot should not take snacks between meals
B – a pilot should never eat sugar or sweets
C – peanuts are recommended because of their high energy value
D – a pilot should eat regularly and ensure he/she has a balanced diet
Ans: D
67. In tropical zones, it is recommended that:
A – one eats raw vegetables
B – one uses ice cubes in cold drinks
C – cold drinks be taken from sealed containers
D – one eats fruit without peeling them, to ensure a supply of vitamin
Ans: C
In-flight incapacitation of a pilot is most frequently caused by:
A – behavioural disorders
B – chronic pulmonary disorders
C – cardio-vascular disorders
D – acute gastrointestinal disorders
Ans: D
68. Loss of elasticity of the crystalline lens due to ageing occurs in:
A – astigmatism
B – myopia
C – hypermetropia
D – presbyopia
 Ans: D
69. Medical conditions such as high blood pressure, coronary problems and
diabetes are associated with:
A – cholera
B – anorexia nervosa
C – obesity
D – hypoxia
Ans: C
70. Physical exercise in high temperatures (tropical climates) may:
A – cause the pilot to collapse, due to an excess of fluid in the body
B – cause painful muscle and abdominal cramps
C – increase a pilot’s resistance to decompression sickness
D – cause dysentery
Ans: B
71. Presbyopia causes a:
A – lack of Vitamin A
B – decrease of accommodation
C – lack of empty field
D – mis-shapened corner
Ans: B
72. Smoking 3 cigarettes in 1 hour at sea level will:
A – not affect night vision when flying at sea level
B – cause a lower degree of hypoxic tolerance
C – increase your G-tolerance considerably by increasing blood pressure
D – prevent serious hyperventilation due to sedation effect of nicotine
Ans: B
73. Tetanus is transmitted through:
A – Food or water which has been contaminated
B – Droplets in the air caused by the breath of an infected person
C – Insect bites
D – Bacteria in the form of spores via a puncture in the skin
Ans: D
74. The ability to withstand g forces is reduced by a number of factors, among
these factors are:
A – Hypoxia, fatigue and vibrations
B – Low blood sugar, obesity and hypoxia
C – Smoking, obesity and vibrations
D – Physical fitness, heat and hypotension
Ans: B
75. The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells
which develop a cancer) in cigarettes is:
A – tar
B – nicotine
C – carbon monoxide
D – lead
Ans: A
76. The dry atmosphere of the flight deck may caused dehydration, which may
lead to a reduction in the ability to pay attention. To prevent this, it is
appropriate to:
A – drink tea
 B – drink plenty of coffee
C – drink cool cola drinks
D – drink sufficient non-carbonated liquids
Ans: D
77. The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or
cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off:
1. take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the
flight
2. assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of the doctor
3. if in doubt about fitness to fly – do not fly
4. reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to
avoid dehydration
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 3
C – 1, 4
D – 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
78. The following three conditions will decrease your G-tolerance:
A – cold, 30 degrees backward tilted sitting position, short body (short stature)
B – obesity, alcohol, sleep deprivation
C – loss of body fluids, full stomach, 20 degrees backward tilted sitting
position
D – old age, short body (short stature), an empty stomach
Ans: B
79. The most dangerous type of incapacitation in flight is one that:
A – develops slowly and gradually (insidious)
B – occurs very quickly
C – is not severe in its effect
D – is temporary
Ans: A
80. The organ which metabolises alcohol from the body is the:
A – liver
B – spleen
C – pancreas
D – kidney
Ans: A
81. The phases of General Adaptation Syndrome are:
A – Emergency, Medical and Recovery
B – Alarm, Resistance and Exhaustion
C – Emergency, Resistance and Exhaustion
D – Alarm, Resistance and Recovery
Ans: B
To avoid incapacity due to gastro-intestinal problems, it is recommended that
a simple, easily digested meal before boarding the aircraft should be
accompanied by:
A – wine or beer
B – non-carbonated water
C – carbonated water
D – no drinks, as fluids are not importan
Ans: B
82. To prevent gastro-intestinal problems in tropical climates you should:
1. not eat salad or raw vegetables
2. always peel fruit
3. only eat food that has been properly cooked
4. avoid ice cream
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?

A – 1, 2, 3 and 4
B – 1 and 2
C – 1, 2 and 3
D – 2 and 4
Ans: A
83. Trace elements should be obtained through:
A – a balanced diet
B – vitamin pills
C – eating plenty of meat and vegetables
D – dairy products and vegetables
Ans: A
What diseases can be associated with contaminated water?
A – Hydrophobia, Cholera, Dysentery
B – Tetanus, Typhoid, Cholera
C – Tetanus, Typhoid, Cholera, Dysentery
D – Typhoid, Cholera, Dysentery
Ans: D
84. What is meant by presbycusis?
A – Gradual loss of hearing with age
B – Total loss of hearing in one ear due to use of a headset in the cockpit
C – Total loss of hearing in both ears due to disease
D – Gradual onset of long-sightedness with age
Ans: A
85. When considering the eating habits of pilots:
A – a heavy supper is best
B – low fibre and low protein/carbohydrate diet is ideal
C – breakfast should bring about 25% of the daily calorie intake
D – high intake of chocolate is recommended before flight to prevent
reactional hypoglycaemia
Ans: C
86. Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?
A – Look directly at the object
B – Look to the side 910 – 15 deg) of the object
C – Blink your eyes
D – Look with one eye
Ans: B
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8000 feet. You advise
him to:
1. press his stomach in gently
2. stand up in order to release the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before
A – 1 and 3 not advisable
B – 2, 3 are correct
 C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – only 4 is correct
Ans: C
BASIC AVIATION PSYCHOLOGY
040-03-01 Human information processing
1. Divided attention is the ability:
1. To execute several mental activities at almost the same time (ie. when
switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed indicator on
the instrument panel)
2. To monitor the progress of a motor programme (ie flying or taxiing the
airplane) on a relatively subconscious level, while making a radio call at
the same time 9requiring a rather conscious level)
3. To select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the
same time no other operation can be performed
4. To delegate tasks to the co-pilot while concentrating on the procedures
A – Only 3 is false
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
D – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
Ans: D
2. The first stage in the information process is:
A – the recognition of information
B – selective attention
C – perception
D – sensory stimulation
Ans: D
3. Working memory:
A – is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
B – is unlimited in size
C – is unlimited in duration
D – varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot
Ans: A
4. Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory?
1. It is limited in time and size
2. It is unlimited in time and limited in size
3. It is stable and insensitive to disturbance
4. It is limited in time and unlimited in size
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 3
C–1
D – 2, 3
Ans: C
5. The capacity of the short-term memory is
A – unlimited
B – very limited – only one item
C – about 30 items
D – about 7 items
Ans: D
6. The cocktail party effect is:
 A – the ability to drink too much at social gathering
B – the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
C – the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of
the world
D – the tendency not to perceive relevant information
Ans: B
7. 6870. According to Wickens theory, the human brain has:
A – processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks
call for the same resources
B – unlimited information-processing resources
C – cognitive resources which are centred on action
D – different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the
information-gathering, information-processing or action phase
Ans: D
8. What are the main signs indicating the loss of vigilance?
1. Decrease in sensory perception
2. Increase in selective attention
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness
4. Decrease in complacency
A – 2, 4
B – 1, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
9. The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to
computers because of its:
A – speed
B – flexibility
C – working memory capacity
D – independency from attention
Ans: B
10. What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism?
A – Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect,
while possible alternates are neglected
B – They always lead to routine errors
C – The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant
information
D – The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard
to necessary decisions
Ans: A
11. Mental schemes correspond to:
A – daily planning of probable dangerous situations
B – the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular
situation
C – memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-
over to a new machine
D – memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which
can be reactivated by the pilot at will
Ans: D
12. In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately
 A – 20 seconds
B – 5 minutes
C – 1 hour
D – a couple of days
Ans: A
13. Working memory enables us, for example:

A – to remember our own name

B – to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds
C – to ignore messages for other aircraft
D – to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
Ans: D
14. The main limit(s) of long-term is (are):
A – the data storage time
B – the quantity of data which may be stored
C – the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during
the day, which comes to saturate it
D – Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
Ans: D
15. Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory
A – it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimited in
terms of storage time
B – its storage capacity is unlimited
C – it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of
capacity
D – its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches
effective
Ans: B
16. What is divided attention?
A – Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
B – Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
C – Alternative management of several matters of interest
D – The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one’s attention being
dispersed
Ans: C
17. 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a
stressful situation
2. An individual’s prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope
with it will determine the type and strength of stress
A – 1 and 2 are both correct
B – 1 is correct, 2 is false
C – 1 is false, 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both false
Ans: A
18. Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to:
A – drug influence
B – innate mechanisms
C – maturation
D – practice and experience
Ans: D
19. The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable
in their actions. This is called:
A – procedural consistency
B – mental model
C – knowledge-based behaviour
D – procedural confusion
Ans: A
20. The quality of learning:
A – is promoted by feedback on the value of one’s own performance
B – depends on long-term memory capacity
C – is independent of the level of motivation
D – is independent of age
Ans: A
21. Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?
1. Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and
schematic knowledge
2. The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the
frequency with which this same information is used
3. It processes information quickly and has an effective mode of access in
real time
4. Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access
time
A – 1 and 4 are correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 2, 2 and 4 are correct
D – 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
22. In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the
problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
A – decreasing
B – the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind
C – not applicable with old and experienced pilots
D – increasing
Ans: D
23. The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of
a critical situation:
A – makes no sense because the human information processing system is
limited anyway
B – is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
C – is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
D – is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real
world
Ans: C
24. Conscious perception:
A – relates to the correct recognition of colours
B – relies upon the development of intuition
C – involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain only
D – is a mental process involving experience and expectations
Ans: D
25. Motivation is a quality which is often considered vital in the pilots work to
maintain safety:
A – a high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient
knowledge in complete safety
B – is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
C – is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
D – is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real
world
Ans: C
26. The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an
actively monitored input channel is known as:
A – attention
B – perception
C – sensation
D – appreciation
Ans: A
27. Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are:
A – due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
B – associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
C – due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
D – solely induced in the absence of external reference points
Ans: B
28. How can the process of learning be facilitated?
A – By increasing the psychological pressure on the student
B – By reinforcing successful trials
C – By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
D – By reinforcing errors
Ans: B
29. To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term
memory, it is helpful to:
A – structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it
to memory
B – mentally rehearse information before it is needed
C – avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon
D – learn and store data in a logical and structured way
Ans: B
30. The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working
memory is:
A – about 30 items
B – unlimited
C – about 7 items
D – very limited – only 3 items
Ans: C
31. Information stays in the short-term memory:
A – less than 1 second
B – from 5 to 10 minutes
C – around 24 hours
D – about 20 seconds
Ans: D
32. Motor programmes are:
 A – stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under
continuous conscious control
B – stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without
continuous conscious control
C – rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
D – rules that enable us to deal with pre-conceived situations
Ans: B
33. Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual
interference?
A – Read and listen attentively
B – Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem
C – Listen attentively and solve a problem
D – Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory
Ans: B
34. Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pre-training is called the inner,
ideomotor simulation of actions.
A – It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
B – It is most important for self-control
C – It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination
D – It is more effective than training by doing
Ans: A
35. Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills:
A – only at a certain level of flying experience
B – at all levels of flying proficiency
C – only for student pilots
D – only for instructor pilots
Ans: B
36. A selective attentional mechanism is required:
A – because of the limitations of the sense organs
B – because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
C – because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working
memory
D – because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
Ans: C
37. Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot’s knowledge and
expertise:
A – Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis
B – because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
C – because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working
memory
D – because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
Ans: C
38. In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisble to:
A – establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in
real time)
B – plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions
C – avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks
D – plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance
Ans: A
39. The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages (Anderson model):
 A – automatic, cognitive and knowledge
B – cognitive, associative and autonomous
C – cognitive, associative and knowledge
D – associative, autonomous and expert
Ans: B
40. The gestalt laws formulates:

A – basic principles governing how objects are mentally organised and

perceived
B – basic principles governing the relationship between stress and
performance
C – basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience
D – basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and
performance
Ans: A
41. Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. Healthy living
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 3
D – 3, 4
Ans: A
42. Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct?
Hypovigilance:
A – tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the
operators attention
B – only affects certain personality types
C – may occur at any moment of the flight
D – essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase
Ans: C
43. What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance
(hypovigilance)?
1. The monotony of the task
2. Tiredness, the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation
4. Excessive stress
A – 1, 3
B – 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
44. What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints?
A – The preparation of action and time management
B – The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
C – The preparation of action and the application of procedures
D – The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
 Ans: D
45. In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities
to a knowledge-based activity?
A – The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
B – Attentional capture
C – Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
D – The unsuitability of the automated action
Ans: A
46. Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-
based level?
A – When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the
intended outcome
B – Failure of all the known rules
C – The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and
completely new
D – An automated cognitive check procedure
Ans: A
47. Getting uneasy will effect:
1. attention
2. concentration
3. memory
4. prudence
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
48. Whilst flying a co-ordinated turn, most of your activity is:
A – skill based behaviour
B – coping behaviour
C – knowledge based behaviour
D – rule based behaviour
Ans: A
49. The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and
conditions of the landing is:
A – always automated behaviour
B – skill based behaviour
C – knowledge based behaviour
D – pressure based behaviour
Ans: B
50. Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day
professional life?
1. Being in control of one’s own situation
2. Fear of punishment
3. Success (achievement of goals)
4. Social promotion, money
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 1, 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 4
 Ans: C
51. What are the various factors which guide attention?
1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations
A–1
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 3, 4
D–4
Ans: C
52. With regard to short-term memory, we can say that:
A – it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in
its capacity for storing and retaining data
B – it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in
terms of the time for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity
C – it mainly contains procedural knowledge
D – it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any
disturbance
Ans: A
53. 1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental
picture than boring information
2. The sequence in which information is offered is also important for the use
the pilot makes of it
A – 1 and 2 are both correct
B – 1 and 2 are both not correct
C – 1 is correct
D – 2 is correct
Ans: A
54. How can optimum arousal and vigilance be obtained?
A – Optimum arousal and vigilance are best obtained among two assertive
crew members
B – Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-
shaped curve. Deep sleep is at one end, extreme panic the other. Both
result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and vigilance are obtained
at the mid-point between the two
C – Experts believe that arousal and performance are related by an inverted V-
shaped curve. Both result in poor performance. Optimum arousal and
vigilance are obtained during low workload
D – Optimum vigilance, in its most acute forms, is an extremely agitated
condition. It is normally only obtained in a state of panic or near panic
Ans: B
55. Select the correct definition of vigilance:
A – Vigilance has always been important in aviation. A vigilant is one that
does not require consistent monitoring without lapses in attention
B – A vigilant task is one that requires consistent monitoring without lapses in
attention. Vigilance is simply defined as sustained attention
C – A vigilant task is one that requires assertive behaviour
D – The reception of the elements in the environment within a volume of
space and time, the comprehension of their meaning and the projection of
 their status in the near future
Ans: B
56. Give an example of vigilance:
A – Dividing your attention between technical and non-technical duties
B – A vigilant crew member notifies the entire crew of a problem
C – An example of vigilance would be to continuously scan for other aircraft
during a long flight
D – An example of vigilance would be when a crew member plans ahead and
is anticipating what will or could happen
Ans: C
57. What is hypovigilance?
A – Hypovigilance (hypervigilance), is in its most acute forms, an extremely
agitated state of panic or near panic. It is characterised by indiscriminate
attention to all sports of minor and major threat cues, as the person
frantically searches for means of escaping the anticipated danger
B – A rapid breathing pattern caused by stress
C – A rapid breathing pattern caused by fear
D – Both B and C are crrect
Ans: A
58. Anxiety can affect:
1. Judgement
2. Attention
3. Memory
4. Concentration
A – 1 only is correct
B – All are correct
C – 1, 2 and 4 only are correct
D – 1 and 2 only are correct
Ans: B
59. In a complex task high levels of arousal
A – narrow the span of attention
B – improve performance
C – lead to better decision-making
D – reduce failures
Ans: A
60. Information received from the senses is lost:
A – if you choose to store the information in one of the sensory memories (eg.
Iconic or Echoic memories)
B – if an additional action takes place (eg. pulling a circuit breaker or
extinguishing a warning light)
C – within 10 – 20 seconds unless it is rehearsed and deliberately placed in the
Long Term Memory
D – only if you suffer from brain damage or disease
Ans: C
61. Name the commonest problem of the Long Term Memory and how would you
counteract it?
A – Any item can be recalled from the LTM with ease as long as it has been
stored correctly
B – Unless an item \is recalled regularly, it becomes more and more difficult
to retrieve from the LTM store
 C – Facts can be stored in the episodic memory instead of the semantic
memory. Careful attention in learning will counteract this error
D – Recent events can become muddled in the LTM. Careful attention to
detail associated with “memory bench marking” will go a long way
towards avoiding this tendency
Ans: B
62. Our mental model of the world is based:
A – entirely on past experiences
B – entirely on the sensory information we receive
C – on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive
D – on both our past experiences and our motor programmes
Ans: C
63. The acquisition of a motor programme (skill) will mean that:
A – the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the
less it frees resources
B – the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the
more it frees resources
C – the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention
and thus the more it frees mental resources
D – the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more
it frees resources
Ans: C
64. The acquisition of a skill comprises three stages (Anderson model):
A – cognitive, associative and knowledge
B – cognitive, associative and automatic
C – associative, autonomous and expert
D – automatic, cognitive and knowledge
Ans: B
65. The Cocktail Party Effect is associated with:
A – attention mechanisms
B – communications
C – cohesion
D – adaptation
Ans: A
66. The long term memory is influenced by:
A – experience, repetition, suggestion, desires and expectations
B – the time of the day, gender, intelligence and blood pressure
C – short term memory only
D – short term memory and intelligence only
Ans: A
67. The main limitation of the long-term memory is:
A – the quantity of data which may be stored
B – unless information is accessed from time to time, retrieval of information
can be difficult
C – if enough information is entered at the same time, saturation may take
place
D – the data storage time
Ans: B
68. The most dangerous characteristic of perception is, that it:
A – will only occur under conditions of stress
 B – will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
C – is extremely resistant to correction
D – can easily be changed
Ans: C
69. The phases of learning a Motor Programme are:
A – Initial, Interim and Final phases
B – Cognitive, Associative and Automatic phases
C – 1st, 2nd and 3rd phases
D – Induction, Simulation and Practice phases
Ans: B
70. The Skill-based, Rule-based, Knowledge-based Model (Jens Rasmussen) is
associated with:
A – personality
B – risk
C – behaviour
D – motor programmes
Ans: C
71. What are the main limits of short-term memory?
1. very sensitive to interruptions and interference
2. difficult to access
3. limited in size
4. information is lost within approximately 20 seconds unless it is actively or
deliberately placed?
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 4
Ans: B
72. What are two types of attention?
A – Cognitive and intuitive
B – Intuitive and behavioural
C – Divided and behavioural
D – Selective an divided
Ans: D
73. Where on the arousal/performance graph is a pilot best placed to cope with a
difficult task without performance degrading?
A – At the “breakpoint”
B – Beyond the “breakpoint”
C – Below the “breakpoint”
D – at any point on the graph
Ans: C
Human error and reliability
1. The human performance is generally:
A – always better in the evening than in the morning
B – better very early in the morning
C – better when relaxed, independent of the period of day
D – constant throughout the day
Ans: C
2. How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
A – By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low
 B – By increasing error detection in all circumstances
C – by randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and
monitoring systems
D – By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross
monitoring)
Ans: D
3. The performance of the man machine system is above all:
A – a combination in which the pilot must keep the main repetitive tasks and
automated systems under his control in line with rule-based behaviour
B – a balanced combination between someone actively engaged in his work
and automated systems which serve to control the pilot’s workload
C – a combination which must make the pilot available for the sphere in which
he is most qualified, namely checking departures from the normal
operating range
D – a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot’s workload and
increasing his time for supervision
Ans: D
4. Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?
Active error is:
A – produced wither by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and
results in a hidden or latent consequence at a specific moment of the
action
B – produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and
consequences which it induces on the overall action
C – essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor
application of a good rule by airplane designers
D – rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it
usually occurs in a complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary
deviations
Ans: B
5. The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagels model describes
various directly observable types of erroneous actions which are:
1. Repetition and omission
2. The forward leap and the backward leap
3. Intrusion and anticipation
4. Intrusion
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 1, 3
C – 2, 4
D – 1, 2, 3
Ans: A
6. It is desirable to standardise as many patterns of behaviour (operating
procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because:
A – such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances
B – this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection
C – this reduces the amount of training required
D – it makes the flight deck easier to design
Ans: A
7. Environmental capture is a term used to describe which of the following
statements:
 1. The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it is
frequently exercised, even it is inappropriate to do so
2. The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a
new aircraft type, even if it is inappropriate to do so
3. The tendency for people to behave in different ways in different social
situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills
Ans: A
8. What are the various means which allow for better error detection?
1. Improvement of the man-machine interface
2. Development of systems for checking the consistency of situations
3. Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures by the crew
4. Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 1, 2 and 3
B – 1 and 3
C – 2, 3 and 4
D – 3 and 4
Ans: A
9. What are the main consequences of latent errors?
They
1. Remain undetected in the system for a certain length of time
2. May only manifest themselves under certain conditions
3. Are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose mental schemes on
the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors
4. Lull the pilots into security. The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 2, 3 and 4
B – 1 and 2
C – 1 and 3
D – 1, 2 and 4
Ans: D
10. When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?
When:
A – latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety
B – its safety system is too permeable to error
C – its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors
D – the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety
Ans: D
11. Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from:
1. The capture of a poor action sub-programme
2. A mistake in the decision making process
3. The application of a poor rule
4. An action mode error
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
12. With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be
said that age:
 A – has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her
flight experience
B – sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive
capabilities
C – has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
D – increase in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate
Ans: A
13. According to Rasmussen’s model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-
based control mode:
A – creative errors
B – routine errors
C – knowledge errors
D – handling errors
Ans: B
14. Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error? Latent
errors:
A – are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are
only detected after advanced problem-solving
B – rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in
progress
C – have been present in the system for a certain length of time and are
difficult to understand as a result of the time lag between the generation
and the occurrence of the error
D – are rarely made by front-line operators and are consequently readily
identified and detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links
Ans: C
15. What are the main characteristics of active errors?
They:
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing may be affected
significantly
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 4
Ans: A
16. Select the most correct statement about human error.
A – To minimise human error, one must first understand its nature
B – The definition of human error as used to improve aviation safety, can put
the blame on the individuals
C – Human error can be eliminated
D – The skilled pilot will not make human errors
Ans: A
17. Give an example of random error:
A – A pilot tends to forget to turn off the beacon after his/her flights
B – The rifle shoots on a target is to the right side of the centre
C – The rifle shoots on a target has not hit the centre. Some hits are too high
and some too low
 D – A pilot forgot to set the correct altimeter setting causing a controlled flight
into terrain (CFIF) accident
Ans: C
18. How can the error chain help pilots to prevent accidents?
A – Correct use of the error chain will – in itself – prevent most accidents
B – Recognition of the presence of the elements of the error chain does not –
in itself – eliminate the risk of an accident. Instead, it serves as a warning
to the crew that they must take correct action to manage the progress of
flight in the face of rising risks
C – Recognition of the presence of the elements of the error chain will
eliminate the risk of an accident
D – The error chain can help flight crew minimise the effects after a serious
error has caused a problem
Ans: B
19. Select the links in the error chain:
A – Ambiguity, distractions, non-one flying, no-one looking outside, non-
standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies,
departure from SOP and incomplete communications
B – Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside,
non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies,
departure from SOP and incomplete communications
C – Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside,
non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved discrepancies,
departure from SOP and incomplete communications
D – Ambiguity, distractions, confusion, no-one flying, no-one looking outside,
fatigue, non-standard procedures, violating minima, unresolved
discrepancies, departure from SOP and incomplete communications
Ans: D
20. Active errors/failures are committed at:
A – the human/system interface and have an immediate effect
B – the human/system interface and have a delayed effect
C – the system/system interface and have an immediate effect
D – the system/system interface and have a delayed effect
Ans: A
21. Among the external factors that may contribute to an error, cockpit noise and
the restriction of the field of view due to windscreen design correspond to:
A – social factors
B – organisational factors
C – psychobiological factors
D – ergonomic factors
Ans: D
22. An unnoticed way-point error entered in an aircraft data base is an example of:
A – Latent failure/error
B – Pro-active failure/error
C – Re-active failure/error
D – Active failure/error
Ans: A
23. Human error rates during the performance of a simple and repetitive task can
normally be expected to be approximately:
A – 1 in 50
 B – 1 in 10
C – 1 in 100
D – 1 in 250
Ans: B
24. If one error is allowed to effect a whole system, the system is described as:
A – Error tolerant
B – Error-prone
C – Vulnerable
D – Corrupted
Ans: C
25. Mode Error is associated with:
A – Hardware
B – Automation
C – Check lists
D – Vertigo
Ans: B
26. Organisational factors which affect or may have some influence on human
error are:
1. malfunction of technical systems
2. fuel-saving policies
3. rostering
4. weather phenomena
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 2 and 3
B – 1 and 4
C – 1 and 2
D – 3 and 4
Ans: A
27. The causes of human error can be abundant and complex. Which of the
following factors could contribute to human error?
1. Personality
2. Motivation and attitudes
3. Emotional state
4. External environmental factors
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 2 and 3
B – 1, 2 and 3
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4
D – 2, 3 and 4
Ans: C
28. The errors of a motor programme are:
A – Action Slip and Environmental Capture (Habituation)
B – Habituation and Error of Commission
C – Action Slip and Confirmation Bias
D – Confirmation error and Error of Commission
Ans: A
29. Waiting for take-off on the runway, a pilot is informed by the tower that the
tail wind component is 12 kt. According to the manual, the limitation is 10 kt
max. The pilot makes a decision to take-off anyway, as the runway is long.
What type of error is?
 A – This is neither an error or a violation – the pilot is using his initiative
B – An error of reasoning
C – A decision error
D – A violation
Ans: D
30. We generate Mental Models on:
A – 3-D vision
B – stereopsis
C – imagination
D – past experience and learning
Ans: D
31. What are the main characteristics of active errors?
They:
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in progress
3. occur at the human/machine interface
4. lie dormant
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 2, 3
Ans: D
32. What is the current approach to human error?
A – Realisation that humans are infallible and that systems/procedures should
be designed to minimise human error
B – Realisation that humans are infallible and that systems and procedures
should be brought into line to prevent system/procedural errors
C – Realisation that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures
should be designed to minimise human error
D – Realisation that humans are fallible and that systems and procedures
should be brought into line to prevent system, latent and procedural errors
Ans: C
33. Which of the following concepts relating to human reliability is true?
A – Prformance is totally independent of motivation
B – Response to a particular stressful influence does not vary from one person
to another
C – Expectation has no influence on perception
D – If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly,
then sooner or later, it will be
Ans: D
34. Which of the following human error rates can be described and pretty good
realistic and pretty good after methodical training?
A – 1 in 10,000 times
B – 1 in 100 times
C – 1 in 1000 times
D – 1 in 100,000 times
Ans: C
Decision making
 Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the
cockpit?
A – Communicational skills and social competence
B – Ability to persuade others to follow their own point of view
C – Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a
situation
D – Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action
Ans: B
1. Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of the risk of an event
occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our decision even in the
face of facts which contradict it.
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular
decision
4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making
purposes
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 2, 4
Ans: A
2. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should:
A – take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
B – always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as
possible
C – avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
D – make up his mind before consulting other crew members
Ans: A
3. In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team,
to be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to:
A – the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities
B – an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead
C – the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
D – the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute
what he/she knows
Ans: C
4. The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:
A – the whole crew to focus on the problem
B – speed of reaction
C – informing ATC thoroughly about the situation
D – distribution of tasks and crew co-ordination
Ans: D
5. Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the
group they belong to
2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their
superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the expectations
 4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but rather on
rational information
A – 2, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 4
D – 1, 3
Ans: D
6. To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least
be able to:
A – tolerate the deviation
B – report the deviation
C – correct the deviation
D – report its malfunction
Ans: D
7. Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:
A – professional pilots will never question established procedures
B – one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions
C – a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost,
sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best possible result
D – one always selects a choice in accordance with the company’s usual
practices
Ans: C
8. The confirmation bias of decision making is:
A – a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about
a decision
B – a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
C – a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a tendency is
poor
D – a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before
implementing one’s decision
Ans: C
9. In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends:
1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
3. on the risks associated with each solution
4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 1, 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 3
D–4
Ans: B
10. Judgement is based upon:
A – the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvres
B – a process involving a pilots attitude to take and to evaluate risks by
assessing the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill
and experience
C – the ability to interpret the flight instruments
D – a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer
to manually operate the aircraft controls
Ans: B
11. You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a
meeting. The weather forecast at destination tends to be much worse than
expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you
manage to land there at any case. What is your appropriate way of action?
You will:
A – divert in any case to demonstrate who is the man in charge aboard
B – decide to divert if you think it is necessary
C – see what you can do and ask the co-pilot to tolerate any decision
D – continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
Ans: B
12. Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?
A – Deciding means applying an automatic procedure
B – Deciding means choosing between alternatives
C – Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions
D – Deciding means imposing one’s point of view
Ans: B
13. An excessive need for safety:
A – guarantees the right decision making in critical situations
B – hampers severely the way of pilot decision making
C – is absolutely necessary for a safe flight operation
D – is the most important attribute of a fine pilot
Ans: B
14. The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on:
A – subjective perception and evaluation of situational factors
B – external factors only
C – the emergency checklist only
D – situational factors only
Ans: A
15. Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will
probably:
A – find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
B – find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
C – find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
D – find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a
different interpretation of the data
Ans: D
16. Murphy’s law states:
A – Expectation has an influence on perception
B – Performance is dependent on motivation
C – If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly,
then sooner or later, it will be
D – Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to
another
Ans: C
17. Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?
A – The captain’s superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
B – Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in
order to apply the decision prepared beforehand
C – Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
D – Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
 Ans: B
18. Decision-making is a concept which represents:
A – a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible
solutions, for a given problem
B – an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures
C – an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a
given problem
D – a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given
situation when faced with a defined problem
Ans: A
19. Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the
flight deck?
A – A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
B – A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
C – A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to
expectations
D – A group decision must always be established prior to action
Ans: A
20. Decision-making results in:
A – a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
B – a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
C – a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
D – an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end
Ans: B
21. What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the
situation to be resolved?
A – A switch is made to knowledge-based mode in order to continue
monitoring of the problem
B – A second monitoring rule must be applied
C – Actions return to an automatic mode
D – A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results
Ans: C
22. the following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or cardio-
pulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off:
1. take the standard medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the
flight
2. assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor
3. if in doubt about fitness to fly – do not fly!
4. reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty so as to
avoid dehydration
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3
Ans: C
23. Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they do not have to think
up every time what they have to do:
A – this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a
problem has to be solved by improvisation
B – this has to be positively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
 C – this is dangerous for every situation is different
D – this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures
they have to comply with
Ans: B
24. Check the following statements:
1. The first information received determines how subsequent information will
be evaluated
2. If one has made up one’s mind, contradictory information may not get the
attention it really needs
3. With increasing stress, channelling attention is limiting the flow of
information to the central decision maker (CMS)
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – 1 and 3 are correct
C – 1 and 2 are correct
D – 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: A
25. Which of the following answers includes situational awareness skills?
A – Assertiveness
B – Combination of tasks and relationships
C – Defend, maintain and insist
D – Monitor, evaluate and anticipate
Ans: D
26. A pilot meets the ground engineer in charge on the apron. Although the pilot
has not been through flight preparation yet, he nevertheless instructs the
engineer as to the amount of fuel to be loaded, since he is used to flying this
route. This behaviour represents:
A – a decision bias due to habits (frequency bias)
B – a bias in selecting data
C – a confirmation bias
D – a decision bias due to group (social) pressure
Ans: A
27. Decisions made by pilots in a cockpit:
A – are always irreversible
B – remain valid for a limited time only
C – should always be made as quickly as possible
D – are automatic when pilots are experts
Ans: B
28. Having made an important decision, a Commander of an aircraft should:
A – Always try to make time to explain the reasons for the decision even if it
is after landing
B – Explain the reasons for the decision only if time permits in the air
C – As the leader of the crew, never need explain the reasons behind the
decision
D – Explain the reasons for the decision only if asked
Ans: A
29. In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the
problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
A – very rare
B – not usual
 C – not applicable with old and experienced pilots
D – not possible since correct training should have eliminated this problem
Ans: B
30. In order to make sound decisions it is important to:
A – understand why and how we make decisions
B – avoid situational awareness
C – keep a low level of stress by excluding non-verbal communication
D – accept that the Captain, because of his/her authority, tends to be correct
Ans: A
31. In the decision-making process, confirmation bias results in:
A – a tendency to look for approval by other crew-members or by the ATC
B – choosing familiar solutions, even if they are not the best ones
C – over-estimating the frequency of some events
D – a tendency to look for information which confirms the validity of the
Decision
Ans: D
32. Less experienced pilots differ from experienced pilots in the following way:
A – inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying
out the same task
B – experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they
know that routine causes mistakes
C – task for task, an expert’s workload is greater than that of a novice
D – flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is never
sufficient to mask this deficience
Ans: A
33. The best method to avoid Confirmation Bias is to:
A – precise and careful pre-flight briefings
B – Deliberately confirm that the receiver has understood the information that
has been passed to him/her
C – Double-check that you have not fitted the ground over which you are
passing to your map
D – Search for information that will falsify the hypothesis
Ans: D
34. What are the main advantages that the human possesses over those of a
machine in the decision making process?
A – The ability to analyse and compare
B – The ability to analyse and memorise
C – Creativity, innovation, adaptability
D – The ability to reach the most advantageous option from a number of
choices
Ans: C
35. Which of the following is most likely to be overlooked should a pilot make a
rushed decision?
A – The skills of air traffic controllers
B – Analysis of the actual situation and applying a prepared decision instead
C – Rules and regulations
D – The captain’s superior knowledge justified by his/her status
Ans: B
Avoiding and managing errors: cockpit managament
1. In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
 A – are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the increased
availability which results from technical lightening of the workload
B – will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of
information
C – will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical
improvements
D – does not lose its importance
Ans: D
2. An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the
following rules should a feedback comply with?
A – The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour
B – The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain
C – The feedback should always relate to a specific situation
D – The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation
Ans: C
Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:
A – different codes between form and meaning
B – differences in contexts for the sending and the receiver
C – a form of the message, which should not match the expectation of the
receiver
D – the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
Ans: D
3. Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?
A – The syntax of communication is of little importance to its success. Only
the words uttered are important
B – Professional communication means to exchange information as little as
possible
C – Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific
language, tailored to minimise misunderstandings
D – Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all
circumstances
Ans: C
4. With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that
A – communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with
a high workload element to be carried out at the same time
B – communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to
work in progress
C – communication is only effective if messages are kept short and
sufficiently precise to limit their number
D – all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration,
precision, clarity, etc are stable and are not much affected by changes in
workload
Ans: B
According to Rasmussen’s model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the
following type(s):
A – handling errors
B – routine errors
C – errors of technical knowledge
D – creative errors
Ans: C
5. The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on:
A – both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
B – both pilots wearing the same uniform
C – both pilots flying together very often for a long period
D – both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude
Ans: A
6. Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought
patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop?
A – Resignation, confidence, inattention
B – Invulnerability, under-confidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of
situational awareness
C – Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self-criticism
D – Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerability, resignation, machismo
complex
Ans: D
Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?
1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew
2. there is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to the
flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style, which
fluctuate between authority and laissex-faire
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: C
7. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of
time pressure?
A – A strategy of preparing decisions
B – A non-sequential strategy
C – A Laissez-faire strategy
D – A strategy of no commitment
Ans: A
8. What does the End Deterioration Effect (Home-it is) mean?
A – The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a
flight
B – The result of a poor pre-flight planning
C – The potential risk of losing orientation after flying in clouds
D – The breakdown of crew co-ordination due to interpersonal tensions
between captain and co-pilot
Ans: A
9. Which one of the following statements characterises a democratic and co-
operative leadership style? If conflicts evolve, the leader:
A – decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through
B – mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re-
establish a nice and friendly atmosphere within the team
C – keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
D – tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons
involved
 Ans: D
10. Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts?
1. Seeking arbitration
2. Actively listening to other people
3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a more emotional level
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 1, 2, 3
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: A
What distinguishes status from role?
A – While role defines – via behaviour – the functions that must be performed
by individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and
its recognition by the group
B – While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its
recognition by the group, status defines – via behaviour – the functions
that must be performed by individuals
C – Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in
flight or by the interactions of a new crew
D – Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight
or by the interactions of a new crew
Ans: A
11. Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of
interpersonal conflicts?
A – Active listening
B – Responding with counter-arguments
C – Staying to their own point of view
D – Giving up their own point of view
Ans: A
12. What may become the main risk of a Laissez-faire cockpit?
A – Inversion of authority
B – Lack of communication
C – Appearance of aggressiveness
D – Disengagement of the co-pilot
Ans: A
The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even mre important
when:
A – conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
B – flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
C – flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
D – flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before
Ans: C
13. An non-synergetic cockpit:
A – is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally
B – is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately
with the outside
C – always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere
D – is characterised by withdrawn crew members and unclear communication
Ans: D
14. An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
A – the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
B – the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
C – decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the
other crew members
D – decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy
between the crew members
Ans: C
15. What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight
deck?
A – High group performance despite the strained relations
B – In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by
disengaging, showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat
effect
C – A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is in-assertive
D – Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of
co-operation and efficiency
Ans: B
16. Of the following statements, select those which apply to information
1. It is said to be random when it is not intended for receivers
2. It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver
3. it is measured in bits
4. Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a quarter
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 2 and 3 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – only 1 is correct
Ans: B
17. A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked
with ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the
main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?
A – Errors in understanding clearance values
B – Listening errors
C – Radio failure
D – Mother tongue differing from working language
Ans: B
18. With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is
correct?
A – Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for
effective management of any flight’s communication
B – All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one
common language
C – It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official
languages of the ICAO
D – The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the
official aeronautical language of the destination country
Ans: B
19. Non-verbal communication:
A – should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
 B – is of no meaning in the cockpit
C – is always used intentionally
D – supports verbal communication
Ans: D
20. How do you understand the statement (one cannot communicate)?
A – The statement above is a misprint
B – Each situation requires communication
C – You cannot influence your own communication
D – Being silent as well as inactive are non-verbal behaviour patterns which
express a meaning
Ans: D
21. Which combination of elements guarantee the understanding of a message
without adding new information to it?
A – Encoding
B – Coding
C – Synchronisation
D – Feedback
Ans: D
22. Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are
correct?
1. if the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to reduce verbal
redundancy content of his sentences
2. If the interlocutor is of non-native tongue, the sender will reinforce what
he is saying by using more complicated words so as to optimise
understanding
3. It he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify the content of
sentences
4. Simplification of check list in a crew who know each other essentially
takes place in the case of interpersonal conflict
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 2 and 3 are correct
D – 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: D
Which of the following responses is an example of habit reversion (negative
Ha\kibit transfer):
A – incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controllers instructions
B – turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right
C – a pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever
points forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever
into the false position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel
lever has to point aft to be in the ON position
D – habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item
when two items are on the same line
Ans: C
23. What is synergy in a crew?
A – The un-co-ordinated action of the crew members towards a common
objective
B – A behavioural expedient associated with the de-synchronisation of the co-
 ordinated actions
C – The co-ordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving
a non-standard task
D – The co-ordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in
which collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the
individual performances
Ans: D
24. Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct?
A – Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve
an additional party if it is to be effective
B – Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in
finding an acceptable collective solution
C – Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general
detachment of involved parties
D – The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the
general abilities of one of the involved parties
Ans: B
25. Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient,
if all crew members concerned:
A – always ask the captain what to do
B – are always task oriented
C – are always relationship oriented
D – adapt their management style to meet the situational demands
Ans: D
26. During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a
cigarette in the cockpit. The flying co-pilot asks him to stop smoking because
he is a non-smoker. The captain tells him: This is your problem, and
continues smoking. What should the co-pilot do?
A – He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should
argue with the captain about this problem until the conflict is solved
B – He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpit
C – He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this
conflict during the de-briefing
D – He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the captain
Ans: C
What characterises the notion of role?
A – The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
B – Only the functions associated with role
C – The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour
D – The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various
roles of a particular status
Ans: A
27. Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
A – making a flight over unfamiliar territory
B – they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are being observed
and admired (eg. air shows)
C – making decisions independently of others
D – they are not constrained by time
Ans: B
The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the:
 1. Pilot in Command
2. Co-pilot
3. Navigator
4. Air traffic controller
The correct statement is:
A–2
B–1
C–3
D–4
Ans: B
28. The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a
message is called:
A – feedback
B – redundancy
C – synchronisation
D – transference
Ans: A
Very high ambition and need for achievement:
A – disturb the climate of co-operation
B – fulfil the requirements of stress resistance
C – always promote teamwork
D – improves the coping process with personal failures
Ans: A
29. To maintain good situational awareness you should:
1. believe only in your own interpretation of the data
2. gather as much data as possible from every possible source before making
inferences
3. question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress
and try to make time to review the situation
4. consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is
correct
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – all answers are correct
C – 1 and 4 are correct
D – 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: A
30. During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his co-
pilot on the one hand is rather inexperienced and insecure but on the other
hand highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is
inappropriate?
A – The captain lets the co-pilot fly and observes his behaviour without any
comments
B – The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the
co-pilot in order to keep him informed about his decisions
C – The captain lets the co-pilot fly and gives him detailed instructions what
to do
D – The captain lets the co-pilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any
support that is needed
Ans: A
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from
 experienced pilots in the following way:
A – task for task, an expert’s workload is greater than a novices one
B – flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable
to mask this deficiency
C – inexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying
out the same task
D – experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they
know that routine causes mistakes
Ans: C
31. Professional languages have certain characteristics for example:
1. They use a limited vocabulary
2. They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes lead to
ambiguities
3. Their grammar is rather complicated and complex
4. Context provides meaning, therefore reduces the risk of ambiguities
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 2 and 3 are correct
B – only 4 is correct
C – 1 and 4 are correct
D – 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: C
32. An increase in workload usually leads to:
A – a shorter and more frequent exchange of information
B – a longer and more frequent exchange of information
C – a shorter and less frequent exchange of information
D – a longer and less frequent exchange of information
Ans: C
33. The intended recipient of a message must:
1. Give priority and adapt to the senders situation
2. Acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt
3. Be able to reject or postpone a communication attempt if – the pilot is too
bus\y
4. Stabilise or finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1 and 2 are correct
B – 2 and 3 are correct
C – 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: C
34. What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?
1. The quality of work performance decreases as a result of the
impoverishment of communications
2. A decrease in the quality of communications
3. In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a
deterioration in relations between the individuals
4. A decrease in the usage of available resources on the flight deck
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
 D – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: D
35. Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural
backgrounds might be seen in connection with:
1. The variations of technical training and skills
2. Communication problems
3. Conflicting ways of management
4. Interpersonal problems
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
B – only 1 is correct
C – 2 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: D
36. What are communication qualities of a good briefing? A good briefing must:
1. Contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible
2. Be of a standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same
type
3. Be short and precise
4. Be understandable to the other crew member(s).
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1 and 2 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D – 1 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
37. The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
A – initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky
or difficult during the flight
B – define general planning of the flight plan
C – allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation
D – activate a collective mental scheme with respect to non-procedural actions
to be carried out
Ans: A
38. Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:
A – have virtually no interaction with behaviour
B – make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
C – destabilise cognitive progress and maintain the error
D – are prompted by inductive factors
Ans: B
39. Improvement of human reliability should entail:
A – in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators
B – the elimination of latent errors before they can affect performance
C – the analysis of modes of human failures
D – an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors
committed
Ans: D
40. What means can be used to combat human error?
1. Reducing error-prone mechanisms
2. Improving the way in which error is taken into account in-training
 3. Sanctions against the initiators of error
4. Improving recovery from errors and its consequences
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 2, 3 and 4
B – 1, 2 and 4
C – 3 and 4
D – 1 and 2
Ans: B
What elements establish synergy within the crew?
A – Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the
group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks etc)
B – It is only the captains status which allows the establishment of synergy
within the crew
C – Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
D – Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through
from briefing to debriefin
Ans: C
41. Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centred cockpit?
A – While decreasing communication, the independence of each member
bolsters the crew’s energy
B – The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain
quickly leads to tension between the various crew members
C – A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions
by other crew members
D – Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicitly
informing the other members about them
Ans: B
42. What is characterised by a Laissez-faire cockpit?
A – The captain’s authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with
the situation
B – The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain
quickly leads to tension between the various crew members
C – A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions
by other crew members
D – Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicitly
informing the other members about them
Ans: C
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a
co-pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain?
1. Self-assertion
2. A scapegoat feeling
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
4. Disengagement
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 3, 4
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: A
43. An autocratic cockpit is described by:
 A – The captain’s excessive authority considerably reduces communications
and consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew
B – Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions
correctly owing to his natural leadership
C – Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and
in the belief that everyone is aware of what he is doing
D – The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to the captain who leaves complete
freedom to the various members of the crew
Ans: A
44. What optimises crew co-operation?
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each other’s capability
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew member’s role
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 2
C–1
D – 2, 3
Ans: A
45. What may be the origins of representation errors?
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information
A – 1, 2
B – 3, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: D
46. Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level?
1. Omission
2. The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
A – 3, 4
B – 1, 3
C – 2, 4
D – 1, 2
Ans: C
47. If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive
resources:
A – the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based
mode for the two tasks
B – the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced
C – a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance
will then tail off
D – the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-
based mode for the two tasks
Ans: B
48. The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety:
A – is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical
 for any flight operation
B – as been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the
social and technical system
C – is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational
context created by the system
D – is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factor
Ans: C
49. Of the following statements, which apply to co-ordinated co-operation?
1. It allows for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot
2. It represents the simultaneous execution of a single action by the various
members of the crew
3. Communication in this mode has the function of synchronising actions and
distributing responsibilities
4. Communication must be essentially focussed on temporal and cognitive
synchronisation
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 1 and 3
B – 1 and 4
C – 2 and 3
D – 1, 2 and 4
Ans: A
50. Discussing private matters in the cockpit:
A – can improve team spirit
B – should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
C – is appropriate in any phase of flight
D – decreases the captain’s role of leadership
Ans: A
51. Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:
1. dominant behaviour
2. exemplary role-behaviour
3. mastery of communication skills
4. Laissez-faire behaviour
A – 2 and 3
B–1
C–4
D – 2 and 4
Ans: A
52. Define effective communication:
A – Effective communication is a transmission of a message from one brain to
another
B – Effective communication is a transmission of a message from one brain to
another with a minimum of change
C – Effective communication occurs when one person talks to another person
D – Effective communication occurs when one person talks to another person
who is listening
Ans: B
Which factors can influence effective communications?
A – Noise and voice
B – Workload, noise and voice
C – Voice
 D – Workload and voice
Ans: B
53. How effective communication is depends heavily on _____ (Select the most
important factor)
A – the influencing factors
B – the receiver
C – the sender
D – the workload
Ans: C
54. Define active listening
A – Active listening involves a genuine desire to understand another person’s
perception and sensitivity to others thoughts and feelings
B – Active listening is to listen and either agree or disagree
C – Listening and expressing understanding of what another person has said
D – A and C are correct
Ans: D
55. Which is an example of an error caused by liveware-handware interface
problems?
A – A procedure that is not user-friendly
B – Noise interference
C – Switches, controls of displays with poor design
D – Mental pressure
Ans: C
Liveware-liveware interaction is:
A – The interface between people
B – The interaction between humans and the non-physical aspects of the
system such as procedures
C – Involving considerations such as designing seats to fit the sitting
characteristics of the human body
D – The interface between humans and the environmen
Ans: A
56. List the primary function(s) of effective leadership:
A – Regulating information flow and decision making
B – Regulating information flow, directing and co-ordinating crew activities,
motivating crew members and decision making
C – Setting priorities and making decisions
D – Lead the crew at all times
Ans: B
57. Define situational awareness:
A – The ability to rank tasks according to importance and to solve problems
B – The right to have and express your own feelings and ideas
C – The perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of
space and time, the comprehension of their meaning and the projection of
their status in the near future
D – The perception of the elements in the environment within a volume of
space
Ans: C
What are the most common situational awareness problem(s)?
A – Failure to monitor flight path
B – Distractions caused by malfunctions, radio, checklists, procedures and
 situations not directly related to flying the aircraft
C – Misunderstandings caused by confusion instructions, phraseology and
mindsets
D – All of the above
Ans: D
58. “Feedback” in communication implies that:
A – read back of a message is rarely necessary except in the case of specific
ATC procedures
B – Storing of messages in short time memory is available for later release
C – a message is measured and corrected against the original meaning
D – the flight crew do not need to talk all the time because the feedback is
automatic
Ans: C
59. “Non-verbal communication”:
A – means “a sterile cockpit” below 10,000 feet
B – is unimportant, inherited and cannot be taught
C – rarely causes accidents
D – constitutes approximately 70% of human communication
Ans: D
60. A Captain running a “Laisser-faire” cockpit will:
A – be an efficient crew member
B – make few suggestions or decisions
C – will encourage a “sterile” cockpit
D – fill a vacuum
Ans: B
61. A Captain running an Autocratic cockpit is normally:
A – Under-worked
B – Over-loaded
C – Efficient
D – A good leader
Ans: B
62. A leader who demonstrates a democratic and co-operative style will deal with
conflict by:
A – deciding what to do and pushes his own opinion through
B – trying to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to re-
establish a pleasant and friendly atmosphere within the team
C – keeping a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
D – trying to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons
involved
Ans: D
63. A pilot experiences difficulties in the control of his aircraft and consequently
omits to monitor the fuel level. This is caused by:
A – hypovigilance
B – a lack of attention due to distraction
C – both a lack of attention and a lack of alertness
D – this pilot manages his/her attention well
Ans: B
64. An authoritative leader of a group will:
A – tend never to interfere with the workings of the group and finds delegation
easy
 B – always be a good listener
C – be adoptable to different types of groups in any situation
D – end to become over-loaded in times of high stress or in an emergency
Ans: D
65. An example of conflict between status and role is:
A – a security officer temporarily standing in for a member of the cabin crew
B – a Manager interviewing an experienced Captain of an aircraft
C – a senior Captain acting as co-pilot to a junior Captain of an aircraft
D – an ATC Controller interviewing an inexperienced Captain
Ans: C
66. An experienced pilot:
A – prepares thoroughly for a flight and is able to anticipate the majority of
possible problems
B – functions exclusively in a reactive manner, as it is not resource-consuming
C – seeks complex solutions to problems, thus using his capacities up to 100%
D – avoids using automated systems as his experience allows him to perform
all tasks manually
Ans: A
67. An important aspect of Situational Awareness is:
A – When a pilot’s perception equals reality
B – When the pilot perceives the situation both inside and outside the aircraft
C – When the pilot perceives the instant and immediate situation both inside
and outside the cockpit
D – when a pilot is sure that the situation both inside and outside the aircraft is
correct
Ans: A
68. Approximately ___ of all communication is achieved by factors other than
words (metacommunications):
A – 100%
B – 30%
C – 50%
D – 80%
Ans: D
69. Cohesion is a major advantage in times of:
A – difficulty
B – achievement
C – personal advancement
D – success
Ans: A
70. Communication efficiency is most sensitive to:
A – packaging of sentences
B – packaging of words
C – packaging of phrases
D – workload and interruptionz
Ans: D
71. Differences of opinion should be regarded as ____
A – Confrontational
B – Helpful
C – Having negative influence on the group and are not to be encouraged
D – Stressful
 Ans: B
72. Expressed as a simple mathematical statement when considering a crew of
two, good synergy is:
A – 1 +/- 1 = <2
B – 1 + 1 = <2
C – 1 + 1 = >2
D – 1 – 1 = >2
Ans: C
How do you understand the statement ‘one cannot communicate’?
A – No meaningful communication can occur unless it is by verbal means
B – Being silent as well as inactive are non-verbal behaviour patterns which
express a meaning
C – You cannot influence your own communication
D – Communication is always possible
Ans: B
73. How would you describe the leadership style of a captain who primarily is
interested in a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive
and encouraging, who usually compromises in inter-personal conflicts:
A – Low task orientation and high relationship orientation
B – High task orientation and low relationship orientation
C – High task orientation and high relationship orientation
D – Low task orientation and low relationship orientation
Ans: A
74. Metacommunication is defined as:
A – active listening
B – balancing their own ideas and interests with those of the receiver
C – having an assessment conversation
D – those tools, other than the actual words, which compliment those words in
order to communicate
Ans: D
75. One of the major protective measures against illusions is:
A – wearing of good quality sun glasses
B – regular eye tests
C – comprehensive briefing and de-briefing
D – wearing of Polaroid sun glasses
Ans: C
76. Planning:
A – is unnecessary in the cockpit, as crew members are so highly trained, they
will always know what to do in unusual situations
B – allows crew members to anticipate potential risky situations and decide on
possible responses
C – in the cockpit typically results in plans that are always easy to modify
when things are not as anticipated
D – is dangerous in the cockpit, as it interrupts flight crew creativity
Ans: B
77. Select from the following list the advantages of teamwork:
1. Workload is lessened
2. Conformity to group norm
3. Flight safety enhanced
4. Risky Shift
 5. Work stress is reduced
6. Improved decision-making
A – 1, 3, 5, 6
B – 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C – 1, 3, 4, 5
D – 2, 3, 5, 6
Ans: A
78. The “ideal” cockpit can be termed as:
A – Synergistic
B – Laisser faire
C – Autocratic
D – Co-actional
Ans: A
The ability to monitor information which could indicate the development of a
critical situation:
A – is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
B – is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
C – makes no sense because the human information processing system is
limited anyway
D – is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real
world
Ans: B
79. The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with:
A – an authoritarian style
B – a democratic style
C – an anarchic style
D – a “laissez-faire” style
Ans: A
80. The behaviour of a leader depends on:
A – the authority gradient only
B – his/her ability to prevent discussions among the crew members in order to
avoid conflict
C – the situation, the goals and composition of the group
D – only his/her ability to dominate and be assertive
Ans: C
81. The expression “when perception matches reality” describes:
A – Attention
B – Vigilance
C – Alertness
D – Situational Awareness
Ans: D
The choice of words and their packaging become more important in the
cockpit of an aircraft because:
A – Loss of hypertext
B – Loss of body language
C – Loss of situational awareness
D – Loss of perception
Ans: B
82. The three types of Authority Gradient Cockpits are:
A – Authoritative, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic
 B – Autocratic, Laisser-Faire and Synergistic
C – Autocratic, Followership and Synergistic
D – Authoritative, Followership and Synergistic
Ans: B
83. The use of professional languages offers:
A – longer attention span
B – quick comprehension and simplified grammar
C – more precise grammar
D – better communication even if professionals are not from the same field
Ans: B
84. Which is the most likely of the following scenarios which might lead to a
conflict between status and role:
A – A security officer temporarily standing in for a member of the cabin crew
B – A Manager interviewing an experienced Captain of an aircraft
C – Two Training Captains flying together
D – A trainee Air Traffic officer working with a senior ATC Controller
Ans: C
85. Which of the following describes an autocratic cockpit?
A – Despite the overly strong authority of the captain everything functions
correctly owing to his natural leadership
B – The captain’s excessive authority considerably reduces communications
and consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew
C – Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and
in the belief that everyone is aware of what he is doing
D – The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete
freedom to the various members of the crew
Ans: B
86. Which of the following statements concerning synergy within a crew is most
correct?
A – Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
B – Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through
from briefing to debriefing
C – Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the
group members (communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc)
D – It is only the captain’s status which allows the establishment of synergy
within the crew
Ans: A
87. Which statement is correct?
A – Inconsistent communication improves flight safety
B – There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or
accidents
C – Problems in the personal relationships between crew members are likely
to hamper the communication process
D – Personal conflict that takes place prior to take-off should wait to be
addressed until the end of the flight
Ans: C
88. With too much cohesion, Group think can be:
A – positive
B – positive and far-reaching
 C – popular and positive
D – negative
Ans: D
89. Within communication, what element suggests that a message has been
received and understood?
A – Coding
B – Feedback
C – Synchronisation
D – Encoding
Ans: B
Personality
1. Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation
may have on attention?
A – It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of
alertness and attention
B – It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
C – Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness
D – It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
Ans: A
2. If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the
approach procedure, and you encounter no unexpected or new problems you
show:
A – rule and skill based behaviour
B – knowledge based behaviour
C – rule based behaviour
D – skill based behaviour
Ans: D
3. Human behaviour is determined by:
A – biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences
B – biological characteristics
C – the social environment
D – cultural influences
Ans: A
4. A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:
A – knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in
real time
B – is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight
C – has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations
in order to free his/her cognitive resources
D – is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the
flight
Ans: C
5. Attitudes are defined as:
A – the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
B – tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or
negatively
C – the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
D – a synonym for behaviour
Ans: B
6. The effectiveness of the individual depends on:
A – the total independence with respect to the environment
B – the ability to repress the dictates of needs
C – the ability to go beyond one’s own capabilities
D – the ability to balance the dictates of the individual’s needs and the
demands of reality
Ans: D
7. A co-pilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which
psychological consequence is most likely?
A – The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism
B – His/her self-concept is going to be stabilised because of the higher status
as a captain
C – His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks
which have to be incorporated
D – An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological
consequences
Ans: C
8. Contrary to a person’s personality, attitudes:
A – are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the
actions associated with them
B – form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an
adult
C – are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference
to an object or a situation
D – are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
Ans: C
9. An ideal professional pilot is in his behaviour:
A – rather person than goal oriented
B – neither person nor goal oriented
C – both person and goal oriented
D – rather goal than person oriented
Ans: C
10. Which of the following personally characteristics makes crew decision making
most effective?
A – Friendliness
B – Assertiveness
C – Competitiveness
D – General intelligence
Ans: B
11. A high level of motivation is related:
A – to monotony states
B – to high levels of arousal
C – to high levels of intelligence
D – to complacency
Ans: B
12. Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
A – Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management
capabilities
B – Extremely high, motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit
attention management capabilities
 C – Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease
in attention
D – Motivation will reduce the task automation process
Ans: B
13. The needs of an individual lead to:
A – preservation from dangers only if social needs are being satisfied
B – no change in his motivation and consequently to the persistence of the
individuals behaviour in regard to the desired outcome
C – prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self-
actualisation
D – a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation
of the behaviour
Ans: D
14. Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual?
1. Heredity
2. Childhood environment
3. Upbringing
4. Past experience
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 4
C – 2, 3
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: A
15. What is the self-concept?
A – A self-defence mechanism to preserve or protect our self-system
B – All of us have a mental blueprint or picture of ourselves. This blueprint is
composed of ideas, attitudes, values and commitments, which are
influenced by our past experiences, our successes and failures, our
triumphs and our humiliations
C – It is part of our personality formed in part by way others reacted to us
especially during our formative years
D – Both B and C are correct
Ans: D
16. Psychologists divide behavioural styles into which two basic categories?
A – Body language style and verbal style
B – Relationship oriented and task oriented
C – Aggressive and submissive
D – None of the above are correct
Ans: B
17. Select the correct statement about assertive behaviour:
A – Assertive behaviour denies the rights of others
B – Assertive behaviour helps you get what you want and need
C – Assertive behaviour uses action instead of words
D – Assertive behaviour is often weak, hesitant and soft
Ans: B
18. “It will not happen to me” can be used as an example to illustrate which
attitude?
A – Resignation
B – Anti-authority
C – Macho
 D – Invulnerability
Ans: D
19. Which statement is correct?
A – High performers tend to be people who enjoy their work situation; to
perform well one must be motivated by feeling trusted and involved
B – Culture refers to national difference only
C – A vigilant task is one that does not require consistent monitoring without
lapses in attention
D – Fatigue is a short-term problem because enough sleep will always cure it
Ans: A
20. Define relationship oriented behaviour:
A – The first consideration is to meet personal needs
B – The first consideration is the feelings of others
C – First considerations are given to tasks related to the final goal
D – Low relationship oriented traits combined with low task oriented traits
Ans: B
21. Describe task oriented behaviour:
A – The first consideration is given to the task or goal in the decision making
process
B – A person who is high task oriented and low relationship oriented is
considered to have an aggressive style of behaviour
C – The first consideration is to solve the tasks and duties of others
D – Both A and B are correct
Ans: D
22. “Stereotypes” are preconceptions or prejudices which can lead us to:
A – mis-judge individuals even if we have contact with them
B – develop better teamwork by standardising procedures
C – communicate non-verbally with a stranger
D – act in the same manner in all situations and thus assuring stability
Ans: A
23. A person’s attitudes define a set of learned dispositions (likes and dislikes)
which:
A – is exactly the same as a person’s personality
B – influence a person’s reaction and response to people, situations, etc
C – cannot be modified through training
D – do not depend on a person’s past experiences
Ans: B
24. Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to
acquire, it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in
mind, select the response below which could lead to such a hazard:
A – anticipating that the weather may deteriorate
B – mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a
non-standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was
anticipated
C – anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
D – anticipating the sequence of items on a checklist
Ans: B
25. An under-confident and self-effacing co-pilot is promoted to Captain. It is not
uncommon for such a person to have a behavioural pattern which is:
A – easy to adapt to the role of Captain
 B – easy-going but having a reliance on others
C – aggressive if challenged by another member of the crew
D – confident and self-assuring because of his/her higher status
Ans: C
26. For a normal and healthy person, personality traits are:
A – easy changed by an outside influence
B – unstable
C – easily changeable
D – stable
Ans: D
27. Internal conflict within oneself is termed as:
A – Intermediate-personal conflict
B – Intro-personal conflict
C – Inter-personal conflict
D – Intra-personal conflict
Ans: D
28. Motivation is an important attribute which contributes to flight safety.
Which of the following statements is correct with regards to motivation?
A – A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient
knowledge in complete safety
B – Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
C – Excessive motivation leads to stress which adversely affects performance
D – A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance
Ans: C
29. Personality is based on:
1. Heredity
2. Upbringing
3. Experience
4. Childhood
A – None of the listed answers is correct
B – 1, 2 and 4 only are correct
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 only are correct
Ans: C
30. Phobic states or obsessional disorders will:
A – always result in permanent loss of a flying licence
B – may require successful treatment before flying may be permitted
C – result in the loss of a Class 1 medical classification after successful
treatment
D – require immediate termination of all flying duties
Ans: B
31. The lowest level of Maslow’s Model of the hierarchy of Human Needs is:
A – safety and security needs
B – self-esteem needs
C – belonging and affection needs
D – physiological needs
Ans: D
32. The unique organisation of characteristics which determine the typical or
standard behaviour of an individual is known as:
A – heredity
 B – development
C – personality
D – learning
Ans: C
33. What is self-concept?
A – How you would like to be seen by other people
B – How you see yourself
C – How other people see you
D – How you would like to see yourself
Ans: B
34. Which of the following answers is correct?
A – personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is not
adaptable
B – Personality is the outward result of behaviour and attitude and is adaptable
C – Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is not
adaptable
D – Behaviour is the outward result of personality and attitude and is
adaptabl
Ans: D
35. Which of the following are included in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs?
1. Freedom from pain and danger
2. Expressions of capacities and talents
3. Self-esteem needs
4. Self-fulfilment needs
5. Physiological needs
A – 3, 4 and 5 only
B - 1, 2 and 4 only
C – all the above
D – all except 2
Ans: C
36. Which of the following statements with regard to motivation is correct?
A – Motivation will reduce risk
B – Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease
in attention
C – Excessive motivation in combination with high levels of stress will limit
attention management capabilities
D – Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management
capabilities
Ans: C
37. Attitudes are defined as:
A – tendencies to respond to people, things or events in a particular manner
B – the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
C – the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
D – a synonym for behaviouz
Ans: A
Human overload and underload
1. An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelised attention
2. resignation, frustration, rage
 3. deterioration in motor co-ordination
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
A – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
Ans: C
2. Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilots job. Under which of the following
circumstances does it occur?
1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan of action and does
not immediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with inexperienced pilots when the situational demands
exceed their individual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a
solution for the problem he just is confronted with
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – Only 1 is false
C – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
D – 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
Ans: A
3. Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the
following statement(s) is (are) correct?
A – A student will learn faster and better under severe stress
B – A moderate level of stress may improve performance
C – Domestic stress will not affect the pilots performance because he is able to
leave this type of stress on the ground
D – A well trained pilot is able to eliminate any kind of stress completely
when he is scheduled to fly
Ans: B
4. The physiology of stress is now well known:
A – the only stress hormone is adrenaline
B – stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting
mental performance
C – stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then
acceleration of heart rate and increase in vision
D – stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby
slows down the heart rate
Ans: B
5. In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:
1. Know how to use one’s own reserve of resources in order to ease the
burden on the crew
2. Divide up tasks among the crew
3. Abandon automatic mode and instead process as much information as
possible consciously
4. Drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – 1 and 3 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D – 3 and 4 are correct
 Ans: C
6. Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurrence of various stressors.
Of these, which can be called physiological?
A – Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
B – Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
C – Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems
D – Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
Ans: A
7. Concentration is essential for pilots:
A – It only takes a little willpower to increase one’s capacity of concentration
without limits
B – However, capacity of concentration is limited
C – Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
D – All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on
resources and therefore on one’s concentration
Ans: B
8. Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?
1. noise
2. interpersonal conflict
3. temperature
4. administrative problem
5. hunger
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 1, 3, 5
D – 2, 3, 5
Ans: C
9. The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night’s sleep.
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of REM-sleep
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a human being in the
long run
A – 1 is correct 2 is not correct
B – 1 and 2 are both correct
C – 1 is not correct 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both not correct
Ans: B
Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to
destination time:
1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights
2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights
3. vary little between individuals
4. may vary greatly between individuals
A – 2, 3
B – 1, 3
C – 1, 4
D – 2, 4
Ans: D
10. Please check the following statements:
1. A stressor causes activation
 2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it
A – 1 and 2 are both not correct
B – 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
C – 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both correct
Ans: D
11. A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
A – coping with stress
B – distress (stress reactions)
C – eustress
D – stressors
Ans: B
A stress reaction is:
A – the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
B – the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
C – the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
D – the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
Ans: B
12. Stress is above all:
A – a phenomenon which is specific to modern man
B – a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
C – a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a
reduction in his performance
D – the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the
various situation which he may have to face
Ans: D
13. The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:
1. increase with altitude
2. decrease with altitude
3. increase with higher workload
4. decrease with higher workload
A – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 1 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: C
14. Stress management programmes usually involve:
A – the use of psychoactive drugs
B – only the removal of stress
C – only the prevention of stress
D – the prevention and/or the removal of stress
Ans: D
15. An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive
sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
A – both pilots will experience the same amount of stress
B – both pilots will lose their motor co-ordination
C – the arousal level of both pilots will be raised
D – the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, that the pilot
looking forward to what may happen
Ans: C
16. Which of the following statements is true?
A – Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood of exhaustion
B – Stressors are independent from each other
C – Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances
D – People are capable of living without stress
Ans: A
17. What seems to be the main roles of deep sleep?
A – Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream
phases and paradoxical phases
B – It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue
C – Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and
restoration of attention capabilities
D – It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron
energy reserves
Ans: D
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterised by:
1. activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS)
2. testosterone secretion which enables fats to be converted into sugar
3. a sudden fall in stress resistance
4. the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged
time
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B – 1 and 4 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: B
18. Human errors are frequent and may take several forms:
A – an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and
the result of his/her actions
B – an error of intention is an error of routine
C – a violation is an error which is always involuntary
D – representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the
situation and is familiar with the procedure
Ans: A
19. Workload essentially depends on:
A – the pilot’s knowledge
B – the pilot’s experience and the ergonomics of the system
C – the current situation, the pilot’s expertise and the ergonomics of the
system
D – the task and the days parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of
flight, etc)
Ans: C
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by
psychological stress
2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because of
the strict selection for this particular profession
A – 1 and 2 are both correct
B – 1 and 2 are both not correct
C – 1 is correct 2 is not correct
 D – 1 is not correct 2 is correct
Ans: B
20. What is the effect of tiredness on attention?
A – It leads to one’s attention being dispersed between different centres of
interest
B – It increases the ability to manage multiple matters
C – It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
D – it has no specific effects on attention
Ans: C
21. The effect of experience and habit on performance:
A – is never negative
B – is always negative
C – can both be beneficial and negative
D – is always beneficial
Ans: C
22. What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress
situation?
A – The unexpected outcome of the situation
B – The time available to cope with the situation
C – The objective threat of the situation
D – The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual
Ans: D
23. During paradoxical sleep
A – the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state
B – rapid eye movements can be observed
C – respiration is very regular
D – the rhythm of the heart is very regular
Ans: B
24. In case of in-flight stress, one should:
A – only trust in oneself; being sure to know their own limits
B – use all available resources of the crew
C – demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
D – always carry out a breathing exercise
Ans: B
25. The relationship between arousal an flying performance is:
A – approximately sinusoidal
B – approximately linear increasing
C – approximately exponential
D – approximately the form of an inverted U
Ans: D
26. The maintenance of man’s internal equilibrium is called?
A – Heterostasis
B – Homeostasis
C – Homeothermy
D – Poikilothermy
Ans: B
flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay over of 4 days. What
time measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3rd day?
A – ZT (zonal time)
B – MEZ (middle European time)
 C – LT (local time)
D – UTC (universal time co-ordinated)
Ans: C
27. Stress may be defined as:
A – a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to
encountered situations
B – a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities
C – a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities
D – a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate
Ans: A
28. The organism is mobilised by a process known as:
A – GAF – General Adaptation Function
B – NAS - Natural Adaptation Syndrome
C – GMS – General Mobilisation Syndrome
D – GAS – General Adaptation Syndrome
Ans: D
29. Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns:
1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration
2. will make an individual more prone to make errors
A – 1 and 2 are both correct
B – 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C – 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
D – 1 and 2 are both not correct
Ans: A
30. What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome?
A – Alarm, resistance, performance
B – Alert, resistance, performance
C – Alarm, resistance, exhaustion
D – Alert, resistance, exhaustion
Ans: C
31. In relation to the word stress as it affects human beings, which of the
following responses is correct?
A – Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot’s physical condition
B – All forms of stress should be avoided
C – Stress is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed
upon him/her
D – Self-imposed obligations will not create stress
Ans: C
32. Check the following statements:
1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be aware of personal
performance degradation
2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes after awaking from a
short sleep (nap)
A – 1 and 3 are both correct
B – 1 is correct
C – 2 is correct
D – 1 and 2 are both not correct
Ans: A
Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking
experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are:
 1. nervousness and channelised attention
2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
4. airsickness, lack of sleep
A – 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
B – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
C – 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
Ans: B
33. The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress.
This mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to by Selye as the
General Adaptation Syndrome. The sequence is:
A – alarm phase – denial phase – exhaustion phase
B – alarm phase – resistance phase – exhaustion phase
C – exhaustion phase – resistance phase – adaptation phase
D – resistance phase – exhaustion phase – recovery phase
Ans: B
34. Please check the following statements:
1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional stressors can be
manifested in organic stress reactions
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is always followed by
psychological stress
A – 1 is false 2 is correct
B – 1 is correct, 2 is false
C – 1 and 2 are false
D – 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: B
In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing,
circadian rhythms require:
A – less time when flying from east to west
B – more time when flying from east to west
C – about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
D – about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift
Ans: A
35. The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more
difficult:
A – with flights towards the North
B – with flights towards the South
C – with flights towards the East
D – with flights towards the West
Ans: C
36. What are easily observable indications of stress?
A – Lowering of the blood pressure
B – Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart
C – Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the
heart
D – Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing
Ans: D
37. A fatigued pilot:
A – considerably increases the ability to concentrate
 B – will show signs of increased irritability
C – is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
D – will get pre-cordial pain
Ans: B
The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to
this new time zone at a rate of about:
A – 1 – 1.5 hours a day
B – 2 – 2.5 hours a day
C – 3 – 3.5 hours a day
D – 4 – 4.5 hours a day
Ans: A
38. The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by:
A – the amount of time you have been awake
B – the number of points you have in your credit/deficit system
C – the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
D – the duration of your previous sleep
Ans: C
39. How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?
A – Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the
entire body and improves wellness
B – Use moderate administration of tranquilisers before flight
C – Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical exercise
D – Always consult a psychotherapist before the next fligh
Ans: A
40. The behavioural effects of stress may include:
1. manifestation of aggressiveness
2. a willingness to improve communication
3. a willingness for group cohesion
4. a tendency to withdrawal
5. inappropriate gestural agitation
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 4 and 5 are correct
B – 1 and 4 are correct
C – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 4 and 5 are correct
Ans: A
41. The cognitive effects of stress may include:
1. excessive haste
2. an improvement in memory
3. a complete block: action is impossible
4. a risk of focussing on a particular aspect
5. ease of decision-making
6. an increase in the rate of mistakes
The combination which brings together all correct statements is:
A – 3, 4, 5
B – 1, 3, 4, 6
C – 1, 2, 5
D – 2, 3, 5, 6
Ans: B
What is the effect of stress on performance?
 1. It always reduces performance
2. Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal
3. Excessive stress weakens performance
4. Insufficient stress weakens performance
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 2, 3
B – 1, 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 4
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: D
42. Stress appears:
1. Only in a situation of imminent danger
2. Only when faced with real, existing and palpable phenomenon
3. Sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a situation or its outcome
4. Because of the similarity with a formerly experienced stressful situation
The correct statement(s) is (are):
A – 1, 2, 4
B – 3, 4
C – 1, 2
D – 2, 3
Ans: B
43. Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on :
A – the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope
with it
B – the evaluation of the situation and the state of fatigue of the individual
C – the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available
D – the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the
environment
Ans: A
44. Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?
A – Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one’s own work
B – Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or
reduces performance
C – Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and
behavioural performance
D – Stress is evaluated as a positive mechanism only in connection with
precise tasks of the kind encountered in aeronautics
Ans: B
45. Acute stress quickly leads to:
A – a state of over-activation beyond the control of willpower
B – the mobilisation of resources required to cope with the stressor
C – a decrease in the amount of resources mobilised to face the situation
D – a permanent state of incapacitation
Ans: B
46. What is a stressor?
A – A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
B – The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
C – An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as
being stressful
D – All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal
 equilibrium
Ans: C
47. What triggers stress in humans?
A – Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (eg
rapid heart rate)
B – The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
C – Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective
perceptions
D – Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the
smell of smoke
Ans: B
48. Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct?
A – Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
B – Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performance
C – Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in
attention capabilities
D – Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or
in poor management of intellectual capabilities
Ans: D
49. Experiencing stress depends on:
A – the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation
B – the individuals state of tiredness
C – the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or
is in the process of living through
D – the individual interpretation of the situation
Ans: D
50. Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. This reaction:
A – can only be controlled by medical treatment
B – is purely physiological and automatic
C – may include various psychological and physiological elements which one
can learn to manage
D – is always linked to excessive fear
Ans: C
51. The individual’s perception of stress depends on:
A – the objective evaluation of the situation and one’s abilities to cope with it
B – the pilot’s increasing level of arousal
C – the conditions of the current situation only
D – the subjective evaluation of the situation and one’s abilities to cope with it
Ans: D
52. General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases:
1. alarm
2. alert phase
3. resistance phase
4. exhaustion phase
5. vigilance phase
A – 2, 3, 4
B – 1, 2, 4, 5
C – 2, 3, 4, 5
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: D
53. 1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night
2. REM-sleep is more important or the regeneration of mental and physical
functions that all the other sleep stages are.
A – 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
B – 1 and 2 are false
C – 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
D – 1 nd 2 are both correct
Ans: C
54. According to the different phases of the General Adaptation Syndrome check
the following statements:
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (ie. adrenalin) will cause a
massive release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and
blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different
type of hormone (cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing
sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for sustained operation
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given time to eliminate the
waste products which have been generated excessively during the two
proceeding phases
A – 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
D – Only 1 is correct
Ans: B
55. f coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
A – eustress
B – distress
C – adaptation
D – hypoxia
Ans: B
56. The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful:
A – depends on the individual’s perception of available abilities in comparison
to the situational demands
B – does not depend on his capacity to absorb information
C – depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the
situational demands
D – depends on self-confidence alone
Ans: A
57. What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?
1. increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion
2. an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of glucose
3. a decrease in stress resistance
4. activation of the digestive system
5. secretion of cortisol to mobilise attention
6. The combination of correct statements is:
A – 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B – 4, 5
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 1, 4
ns: C
58. In order to minimise the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a
layover more than 24 hours, it is advisable to:
1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure country for as long as
possible
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking, sleeping, alternation and regular
meal pattern)
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome negative arousal effects
A – 1, 2, 3, 4
B – 2, 3
C – 1, 2
D – 2, 4
Ans: B
59. Define arousal:
A – Arousal can be defined as an individual’s preparedness for a difficult task
B – A high arousal level usually indicates either a high level of activity or
preparedness for a high level of activity
C – A high level of arousal is usually accompanied by a high level of vigilance
and is generally the opposite of drowsiness or day-dreaming
D – All of the above is correct
Ans: D
60. A pilot successfully completes a difficult and stressful landing at an
aerodrome. The next time a landing is attempted under the same conditions
and at the same aerodrome, is the pilot likely to experience:
A – a higher level of stress
B – a lower level of stress
C – the same stress level as the first landing
D – the pilot should only attempt a landing at the same aerodrome if the
conditions are improved
Ans: B
61. Among the physiological responses to stress are:
A – dry mouth, anxiety and sweating
B – increased heart rate, apprehension and sweating
C – sweating, dry mouth and breathing difficulties
D – anxiety, fatigue and fear
Ans: C
62. Cognitive Coping is associated with:
A – a deliberate removal of the stressor
B – eliminating the source of the stressor
C – ignoring or rationalising the stress factor
D – taking medicine to relieve the effects of stress
Ans: C
63. Disturbance of the biological clock is most likely to appear after a:
1. bad night’s sleep
2. day flight Amsterdam – New York
3. day flight Amsterdam – Johannesburg
4. night flight New York – Amsterdam
A – 2 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2 and 3 are correct
C – 1 and 3 are correct
 D – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: A
64. During the cruise, at night, when the workload is low, it is recommended that:
A – the lighting in the cockpit be increased in order to prevent low vigilance
B – the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to reduce visual fatigue
C – the lighting in the cockpit be dimmed in order to prevent low vigilance
D – only those instruments that are vital to flying the aircraft be lit in order to
avoid dividing one’s attention
Ans: A
65. Environmental sources of stress in the cockpit could be:
1. noise and vibration
2. acceleration
3. radiation
4. extreme temperatures
Which of the following lists all the correct answers?
A – 1 and 4
B – 1, 2 and 3
C – 2 and 3
D – 1, 2 and 4
Ans: D
66. Fatigue and stress
A – lower the tolerance to hypoxia
B – increase the tolerance to hypoxia
C – do not affect hypoxia at all
D – will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15,000 feet
Ans: A
67. General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases:
1. alarm
2. alert phase
3. resistance phase
4. exhaustion phase
5. vigilance phase
A – 2, 3, 4, 5
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 2, 4, 5
D – 1, 3, 4
Ans: D
68. In order to limit stress when flying, a pilot should:
A – drop activities outside work so as to focus on his work better
B – forget about bad past experiences
C – avoid anticipating events during a flight to manage his workload
D – maintain his competence by practicing his professional skills and learning
from past experiences
Ans: D
69. In the case of changes to circadian rhythms, the re-adjustment to a new time
zone:
A – occurs immediately, as circadian rhythms do not change depending on
direction of flying
B – is most rapid when flying eastbound
C – is the same in both westbound and eastbound flights
 D – is most rapid when flying westbound
Ans: D
70. It is generally considered that the most serious non-professional stressor is:
A – loss of a job
B – personal injury or illness
C – marital separation
D – death of a spouse or partner
Ans: D
Of the following statements regarding stress, which is correct?
A – Stress and anxiety are the same in every sense
B – Stress and fatigue are synonymous
C – Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative
D – Stress always has a negative effect on performance
Ans: C
71. Physical stress takes place when:
A – the perceived demand is greater than the perceived ability
B – the brain can no longer cope due to either quantitative or qualitative
overload
C – outside conditions put a strain upon the homeostatic mechanisms of the
body
D – overload of the neurones in the nervous system
Ans: C
72. Physiological stressors include:
A – Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
B – Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
C – Heat, humidity, fatigue, administrative problems
D – Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
Ans: B
73. Pilot stress reactions:
A – are related to an internationally recognised list of stressors where the top-
ten items should be avoided by every means
B – seem to be the same for most pilots
C – differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the
particular stressors
D – do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with
the characters themselves
Ans: C
74. Select from the following list of environmental stressors:
1. Heat
2. Humidity
3. Divorce
4. Lack of rest
5. Loss of job
6. Noise
A – 1, 2, 3, 6
B – 1, 2, 6
C – 1, 2, 4, 6
D – 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
Ans: B
75. Signs of stress include:
 A – Perspiration, dry mouth, dilated pupils, fast breathing
B – Lowering of the blood pressure
C – Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart
D – Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the
heart
Ans: A
76. Stress is:
A – a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a
reduction in his performance
B – a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
C – a mechanism by which an individual can respond to situations which
he/she may have to face
D – a phenomenon which is specific to modern man
Ans: C
77. Stress may cause Regression which can lead to:
A – an improvement in performance
B – correct actions being forgotten and substituted for procedures learnt in the
past
C – a more efficient use of mental capacity
D – experimentation and trying out of new ideas
Ans: B
78. The “Break Point” is that point after which, if stress continues to rise:
A – performance peaks and remains at this level
B – performance is enhanced
C – performance is degraded
D – performance is initially degraded and is then enhanced
Ans: C
79. The first cockpit tool that tends to suffer as a result of stress:
A – Cockpit synergy
B – Cockpit communications
C – Cockpit cohesion
D – Cockpit entity
Ans: B
80. The normal sleep cycle is approximately every ___ minutes
A – 180
B – 60
C – 120
D – 90
Ans: D
81. The resistance phase of stress:
A – may cause a person to die by stopping the defence mechanisms of the
body
B – is characterised by the secretion of adrenalin, increased heart rate and
bloods pressure
C – allows fats to be transformed into sugars, thereby prolonging the
mobilisation of energy in the body
D – is very short duration and is unlikely to give a pilot the opportunity to
resolve a problem
Ans: C
82. The two types of fatigue are:
 A – Chronic short-term and acute
B – Short-term and oppressive
C – Oppressive and negative
D – heavy and light
Ans: A
83. To resynchronise a circadian rhythm, it takes more time after:
A – south-north flights
B – westbound flights
C – north-south flights
D – eastbound flights
Ans: D
84. What are the effects of excessive stress?
A – It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus
attention inappropriately
B – It reduces vigilance and focuses attention
C – It activates resources stored in memory
D – it has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
Ans: A
85. What are the main effects of a lack of sleep on performance?
A – It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress
management by muscular relaxation
B – It increases fatigue, reduces concentration and increases the risk of
sensory illusions and mood disorders
C – It causes muscular spasms
D – It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48
hours
Ans: B
86. What seems to be the main role of orthodox sleep?
A – It essentially allows for physical recovery
B – it includes physical and mental recuperation associated with fatigue
C – Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and
restoration of attention capabilities
D – Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream
phases and paradoxical phases
Ans: A
87. What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of
stress?
A – A non-sequenced strategy
B – A strategy of preparing decisions
C – A Laissez-faire strategy
D – A strategy of no commitment
Ans: B
88. When can the General Adaptation Syndrome activate?
A – Responding to boredom
B – Responding to Circadian Disrhythmia
C – Responding to an imaginary threat
D – Responding to Hypovigilance
Ans: C
89. When faced with sustained cold temperature, how does the body resist this
physical stress:
 A – By increasing cardiac frequency
B – By vasodilatation which permits a greater flow of blood to the periphery
C – By speeding up the metabolic rate in the Autonomic Nervous System
D – By intense vasoconstriction
Ans: D
90. Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?
1. Stress Factors (stressors)
2. Errors
3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning
4. Human conflict
5. Colour blindness
A – 2, 3 and 5 only
B – 1, 2 and 3 only
C – 1 and 2 only
D – 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: D
91. Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?
1. Keep active open communication between man and machine
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising
A – 1, 3
B – 1, 2
C – 1, 4
D – 3, 4
Ans: C
92. Which of the following list are symptoms of fatigue?
1. Diminished accommodation
2. Slowed reactions
3. Long-term memory access problems
4. Being over talkative
5. Diminished motor skills
A – 1, 2, 3, 5
B – 1, 2, 4
C – All of the above
D – 2, 5 only
Ans: A
93. Which of the following list may stress effect?
1. Attention
2. Concentration
3. Memory
4. Judgement
A – 1 and 4 are correct
B – 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 1 and 3 are correct
D – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: B
94. Which of the following statements is false?
A – Behaviour is generally the outcome of personality and attitude
 B – Stress has essentially negative effects and the human will operate
efficiently with an absence of stress
C – Human conflict tends to escalate
D – The initial effects of carbon monoxide poisoning are not immediately
alarming
Ans: B
95. Which statement about acute or chronic fatigue is INCORRECT?
A – Chronic fatigue may be caused by inadequate recuperation from periods
of acute fatigue
B – Acute fatigue generally has psychological roots
C – Chronic fatigue may lead to a person being totally apathetic and
indifferent to what goes on around them
D – Acute fatigue is felt after a period of significant exertion or emotional
excitement
Ans: B
040-03-07 Advanced cockpit automation
1. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by
automatic systems than by people?
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (eg. holding of trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded (eg. holding of
flight path)
4. Qualitative decision-making
A – 3, 4
B – 2, 4
C – 1, 2, 3
D – 2, 3, 4
Ans: C
2. Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation?
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the aircraft
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming automatic systems
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
4. General decrease in technical reliability
A – 1, 4
B – 1, 2
C – 2, 3, 4
D – 1, 3
Ans: B
3. If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man:
A – has less effective means of data collection that the computer
B – has less effective means of action (output) than the computer
C – has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of
considerably synergy
D – is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data
collection or means of action are referred to
Ans: C
4. The workload may be said to:
1. Be acceptable if it requires more than 90% of the crew resources
2. Be acceptable if it requires about 60% of the crew resources
 3. Depend on the pilot’s expertise
4. Correspond to the amount of resources available. The combination of
correct statements is:
A – 1 and 3 are correct
B – 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C – 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D – 2 and 4 are correct
Ans: C
5. What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces
and in the creation of their application procedures for combating problems
associated with human error?
A – To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing
serious consequences
B – To eliminate the risk of latent errors occurring
C – To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse
their nature and modify ergonomic parameters
D – To put in place redundant alarm systems
Ans: A
6. What I meant by the term complacency?
A – To question possible solutions
B – Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
C – An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources
Management
D – Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying
Ans: B
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the
pilots in a way, that:
A – it is guaranteed that the crew maintains always situational awareness
B – the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the
consequences of being out of the loop
C – Crew Co-ordination can be neglected on long haul flights without
compromising safety
D – the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal
situation without monitoring the automatic systems
Ans: B
7. How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?
A – Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loop
B – Nothing, because it is system-inherent
C – Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be
cross checked as well
D – Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low
workload periods
Ans: C
8. The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
A – facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for
communication on the flight deck
B – considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crew
C – reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in inter-personal
relations
D – improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations
 Ans: A
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is
the result of:
1. Tolerance of the various systems to errors
2. The sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities
3. The reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links
4. The alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface
The combination of correct statements is:
A – 3 and 4
B – 2 and 4
C – 1, 2 and 4
D – 1 and 3
Ans: B
9. Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by
people
than by automatic systems?
1. Qualitative decision-making
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc)
A – 3, 4
B – 2, 3, 4
C – 1, 4
D – 1, 2
Ans: C
10. List advantages of automation:
A – Reduced workload, more time to monitor systems, and when managed
properly better situational awareness
B – Easy to learn
C – Automation will generally help pilots to make last minute changes
D – All of the above are correct
Ans: A
11. List automation disadvantages:
A – It can be difficult to make last minute changes
B – It can be difficult to understand all the modes
C – Flight crew can lose situational awareness if they are complacent
D – All of the above are correct
Ans: D
12. Define complacency:
A – A state of over arousal caused by: Stress, high workload and too
complicated tasks
B – Not paying attention and simply not using the senses properly
C – A state of mind that can occur during routine operations
D – B and C are correct
Ans: D
13. Too high workload can cause several problems. Which problem has been
a
contributing factor in many accidents?
A – Loss of situational awareness
B – Poor visual scanning for other aeroplanes
 C – Hurry up errors
D – Incapacitation
Ans: A
14. Define automation complacency:
A – Automation complacency can be caused by systems that are designed too
complicated
B – Automation complacency occurs when one crew member is programming
the automatic system in a complicated manner. Other crew members may
not be able to understand such complicated use of automation
C – Automation complacency may occur because some flights are so
completely automated, that pilots get tired from passive scanning, this can
cause automation fatigue
D – Boredom and automation complacency may occur because some portions
of flights are so completely automated, that pilots are loulled into
inattention and are either bored or complaced
Ans: D
15. What is automation mode awareness?
A – It refers to what mode of awareness a crew has during automated flight
B – Examples of mode awareness include vigilance and situational awareness
C – Being aware of the active mode(s) and understanding the corresponding
actions and responses is necessary for proper use of the automated system
D – A and B are correct
Ans: C
16. Which statement about automation is correct?
A – Pilots that always use autopilots can become less confident in their own
basic airmanship skills
B – High performing crews thoroughly discuss FMS and automation usage
ahead of automation set up and especially before arrival
C – The new generation of automated aircraft have generally demonstrated an
improved safety record
D – All of the above are correct
Ans: D
17. One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in:
A – pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
B – complacency among the crew members
C – constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks
D – less experienced crews because of more transparent system details
Ans: B
18. The level of automation helps to conserve resources. On the other hand, it
may result in:
A – routine errors (slips)
B – behavioural errors
C – decision-making errors
D – errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
Ans: A